Clinical Education Comprehensive Assessment Examination 2024 Arellano University PDF

**Clinical Education Comprehensive Assessment Examination** **Arellano University, College of Radiologic Technology** **Instruction: Write the letter of your answer on the answer sheet provided. Use CAPITAL letters.** 1\. X-ray verification of central venous catheter (CVC) placement should identi...

**Clinical Education Comprehensive Assessment Examination** **Arellano University, College of Radiologic Technology** **Instruction: Write the letter of your answer on the answer sheet provided. Use CAPITAL letters.** 1\. X-ray verification of central venous catheter (CVC) placement should identify the catheter's distal tip at the: \*A) vena cava near the right atrium B\) vena cava near the left atrium C\) aorta near the right atrium D\) aorta near the left atrium 2\. Fractures of two or more adjacent ribs is termed: A\) pectus carinatum B) pectus excavatum \*C) flail chest D) atelectasis 3\. Administration of a contrast agent for radiographic demonstration of the spinal canal and adjacent structures is performed using which of the following routes? A\) Subcutaneous B) Intravenous C) Intramuscular \*D) Intrathecal 4\. A large volume of medication introduced intravenously over a longer period of time is termed: A\) an IV push \*B) an infusion C) a bolus D) a hypodermic 5\. All of the following are correct concepts of good body mechanics during patient lifting/moving, except: A\) the radiographer should stand with feet approximately 12 inches apart, with one foot slightly forward B\) the body's center of gravity should be positioned over its base of support C\) the back should be kept straight; avoid twisting \*D) when carrying a heavy object, hold it away from the body 6\. When a patient arrives in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to: A\) place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder B\) place the drainage bag at the same level as the bladder \*C) place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder D\) clamp the Foley catheter 7\. While assisting a patient onto an x-ray table, when the patient has one strong side and one weak side, the radiographer should: A\) start with the weaker side closer to the table \*B) start with the stronger side closer to the table C\) always use a two-person lift D\) lift the patient carefully onto the table 8\. A cathartic is used to: A\) inhibit coughing B\) promote elimination of urine \*C) stimulate defecation D\) induce vomiting 9\. Of the following, which is the most appropriate needle angle for an intravenous injection? A\) 90° B) 75° C) 45° \*D) 15° 10\. An MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient who has: A\) a herniated disk \*B) cochlear implant C) dental fillings D) subdural bleeding 11\. Which of the following terms is used to describe unsharp edges of tiny radiographic details? A\) Diffusion B) Mottle \*C) Blur D) Umbra 12\. The filtering effect of the x-ray tube's glass envelope and its oil coolant are collectively called: \*A) inherent filtration B\) added filtration C\) compensating filtration D\) port filtration 13\. A high-speed electron is decelerated as it is attracted to a tungsten atom nucleus. This results in: \*A) Bremsstrahlung radiation B\) characteristic radiation C\) Compton scatter D\) a photoelectric effect 14\. Which of the following is used in digital fluoroscopy (DF), replacing the image intensifier's television camera tube? A\) Solid-state diode \*B) Charge-coupled device C\) Photostimulable phosphor D\) Vidicon 15\. The regular measurement and evaluation of radiographic equipment components and their performance is most accurately termed as: A\) postprocessing B) quality assurance \*C) quality control D) quality congruence 16\. Which of the following terms describes the amount of electric charge flowing per second? A\) Voltage \*B) Current C) Resistance D) Capacitance 17\. Digital imaging subject contrast is the result of: A\) x-ray beam quantity and quality B\) varying intensities of the primary beam \*C) signal differences within the remnant beam D\) grid ratio and alignment 18\. The essential function of an AEC is to: A\) provide a brighter fluoroscopic image B\) automatically restrict the field size \*C) terminate the x-ray exposure once the IR is correctly exposed D\) automatically increase or decrease incoming line voltages 19\. All of the following are associated with the anode, except: A\) the line-focus principle B\) the heel effect C\) the focal track \*D) thermionic emission 20\. Which digital postprocessing operation removes image noise? A\) Edge enhancement \*B) Smoothing C) Aliasing D) Windowing 21\. A congenital defect in which the sternum is depressed posteriorly is termed: A\) pectus carinatum \*B) pectus excavatum C) flail chest D) atelectasis 22\. Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the: A\) position of the organ B\) size and shape of the organ C\) diverticula \*D) gastric or bowel mucosa 23\. Which of the following positions/projections is used to demonstrate a nearly frontal view of the sternum? A\) AP B) PA \*C) RAO D) LAO 24\. How should a chest examination to rule out air--fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries? A\) Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position B\) Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained \*C) Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position D\) Perform the examination AP supine at 44-inch SID 25\. To better demonstrate the interphalangeal joints of the hand in the oblique position, the radiographer should: A\) oblique the hand no more than 45° \*B) use a support sponge for the phalanges C\) clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR D\) use ulnar flexion 26\. Which of the following anatomic structures is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest? A\) Esophagus B) Trachea \*C) Cardiac apex D) Superimposed scapular borders 27\. The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the: A\) T2--T3 interspace B) T9--T10 interspace \*C) T5 D) costal margin 28\. Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses? \*A) Erect B) Recumbent C) Oblique D) Trendelenburg 29\. What is the relationship between the midsagittal and midcoronal planes? A\) Parallel \*B) Perpendicular C) 45° D) 70° 30\. Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2--L3? \*A) Inferior costal margin B) Greater trochanter C) Iliac crest D) ASIS 31\. Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small, bony fragment pulled from a bony process? \*A) Avulsion fracture B\) Torus fracture C\) Comminuted fracture D\) Compound fracture 32\. That portion of the humerus which articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint is the: A\) semilunar/trochlear notch B\) radial head C\) capitulum \*D) trochlea 33\. In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the: A\) cisterna magna B\) individual intervertebral disks C\) subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae \*D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae 34\. The lumbar vertebral transverse process is represented by which part of the "Scottie dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? A\) Eye \*B) Nose C) Body D) Ear 35\. Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity? A\) Ewing sarcoma \*B) Osgood--Schlatter disease C) Gout D) Exostosis 36\. The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the: A\) costal margin B) umbilicus C) xiphoid tip \*D) fourth lumbar vertebra 37\. The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to: A\) permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position \*B) avoid superimposition on the apices C\) assist in maintaining an upright position D\) keep the MSP parallel 38\. Which of the following conditions is characterized by "flattening" of the hemidiaphragms? A\) Pneumothorax B) Pleural effusion \*C) Emphysema D) Pneumonia 39\. The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is: A\) hemoptysis \*B) hematemesis C\) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D\) bronchitis 40\. In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin? A\) Closed \*B) Compound C) Compression D) Depressed 41\. Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine? A\) Oblique cervical spine, seated B\) AP cervical spine, recumbent \*C) Horizontal beam lateral D\) Laterals in flexion and extension 42\. The plane passing vertically through the body and dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is the: A\) median sagittal plane (MSP) \*B) midcoronal plane C\) sagittal plane D\) transverse plane 43\. Foot motion caused by turning the ankle outward is termed: \*A) eversion B) inversion C) abduction D) adduction 44\. Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following, except when: A\) object shape does not coincide with the shape of x-ray beam B\) object plane is not parallel with x-ray tube and/or IR \*C) anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR D\) anatomic object(s) of interest is/are at a distance from the IR 45\. Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in: A\) sonography B\) computed tomography (CT) \*C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D\) nuclear medicine 46\. Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process? A\) AP axial B) Lateral C) Parietoacanthial \*D) Submentovertical (SMV) 47\. Which of the following projections best demonstrates the ankle mortise? \*A) Medial oblique 15°--20° B\) Lateral oblique 15°--20° C\) Medial oblique 45° D\) Lateral oblique 45° 48\. Which type of pediatric fracture specifically involves the bony growth plate? A\) Hip dysplasia \*B) Salter--Harris C) Talipes D) Osgood--Schlatter 49\. With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting image will demonstrate the petrous pyramids: A\) below the orbits B\) in the lower third of the orbits \*C) completely within the orbits D\) above the orbits 50\. Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux? A\) Retrograde urogram B\) Intravenous urogram (IVU) \*C) Voiding cystourethrogram D\) Retrograde cystogram 51\. Which of the following pathologic conditions probably will require a decrease in exposure factors? A\) Osteomyelitis \*B) Osteoporosis C) Osteosclerosis D) Osteochondritis 52\. The part of a detector element (DEL) that stores electrical charges is the: \*A) capacitor B) TFT C) sensing area D) CCD 53\. Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the greatest receptor exposure? A\) 100 mA, 50 ms B\) 200 mA, 40 ms \*C) 400 mA, 70 ms D\) 600 mA, 30 ms 54\. Foreshortening can be caused by: \*A) the radiographic object being placed at an angle to the IR B\) excessive distance between the object and the IR C\) insufficient distance between the focus and the IR D\) excessive distance between the focus and the IR 55\. Using fixed milliampere seconds and variable kilovoltage technical factors, each centimeter increase in patient thickness requires what adjustment in kilovoltage? \*A) Increase 2 kV B\) Decrease 2 kV C\) Increase 4 kV D\) Decrease 4 kV 56\. The primary function of x-ray beam filtration is to: A\) reduce operator dose B\) reduce image noise \*C) reduce patient skin dose D\) reduce scattered radiation 57\. The exposure factors of 400 mA, 70 ms, and 78 kV were used to produce a particular image receptor exposure. A similar image could be produced using 500 mA, 90 kV, and: A\) 14 ms \*B) 28 ms C) 56 ms D) 70 ms 58\. The part of a detector element (DEL) that functions as a switch/gate to release charges for readout is the: A\) capacitor \*B) TFT C) sensing area D) CCD 59\. All of the following affect the exposure rate of the primary beam, except: A\) milliamperage B) kilovoltage C) distance \*D) field size 60\. Which of the following has the greatest effect on radiographic IR exposure? A\) Aluminum filtration B) Kilovoltage \*C) SID D) Scattered radiation 61\. The term pixel is associated with all of the following, except: A\) two dimensional B\) picture element C\) measured in XY direction \*D) how much of the part is included in the matrix 62\. Which of the following devices is used to overcome severe variation in patient anatomy or tissue density, providing more uniform receptor exposure? \*A) Compensating filter B) Grid C) Collimator D) Added filtration 63\. If a duration of 0.05 s was selected for a particular exposure, what milliamperage would be necessary to produce 30 mAs? A\) 900 \*B) 600 C) 500 D) 300 64\. All of the following statements regarding kilovoltage are correct, except: A\) increased kilovoltage increases beam intensity B\) receptor exposure can be doubled or halved by using the 15% rule C\) increased kilovoltage can decrease absorbed dose \*D) kilovoltage and wavelength are directly proportional 65\. How are milliampere seconds and patient dose related? A\) Milliampere seconds and patient dose are inversely proportional \*B) Milliampere seconds and patient dose are directly proportional C\) Milliampere seconds and patient dose are unrelated D\) Milliampere seconds and patient dose are inversely related 66\. Misalignment of the tube--part--IR relationship results in: \*A) shape distortion B) size distortion C) magnification D) blur 67\. If the radiographer is unable to achieve a short OID because of the structure of the body part or patient condition, which of the following adjustments can be made to minimize magnification distortion? A\) A smaller focal spot size should be used \*B) A longer SID should be used C\) A shorter SID should be used D\) A lower ratio grid should be used 68\. Reduction in x-ray photon intensity as it passes through numerous tissue densities is termed: A\) absorption B) scattering \*C) attenuation D) divergence 69\. All of the following are related to spatial resolution, except: \*A) milliamperage B) focal spot size C) SID D) OID 70\. Scattered radiation can impact the image negatively, but has no effect on: A\) receptor exposure B\) detail visibility \*C) spatial resolution D\) occupational exposure 71\. Somatic effects of radiation refer to effects that are manifested: A\) in the descendants of the exposed individual \*B) during the life of the exposed individual C\) in the exposed individual and his or her descendants D\) in the reproductive cells of the exposed individual 72\. The skin response to radiation exposure, which appears as reddening of the irradiated skin area, is known as: A\) dry desquamation B) moist desquamation \*C) erythema D) epilation 73\. The single most important source of scattered radiation in both radiography and fluoroscopy is the: A\) x-ray table B) x-ray tube \*C) patient D) IR 74\. Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is possible that the individual might receive more than: A\) 0.05 mSv B) 0.1 mSv \*C) 5 mSv D) 50 mSv 75\. Diagnostic x-radiations are correctly described as: \*A) low energy, low LET B\) low energy, high LET C\) high energy, low LET D\) high energy, high LET 76\. The x-ray interaction with matter that is responsible for the majority of scattered radiation reaching the image receptor (IR) is: A\) the photoelectric effect \*B) Compton scatter C\) classical scatter D\) Thompson scatter 77\. All of the following have an effect on patient dose, except: A\) kilovoltage B) milliampere seconds \*C) focal spot size D) inherent filtration 78\. Which of the following is recommended for the pregnant radiographer? A\) Change dosimeters weekly \*B) Wear a second dosimeter under the lead apron C\) Wear two dosimeters and switch their positions appropriately D\) Leave radiation areas for duration of the pregnancy 79\. Any wall that the useful x-ray beam may be directed toward must be a: A\) secondary barrier \*B) primary barrier C) leakage barrier D) scattered barrier 80\. For radiographic examinations of the skull, it is generally preferred that the skull be examined in the: A\) AP projection \*B) PA projection C) erect position D) supine position 81\. In Radiation Therapy, the most important radiosensitizer is: A\) WR 2721 B) Carbotaxol \*C) Oxygen D) Nitrogen 82\. The speed at which a sound wave travels through a medium is determined by the: A\) distance from the sound source \*B) stiffness and density of the medium C\) resistance and impedance of the medium D\) amplitude and intensity of the sound beam 83\. The cathode of the linear accelerator is the: A\) Magnetron \*B) Electron gun C) Tungsten target D) Bending magnet 84\. Which of the following is a negative contrast agent? \*A) Air B) Iodine C) Barium sulfate D) Nonionic venous contrast 85\. With regard to cardiopulmonary resuscitation, what does CAB stand for? A\) Circulation, airway, blood pressure B\) Compression, AED, breathing \*C) Compression, airway, breathing D\) Circulation, AED, blood pressure 86\. The reduction in number of infectious organisms without a complete elimination is termed: \*A) medical asepsis B) sterilization C) surgical asepsis D) immunization 87\. Which of the following is the preferred range for patient heart rate for optimal cardiac CT studies? \*A) 65--75 bpm B) 75--85 bpm C) 85--95 bpm D) \>100 bpm 88\. Which of the following laboratory values is the most dependable measure of renal function? A\) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) \*B) creatinine C\) Prothrombin time (PT) D\) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 89\. Which of the following is the preferred contrast enhancement phase for CT acquisition of the spleen? A\) pre-contrast phase B\) equilibrium phase C\) arterial phase \*D) portal venous phase 90\. In Ultrasonography, a surgical clip will most likely demonstrate which of the following artifacts? A\) refraction B) multipath \*C) comet tail D) acoustic speckle 91\. A common formula used to calculate the maximum dosage of intravenous iodinated contrast material used in any CT examination is: A\) 5 mg per kg of body weight B\) 5 mL per lb of body weight \*C) 2 mL per kg of body weight D\) 1 mL per lb of body weight 92\. The most effective method of reducing involuntary motion on a CT image is: A\) immobilization \*C) reduced scan times B\) thorough explanation of the examination to the patient D) physical restraint 93\. In CT scan, which of the following is a manifestation of the partial volume artifact? \*A) cupping B) Hounsfield bar C) aliasing D) streaking 94\. Shadowing and enhancement are a result of which type of ultrasonographic imaging artifacts? A\) reflection B) refraction \*C) attenuation D) propagation speed error 95\. The images obtained with a PET study using ^18^FDG can best be described as: A\) Anatomical B) Perfusion \*C) Metabolic D) Dynamic 96\. What does ALARA mean? A\) All Level Alert Radiation Accident \*B) As Low As Reasonably Achievable C\) Always Leave A Restricted Area D\) As Low As Regulation Allows 97\. What are the two cryogens used in Magnetic Resonance Imaging with a superconducting magnet? A\) Gaseous Helium and Gaseous Nitrogen B\) Liquid Helium and Gaseous Nitrogen C\) Gaseous Helium and Liquid Helium \*D) Liquid Helium and Liquid Nitrogen 98\. The lowest energy range of the electromagnetic spectrum is: A\) Sound waves \*B) Radiofrequency waves C) Gamma rays D) Microwaves 99\. Electrical power is measured in: A\) Coulombs B) Amperes C) Volts \*D) Watts 100\. The most common piezoelectric material used in diagnostic ultrasound transducers is: A\) quartz B) tourmaline C) barium titanate \*D) lead zirconate titanate