MTAP-RATIOS-TEN8IOUS.pdf

medical technology assessment program 2 rationalization Exam 1 (January: QA and QC) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following statements does not follow the media quality control in microbiology laboratory? The medium should be selected for QC using one criter...

medical technology assessment program 2 rationalization Exam 1 (January: QA and QC) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following statements does not follow the media quality control in microbiology laboratory? The medium should be selected for QC using one criterion on sterility 2. Preventive maintenance from heat in microbiology operations indicates maintenance performance in which of the following intervals? Monthly 3. QC performance on staining procedures in microbiology laboratory should be done in which of the following intervals? Daily 4. Which of the following can be the test organism used in the QC testing for chocolate agar? Neisseria meningitidis 5. Which of the following content in the Mueller-Hinton agar for antimicrobial susceptibility testing increases the sensitivity of the test to sulfonamides and trimethoprim antimicrobials when added in reduced amounts? Thymidine 6. Which of the following is considered a primary reason for a failed QC testing result in microbiology laboratory? Stock culture failure 7. Which of the following term refers to ability in the test to detect only the analyze of interest? Specificity 8. Which of the following patterns of investigation in microbiology laboratory is correct in the identification of the isolate? Preliminary, Confirmatory, Definitive 9. Which of the following organisms is used to monitor the thymidine content of MH agar in susceptibility testing? Enterococcus faecalis ATCC 29212 10. Which of the following culture media can be a good medium of choice for the subculture of organisms that utilize sugars? Cystine tryptic agar without carbohydrates 11. The following microbiology laboratory reagents should undergo QC to testing before any patient result is released except? None of the above 12. Which of the following susceptibility system variables is the most important affecting the accuracy of the test result? Cation content 13. The following temperature-dependent equipment in microbiology laboratory should undergo daily temperature checks except? None of the above 14. In the disposal of chemical wastes incurred in the urinalysis laboratory, the following are taken into consideration except? None of the above 15. Which of the following is the correct protocol to observe in handling chemical spills in urinalysis laboratory? Refer to the MSDS of the chemical involved 16. Which of the following is the correct protocol when body fluids spills of large amounts of protein are encountered in the clinical microscopy laboratory? Absorb the spill with solid absorbent material first then decontaminant 17. In the color-coding scheme of waste disposal, which trash bin is for wastes generated from the urinalysis laboratory? Yellow 18. Which of the following urinalysis test parameters should follow a standardized terminology in the reporting of result? Clarity 19. Which of the following term is correct when QA and QC measures in urinalysis laboratory exceeded the acceptable tolerance limit? Corrective action 20. Used thermometers in urinalysis laboratory should undergo performance checks in which of the following frequency intervals? Initially then annually 21. The following variables affect the accuracy of microscopic examination of urine sediments except? Collection procedures 22. QNS in urinalysis laboratory is a strict criterion for which of the following? Specimen rejection 23. Compliance programs of blood bank laboratories are required by the following accreditation standards except? None of the above 24. The following blood bank reagents indicated to the respective laboratory tests require QA indicators except? Cyanmethemoglobin test 25. New processes in the blood bank lab should undergo which of the following before implementation? Validation 26. When a blood donor information was not completely extracted like taking medication and illness during the screening process, which of the following non-conformance type is correct for this situation? Post donation 27. Non-conformance types in the blood bank produces which of the following direct problems? Error in the manufacture of blood components 28. Which of the following reagents in the blood bank lab is most important to comply with QC test standards in order to prevent problems in the compatibility of blood products to recipients? Blood typing sera 29. This protocol in blood bank laboratory QMS enables the blood bank lab to comply at all times with its own QA and QC measures? Internal assessment 30. DOH proficiency testing on any blood bank laboratory is under the purview of which of the following QMS processes? External assessment 31. Which of the following types of equipment are mostly calibrated and undergoing performance checks in the blood bank laboratory? Temperature-dependent equipment  32. The following are QA activities indicated on blood components except? Reagent antisera MATCHING TYPE 33. True value: 22; Results of the test: 21, 23, 21, 22→ Accuracy, Precision 34. True value: 56; Results of the test: 55, 55, 55, 55→ Accuracy, Precision 35. True value: 88; Results of the test: 101, 101, 101, 101→ Precision 36. Delta value fails. The results of the test are said to be inconsistent with? Precision 37. Results of No. 35 can be reported→ True 38. Results of the situation in No. 36 can be reported→ False 39. Results of No. 33 cannot be reported→ False 40. Results of No. 34 can be reported→ True MULTIPLE CHOICE 41. Cumulative sum detects which of the following QC errors? Bias trend 42. Which of the following terms is associated to QC alert? QC fail 43. R4S multirule in QC detects which of the following variability in the results? Imprecision 44. Optimum counting in counting WBC in hematology analyzer makes use of the following principles? Flow cytometry 45. Which of the following is a requirement in hospital-based clinical laboratories for the differential count procedure? 5-part automated differential count 46. What is the SI unit of reporting PCV? L/L 47. What is the total magnification lens required in performing leukocyte type number fraction? 1000X 48. When is absolute WBC count reported? When requested, When relative count shows abnormal result 49. When variant lymphocytes are seen in the differentials, which of the following is the way of reporting it? Reactive lymphocyte 50. EDTA samples kept in room temperature are still viable for retesting for up to how many hours? 2 hours 51. The performance report of one laboratory compared to the performance report of another lab is assessed by which of the following? Standard Deviation Index 52. 12S Westgard rule can be associated to which of the following? Patient result can be reported 53. The following are submitted to performance check as part of the QC system in histopathology laboratory except? Waterbath 54. Which of the following substances can aid in the cleaning of OIO? Xylol TRUE OR FALSE 55. Special stains to identify specific tissue should be run in parallel with a control. True 56. Tolerance limited values are acceptable limit values to the adverse effects of the chemical. False 57. CJD are associated to spore-forming organisms. False 58. Irritation is the commonly encountered problem in histopathology laboratory. True 59. Liquid nitrogen for cryostat procedures is run in parallel with a control. True 60. The QC protocol in the care of microscope for hematology use is also the same for histopathology use. True  medical technology assessment program 2 rationalization Exam 2 (February: Clinical Microscopy) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The first voided morning urine specimen is the most desirable specimen for routine urinalysis because of which of the following reason? Most concentrated specimen of the day therefore more likely that abnormalities will be detected 2. The physical characteristic of color is assessed when routine urinalysis is performed. The substance normally found in urine responsible for the yellow color is? Urochrome 3. In certain malignant disorders, a substance is found in urine that turns the urine dark brown or black. This substance is? Melanin 4. The pH of freshly voided urine specimen ranges between? 4.5 and 8.0 5. If urine specimens are allowed to stand at room temperature for an excessive amount of time, urine pH will become alkaline because of bacterial decomposition of which of the following? Urea 6. A volume in excess of 2000 mL of urine excreted over a 24-hour period is known as? Polyuria 7. Isosthenuria is a term to apply to a series of specimen that exhibits which of the following? Fixed specific gravity of approximately 1.010 8. A urine specimen that exhibits yellow foam on being shaken is suspected to having? Bilirubin 9. To ensure the precision and accuracy of the reagent strips, it is necessary that? Positive and negative controls be run on daily basis 10. The colorimetric reagent strip test for protein is able to detect as little as 15-20 mg of protein per deciliter. False positive readings may be obtained when? Urine pH is greater than 8.0 11. The reagent strips used for the detection of protein in urine are most reactive to which of the following? Albumin 12. A urine specimen tested by the reagent strip test and the SSA test to determine whether protein is present. The former yields a negative result whereas the latter results in a reading of 2+. A protein other than albumin must be present in the urine 13. Two different methods are used to assess the presence of glucose in urine. A reagent strip yields negative result, but a positive result with Benedict’s test. A non-glucose reducing substance is present in the urine sample 14. When the renal threshold for glucose is exceeded, glucose will be excreted in the urine. The principle of the reagent strip for the detection of glucose is based on? Glucose oxidase-peroxidase 15. The presence of ketone bodies in the urine specimen may be detected by the use of reagent strip impregnated with sodium nitroprusside. This strip is sensitive to the presence of which of the following? Acetoacetic acid and acetone 16. A routine urinalysis is performed on a young child suffering from diarrhea. The reagent test strips is negative for glucose but positive for ketones. These results may be explained by which of the following statements? The child is suffering from increased catabolism of fat because of decreased intestinal absorption 17. The principle of the colorimetric reagent strip for hemoglobin is based on the peroxidase activity of hemoglobin in catalyzing the oxidation of ortho-toluidine with peroxide to form a blue compound. This method may yield false-positive result when urine contain which of the following? Myoglobin 18. A reagent strip impregnated with diazonium salt such as diazotized 2,4-dichloroaniline may be used to determine which of the following analytes? Bilirubin 19. The reagent strip commonly used for detection of urobilinogen are impregnated with? Paradimethylaminobenzaldehyde 20. With infections of the urinary system, white blood cells are frequently seen in the urine sediment. The type of white blood cell seen most frequently in urine is? Neutrophil 21. To quantify formed elements, which of the following procedures is used? Addis count 22. The identification of unstained cellular components and cast in urine provides a practical method for the detection of formed elements. The microscopic technique used for this procedure is? Phase-contrast microscopy 23. Substances found in urinary sediments that are more easily distinguished by use of polarized microscopy are? Lipids 24. Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of which of the following? Neutrophil 25. The final phase of degeneration that granular casts undergo is represented by which of the following? Waxy 26. A condition characterized by an increased excretion of protein in the urine sediment during the day while at night is a normal excretion of protein known as? Orthostatic proteinuria 27. Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin in urine specimen indicates? Hydatidiform mole 28. Alkaptonuria is characterized by urinary excretion of which of the following? Homogentisic acid 29. Excessive fat metabolism, as is seen in diabetes mellitus, is indicated by the presence in the urine of? Ketone bodies 30. Metastatic carcinoid tumors arising from the enterochromaffin cells of the GIT are characterized by increased excretion of urinary? 5- hydroxyindoleaceticacid 31. Increased amounts of the metabolite para-hydroxyphenyllactic acid are excreted in the urine in which disorder? Tyrosinosis 32. Nitrite in a urine specimen suggests the presence of which of the following? Bacteria  33. If fasting plasma glucose of 100 mg/dL is obtained, expected fasting CSF glucose would be? 65 34. To preserve the sensitivity of the reagent test strips, it is necessary that the strips be? Protected from excessive heat 35. Which of the following crystals may be found in normal acid urine? Calcium oxalate 36. Crystals found in normal alkaline urine include which of the following? Triple phosphate 37. Physical appearance of urine is such that majority will appear clear. Cloudiness in a urine specimen may be seen due to the presence of which of the following? Amorphous phosphates 38. If a urine specimen is left standing at room temperature for several hours, which of the following changes may occur? Multiplication of bacteria 39. The diluting and concentrating ability of kidneys may be measured by which of the following tests? Specific gravity 40. Positive results on Benedict's test would be obtained if the urine sample contains? Ascorbic acid 41. Examination of fecal material is generally performed to? Identify parasites 42. Which assay is probably performed on plural, pericardial, and peritoneal fluids? Total protein 43. Which anticoagulant should be used for synovial fluid analysis? Heparin 44. Which method will quantitate protein in both CSF and urine specimen? Coomassie brilliant blue and SSA 45. Estimation of hyaluronic acid concentration in synovial fluid is done by which of the following? Viscosity MULTIPLE MATCHING TYPE 46. CSF→ Xanthochromia 51. L/S ratio→ Mature fetal lungs 47. Amniotic fluid→ FLM tests 52. Nigrosin stain→ Morphologic evaluation 48. 3.5 divided by 1.5→ L/S ratio 53. Inflammation or Infection→ Effusion 49. Seminal fluid→ Nigrosin stain 54. Xanthochromia→ Oxyhemoglobin 50. Exudate→ Inflammation or Infection 55. FLM tests→ Prevent RDS  medical technology assessment program 2 rationalization Exam 3 (March: Microbiology) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Most useful finding for prompt presumptive identification of Canada albicans is it production of? Germ tube 2. Which of the following specie of fungus is encapsulated, urease positive, produces mucoid, red colonies? Cryptococcus neoformans 3. Broad coenocytic hyphae found in tissue would be typical of infection with? Rhizopus 4. A fungus infecting only skin and nails typically produces in culture? Large thin-walled club-shaped conidia without microconidia 5. Use of cell culture has enabled microbiologists to isolate and identify many clinically important viruses. However, in some diseases, the agents are best diagnosed by serologic testing. Such an agent is? Hepatitis A 6. Viruses has been successfully detected by the use of all of the following except? Growth on selective agar media 7. The acidophilic inclusion bodies that are pathognomonic of rabies are? Negri bodies 8. Infectious agents of Hepatitis B is presumed to be? Dane particle 9. For non-specific staining of Rickettsia, the recommended stain is? Gimenez stain 10. Causative agent of scrub typhus, the rickettsia disease prevalent in the Far East that is similar to spotted fever? Rickettsia tsutsugamushi 11. A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in differentiating species of? Streptococcus 12. Streptococcus pyogenes organisms are most commonly identified by their susceptibility to a? 0.04 bacitracin disc 13. Cauliflower colonies is characteristic of? Mycobacterium tuberculosis 14. In the CAMP test, a single streak of beta-hemolytic Streptococcus is perpendicular to a beta-lectin producing Staphylococcus aureus. After incubation, a zone of increased lysis in the shape of an arrowhead is noted. This is presumptive identification of? Streptococcus agalactiae 15. A gram-negative kidney bean cellular morphology is distinguishing characteristic of? Neisseria species 16. Shigella sonnei is differentiated from other species by? Its ability to ferment lactose 17. The typical colonial characteristic of Klebsiella pneumoniae on EMB is? Large mucoid colonies 18. Which of the following tests would be appropriate in the diagnosis of mycobacterial infection? PPD test 19. On gram stain, morphology resembles seagull wing. This is characteristic of? Campylobacter jejuni 20. Which of the following Mycobacteria appears as buff-colored colonies after several weeks on culture and is niacin positive? Mycobacterium tuberculosis 21. A bamboo fishing pole is the most common description of? Bacillus anthracis 22. Which of the following would be described as resembling Chinese letters? Corynebacterium diphtheriae 23. Mycobacterium leprae is seen as packets of cigar on? Acid-fast staining 24. Yellow-colored colonies on thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose agar typically produced by? Vibrio cholerae 25. Colonies that resemble droplets of mercury are? Bordetella pertussis 26. Susceptibility to ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride is a presumptive test for? Streptococcus pneumoniae 27. Which of the following is most appropriate for rapid, presumptive identification of Clostridium perfringens? Naegler test 28. When reading a tube dilution test, one observes that tube 5 demonstrates no observable growth. Therefore, one determines the amount of antibiotics in tube represents? Minimum Inhibitory Concentration 29. The broth culture of a test organism for use in tube dilution is adjusted to match the turbidity of? 0.5 McFarland standard 30. Select from the list of antibiotics given one that does not act as an inhibitor of protein synthesis. Ciprofloxacin 31. Rapid testing for beta-lactamase production is recommended prior to initiation of antimicrobial therapy for unknown isolate except? Streptococcus pyogenes 32. Which of the following broth is known to be active against parasitic infection has importance as a therapeutic agent in cases of disease caused by anaerobic bacteria? Metronidazole 33. Which of the following organisms is not gram-positive? Vibrio cholerae 34. The finding of 5-6 acid-fast bacilli for OIO should be reported as? Numerous AFB 35. Which of the following organisms would produce acid butt/alkaline slant, slight blackening of the butt, and no gas in the tube of TSI? Salmonella typhi 36. A spiral-shaped bacillus seen from a patient complaining from epigastric pain is probably due to peptic ulcer disease? Helicobacter pylori 37. Infection may occur as a result of accidental needlestick or through broken glass. This is classified as which of the following routes? Direct inoculation 38. Universal precautions states that? Blood and body fluid precautions must be observed for all patient’s blood and body fluid specimens 39. Which germicide is intended to destroy all microorganisms and their spores on inanimate surfaces? Sterilizers 40. Biosafety level that includes most common lab microorganisms and involves organisms such as HBV, HIV, and enteric pathogens? BSL-2 41. Which of the following is not considered a sterile site? Oral cavity 42. General guidelines for collection of blood cultures states? 2-3 sets per 24 hours are usually submitted to diagnose bacteremia 43. Which of the following should be monitored as part of the quality control program in the microbiology laboratory? All of the above 44. Quality assurance testing requires selecting an organism that will demonstrate a positive reaction on a citrate agar slant. Select the organism that will give a positive reaction. Klebsiella pneumoniae 45. In capnophilic incubators, carbon dioxide concentration should be? 5 and 10% 46. If a semisolid stool specimen cannot be examined within 1 hour after collection? Refrigerate specimen up to 4 hours 47. In the flotation method for concentration of stool specimen? Parasitic forms flow to the top of the solution 48. Modified acid-fast stain is used in parasitology to identify? Cryptosporidium and other coccidian 49. A pear-shaped flagellate with an undulating membrane extending one-half of the length of its body with 4 recurring flagella, no anterior flagellum. Trichomonas vaginalis 50. Observation of spheroplasts in packets of two to three or a maltase-cross formation in stained blood films. Babesia microti 51. The hemoflagellate form characterized by oval-shaped nucleus and kinetoplasts found intracellularly in human macrophages. Amastigote form 52. Enterobius vermicularis usually diagnosed by? Finding eggs in perianal specimen 53. Best direct diagnosis of Echinococcus granulosis infection is identification of? Hydatid cyst in tissues 54. Because of fecal contamination, a urine specimen may contain the flagellate? Trichomonas hominins 55. Which of the following is typical of the cyst of Iodamoeba butschlii? Glycogen mass 56. Which is most dependable for accurate specific diagnosis of intestinal amebic infection? Permanently-stained smear 57. Observation of embryonic flame cell activity is recommended to demonstrate viability of eggs of? Schistosoma 58. Which of the following helminths produce an elongate barrel-shaped eggs with colorless polar plug at each end? Trichuris trichiura 59. Decontamination of drinking water, fruits, and vegetables before consumption is necessary in places without well-developed public sanitation. Which of the following diseases would probably be least affected by that kind of precaution? Ascariasis 60. The string test for obtaining a small specimen of duodenal contents would be most appropriate with? Giardia lamblia  medical technology assessment program 2 rationalization Exam 4 (April: Immunology and Serology/Blood Banking) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the most likely source of bacterial contamination in transfusion? Processing of blood under open system 2. the principle of indirect antiglobulin test is applied in the following tests except? Investigation of HDN 3. Rh HDN occurs in what type of mother and child? Mother is Rh (-), Child is Rh (+) 4. The immunodeficient sugar that confers specificity to the A antigen. N-acetylglucosamine (BONUS--should be N-acetylgalactosamine) 5. The Castañeda strip test is used in screening for? Leptospirosis 6. This serves as the precursor antigen in the formation of A and B antigens? H 7. Which of the following about FFP is correct? All of the above (Thawed at 37°C with constant agitation, Thawing may require 30 to 45 minutes, Thawed FFP should be used as soon as possible) 8. Which of these groups of antibodies are classified as high titer low avidity (HTLA) antibodies? Anti-Chido, Anti-Rogers, Anti-York 9. Saline-reactive naturally occurring agglutinins has been identified in? Kidd system 10. Which of the following phenotypes show natural resistance of red cells against P. vivax infections? Fy (a-b-) 11. In which immunoglobulin is the transport piece component found? IgA 12. The human ABO blood group is discovered by? Landsteiner 13. Witebsky substance can neutralize? Anti-A and Anti-B 14. A false negative serologic reaction is sometimes caused by excess amount of reagent red cells. This is called? Post zone 15. What component is selected for the treatment of Hemophilia B? Factor IX concentrate 16. The common cause of hemolytic transfusion reaction. Error in crossmatching 17. False-positive Coomb’s test can occur in this condition? All options are correct 18. Confirmatory typing of ABO blood group includes the use of these cells as control? O cells 19. Procedure in which whole blood is removed from an individual, anticoagulated, and separated into components. Hemapheresis/Apheresis 20. Which of the following solutions is the only solution that can be added to blood or its components before or during transfusion? Normal saline 21. The minimum hemoglobin of an acceptable female donor is? 12.5 22. Antibodies of the MNS group are frequently? Naturally occurring 23. How can you eliminate prozone reaction? Dilution 24. What phase of crossmatching is 22% bovine albumin added? Protein 25. What is the cause of positive DAT? Autoimmune hemolytic anemia 26. No aspirin maybe ingested or taken 72 hours before which of the following conditions? Plateletpheresis 27. Best type of blood to be used in exchange transfusion? Must be compatible with mother’s blood 28. Method used to detect in-vitro sensitization of red cells? Indirect Coombs 29. An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is most commonly due to? ABO mismatch 30. Rh factor is a/an? Antigen 31. Most common method for leukocyte testing? Micro lymphocyte cytotoxicity test 32. Polysaccharide antigenic determinant is called? Hapten 33. Which of the following is the only complement receptor found on erythrocytes? CR1 34. Which complement protein is present in the greatest concentration in human serum? C3 35. Which class of antibody referred to as incomplete is able to agglutinate RBC after AHG is added? IgG 36. In the classic pathway of complement activation? C3 is split into C3a and C3b 37. Which of the following class of molecules presents antigens to CD4+ T cells? Class II 38. What type of vaccine contains a version of the living microbe that has been weakened in the laboratory? Attenuated vaccine 39. What is being detected in the indirect immunofluorescence assay? Antigen 40. What is measured by a scintillation counter? Gamma rays 41. Which of the following differentiates precipitation from agglutination? Precipitation involves soluble antigen while agglutination involves a particulate antigen 42. Which of the following uses bacteria as inert particles to which antibody is attached? Coagglutination 43. The presence of cold autoantibodies that target the Ii antigen in red cells is consistent with infection caused by? Mycoplasma pneumoniae 44. Which of the following screening tests for heterophil antibodies is an example of an adsorption test? Davidson differential test 45. Which of the following cells is associated with infectious mononucleosis? Reactive lymphocyte  46. What is the most commonly observed fluorescence pattern but the least specific? Speckled 47. Which of the following is the tumor marker for pancreatic cancer? CA 19-9 48. What is the most commonly used screening test for the diagnosis of Coccidioidomycosis? Immunodiffusion 49. Hypersensitivity to penicillin and the poison oak are both? Initiated by haptens 50. An example of immune injury due to the formation of soluble circulating antigen-antibody complexes is? Serum sickness 51. Which class of immunoglobulin has 4 isotypic subclasses? IgG 52. The type of immunity that follows the injection of an antigen is known as? Active MATCHING TYPE o Choose from the choices the correct blood type based on the statements described below 53. RBCs have antigen A and serum has antibody B→ Type A 54. RBCs have no antigens and serum has antibodies A and B→ Type O 55. Commonly used blood type in emergency cases→ Type O 56. Least common blood type→ Type AB 57. RBCs have antigen B and serum has antibody A→ Type B o Blood components 58. Hemophilia→ Cryoprecipitate 59. Congestive Heart Failure→ Packed RBC 60. Active Bleeding→ Whole Blood 61. Dengue fever→ Platelet Concentrate 62. Von Willebrand’s Disease→ Cryoprecipitate  medical technology assessment program 2 rationalization Exam 5 (May: Clinical Chemistry) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The amount impurities of a substance is known in all of the following except? Technical grade 2. Precision pipette considered most accurate is? TD volumetric pipette 3. Glassware is usually calibrated at? 20°C 4. Which of the following designates the highest purity of reagents in the lab? Spectrum quality 5. A primary standard is unique in that? It has no stated purity 6. As an anticoagulant, sodium fluoride acts by? Inhibiting glycolysis 7. In determining serum chloride, serum and cells of the clotted blood should be separated as soon as possible to avoid adverse effects of? Bicarbonate 8. In which of the following blood chemistry determination is it most necessary to have serum separated from blood samples within 15- 30 minutes? Potassium 9. Sodium oxalate is used as an anticoagulant for a blood specimen. These following tests are made for additional testing on the sample. Which determinations could be carried out on this specimen? Potassium 10. 0°C is the same as? 32°F 11. 0.020 mL of a 1:100 serum dilution contains what volume of serum? 0.0002 mL 12. Normality of concentrated hydrochloric acid is? 12 13. Normality of concentrated sulfuric acid is? 36 14. Normality of concentrated nitric acid is? 16 15. What is the same function in a spectro as a filter in colorimeter? Diffraction grating 16. Xenon, tungsten, and mercury lamps are used to measure light in what spectra? Ultraviolet 17. Difference between turbidimetry and nephelometry is that nephelometry? Measures reflected light as right angles of incident light 18. Quenching is the greatest problem in? Fluorometry 19. In automated instruments, errors made by carryover between samples are reduced by? All of the above 20. In addition to poor and improper maintenance, performance of automated instruments can be affected by? All of the above 21. The purpose of glass coils is continuous flow system is? Provide proper mixing 22. The potassium standard used in flame photometry contains sodium because? Sodium enhancement of potassium must be compensated 23. Most likely cause of sodium contamination encountered in using an external standard photometer? Poor grade of distilled water 24. A flame is used in atomic absorption? Turn the solution into free atoms 25. Which statement about atomic absorption is correct? Atoms in ground state absorb energy 26. In fluorometry, which of the following is true? Emitted light is shorter than excitation light 27. The Rf is to paper chromatography as __________ is to gas liquid chromatography? Retention time 28. Techniques of liquid chromatography do not include? Solvent extraction 29. Movement of small charged particles through a buffered electrolyte environment is subjected an electrical field is? Electrophoresis 30. Electrophoresis using a solid support medium such as the paper or cellulose acetate is known as? Zone electrophoresis 31. Accuracy. Closeness to the true value 32. Precision. Closeness of replicates 33. Which of the following represents precision? Coefficient of variation 34. Quality control tools. Both (Must be run with every analysis, Must include several levels) 35. Importance of blood urea level is an indication of? Kidney function 36. Clearance tests for creatinine and urea measure? Glomerular filtration rate 37. Cause of prerenal kidney malfunction is/are? All of the above 38. Hemolysis releases intracellular ions into the serum. Therefore, even slight hemolysis will cause erroneous results for the following? Potassium, Magnesium, Bicarbonate, and Chloride 39. Symptoms of hypocalcemia is typically? Tetany 40. High serum calcium is not found in? Ricketts 41. Normal value for serum calcium in growing children is? Slightly higher than adults 42. Calcium and phosphate metabolism is regulated by? Parathyroid gland 43. Transferrin is? Transporter of iron in plasma 44. The serum protein mostly involved with binding and transport of free hemoglobin. Haptoglobin 45. Ceruloplasmin is? Both (Low in Wilson’s disease, A major copper transporter) 46. Secretin stimulates the pancreas to produce? Bicarbonate 47. The chloridometer measures serum chloride? Potentiometrically 48. The main waste product of protein metabolism? Urea 49. Where does complement migrate in protein electrophoresis? Beta 50. Biuret reaction is dependent on? Peptide bonds 51. Most typical change in serum protein electrophoresis in patients with cirrhosis is? Beta-gamma bridging 52. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase activity is determined in? Red blood cells 53. True of acid phosphatase? Falsely elevated by hemolysis 54. Below is a chemistry test information of a patient. Give the possible conclusion. He has obstructive jaundice Alkaline phosphatase is 4 times the normal level. SGOT and SGPT elevated twice the normal level. 55. Which coagulation factor is not produced in the liver? Vitamin K 56. Analysis of bilirubin by Jendrassik-Grof method uses? Diazotized sulfanilic acid 57. Prehepatic jaundice is caused by? Hemolytic anemia 58. Triglycerides are composed of fatty acids hooked in what type of linkage to glycerol? Ester 59. Lecithin, sphingomyelin, and encephalin are classified as? Phospholipids 60. What is the reference method for cholesterol assay? Abell-Kendall  medical technology assessment program 2 rationalization Exam 6 (June: Hematology) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An immature cell has? A and B 2. A neutrophilic metamyelocyte has? A kidney bean-shaped nucleus with no nucleoli 3. In the granulocytic series, the youngest cell is? Myeloblast 4. Red blood cells stain lighter than normal with decreased hemoglobin content are said to be? Hypochromic 5. RNA influences the staining reaction of the cytoplasm which is called? Basophilia 6. Granulocyte can have this familial trait. Pelger-Huet anomaly 7. Sickle cell testing uses this reagent? Sodium metabisulfite 8. A hematological picture of a pediatric patient with hemoglobin 6.0 grams, blood smear with moderate hypochromia, anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, nucleated red blood cells, and high percent of drepanocytes could be indicative of? Sickle cell anemia 9. A preoperative coagulation screening battery should consist of a prothrombin, activated partial thromboplastin time, and? Platelet count 10. The fluid part of clotted blood is? Serum 11. If wright stain is too acidic? Erythrocytes are bright red 12. Vessels that carry blood away from the heart are? Arteries 13. Hemoglobin A is? Normal adult hemoglobin 14. Red blood cells increase with? A and B (Altitude and smoking) 15. Placing a slide on the microscope upside down will cause? Cannot be focused at all 16. Toxic granulation is seen as? Purplish black granulation of the cytoplasm of neutrophils 17. In viewing the entire red cell area of the Neubauer (bright-line) hemacytometer, the area measures? 1.0 square millimeter 18. Packed cell volume is? Hematocrit 19. A template is used to make a 1 mm puncture wound? In the forearm for an IV bleeding time 20. A hypochromic RBC is one which? Central pallor is increased 21. Rubriblasts in the bone marrow produce? Normal erythrocytes 22. Erythrocytes have greater specific gravity and settle out before? All of the above 23. A plasma cell has? All of the above (dark blue cytoplasm, eccentric nucleus, halo or quarter moon) 24. In acute myelogenous leukemia, most predominant leukocyte is? Myeloblast 25. A markedly decreased platelet count is found in? Thrombocytopenia 26. Siderocytes are red blood cells with? Inorganic iron-containing granules 27. Poikilocytosis is? Variation in shape of red blood cells 28. In normal circulating blood, largest mature cell is? Monocyte 29. Leukocytosis is? Elevated WBC count over 10,000 WBCs per cubic mm 30. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin measures? The weight of hemoglobin in the average erythrocyte 31. The formula of mixing 2 mL EDTA blood and 0.5 mL of sodium citrate or 0.5 mL of 85% sodium chloride is used when? Performing the Westergren erythrocyte sedimentation rate 32. Nucleated RBCs will most likely be seen in? Erythroblastosis fetalis 33. Howell-Jolly bodies are nuclear remnants stained by Wright stain in the? Erythrocyte 34. Sodium metabisulfite produces oxygen in the demonstration of? Sickle cells 35. The test type for a Westergren ESR test is? 1 hour 36. An electronic particle counter when performing red blood counts always? Excludes nucleated red blood cells 37. The hemoglobin is known as oxyhemoglobin when? Each heme group is associated with one molecule of oxygen 38. Sedimentation rates may be affected by? A and B 39. A quality control plot showing a shift downward may indicate? Deteriorating reagent 40. When a white blood cell differential demonstrates absolute lymphocytosis, the blood film should be closely observed for? Lymphocytes with deeply basophilic cytoplasm 41. Thrombin aids fibrinogen to convert? Fibrin 42. Serum is different from plasma because plasma contains? Fibrinogen 43. A process for stopping or controlling flow of blood best describes? Hemostasis 44. Fresh plasma and thromboplastin is needed for? APTT 45. A method for testing platelets is? Lee White 46. Thrombocytopenia is a? Decrease in platelets 47. What are the two outstanding characteristics of leukemia? Leukocytosis and immature WBCs 48. Reversed A/G ratio and positive Bence-Jones protein are seen in? Multiple myeloma 49. Hodgkin’s disease is characterized by? Reed-Sternberg cells 50. Which of the following is not a cause of DIC? Anemia 51. Normal for PT and PTT are? 10-14 and 22-31 52. Hemophilia is characterized by? Decreased amount of Factor VIII 53. Medications monitored by PT/PTT respectively are? Coumadin/Heparin 54. Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn is caused by? Deficiency of vitamin K 55. Brilliant cresyl blue is used to stain? Reticulocytes 56. Normal amount of 1-10 WBC is seen in? Malarial smear 57. LE cells are caused by? Gamma-globulin reaction on WBCs 58. A retic count is an indication of? RBC production in marrow 59. If the RBC is 4,000,000 and 16 reticulocytes are seen, what is the absolute retic count? 16% 60. Which is not found in normal blood? Myeloblast  medical technology assessment program 1 rationalization Exam 1 (September: MT Laws) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The articles in the latest code of ethics for medical technology profession was organized into final draft in which of the following? 2019 2. The following are the fundamental stakeholders to where the latest code of ethics for medical technology profession evolves except? Hospital 3. The latest code of ethics for medical technology profession was signed on? September 13, 2022 4. Amendments made of the code of ethics for medical technology profession was consulted to which of the following entities? APO 5. Which of the following is considered board of medical technology profession under RA 5527? Chairperson and all members of the board of examiners 6. Which of the following refers to the latest code of ethics for medical technology profession? PRB of medical technology Resolution No. 72 series of 2022 7. The first revision of the medical technology code of ethics happened when? 1997 8. The latest code of ethics for medical technology profession is anchored on which of the following? International Code of Medical Technology Ethics 9. Confidentiality clause in patient information is under which of the following articles and sections? Article 2 section 4 10. The latest code of ethics was published in the Philippine Star of national circulation on? September 16, 2022 11. Revocation of the certificate of registration of the offending medical technologist is penalized under which of the following mandating laws? None of the above 12. Harmonious working relationships with other healthcare professionals is mandated in which of the following articles of the PRB of MT Resolution No. 72 series of 2022? Article 4 section 3 13. The latest code of ethics for medical technology profession takes effect on? October 2, 2022 14. The name of the commissioner who approved PRB of MT Resolution No. 72 series of 2022? Erwin Enad 15. Medical technologists may accept professional fees in services rendered by him/her requiring their expertise is under what article and section? None of the above 16. Who organized the public health laboratory in 1945? Dr. Alfredo Pio De Roda 17. Dr. Gustavo Reyes opened the medical technology course in UST as an elective course to what program? Pharmacy 18. The study of bacteria under the microscope was first performed using which of the following stains? Aniline dyes 19. Who helped Mrs. Willa Hilgert-Hedrick to put up a complete laboratory including histopath section? Mrs. Antoinette McKelvey 20. The location Quiricada Street, Sta. Cruz, Manila is associated to which of the following? Public Health Laboratory 21. The history of medical technology being associated with the discovery of intestinal parasites was a postulation of which of the following? None of the above 22. Which of the following refers to described by Anton van Leeuwenhoek when he discovered the first functional microscope? RBC, protozoa, and bacterial morphology 23. University of Santo Tomas first offered post graduate studies in medical technology when? None of the above 24. Which of the following is the post graduate program for medical technology? Master of Science in Medical Technology 25. Manila Sanitarium Hospital is associated to which of the following? First complete laboratory in the Philippines 26. PAMET was instituted on this date? None of the above 27. Currently, how many provincial chapters nationwide does PAMET have? None of the above 28. Who declared that the celebration of medical technology profession is every third week of September? Former president Ferdinand Marcos 29. Which of the following is the current official publication of PAMET? PAMETLINK 30. The following government agencies are linkages of PAMET? None of the above 31. The date when PAMET was recognized as the only accredited professional organization for medical technologists? June 22, 1973 32. Who organized PAMET? None of the above 33. Continuing Professional Development in medical technology practice is associated to which of the following? Post licensure trainings and conferences 34. The following are grounds of removal of the board of members except? None of the above 35. The following are considered major professional courses in the licensure examination of the medical technology practice except? Clinical Microscopy 36. After 3 unsuccessful board exams, which of the following seek provision to follow up the failed examinee? Completion of a refresher course 37. The professional identification card of the successful examinee shall bear the following details except? None of the above  38. Which of the following is a requirement in the renewal of the PRC card for successful examinees? Neither (Board rating, Certificate of registration) 39. The technical committee for medical technology education is under the purview of which of the following? CHED-OPS 40. The technical committee for medical technology education is responsible for formulating this document? Policies, Standards, and Guidelines (PSGs) 41. What sections are amended by PD 498 series of 1974? None of the above 42. What sections are amended by PD 1534 series of 1978? None of the above 43. What is the primary subject of RA 7719? Voluntary blood donation, safe blood products, and regulating blood banks 44. Following organizations are under the purview of RA 7719 in encouraging their members regarding voluntary blood donation except? None of the above 45. RA 7719 was approved on? May 5, 1994 46. How much is to be covered for in the ENBS package? None of the above 47. The following are mandated to follow the ENBS program of the government except? None of the above 48. Second offense in the overpricing of newborn screening fees shall be penalized by which of the following? Administrative fine of ₱50,000 49. What is the amount involved in the treatment fund under the ENBS program? ₱200 50. PhilHealth members under the ENBS program may get covered the ENBS fee amounting to? ₱1,750 MATCHING TYPE 51. Teves Law→ Bernardo Tabaosares 52. Fourth president of PAMET→ Bernardo Tabaosares 53. PD498→ Neither 54. Zamboanga chapter was organized→ Neither 55. Re-elected PAMET president twice→ Charlemagne Tamondong 56. Clinical Chemistry→ Major professional 57. Clinical Microscopy→ Minor professional 58. Bloodbank and Immunology and Serology→ Major professional 59. Parasitology→ Major professional 60. Laboratory Management→ Minor professional  medical technology assessment program 1 rationalization Exam 3 (November: Histopathologic Techniques) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is considered as the most common clearing agent? Xylene 2. Which fixative contains picric acid? Bouin’s solution 3. Characteristics of a good clearing agent, except? Makes tissues hard and brittle 4. The purpose of fixation is to? Prevent autolysis and putrefaction 5. EDTA when used for bone decalcification acts as? Chelating agent 6. All of the following fixatives for cytologic smear preparation except? Methanol 7. Fixation of the bone is done before? Decalcification 8. Fixative for bone marrow biopsies? Zenker’s solution 9. Used both as a clearing agent and dehydrating agent? Both (Tetrahydrofuran, Dioxane) 10. Recommended for fixing chromosome, lymph glands, and urgent biopsies? Carnoy’s fluid 11. The fastest decalcifying agent? Nitric acid 12. Very weak decalcifying solution only suitable for minute pieces of bone? Sulfuric acid 13. Done after fixation and before impregnation? Decalcification 14. The following are dehydrating agents except? Methanol 15. Most reliable method in determining the extent of decalcification? X-ray 16. Recommended for fixing embryos and pituitary biopsies? Bouin’s solution 17. Used to fix brain tissues for rabies diagnosis? Carnoy’s fluid 18. Characteristics of a good fixative except? Must produce maximum shrinkage of tissues 19. Characteristics of a dehydrating solution except? Should be able to remove stains 20. Which of the following is an important consideration in the preparation in use of any clearing agent? Storage 21. This clearing agent is preferred in the embedding process of tissues because it penetrates and clears tissues rapidly? Benzene 22. This is the alcohol used for routine dehydration? None of the above (Methanol, Xylol, Dioxane with alcohol) 23. Dehydration with 30% ethanol is recommended for which of the following? Embryonic tissues 24. The use of this chemical in the histopathology laboratory always requires dilution of the pure solution because it is a strong irritant to the respiratory system? Sulfuric acid 25. When a tissue preparation for fresh examination is prepared using the crushing method, vital stains can be applied through which of the following? Capillary action 26. When a frozen section is requested during operative procedures, which of the following freezing agent is commonly used? None of the above (Carbon dioxide gas, Aerosol sprays, Isopentane cooled by liquid nitrogen) 27. Frozen sections are usually associated to demonstrating which of the following? Lipids and nervous tissue elements 28. Which of the following is the recommended fixative of general post-mortem tissues for histochemical examination? None of the above (Zenker’s fluid, Formaldehyde, Glutaraldehyde) 29. Which of the following is involved in bacteriologic smear fixation? Heat 30. What process is involved when excess fixative from the tissue is removed to improve staining and remove artifacts from the tissue? None of the above (Retardation, Agitation, Post-chromatization) 31. Which of the following chemicals is used in electrolytic decalcification? Formic acid 32. De-alcoholization is more popularly known in histology laboratory as? Clearing 33. Which of the following is one of the objectives of clearing agents? It improves the refractive index of the tissue 34. One of these clearing agents is not normally used as clearing agent? None of the above (Clove oil, Carbon tetrachloride, Methyl benzoate) 35. Part of the SOP in all laboratories especially in histopathology section dealing with hazardous chemicals is to have this document that indicates the normal use, disposal, and risks associated with spillage. What is this document? MSDS 36. Which of the terms is not used to define the maximum allowable airborne concentration of the chemical the worker may be exposed? None of the above (PEL, OEL, TLV) 37. The term flashpoint is associated to which of the following? None of the above (Carcinogens, Spills, Explosives) 38. This chemical may cause frost bites? Liquid nitrogen 39. Splashing of dangerous chemicals into the eyes is a common accident in the histopathology laboratory. At what ideal distance should the eyewash station be installed from the main work area? None of the above (No more than 60 feet, No more than 160 feet, No more than 100 meters) 40. Infectious agents like prions can be sterilized by which of the following? Formalin and concentrated formic acid  MATCHING TYPE 41. Handling of spills→ Quality Control 42. Risk assessment→ Quality Management 43. Maintenance of microscope→ Quality Control 44. Inventory of chemicals and reagents→ Quality Management 45. Material Safety Data Sheet→ Quality Management 46. Fresh tissue preparation→ Streaking, Spreading 47. Zigzag line throughout the slide→ Streaking 48. Rapid diagnosis→ Neither 49. 2 glass slides→ Neither 50. Thick film of specimen with teasing→ Spreading 51. The first stage in tissue processing→ Fixation 52. Removes water→ Fixation, Clearing 53. Mercuric chloride→ Fixation 54. Making tissues translucent→ Clearing 55. Quality control→ Fixation, Clearing 56. Fixing agent not incorporated→ Nonadditive fixation 57. Fixation not completed→ Additive fixation, Nonadditive fixation 58. Gives stability to proteins and tissues→ Additive fixation 59. Formalin→ Additive fixation 60. Better staining results→ Additive fixation  medical technology assessment program 1 rationalization Exam 4 (December: Histopathologic Techniques) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of these microtomes is used for celloidin sections? Sliding microtome 2. The following stains are used for visualizing amyloid except? Gram’s iodine 3. Basic dyes will stain which of the following? Nucleus 4. What is the optimum temperature of cryostat? -20 to -21°C 5. Sharpening of knives involves? Both (Honing, Stropping) 6. Recommended for cutting paraffin-embedded sections on a rotary microtome? Biconcave knife 7. To demonstrate DNA in the tissue section, one of the following is used? Feulgen technique 8. The stain requires the use of sulfuric acid? Gram’s Iodine 9. The following is/are vital stains? Both (Janus Green, Trypan Blue) 10. Brittle or hard tissue is caused by except? Incomplete fixation 11. This is selective and highly specific stain for glycogen? Best carmine method 12. What is the refractive index of the glass slide which is the ideal refractive index of the mountant? 1.518 13. Removal of gross nicks on the knife edge to remove blemishes? Honing 14. Which staining is described to stain living cells immediately after removal from the living body? Supravital staining 15. Which fluorochrome is used to demonstrate both DNA and RNA in fresh or fixed tissues? Acridine orange 16. All are stains for nucleic acids except? Lissamine fast red 17. This is the process of sealing margins of the coverslip to prevent the escape of fluid or semi-fluid mount? Ringing 18. Von Kossa’s Silver Nitrate method demonstrates? Calcium 19. Fat cells are best demonstrated in? Frozen section 20. It increases the staining power and selectivity of the dye? Accentuator 21. In preparing Harris Hematoxylin, the stain is first dissolved in? 98% alcohol 22. Sections fail to ribbon in the following except? Prolonged fixation 23. The following are true for stains of the nervous system except? Osmic acid stains myelin sheaths blue 24. The following are used to stain collagen except? Orcein stain 25. Elastic tissues when stained with Weigert’s solution becomes? Dark blue 26. Thickness of tissue blocks used for electron microscopy? 2 millimeters 27. Intravital stain used to demonstrate mitochondria? Janus Green B 28. It is used for demonstration of neuroglia in frozen section? Prussian Blue 29. Possible reasons why sections are in unequal thickness except? Blocks are too soft 30. Reasons why sections are compressed, wrinkled, or jammed except? Tilt of knife is horizontal 31. Commonly used methods of freezing except? Liquid alcohol 32. Methods used to identify bile pigments? Gmelin technique 33. Wilson’s disease is a rare inherited condition that gives rise to copper deposition in the liver, brain, and eyes. Method used to identify copper is? Lindquist’s technique 34. Method used to identify melanin and argentaffin granules? Masson Fontana Technique 35. Milton’s reagent is also known as? Sodium hypochlorite 36. Stain used to identify cysteine? Peracetic Acid- Alcian Blue 37. Alkaline Fast Green method is used to identify? Basic proteins 38. Where is the active coloring substance found in the acid component? Acid dye 39. Where is the active coloring substance found in the basic component? Basic dye 40. The following are true about orcein except? Strong acid 41. Selective removal of excess stain from tissue during staining? Differentiation 42. Spirochetes can be demonstrated by except? Grocott Methamine Silver 43. Stain used for fungi? Grocott Methamine Silver 44. What is the range of the melting point of paraffin wax? 56 to 58°C 45. What temperature range in degrees centigrade is needed to sustain the paraffin wax in its liquid state? 60 to 65°C 46. All of the following are uses of the freezing microtome except? For special staining of bacteria 47. Which of the following is described as grinding stone used to hone badly nicked microtome knives? Carborundum 48. What is used for the staining of myelin sheath of brain tissues? Luxol Fast Blue 49. What special stain best demonstrates the presence of collagen fibers in formalin-fixed tissue? Trichrome 50. The hematoxylin-eosin stain is used for which specimen? All of the above (FNAB smears, Imprint cytology, Paraffin-embedded tissues) 51. What tissue components is stained by the counterstain of the H and E staining method? Cytoplasm 52. Carbohydrate-containing tissues may be demonstrated using which stain? PAS 53. What substance is added to hematoxylin and eosin if deeper shade of color is desired? Glacial acetic acid 54. Which of the following is not a reason why a tissue block can be difficult to cut using the microtome? Block not aligned with knife 55. At what working temperature should the cryostat be set in degrees centigrade? -16 to -20°C 56. Which of the following is a natural dye? All of the choices (Cochineal, Hematoxylin, Indigo) 57. Which of these microtomes is used for celloidin sections? Sliding microtome 58. The stain requires the use of sulfuric acid? Sudan IV and Silver Impregnation stain 59. The following is/are vital stains? Both (Janus Green, Trypan Blue) 60. Brittle or hard tissue is caused by except? Prolonged fixation