MIBI doc UH not gut.pdf

The main structure components of viruses are a) nucleic acid and proteins b) nucleic acids and lipids c) lipids and protein d) proteins and glycoproteins The nucleocapsid of viruses consists of a) genome and envelop b) genome and capsid c) capsid and spikes d) capsid and envelop Which of these is an early symptom of rabies a) a short period of depression b) nausea c) restlessness d) All of these Family Retroviridae a) are helical enveloped viruses b) Their capsid consists of two copies o ssRNA (-) c) are helical, non-enveloped viruses d) are with complex type of symmetry Which of the following drugs is not used to treat influenza a) Acyclovir b) Tamiflu c) Amantadine d) Relenza Poxviruses are DNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm a) true b) false Which of the following proteins are encoded by herpesviruses and required for viral DNA replication a) viral DNA polymerase b) ribonucleotide reductase c) neuraminidase d) thymidine kinase Poxviruses are largest viruses, almost visible on light microscope a) true b) false The following viruses are referred to the Filoviridae family a) Lassa virus and lymphocytic choriomeningitis viruses b) Chikungunya virus and Sindbis virus c) Marburg virus and Ebola virus d) Crimean-Congo virus and Hantaan virus Which of the following characteristics does not refer to the flue vaccine a) it is a recommended vaccine b) it is a subunit vaccine c) it is administered parenterally d) it stimulates mainly the local immunity Which of the following is a preferred mode of transmission of HIV form a mother to a child a) during delivery through mixing of blood b) dring pragnency through placenta c) via breastmilk during lactation d) All of the above Method for rapid diagnosis of some viral infections is a) immunoflourescence method b) demonstration of antibodies by viral neutralization antibodies c) electron microscopic method for the detection of specific antibodies d) all three answers are correct Laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection includes a) Egg inoculation b) sensitive laboratory animals c) Ascoli test d) cell cultures Which of the following viruses belong to family Arenaviridae a) Lassa virus b) Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus c) Rabies virus d) Epstein-Bar virus For the structure of rubella virus is true that a) has icosahedral type of symmetry b) is ssDAN virus c) does not have an envelope d) does not have glycoprotein spikes What is a viral capsid a) protein envelope around the nucleic acid b) protein-coated nucleic acid c) the outer membrane of all viruses d) lipoprotein membrane The enveloped viruses have a) cubic symmetry b) spiral symmetry c) complex symmetry d) all are correct Which one belongs to genus Orthopoxvirus a) vaccina virus b) smallpox virus c) cowpox virus d) all of these How is detected viral multiplication in cell culture a) by the presence of a specific cythopatic effect b) by using of an immunofluorescence detection method c) the characteristic type of viral colonies d) A and B both Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses a) feces, duodenal and bile content b) blood, sputum and urine c) only feces d) feces, nasopharyngeal swabs and cerebrospinal fluid Which of the following does NOT refer to viruses a) cell-free infectious living systems b) obligate intracellular parasites c) they have either DNA or RNA as genetic material d) they are not sensitive to interferon Clinical symptom, typical for Erythema infectioum is: a) Hepatitis b) Swelling of salivary glands c) Diarrhea d) Exanthematous rash Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of a) tetrahedral structure b) hexahedral structure c) dodecahedral structure d) icosahedral structure What is the associated disease for rubella virus a) Mumps b) Roseola c) Rubeola d) Fifth disease Non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis can be caused by a) Mycoplasma hominis b) Mycoplasma genitalium c) Ureaplasma urealyticum d) all of them The six generally recognized types of H. Influenzae are: a,b,c,d,e and f. They are divided on the basis of their: a) Vi-antigen b) K-antigent c) O-antigen d) H-antigen Not many bacterial species in nature form spores. Which of the following genera have this ability? a) Bacillus, Clostridium b) Bordetella, Brucella c) Borrelia, Treponema d) Bacteroides, Fusobacterium Streptococci are: a) Gram-positive, short rod shaped bacteria and size 4-6 µm b) Gram-negative, rounded or lanceolate shape and size 0,5-1 µm c) Gram-negative, short rod shaped bacteria and size 4-6 µm d) Gram-positive, spherical or lanceolate shape and size 0,5-1 µm Treponamae are motile because of: a) axial filaments b) mans peritrichous filaments c) single monotrichous filament d) fimbriae After its formation, the tetanus exotoxins: a) accumulate in the macrophages b) remain in the „front door“ and cause local inflammatory reaction c) are spread by blood and retrograde axonal transport to the CNS d) are neutralized by polymorphonuclear leukocytes Francisella tularensis is a: a) spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium b) non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium c) non-spore forming non-capsulated gram-negative bacterium d) spore forming non-capsulated gram-negative bacterium Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is used for diagnosing a) aspergillosis and candidiasis b) syphillis c) leptopspirosis d) HIV infection Which is not part of the normal skin microflora a) diphteroid b) serratia spp. c) alpha-hemolytic streptococci d) epidermidis Which is the main mechanism of passing the infection with Listeria monocytogenes from man to man: a) alimentary mechanism b) transmission c) transplacental mechanism d) physical contact Francisella tularensis is: a) a microaerophile b) an obligate anaerobe c) a facultative anaerobe d) an obligate aerobe Shigella sonnei can escape phagocytic clearance by which mechanism? a) Lysis of phagosome and replication in cytoplasm b) capsule-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis c) Inhibition of phagosome/lysosome fusion d) inhibition of opsonization mediated by protein A For prevention of tuberculosis is used a) specific anti-tuberculosis serum b) BCG c) DTP d) PPD Which ones of the following symptoms are NOT typical for the botulism a) descending, flatly paralysis b) dry mouth and difficulty in swallowing and speaking c) chills, fever up to 40°c and loss of consciousness d) blurred vision, diplopia Each of the following statements concerning gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT: a) Whooping cough, which is caused by Bordetella pertussis, is on the rise because changing antigenicity has made the vaccine relatively ineffective b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes wound infections that are characterized by bluegreen pus c) invasive disease caused by haemophilus influenzae is most often due to strains possessing a type b polysaccharide capsule d) Legionella pneumophilia infection is acquired by inhalation of aerosols from environmental water sources The ability of clostridium tetani to produce exotoxins is encoded by? a) genes with chromosomal location b) clostridium tetani is not capable of producing exotoxins, it has only endotoxin activity c) genes with plasmid location d) chromosomal and plasmid location How do people get infected with diphtheria a) by swimming in contaminated water b) by transmission c) by droplets and physical content d) by contaminated food The presence of E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas areruginosa in the pharynx is a) Part of the normal resident flora b) colonization c) both A and B d) none of the listed Gram-negative, capsulated bacteria with capsule, lactose-positive colonies. Isolated for the first time in pneumonia, but have more important role in urinary infections, otitis, meningitides, sepsis, nosocomial infections: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Klebsiella pneumonia c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a) gram-negative coccus b) gram-positive coccus c) gram-negative rod d) straight or slightly curved rod with occasional polymorphism The most important virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis is: a) the flagellum b) pertussis toxin c) P fimbriae d) mannose-resistant adhesins The bacterium that shows swarming on blood agar a) providencia stuartii b) providencia rettgeri c) Proteus mirabilis d) morganella morganii Immunity after single vaccination against tetanus - application of tetanus toxoid is: a) intense and usually life long b) of limited duration, booster vaccinations are needed c) infectious (non-sterile) d) no correct answer H. Influenae type b (Hib) causes: a) Meningitides b) Tonsilitis c) Urinary tract infections d) Gastroenteritis The bacterial species that is resistant to novobiocin is: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus d) none of the listed The AST reaction (anti-streptolysin titer): a) identify isolated streptococci b) requires three consecutive urine samples c) is most commonly used to determine streptococci from groups A, C and D d) is used in the diagnosis of post streptococcal sequelae What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae a) Agglutination b) Precipitation c) Western biot d) ELISA For treatment of Anthrax are used a) Penicillins, tetracyclins, macrolides b) anti-anthrax gamma-globulins c) anti-anthrax immune-serum d) all of the above N. Meningitidis grows on a) Levine agar b) Lowenstein-Jensen agar c) TCBS agar d) Chocolate agar Which of the following statements for S. Aureus is FALSE a) it is always supectible for penicillin b) around its colonies there is a beta hemolytic zone c) it produces hemolysins, leucocidins, enterotoxins d) has a positive catalase reaction All are non-fermentative gram-negative rods except a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Acinetobacter baumanii c) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia d) Klebsiella peumoniae Which one of the following microbiological diagnostic methods is the most suitable for detection of genitourinary chlamydiosis a) cultural diagnostic b) ELISA c) CFT d) PCR All of the following are beta-lactam antibiotics except a) Benzylpenicilin b) Monobactam c) Cephalosporin d) Vancomycin Ribosomes take part in: a) protein synthesis b) break down of different substances c) oxidative phosphorylation d) inactivation of antibiotics A scientist identifies a strand of RNA that can be directly used to code for important viral proteins during viral replication. What have they found? a) RNA major b) -RNA c) +RNA d) RNA minor Lytic cycle of the bacteriophages differs from the lysogenic one by a) lysogenetic phages destroy the host cell when leaving the cell b) lytic phages do not destroy the host cell c) do not differ d) none of them Disinfection is: a) method for destruction of spore forms of microorganisms b) method for destruction of vegetative and spore forms of microorganisms c) method to destroy the vegetative forms of microorganism, but their spores may survive d) method for determination of the effect of physical agents on the microorganism Which of the following is not a bacterial antibiotic resistance mechanism a) reduced permeability b) over-expression of target c) efflux pump d) cell-wall regrowth Dengue virus is member of a family called a) Hepadnaviridae b) Parvoviridae c) Flaviviridae d) Picornaviridae Permeases are specific carriers involved in a) facilitated diffusion b) passive transport system c) simple diffusion d) active transport system Reactions where small precursor molecules are assembled into larger organic molecules are called: a) anabolic b) catabolic c) metabolic d) any of the above Axial filaments consist of a) proteins b) polyphosphates c) volutin granules d) carbohydrates The generation time of Escherichia coli is a) 20 min b) 60 min c) 20 hours d) 24 hours Which microbial group can resist to acidic pH? a) yeast and molds b) bacteria c) E. Coli d) none of the above Production of RNA and DNA is called a) RNA splicing b) Translation c) Transposition d) Transcription Chlorhexidine a) belongs to the group of biguanides and is widely used for disinfection of hands, skin and mucous membranes b) belongs to the group of alcohols and is widely used to disinfection of surfaces and sanitary facilities c) is a disinfectant with limited application d) is characterized by strong human toxicity Which staining method is used for proving the formation of spores a) Klett and Gins b) Ziehe - Nielsen c) Gram and Loeffler’s d) Moeller Micellar growth a) is observed in bacterial cells b) includes a parent and daughter cell which have different sizes c) is inherent in viruses and rickettsia d) represents apical prolongation of the hyphae in the fungus Lytic life cycle of phages does not include a) germination b) penetration c) adsorption d) lysis Which of the following statements is accurate in explaining why gram negative bacteria are generally more resistant to penicillin than gram positive bacteria a) gram negative bacteria produce smaller quantities of transpeptidase enzyme b) gram negative bacteria can concentrate ?-lactamase enzymes in the periplasmic space c) gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane that acts as an extra barrier d) gram negative bacteria have a thicker cell wall Which one of the following statements about the cytoplasmic membrane of the prokaryotes is true? a) gram + bacteria have double layered cytoplasmic membrane b) the structure of the cytoplasmic membrane in gram + and gram - bacteria are the same c) prokaryotes do not have cytoplasmic membrane d) gram - bacteria have three layered cytoplasmic membrane Which statement about the fungal mycelium is correct? a) it consists of intertwined hyphen b) part of the mycelium goes in the medium and forms the substrate mycelium c) part of the mycelium stays above the medium and forms the aerial mycelium d) all of the above Which of the following patient’s groups are of high risk of nosocomial infections? a) patients with tumors b) newborns, children, elderly c) newborns, children, patients on immunosuppression, elderly d) all are correct Which one is NOT included in the etiology of osteomyelitis a) Haemophilus influenzae b) EBV c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) S. Aureus In which of the following GIT infections, the bacteria adhere to to the intestine wall and produce toxins a) Shigella spp. b) Salmonella spp. c) enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC) d) Helicobacter pylori Routes for transmission of nosocomial infections are a) air droplets and fecal-oral mechanism b) air droplets and contact mechanism c) parenteral mechanism d) all are correct Patients planned for treatment with monoclonal antibodies are tested for a) HBV b) HCV c) M. Tuberculosis d) All are correct Which one is true about the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections a) Bacteriuria is less than 10^5 can be accepted as significant if the patient was treated with antibiotics b) S. Aureus, Salmonella typhi M. Tuberculosis are always accepted as significant when found in urine in spite of their quantitiy c) When leukocyteuria is present even less than 10^5 cells is considered as significant d) all are correct Infections of CNS can be caused by a) Clostridium botulinum b) Morbillivirus morbillorum c) Clostridium tetani d) All are correct Which of the following GIT infective agents produce toxins before the consumption of the contaminated food a) Clostridium botulinum b) EHEC c) Campylobacter jejune d) Vibrio Cholerae Factors for transmission of nosocomial infections are: a) medical dressing b) breast milk c) toys d) all are correct Which one CANNOT be isolated from burn wounds? a) Bordetella pertussis b) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa The phagocytosis is a) killing of bacterial cells with bactericidal antibiotics b) blocking of key bacterial enzymes c) active engulf and destruction of microorganism by host cells d) there is no correct answer The enzyme, which hydrolyzes the murein is a) peroxidase b) tannase c) lysozyme d) none of these Which of the following statements about exotoxins is WRONG? a) produced mainly by gram + bacteria b) are thermostable c) produced by the microbial cell and are secreted as secretory products d) can be used for prophylaxis The relations between the microorganism and the resident skin microflora are defined as a) commensalism b) infection c) parasitism d) no correct answer Epitopes are the specific sites on the antibodies which can bind to antigen molecules a) True b) False c) Both answers can be correct depending on the given situation Colonization of the microorganism is facilitated by a) hyluronidase b) falgellins c) endotoxin’s lipid A d) adhesins Saprophytic microorganism from the environment, which can cause exogenous infections and diseases only when the host is severely damaged, are called: a) facultative pathogens b) saprophytes c) opportunists d) obligate pathogens Which one is NOT included in the non-specific immune response a) Lysozyme b) Memory cells c) Interferon d) Phagocytosis Choose which one fo the following microorganisms is an example of obligate parasitism a) HIV b) E. Coli c) S. Epididermidis d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa Infection of several persons without any epidemiological link is a) epoidemic b) sporadic disease c) endemic d) pandemic Which is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult a) IgG b) IgA c) IgE d) IgD Agglutination reaction is one of the following a) Ascoli ring test b) Western blot c) ELISA d) Reaction type Gruber Passage of antibodies from one person to another is called a) passive immunity b) active immunity c) innate immunity d) none of these Which of the following has a fecal-oral route of transmission a) diphteria b) typhoid fever c) syphillis d) spotted fever Which one is an example of an immunomodulator a) Pentaxim b) Hexacima c) Gamma-interferon d) Rifampin Which statement for immunomodulators is correct a) they can only stimulate the incomplete humoral and immune response b) Isoniazid is a very effective immunomodulator c) they can be natural and artificial compunds d) they can only suppress the incomplete humoral and immune response Which is the most prominent immunoglobulin class present in external secretions a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE Which of the following pathogens has the widest infectious spectrum a) Anthrax bacillus b) mumps virus c) the causative agent of gonorrhea d) the rabies virus The normal microflora is related to the defense in pathogens in a) circulatory system b) hepatobiliary tract c) skin and mucus d) CNS Which of the following has a contact route of transmission a) salmonellosis b) tularemia c) rubella d) HIV The dynamic balance of the species in the normal microflora is known as a) dysbiosis b) eukaryota c) dispersion d) eubiosis Risk factor for the development of infection is a) malignant disease b) cytostatic therapy c) premature birth d) all of them Widal test is used to diagnose a) Syphillis b) Typhoid fever c) AIDS d) Lyme disease Numerous antibodies can be prepared against one antigen, but each binds to unique epitope. How is this antibodies diversity generated? a) by rearrangements of the DNA encoding variable regions of the heavy and light chains b) by the combination of different heavy and light chains that form the antigen binding site c) antibody proteins can physically change their shape to bind different epitopes d) both A and B Which of the statements below IS NOT CORRECT a) an immunocomprimised person has to be vaccinated with live vaccines with caution b) live vaccines to not revert to virulent form c) microbes with many serotypes are difficult to control with vaccination d) side effect to vaccination can occur Which if the following does NOT describe Cephalosporins a) relatively broad spectrum b) bactericidial c) beta-lactam d) interferes with protein synthesis What reaction is catalyzed by a beta-lactamase enzyme a) the final cross-linking reaction to form the bacterial cell wall b) the biosynthesis of the penicillin structure from the amino acid valine and cysteine c) the hydrolysis of the four-membered ring present in penicillin d) the hydrolysis of the acyl side chain from penicillin structures Peritrichous bacteria: a) have single flagellum at one pole b) have flagella all over the surface c) have single flagellum at each pole d) have 2 or more flagella at one or both poles What are the structural units of nucleic acids? a) nucleosides b) histones c) nucleotides d) n-bases The one-way transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell by direct cell-tocell contact is: a) transformation b) transduction c) replication d) conjugation In the cytoplasm of some bacteria there are substances in the form of granules. They are: a) cytoplasmic inclusions b) excess products of the metabolism c) reserve substances d) all of the above : Which of the following statements is NOT true about influenza viruses? a) they are spherical viruses coated with a lipoprotein coat b) hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of flu viruses are antigenically variable c) the susceptibility of the population to influenza viruses is high d) there is no specific prophylaxis available Which statement related to the mumps vaccine is true: a) the vaccine is recommended, not obligatory b) the vaccine is not given in combination with other vaccines c) the vaccine is administered orally d) it is a live attenuated vaccine Which of the following statements regarding the antigenic drift is NOT true a) it effects the hemagglutinin of typeA and B influenza viruses b) it is due to the exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza viruses c) it is due to dot mutations that are the base for small antigenic changes d) antigenic drift is less expected in type B influenza virus than in type A For the viral structure of rubella virus is true that a) does not have glycoprotein spikes b) does not have an envelope c) is ssDNA virus d) has icosahedral type of symmetry For family Togaviridae is true that a) they have helical type of symmetry b) they have non-segmente (-)dsRNA c) they have non-segmente (+)ssRNA d) they are non-enveloped. Viruses How soon do symptoms typically appear after a person is infected with rabies virus a) 48 hours b) 1 week c) 1 month d) 1-2 years All of the statements about Rotaviruses are correct EXCEPT a) non specific antiviral therapy is available b) Rotaviruses are ubiquitous worldwide c) Rotaviruses are a major cause of meningitis d) large amounts of viruses are released in fecal matter Most reliable test for detection of acute hepatitis A infection is a) Western blot assay for IgG anti-HAV in serum b) ELISA test for IgM anti-HAV in serum and HAV-Ag in stools c) ELISA test for IgG anti-HAV in serum A 25-year-old woman is complaining of burning and painful urination. The microbiological analysis detects significant bacterial growth only on blood agar and it is without hemolysis. Gram positive cocci are observed on microscopic slides. Which bacterium is the most probable cause? a) Proteus mirabilis b) Staphylococcus saprophytic c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa Generalization of an intestine infection can be seen in a) Salmonella typhi b) Shigella flexneri c) Helicobacter pylori d) None of the above Patients after transplantation of allogenic stem cells are monitored periodically for reactivation of a) HAV b) CMV c) Rubella virus d) Measles virus An etiological cause of hospital-acquired infections could be a) an opportunistic microorganism b) an obligate pathogen c) an obligate pathogenic bacterium or virus d) all are correct Which of the following infections is typical for the lower respiratory tract a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae pharyngitis b) psittacosis c) chronic atropic rhinitis d) rhinoscleroma Resident microflora is found in a) blood b) lung c) urethra d) cerebro-spinal fluid Each of the following statements about Neisseria meningitidis is correct, EXCEPT a) during meningococcemia Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome may be present b) Disease is most common in children younger than age 5 c) There is an obligatory vaccine in Bulgaria d) infection is transmitted by respiratory secretions in close contacts The capsule of Bacillus anthraces is made of a) polysaccharide b) polypeptide c) lipids d) they do not form capsules Which bacterium can contaminate foods and grow at refrigerator temperatures (4°c-8°c) a) Shigella sonnet b) Campylobacter jejune c) E. Coli d) Yersinia enterocolitica During the incubation period S. Typhi multiplies in the a) small intestine enterocytes b) lumen of the small intestine c) hepatocytes d) macrophages of the Peyer patches and the solitary follicles The cytoplasmic membrane of the eukaryotes, in contrast to the one of prokaryotes, has: a) cellulose b) starch c) chitin d) sterols Your patient is a 22-year-old man. The patient reports that two weeks after unprotected sexual contact, a small ulcer appeared on its penis. The local inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged. Dark : : field microscopic examination of the ulcer secretions was performed. The test reveals presence of motile, curved spirochete. The most common causative agent of the disease is: a) Chlamydia trachoma’s b) Treponema pallidum c) Neisseria gonorrheae d) Herpes simplex virus, type 2 Sanitary important bacteria for control of air quality are: a) Alpha and beta-hemolytic strepococci b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) E. Coli d) Salmonella spp. An adult patient with type 2 diabetes attends the emergency room. He reported that two days ago he was accidentally injured in the left leg, but he did not seek medical care. At the time of examination, an infected wound was found, surrounded by a large area of inflammation with characteristic tissue crepitation on palpation and with foul odor, Blood (for hemoculture) and wound secretions were taken for microbiological testing. The microscopic examination reveals large Gram-positive bacteria, with centrally located spores. These bacteria were unable to grow in vitro at presence of oxygen. The most likely cause of this disease is: a) Clostridium tetani b) Clostridium perfringens c) Clostridium botulinum d) Clostridium difficile The specific treatment of the Clostridium difficile - associated post antibiotic diarrhea is based on all the strategies EXCEPT: a) early application of gentamicin b) metronidazole c) stop antibiotic treatment and observe the clinical response for 48 hours d) vancomycin per os Tularemia is caused by a) Francisella tularensis b) Bordetella pertussis c) Brucella suis d) Legionella sp. Which strain E. coli can cause bloody diarrhea in children similar to shigellosis a) ETEC b) EIEC c) EAEC d) EPEC Which form of human plague is present with high fever and large lymphadenopathies (buboes). The case fatality in untreated cases may reach 60%. a) Bubonic plague b) Pneumonic plague c) Gastrointestinal plague d) Septemic plague The Staphylococcus aureus toxin, which can cause scalded skin syndrome (SSS), is: a) hemolysis b) enterotoxin c) leucocidin d) epidomolytic toxin What is the most appropriate method for diagnosis of listeriosis a) cultivationg on artificial media and biochemical identification b) serological diagnosis with ELISA c) seological diagnosis with agglutination hype Widal d) cultivating in cell cultures The bacitracin sensitivity test demonstrates a) staphylococci b) pneumococci c) intestinal bacteria d) group A streptococci What are actinomycotic granules: a) a form of actinomycosis b) additional outer membrane of some actinomycetes c) colonies of actinomycetes located in purulent secretions d) intracellular inclusions in some actinomycetes Natural active immunity occurs during infection or disease. It is active because lymphocytes are activated by antigens or pathogen’s surface a) true b) false c) both answers can be correct depending on the given situation The complex of all biological processes/mechanisms responsible for the state of steady internal, physical and chemical conditions in the living systems and defense against all foreign agents is knows as: a) infection b) homeostasis c) immunity d) commensalism Which of the following specific immune mechanisms offer NO protection against infection a) Opsonic action of antibody b) Viral neutralization by specific antibody c) Immunological tolerance to the pathogen d) Neutralization of protein exotoxin Compared to primary immune response the secondary immune response 1. Is quicker 2. Produces much more antibodies 3. Requires more antigen stimulations 4. Is slower a) 1, 2 only b) 1, 3 only c) 2,3 and 4 only d) 1,2 and 4 only Which of the following microorganisms are always in a parasitic form of interaction with the individual? a) viruses b) non-pathogenic bacteria c) facultative pathogenic bacteria d) all listed above The infectious (non-sterile) immunity is: a) cross-reactivity of antibodies b) toxemia and formation of antitoxic antibodies c) persistence of infectious agent d) neutralization of infectious agent Which of the following has a fecal-oral route of transmission a) Relapsed fever ÷ b) spotted fever c) ECHO virus infection d) pertussis Primary immunodeficiency diseases are all of the listed, EXCEPT: a) Glanzmann-Riniker hypergammaglobulinemia b) Gamma globulin c) Variable hypogammaglobulinemia d) Bruton hypogammaglobulinemia A patient present with a history of diarrhea of several weeks duration. Which of the following may be the cause? a) Yersinia enterocolitica b) Bordetella pertussis c) Neisseria meningitidis d) Corynebacterium diphtheria : MICROBIOLOGY MCQ 2020 1) What is the mechanism of action of the exotoxin C. Diphtheriae? a) Inhibits the release of acetylcholine b) Blocks the inhibitory neurotransmitters release c) Inhibits protein synthesis d) None of the above 2) Rotaviruses: a) The NSP4 nonstructural protein of rotaviruses acts in a toxic-like manner. b) Disease can be significant in infants and adults c) Cannot survive the acidic environment in the stomach d) Prevents the absorption of water, but do not cause a net secretion of water and loss of ions 3) Viruses that are mainly transmitted through sexual contact are: a) Arenaviruses b) Togaviruses c) Papillomaviruses d) Polyomaviruses : 4) Which of the media listed is used to cultivate pneumococci: a) Kligler iron agar b) Blood agar c) Apocholate citrate agar d) Peptone water 5) Which of the following viruses belongs to family Caliciviridae? a) Norwalk Virus b) Yellow fever virus c) Rubella virus d) CMV 6) Allergy to penicillin is an example of: a) Type I hypersensitivity reaction b) Type II hypersensitivity reaction c) Type III hypersensitivity reaction d) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction 7) Family Parvoviridae can cause all of these, except: a) Aplastic crisis in patients with chronic anemia b) Herpangina c) Fetal infections d) Fifth disease 8) Which of the following is not a bacterial antibiotic resistance mechanism? a) Reduced permeability b) Cell- wall regrowth c) Over-expression of target c) Efflux pump 9) Transcription of viral nucleic acid to mRNA is not needed in the case of: a) There is no correct answer b) Single strand DNA viruses c) Double strand DNA viruses d) Positive strand RNA viruses 10) Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of: a) Icosahedral structures b) Hexahedral structure c) Tetrahedral structure d) Dodecahedral structure : 11) Infections of the CNS can be caused by: a) Clostridium botulinum b) Morbillivirus morbillorum c) Clostridium tetani d) All are correct 12) The relations between the macroorganism and the resident skin microflora are defined as: a) Commensalism b) Infection c) Parasitism d) No correct answer 13) The immunity in syphilis is: a) Nonsterile (infectious) b) Antitoxic c) Humoral d) A + B + C 14) What is a “supercapsid”? a) A shell that is located between the capsid and the supercapsid b) Lipoprotein membrane enclosing the nucleocapsid c) The nucleic acid coated with the protein coat d) A protein envelope around the nucleic acid 15) Which of the following diseases is not caused by enteroviruses? a) Myocarditis b) Infectious mononucleosis c) Herpangina d) Boston Exanthema 16) The most common causative agents of bacterial meningitis are: b) Streptococcus pneumonia, Neisseria Meningitidis, hemophilus influenza 18) The most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance is a) Reduced active influx by alteration of transport molecules b) Reduced passive influx due to altered cell membrane components c) Increased active efflux from the bacterial cell d) Direct enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic 19) Which of the following pathogenic factors is typical for the virulent strains of Listeria monocytogenes a) They have endotoxin-like substances b) They are facultative intracellular bacteria c) They produce hemolysin d) All of the above 20) Degenerative changes resulting from viral propagation in infected cell cultures are referred as: a) Cytolytic effect b) cytopathic effect c) cytotoxic effect d) all three answers are correct 21) The typhoid fever is produced mainly by: a) Yersinia pestis b) Shigella dysenteriae c) Escherichia coli d) Salmonella typhi 22) The basic requirements of PCR reaction include: a) DNA segment to be amplified b) Two oligonucleotide primers c) Heat stable DNA d) All of these 23) The flagellar antigen of the bacteria is known as: a) D antigen b) H antigen c) K antigen d) F antigen 24) In serologic reactions used in virology, a diagnostic antibody response should be taken Into account if: a) A threshold increase in the titer in the second serum sample is observed b) The increase of the the titer has no diagnostic significance for viral infections c) Two fold increase in the titer in the second serum sample is observed d) A fourfold increase in the titer in the second serum sample is observed 25) All of the following reactions are used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis, EXCEPT: a) Precipitation reaction b) Indirect (passive) hemagglutination test c) Immunofluorescence test d) Agglutination test type Gruber 26) The incubation period for hepatitis B is: a) One week - 10 days b) One month - 45 days c) Up to 3 months d) Up to 6 months 27) For family Rhabdoviridae is true that: a) They are enveloped viruses b) They cause plague c) They have spherical shape d) They infect only humans 28) Which belongs to the true soil microorganisms? a) Nitrifying bacteria b) Actinomyces c) Molds d) All of the above 29) Bacterial polymorphism is: a) Morphology changes in cells of the bacterial population b) transmission of new plasmids c) growing in many culture media d) developing new metabolic properties 30) Which of the following DOES NOT have an aerosol route of transmission? a) Pertussis b) rubella c) poliomyelitis d) mumps 31) Normal flora in the upper respiratory tract are: a) Staphylococcus, epidermis b) Streptococcus viridans group 2. c) Neisseria mucosa d) All are correct 32) Shigella sonnei can escape phagocytic clearance by which mechanism? a) Lysis of phagosome and replication in cytoplasm b) Inhibition of opsonization mediated by protein A c) Inhibition of phagosome/ lysosome fusion d) Capsule mediated inhibition of phagosytosis 33) In spore form of Bacillus and Clostridium, the water content of the chemical Composition of the microbial cell may reach: a) 10% water content b) 70-80% water content c) 90% water content d) 40% water content 34) The most common source for bacteria that cause urinary tract infections is: a) The normal enteric flora b) The environment c) The sexual partners d) The normal skin flora 35) Which of the following bacteria is etiologically connected to acne in adolescents: a) Actinomyces isreali b) Propionibacterium acnes c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Staphylococcus epidermidis 36) Coronavirus isolation is done via: a) with PCR b) with HI test c) with an electron microscope d) on cell cultures 37) How people can limit the infections caused by Parvoviridae family? a) Vaccine has been developed b) Using immunomodulators c) Transfusion blood must be screened d) A wide range of antiviral drugs were invented 39) Microorganisms that grow optimally in a low oxygen environment are called: a) Anaerobes b) aerobics ÷: c) none of the above d) Microaerophils 40) Chlorhexidine: a) Is characterisized by strong human toxicity b) Is a disinfectant with limited application c) disinfections of hands, skin and mucous membranes. Bisbiguanide 41) The specific diagnosis of the Clostridium Botulinum associated food intoxication is based on: a) Detection of the botulinum exotoxin in the food stomach or intestinal contents vomit or feces b) Detection of specific antibodies against Clostridium botulinum in a serum sample c) Cultivation of a stool sample for detection of Clostridium botulinum d) Blood tests (hemoculture) for detection of Clostridium botulinum) 42) Which of the following is true regarding parainfluenza viruses? a) The most common cause of gastroenteritis b) Contamination is only possible by fecal-oral route c) Often cause laryngitis d) Do not contain hemagglutinin 43) The transport of clinical samples to the lab in case when viral isolation is needed is Performed: a) At room temperature b) In a 37C incubator c) In an ice cube at 4C d) It doesn’t matter how the sample will be transported 44) What is the main clinical picture of Hepatitis A a) Upper respiratory tract infection b) Rash c) Limb paralysis d) Jaundice and abdominal discomfort 51) Method for rapid diagnosis of some viral infections is: a) Immunofluorescence method b) Demonstration of antibodies by viral neutralisation reaction c) electron microscopic method for detection of specific antibodies d) all three answers are correct 52) The incubation period for hepatitis A is: a) One week - 10 days b) One month - 45 days c) Up to 3 months d) Up to 6 months 53) The enveloped viruses have: a) Cubic symmetry b) Spiral symmetry c) Complex symmetry d) All are correct 54) Specify the FALSE statement. Surfactant: a) Are also called detergents b) Act on sections of the microbial cytoplasmic membrane c) Have wetting, emulsifying and washing action d) Are used only in addition to the sterilization method 55) For the diagnosis of measles virus infection we can use all of these except: a) ELISA b) Hemagglutination inhibition test c) Complement fixation test d) Agglutination reaction type Widal 56) Granuloma’s formation is mediated mainly by: a) The secretory immunity b) The mucous immunity c) The cell- mediated immunity d) The humoral immunity 58) The typical site for replication of DNA viruses is: a) Nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) Endoplasmic Reticulum d) Golgi Apparatus 59) Adenoviruses have helical capsids: a) True ÷.. b) False 62) The most common congenital infection worldwide is due to: a) CMV b) Listeria monocytogenes c) Rubella Virus d) Syphilis 64) Infections of CNS can be caused by: a) Clostridium botulinum b) Morbillivirus morbillorum c) Clostridium tetani d) All are correct 65) Non - complete phagocytosis is observed during infections with: a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Legionella pneumophila c) Brucella melitensis d) A + B + C 66) Which one is an example of an immunomodulator: a) Rifampin b) Gamma Interferon c) Hexacima d) Pentaxim 68) Which of the following statements concerning neisseria Meningitidis is correct? a) Has no capsules b) It causes epidemic meningitis c) Grow on differential media d) Gram- positive rods 70) According to their optimal growth temperatures, microorganisms are divided into: a) Thermophilic and thermophobic b) Psychophilic and psychophobic c) Psychophilic, mesophilic, thermophilic d) Thermophilic, thermophobic and mesophobic 72) Which of the following statements about family Caliciviridae is true: a) They consist of RNA capsid only b) The main method of diagnosis is examination with a light microscope c) The main transmission mechanism is by air droplets d) Often lead to complications and chronic infections 73) Which of the following statements for measles is NOT true? a) It is a childhood infection manifested with exanthema b) A characteristic clinical signs are the spots of Koplik’s spot c) Binding Negri bodies is important for diagnosis d) Prophylaxis is done via 76) Which group of drugs can be used to treat influenza? a) Protease inhibitors b) Beta-lactamase inhibitors c) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors d) Neuramindase inhibitors 78) Which one is not a function of the cytoplasmic membrane? a) Takes part in the replication b) Osmotic barrier c) Takes part in oxidative phosphorylation d) Inhibits phagocytosis 80) Which is NOT TRUE: a) Defense role of the skin is related to the low pH of the skin surface b) Defense role of the skin is related to activity of the skin macrophages c) Defense role of the skin is related to secretion d) defense role of skin is related to lysozyme activity 81) How many types of herpes simplex virus are there? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 82) Which of the following methods can be used for diagnosis of respiratory tract infections a) Culture of samples from the respiratory tract b) Immunofluorescence c) PCR d) All are correct 83) Which one is true about the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections a) Bacteriuria of less than 10^5 can be accepted as significant if the patient was treated with antibiotics b) Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are always accepted as significant when found in urine in spite of their quantity. c) When leukocyturia is present even number of less than 10^5 cells is considered as significant d) All are correct 84) Reassortment of gene segments can occur in one of the following families: a) Family Togaviridae b) Family Reoviridae c) Family Picornaviridae d) Family Paramyxoviruses 85) Which of the following viruses does not belong to family Paramyxoviridae: a) Measles virus b) Respiratory syncytial virus c) Mumps virus d) Rubella virus 86) Which one is true for the bacterial cell? a) The oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria b) Capsules are essential organelles c) Has only DNA but not RNA d) Multiplies by binary fission 88) Which description matches most to adenoviruses: a) Middle sized, naked icosahedral capsid, double-stranded DNA b) Small-sized, enveloped capsid, ssRNA c) Large, enveloped capsid, double stranded DNA 89) The allosteric center in bacterial enzyme; Regulates enzyme activity " : 90) The compact structure in which the genome of the bacteria is located is called: a) Nucleoid b) Nucleotide c) ATP d) 92) Which of the following statements can be applied to Chlamydia a) Gram - positive coccobacteria b) Bacteria without cell wall c) Gram - negative bacteria with little peptidoglycan d) Gram - negative bacteria without peptidoglycan 93) Which of the following bacteria IS NOT associated with skin infections? a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Clostridium perfringens c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Clostridium difficile DP 96. Which of the following microorganisms can cause skin infections? A. Candida albicans B. All are correct C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pyogenes 97. The catarrhal stage of the whooping cough is characterized by: A. Decrease in paroxysms of coughing B. Subsequent respiratory infection for many months after the onset of pertussis C. Uncontrollable coughing followed by a high pitched “whoop’’ sound D. Mild respiratory symptoms (mild coughing, sneezing or a runny nose) 98. The causative agent of the disease gas gangrene Clostridium perfringens is: A. Gram-negative rod-shaped bacteria, fixed with capsule B. Gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium, motile, peritrichous without capsule C. Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium, motile, peritrichous without capsule D. Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium non-motile, with capsule 99. The polymerase chain reaction CAN NOT be applied: A. To prove latent infection B. For rapid diagnosis of infectious diseases C. To determine the antibiotic susceptibility of microorganisms D. To demonstrate DNA and RNA molecule 100. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the fungi? A. They reproduce sexually and asexually B. They have a cell wall C. They are aerobes or facultative anaerobes D. They form flagella 101. Which of the following statements about family Arenaviridae is true A. Cannot be isolated from clinical materials due to lack of biological models and diagnosis is only serological B. Replicate in the nucleus of the infected cells C. Lymphocytic chroriomeningitis virus belongs to the family D. The only host is the human 102. Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is used for diagnosing: A. Aspergillosis and candidiasis B. HIV infection C. Syphilis D. Leptospirosis 103. Which one is true about sexually transmitted infections? A. An example of sexually transmitted infection is the soft chancre B. Entry portal is only the mucus of the urogenital tract C. After the syphilis infection the developed immunity is life-lasting D. The sexually transmitted infections are typical for developing countries with low social status and low hygiene. 104. Differential growth media are: A. Endo agar, Levine’s formulation (Eosin methylene blue and MacConkey Agar B. Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium and SS agar " : " : C. Apochoclate Citrate Agar (ACA) and Brilliant-green Phenol-red Lactose Sucrose Agar (BPLS agar) D. Nutrient agar and Peptone water 105. For the specific prophylaxis of rabies it is NOT CORRECT that A. Ab against rabies virus can be found 14-15 days after immunization B. Reinfection is not possible C. HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) is applied in the first few hours after possible infection D. Six (5+1) doses of an inactivated vaccine are applied 106. Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms are not typical for autoimmune reactions? A. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors B. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes C. Ag released by normally isolated tissues D. Formation of CD4+ cells 107. Patients after splenectomy are of high risk of infections caused by: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Salmonella D. All are correct 108. All of the following statements about Borrelia burgdorferi are correct EXCEPT: A. Borrelia burgdorferi can be cultivated on blood agar B. Borrelia burgdorferi is flexible, motile spirochete C. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted by arthropods- ticks D. Borrelia burgdorferi can be detected with Giemsa stain 109. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is NOT a RNA virus? A. Hepatitis G virus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Hepatitis A virus D. Hepatitis E virus 110. Legionella pneumophila is: A. Gram-negative coccus B. Gram-negative spiral bacterium C. Gram-negative coccobacillus D. Gram-positive coccobacillus 111. What measures should be applied to prevent hospital-acquired infections: A. Isolation of the source ÷ B. Isolation of the risk patients C. Measures to increase the resistance of the patient to infections D. All are correct 112. Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order: A. For ureaplasma urealyticum B. For HIV C. For Treponema pallidum D. For Neisseria gonorrhoea 113. Aphlatoxins are produced by: A. Genus Cryptococcus B. Genus Actinomyces C. Genus streptococcus D. Genus aspergillus 114. The nucleocapsid of viruses consists of: A. Capsid and spikes B. Genome and envelop C. Genome and capsid D. Capsid and envelope 116. Spheroplasts are bacteria with defective cell walls which: A. Have parietal and defective peptidoglycan B. Have defective cytoplasmic membrane C. Have defective outer membrane D. Do not have peptidoglycan 117. Which of the following viruses could be reactivated under immunosuppressive therapy? A. Virus Parotitidis B. Rubella virus C. Influenza A Should be HBV 118. Viruses cannot multiply in: A. Artificial nutrient media B. Living cells C. Human embryonic cells D. Bacteria 119. Production of RNA from DNA is called A. Transposition B. Translation C. Transcription D. RNA splicing 121. The most common causative agent of nosocomial infections are: A. E.Coli, S. aureus, L. monocytogenes B. E. Coli, S. aureus, Enterobacteriacae C. S. epidermidis, E.Coli, Enterococcus spp. D. None of the above 122. Which one of the following microorganisms of genus Bacillus is associated with food intoxication: A. Bacillus cereus B. Bacillus subtilis C. Bacillus anthracis D. All of them 123. Acute febrile pharyngitis and pharyngoconjunctival fever are often the clinical presentation of which viral infection: A. VZV B. Measles virus C. Rubella virus D. Adenovirus 124. The classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia is: A. Chlamydia pneumoniae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Mycoplasmas pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus 125. Bacteriophages reproduce by: A. Division B. Mitosis C. Meiosis D. None of them 126. Resident microflora is found in: A. Blood B. Urethra C. Lung : : D. Cerebro-spinal fluid 128. Comma-shaped rod, causes high volume watery diarrhea is: A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Vibrio cholerae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Proteus mirabilis 130. The most common cause of cystitis (after Escherichia coli) in healthy sexually active women is: A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus B. Proteus mirabilis C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Klebsiella pneumoniae 131. During latency, HSV1 exists in what form: A. Integrated in host chromosome B. Episomes in neurons C. No latency is established for that viral infection 132. In which of the following GIT infections, the pathogenesis consists mainly of invasion and intraepithelial multiplication without generalization of infectious process: A. Yersinia enterocolitica B. listeria monocytogenes (probably- options were missing) C. Shigella 133. Which one of the following growth media is used to cultivate Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. B. Lowestein-Jensen C. Loefllers’s D. 135. Which one of the following statements about Rickettsiae is true? A. They do not form spores, capsules and flagella B. They have slim glycocalyx layer C. They have bipolar fimbriae D. All of the above 136. Which toxin is specific for ETEC: A. TSST-1 B. Shiga-like toxin C. Erythrogenic toxin D. LT enterotoxin : 138. The most important virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis is: A. Exotoxin B. Polysaccharide capsule C. Beta-lactamase D. Pyrogenic toxin 139. All is true for bacterial spores EXCEPT: A. They can deform the cell or not B. They can be terminal, subterminal and central C. They are used for cell division D. They are formed for 6-8h 140. Generalized meningococcal infection is usually treated with antibiotic drugs EXCEPT: A. Nystatin B. Penicillin G C. Macrolides D. Chloramphenicol 144. A patient presents with a history of diarrhea of several week’s duration. Which of the following may be the cause? A. Bordetella pertussis B. Yersinia enterocolitica C. Corynebacterium diphtheria D. Neisseria meningitidis 145. Prophylaxis of smallpox and revaccination is performed: A. Every year after the first vaccine B. Every second year C. Every three years D. No revaccination is needed, just the initial vaccine is enough 146. In which of the following GIT infections, the bacteria adhere to the intestine wall and damage the microvilli: A. Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC) B. Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC) C. Enterotoxigenic E Coli (ETEC) D. Enteroinvasive E Coli (EIEC) 147. Which of the following statements about in vitro cultivation of viruses is true? A. Viral cultivation under laboratory conditions is impossible B. Viruses are cultured on hen embryos, cell cultures and experimental animals C. Viruses are cultivated on special nutrient media D. Viruses are culture only in human embryonic cell cultures 152. The only way to get energy in haematrophic bacteria is: A. Heat production B. Biological oxidation C. In biosynthetic reactions D. Cultivation in culture media 153. Which of the following statements regarding the antigenic shift is NOT true? A. It is due to exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza A virus B. It is due to the direct passage in the human population of animal or avian influenza viruses of type A C. It is due to the recirculation of a previously circulating influenza strain D. It is due to dot mutations that are the base of small antigenic changes 154. Cause of genital warts is: A. Human papillomavirus B. Human immunodeficiency virus C. Herpes simplex virus 2 D. Human cytomegalovirus 155. In which of the following cases of immune reactions a large lattice is formed? A. Antibody is in excess B. Antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion C. Antigen is in excess D. None of the above 156. Specify the FALSE statement. Bacteriocins: A. Kill the bacterial cells of closely related species B. Are substances with protein nature C. Are polysaccharides of varying activity D. Kill the bacteria cells of other strains of the same species 157. A 70-year old man was admitted to the hospital after suffering extensive third-degree burns. Three days later he spiked a fever and there was pus on the dressing that had blue-green colour. Gram stain of the pus revealed gram-negative rods. The most possible cause of these findings is: A. The pyocyanin released by Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. The enterotoxin released by E Coli C. The hemolysin released by Staphylococcus aureus D. The shigatoxin released by Shigella dysenteriae 159. Which of the following viruses has the name of the city where it was first discovered: A. Chikungunya virus B. Marburg virus C. Measles virus D. Epstein-Barr virus 160. Adenoviral infections are restricted only to the upper respiratory tract: A. True B. False 161. A 25-year old patient reports pain, burning at urination and scarce secretion in the morning. Urine samples are taken and cultivated on blood and MacConkey agar. After 24 hours of incubation, the culture are sterile. Which one of the following bacteria is the most probable cause of this disease? A. Escherichia coli B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Streptococcus pneumoniae (options are missing I’m guessing) 162. Which statement is correct regarding Adenoviruses? A. Approximately 100 serotypes have been recognized, at least 49 of which infect humans B. There is only one serotype Adenovirus C. D. None of these is true 163. The principle function of complement is to: A. Moderate the release of histamine B. Crosslink allergens C. Phagocytize antigens D. Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells 164. The 1ic effect caused by viruses of family Parvoviridae looks like: A. Fine grained degeneration B. Giant multinucleated cells synctis C. Large cell degeneration with grape clustering of cells D. Do not produce a cytopathic effect on the cell cultures 165. What combinations of hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) of influenza viruses circulate in humans A. A(H1N1) A (H2N2) and A (H3N2) B. A(H1N1) A (H5N1) and A (HSGN9) C. A (H7N2) A (H5N2) and A(H2N2) D. A (H5N5) A (H5N7) and A (H1N1) 167. Which agents are used for specific prophylaxis of anthrax? A. Beta-lactam antibiotics and quinolones B. Tetracyclines and macrolides C. Live attenuated and chemical vaccine D. Immune-stimulators 168. Which of the following enzyme systems are absent in obligate anaerobes: A. Respiratory chains B. Superoxide dismutase C. Catalase D. All of the above 169. Weil’s disease (jaundice, nephropathy and hemorrhagic syndrome) is caused by: A. Mycobacterium africanum B. Leptospira interrogans C. Chlamydia psittaci D. Mycobacterium leprae 170. Which one of the following bacteria is not a typical cause of sexually transmitted infection? A. treponema pallidum B. Neisseria gonorrhoea C. ureaplasma urealyticum D. listeria monocytogenes 171. To which genus belongs the causative agent of ornithosis: A. Leptospira B. Rickettsia C. Mycoplasma D. Chlamydia 173. The cytoplasmic membrane is located: A. Under the outer membrane B. Under the capsule C. Around the cytoplasm D. Above the capsule 175. Herpesviruses are: A. Naked B. Enveloped C. They have only matrix D. None of the above 176. All of the following are beta-lactam antibiotics except: A. Cephalosporin B. Monobactam C. Benzylpenicillin D. Vancomycin 179. The main antigens of influenza viruses are: A. HA (hemagglutinin) and NA (neuraminidase) B. HBsAg, HBcAg, HBeAg C. NP (nucleoprotein) and M (matrix protein) D. Gp 120 and gp 41 181. Which of the following growth media is most suitable for isolation of Candida: A. Zeisler media B. Chocolate agar C. Sabouraud agar D. Muller-Hinton agar 183. The main target of toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae are: A. The macrophages B. The epithelial cells of small intestine C. The RBCs D. The epithelial cells of stomach 184. Which statement about leptospirosis is INCORRECT: A. Leptospirosis is acute infectious disease with typical geographic distribution B. Reservoirs of leptospira are different wild and domestic animals-mainly rodents C. Leptospira can be cultivated on blood and chocolate agar D. doxycycline and penicillins are drugs of choice for treatment of leptospirosis 185. According to their localization the bacterial enzymes are: A. Ectoenzymes and endoenzymes B. Intraenzymes and extranezymes C. Ergoenzymes and endoenzymes D. Exoenzymes ectoenzymes and endoenzymes 186. The tertiary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as: A. Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) B. Purulent exudation from the urethra C. Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum) : D. Diffuse maculopapular rash 187. For measles virus is true that: A. There is no outer membrane B. Contains singles-stranded RNA with negative polarity C. Belongs to family Togaviridae D. Cannot be grown on cell cultures 188. A 23-year old medical student arrives in the student health clinic complaining of difficult in swallowing, sore throat, and chills. Upon examination, she is found to be running a fever and has whtie patches on her tonsils. A throat swab is positive for streptococcus pyogenes (group A). A diagnosis of acute pharyngitis is made. Her past medical history is unremarkable except an anaphylactic reaction to cefaclor two years ago. Which of the following would be a safe alternative for treating? A. Amoxicillin B. Meropenem C. Cephalexin D. Clindamycin 189. Which one is a motile bacterium? A. Bacillus anthracis B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Shigella flexneri D. Salmonella typhi 190. Which one is FALSE: A. Tissue samples and aspirations are better specimens than the swabs for diagnosis of skin and soft tissue infections B. To prove anaerobic agents. The specimen should be collected from the surface of the wound. C. The skin rash in some infections is due to the excessive production D. Healthy skin is an impenetrable barrier for the microorganisms All statements about plasmids are correct except: A. Many plasmids contain genes that confer resistance to one or more antibiotics B. Are smaller, circular, extrachromosomal DNAs C. Plasmids encode essential bacteria properties D. Plasmids are responsible for the bacterial conjugation : Anticodon is: A. Produced during the process of replication B. A nucleotide triplet on the molecule of mRNA C. A nucleotide DNA triplet defining the amino acid which has a specific sequence on the polypeptide chain during the translation D. A nucleotide triplet forming a unit of genetic code in a transfer RNA molecule corresponding to a complementary codon on messenger RNA Acute hemorrhagic cystitis may be due to: A. Parvovirus B19 B. CMV C. Adenovirus D. Herpesvirus type 2 Which one of the methods is used to identify cytoplasmic inclusions? A. Neisser staining B. Clett staining C. Ziehl-Nielsen staining D. Gram staining Francisella tularensis is: A. Gram-positive coccobacillus B. gram -negative coccus C. gram -negative bacterium D. Gram- negative coccobacillus What is the name of the enzyme that allows the bacteria to become resistant to most penicillins? A. Beta lactam ring B. MRSA C. Beta lactamase D. Aminoglycoside ring The cell envelope in gram positive bacteria is: A. Two-layer B. Three-layer C. One-layer D. There is no a cell envelope in gram-positive bacteria The specific binding of HIV to the CD4 surface molecules of the target cells is brought about by: : A. Gp120 B. Gp41 C. Gp32 D. Gp55 The most common urinary tract pathogen is: A. Proteus mirabilis B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Escheriachia coli D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa What clinical specimen can be analysed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections: A. Genital ulcer secretion B. Lymph node punctate C. Serum D. All are correct Patients planned for treatment with monoclonal antibodies are tested for: A. HBV B. HCV C. M. tuberculosis D. All are correct Family Reoviridae does not include: A. Orthoreovirus type 3 B. Orthomyxovirus type 1 C. Orthoreovirus type 1 D. Orthoreovirus type 2 Which of the following bacteria are unable to synthesize ATP? A. Chlamydia B. Enterococci C. Rickettsia D. Staphylococci The colonies of the fungi that grow on solid media are called: A. Hyphae B. Mycelium C. Spore D. Columella Which ones of the following symptoms are not typical of botulism: A. Dry mouth and difficulty in swallowing and speaking B. Blurred vision, diplopia C. Descending, flatty paralysis D. Chills, fever up to 40 deg and loss of consciousness 288. Which one is true for enteropathogenic E.coli? A. They have fimbrial adhesins to bind enterocytes B. They cause bloody diarrhea in children similar to shigellosis C. These organisms are part of the normal intestinal flora D. They are invasive and produce enterotoxin 289. Protein A is located in the cell wall of: A. Coagulase negative staphylococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Micrococcus D. None of them 292. The etiological agent of Q-fever is: A. Bunyaviridae B. Coxiella burneti C. Rickettsia conorii D. Filoviridae 296. The complex invaginations of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane are called: A. Cristae B. Granum C. Flagella D. Mesosomes 299. According to their optimal growth temperatures, microorganisms are divided into: A. Thermophilic and thermophobic B. Psychophilic and psychophobic C. Psychophilic, mesophilic, thermophilic D. Thermophilic, thermophobic, mesophobic 300. F pili: A. Are made up of nucleotides B. Are transferred to the recipient cell C. Are proteins on the F + donor that are attached to specific receptors of the recipient’s cell wall D. Are part of the recipient cell for attachment to the donor cell 302. Streptococcus pneumoniae are: A. Resistant to bile B. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci C. Are stained by the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method D. Resistant to optochin 303. Among the listed bacteria, a class A bioterrorism agent is: A. Francisella tularensis B. Hepatitis B C. E coli D. Bacillus subtilis 306. Tularemia is most often a: A. Anthroponosis B. Zoonosis C. Sapronosis D. There is no correct answer 307. An adult patient with type 2 diabetes attends the emergency room. He reported that two days ago he was injured in the left leg for which he did not seek medical care. At the time of examination, an infected wound was found, surrounded by a large area of inflammation with characteristic tissue crepitation on palpation and with a foul odor. Blood (for hemoculture) and wound secretions were taken for microbiological examination. The microscopic examination i. : reveals large gram positive bacteria with centrally located spores. These bacteria were unable to grow in vitro in the presence of oxygen. Which therapeutic approach is correct? A. Immediate surgical treatment of the wound for tissue... (i think necrotic?) B. Topical application of active oxygen disinfectants C. Administration of a polyvalent anti gas gangrene serum D. A+B+C 308. Which of the following characteristics of mumps infection is NOT true: A. Only the person can be infected B. Is a vaccine preventable disease C. Is a highly contagious disease D. Transmission routes are via air droplets and direct contact 315. The cytopathic effect caused by viruses of family paramyxoviridae looks like: A. fine grained degeneration B. Giant multinucleated cells syncytia C. Large cell degeneration with grape clustering of cells D. Do not provoke a cytopathic effect on cell cultures 316. Laboratory diagnosis of rabies includes all of these except: A. Looking for negri bodies B. Intracerebrally infected mice C. Looking for ernst-babes granules D. Immunofluorescence method 317. The symmetry of nucleocapsid of poxviruses is: A. Complex B. Isohedral C. Helical D. All of the above 318. How soon after a potentially infectious bite should a person be treated for rabies? A. Within 6 months B. Within 24 hours C. Within a week D. Within 2 weeks 319. Which of the following methods is NOT applicable to a direct detection of viruses or its components in a clinical sample? A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B. Immunofluorescence C. Electron microscopy D. Reaction hemagglutination inhibition 320. Clinical symptom, typical for erythema infectiosum is: A. Swelling of salivary glands B. Diarrhea C. Hepatitis D. Exanthematous rash 321. The most common bacterial species in hospital environment is: A. Borrelia burgdorferi B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Bacillus cereus D. Staphylococcus haemolyticus 322. Which of the following agents affect the ribosomes? A. Penicillins B. Aminoglycosides C. Sulfonamides D. Quinolones 323. A tube with bacterial culture is very cloudy on the surface but clear in the rest. This shows that: A. Cultivated organisms are aerobes (confused between A and B) B. Organisms must be cultured in an anaerobic chamber C. Organism cannot produce superoxide dismutase and /or catalase D. The microorganism is not aerotolerant 325. What are the two main targets currently used in anti-HIV therapy? A. Reverse transcriptase and something integrase B. Reverse transcriptase and protease C. Protease and integrase D. Viral glycoproteins gp120 and gp41 328. Which of the following statements for measles is NOT true? A. It is a childhood infection manifested with exanthema B. A characteristic clinical signs are the spots of Koplik C. Finding negris bodies is important for diagnosis D. Prophylaxis is done via live attenuated vaccine 329. Viruses are characterised by: A. They have only one type of nucleic acid B. Their extracellular form is referred as “viroid” (virion = extracellular form) C. They are optional intracellular parasites D. Their size is measured in micrometers 330. Which of these viruses is a laboratory product? A. Monkeypox B. Variola C. Vaccinia D. Cowpox 331. The genome of family orthomyxoviridae is represented by: A. A double stranded DNA B. Single stranded non segmented (+) RNA C. Double stranded RNA D. Single stranded segmented (-) RNA 480. The lipophiloization is: A. Dehydration of the cell under deep vacuum in frozen state (-20.-30 degrees) B. Hydration of frozen cells C. Enrichment of the cells with proteins under deep vacuum D. Removing the protein content of the cell under deep vacuum 481. When using gram staining method fungi stain: A. Blue-purple B. Red C. Silver D. Do not stain 482. The prokaryotic cell does not possess: A. Ribosomes B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Chromosome D. Peptidoglycan 483. Which of the following is a folate antagonist? A. Methyl Penicillin B. Trimethoprim C. Vancomycin D. Gentamicin 484. Mycobacteria have in their cell walls: A. High amount of polysaccharides B. High amount of lipids C. High amount of mycolic acids D. High amount of proteins 485. The lipopolysaccharides of gram negative bacteria consists if all the following types except: A. O-specific polysaccharide chain B. R-specific polysaccharide chain C. Lipid A D. Protoplast 486. Which statement about the fungal mycelium is correct: A. It consists of intertwined hyphae B. Part of the mycelium goes in the medium and forms the substrate mycelium C. Part of the mycelium stays above the medium and forms the aerial mycelium D. All of the above 487. The optimal PH for most pathogenic bacteria and viruses is: A. 5.0-5.5 B. 8.0-9.6 C. 7.2-7.4 D. 4.2-4.4 489. The generation time of Escherichia Coli is: A. 20 minutes B. 60 minutes C. 20 hours D. 24 hours 490. The one-way transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell by direct cell to cell contact is: A. Replication B. Conjugation C. Transformation D. Transduction 491. Member of a family ‘Reoviruses’ that causes diarrhea in infants is called: A. Rotavirus B. Congovirus C. Hepadnavirus D. Picornavirus 493. In which of the following disease, the respiratory tract is infected: A. Tuberculosis B. Q-fever C. Legionnaires disease D. All of the above 494. Etiological cause of bacteremia could be: A. S.epidermidis, E.coli, S. aureus B. P.aeruginosa, K. pneumoniae, E.coli C. Resident skin diphtheroids D. All of the above : 495. In which of the following diseases is bacteremia is observed: A. Brucellosis, Diphtheria B. Typhoid fever, Brucellosis C. Cholera D. Typhoid fever, Dysentery 496. What means significant bacteriuria: A. More than 10^5 cells in 1 ml of midstream morning urine B. The amount of urine needed microbiological diagnosis C. The minimal amount of urine that contains at least one bacterium D. All are correct 497. In which of the following GIT infections, the bacteria adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins: A. Shigella spp. B. Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC) C. Salmonella spp. D. Vibrio cholerae Artificial active immunity occurs after a vaccination: injecting or taking antigens by mouth. Takes time for T and B cells to be activated but gives relatively long lasting: A. True B. False C. Both answers can be correct depending on the given situation Polyclonal antibodies can respond to multiple antigens: A. True B. False C. Both answers can be correct depending on the given situation Cell mediated immunity has a leading role in: A. Infections with facultative and obligate intracellular pathogens B. Infections with extracellular pathogens C. Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions D. Toxin mediated infections Structures and organs of the immune system are lymphatic system, lymphoid tissue, lymph nodes, thymus, spleen. A. True B. False C. Both answers can be correct depending on the situation In Transmissive infections, the vector is: A. Air B. Objects C. Medical devices D. Water Which of the following have a fecal oral route of transmission? A. Diphtheria B. Typhoid fever C. Syphilis D. Spotted fever The white pulp and red pulp are part of which immune organ: A. Thymus B. Lymph node C. Spleen D. Lymphoid tissue ‘Infectious disease’ is: A. Clinical term B. A term expressing the possibility of developing certain symptoms in an infection C. A+B D. No correct answer The lysozyme hydrolyzes: A. The glycoside bonds between the N-acetylmuramic acid and the N-acetylglucosamine in the peptidoglycan of the cell wall B. The phosphate bonds between the carbon atoms in the phospholipids C. The disulfide bonds in the immunoglobulin molecule D. The hydrogen bonds between the monosaccharides in the bacterial capsules The effect of which of the following toxins DOES NOT MANIFEST with neurological symptoms: A. Tetanospasmin B. Diphtheria exotoxin C. Botulinum exotoxin D. Pertussis exotoxin Agglutination reaction is one of the following: A. Western blot B. ELISA C. Reaction type GRUBER D. Ascoli ring test Which organism produces a toxin that blocks neuromuscular transmission in cholinergic motor neurons: A. Shigella dysenteriae B. Clostridium tetani C. Corynebacterium diphtheria D. Clostridium botulinum “Infection of many people with known epidemiological link” is: A. Endemic B. Pandemic C. Epidemic D. Sporadic disease Which is not true? A. Interferon beta is produced by the fibroblasts B. Interferon alpha is produced by the leukocytes C. Interferon gamma is produced by the lymphocytes D. Interferon delta is produced by the macrophages The role of adhesins in gram positive bacteria is carried out by: A. Lipoteichoic acids B. Fimbriae C. Flagella D. Short chain mycolic chains The term infection is equivalent to: A. Infectious process B. Infectious disease C. ahh D. None of them Which of the following statements is true regarding polio vaccines: A. Salk and sabin vaccines are vaccines against polio B. Sabin vaccine is inactivated, killed polio vaccine C. Salk vaccine is a live attenuated polio vaccine D. All of these Secondary immune response produces much more antibodies than a primary immune response but it is slower than the primary one. A. True B. False Enzymes used in ELISA are those except: A. Β-lactamase B. Alkaline phosphatase C. Horseradish peroxidase D. Β- galactosidase Immunosuppressive drugs are not used for: A. Organ transplantation B. Measles C. Autoimmune diseases D. Hemolytic disease of the newborn How the prepared immunofluorescence slide should be examined? A. Under the fluorescence microscope using x100 oil immersion objective B. Under light microscope using x100 oil immersion objective C. Using electron microscopy D. None of the above Virulence A. Is the degree of pathogenicity B. Of the microorganism is not a constant characteristic C. Can be measured with LD500 D. All the answers are true The cell-mediated immunity is mainly mediated by: A. T-lymphocytes B. Monocytes C. B-lymphocytes D. A+B+C Humoral factors of the natural resistance are: A. Macrophages and macrophages B. Lysozyme, lactoferrin, interferon, complement C. B and T lymphocytes, NK cells D. Immunoglobulins A, G and M Which one is not true for the adaptive immunity: A. Is mainly observed in the skin and mucous membranes B. Develops immune memory C. Has a specificity D. Evolutionary newer in comparison to the innate immunity ÷ The innate immune system is always working to protect the body and does not require any special preparation to stop infection: A. True B. False C. Both answers can be correct depending on the given situation Which of the statements below is not true? A. One of the rare but severe complications of measles infections is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Measles only affects the person and he/she is the only source of the infection C. After initial replication, measles virus spreads through the bloodstream and reaches the skin, leading to maculopapular rash D. After measles infection immunity is short-lived and re-infections are possible. For the cytopathic effect of polioviruses on cell cultures is true that: A. Is extremely specific to each type of poliovirus and can serve for identification B. Is expressed via the formation of giant cells C. Is specific for polioviruses in general and may serve for preliminary identification D. Polioviruses do not provoke cytopathic effect on cell cultures and are found by immunofluorescence Which of the following diseases is not caused by enteroviruses? A. Herpangina B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Boston exanthem D. Myocarditis The microorganisms with the least enzyme diversity are: A. Molds and yeasts B. Parasites (viruses, rickettsia) C. Bacteria D. Bacilli Plasmid is: A. A bacterial chromosome B. A single circular DNA C. A self-replicating single stranded RNA segment carrying vital properties D. A self-replicating double stranded DNA carrying genes for resistance to antibiotics Penicillins work by inhibiting…. A. Folate synthesis (nucleic acid synthesis) B. Cell wall synthesis C. 30S ribosomal subunit D. RNA polymerase The transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to recipient cell by temperate bacteriophages is called: A. Replication B. Tranduction C. Conjugation D. Transformation Chlorhexidine: A. Is characterised by strong human toxicity B. Belongs to the group of alcohols and is widely used for disinfection of surfaces and sanitary facilities C. Belongs to the group of biguanides and is widely used for disinfection hands, skin and mucous membranes D. Is a disinfectant with limited application After the transfer of the F plasmid from the donor to the recipient cell.. A. It is not possible to predict the outcome B. The donor cells become FC. The two cells become FD. The two cells become F+ A specific sequence of three consecutive nucleotides that is part of the genetic code and that specifies a particular amino acid in a protein or starts or stops protein synthesis is called: A. Codon B. Primer C. Nucleosome D. polypeptide Flagellin is: A. A protein B. A carbohydrate C. A staining method D. An organelle By what mechanism does MRSA achieve resistance to standard beta-lactam antibiotics? A. Extended spectrum beta-lactamases B. Penicillin efflux pump C. Altered peptide sequence in peptidoglycan D. Altered penicillin binding proteins The transcription is... A. The process by which messenger RNA is translated into protein B. The synthesis of a new DNA molecule C. The process in which messenger RNA transcripts are produced D. The synthesis of polypeptides Which of the following bacterial structures has endotoxic activity? a. Lipopolysaccharides b. Lipoproteins of Braun c. Protein A d. None Specific the most commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization: A. 1.0 atm., 120º C, 15-20min B. 1.0 atm., 130º C, 10 hours C. 1.5 atm., 135º C, 5min D. 1.0 atm., 160º C, 1 hour The correct statement is: A. Bacteria synthesize an identical enzyme set B. Bacteria synthesize enzymes with various nature and action C. Bacteria and viruses synthesize a similar set of enzymes D. Viruses are distinguished by a wider range of enzymes than bacteria The only bacteria that have sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane are: A. Legionella B. Bacillus C. Rickettsia D. Mycoplasma Bacteriophages are: A. White blood cells that kill bacteria B. Bacteria that invade other bacteria C. Viruses that infect bacteria D. Bacteria that infect fungi An enzyme process of producing two identical copies of DNA from one original DNA molecule is called: A. Translation B. Transcription C. Replication D. Cell division Which of the following viruses belongs to family Arenaviridae? A. Rabies virus B. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus C. Epstein-barr virus D. Lassa virus A 2-year-old unvaccinated child is admitted to hospital with high grade fever, maculopapular rash and whitish spots located bilaterally on the buccal mucosa, coreeposing to Filatov-Koplik’s spots. What kind of test will support your diagnosis? A. Mumps serological test B. Enteroviruses serological test C. Measles serological test D. Influenza virus serological test A patient returning from Congo republic a week ago is with fever, headache vomiting and diarrhea, Three days after his admission to the infectious ward, despite antibiotic therapy, severe hemorrhagic syndrome developed and as well as CNS involvement, The diagnosis is hemorrhagic fever. Which of these viruses can be a causative agent? A. SARS CoV B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus C. Ebola virus D. ECHO 9 Which antibiotics against Parvovirus B19 can be found during the first 10-14 days of the infection: A. IgG B. IgA C. IgD D. IgM All is true for bacterial spores except ; used in cell division.Indicate the FALSE statement. Surfactants: D. are used only in conjunction with sterilization methods According to its location bacterial enzymes can be: A. exoenzymes, ectoenzymes, intracellular ÷.... The anticodon is: B. nucleotide triplet of the molecule of mRNA, which is paired with codon complementary nucleotides of mRNA The genome of the members of the family Ortomyxoviridae is represented by: single-stranded fragmented (-) RNA The family Reoviridae includes the genera: A. Genus orthoreovirus, Rotavirus, Orbivirus B. Genus orthoretrovirus, Retrovirus, Orbfiloviridae C. Genus orthoretrovirus, Retrovirus, orbivirus D. Genus orthoretrovirus, Retrovirus, Orbarenaviridaefiloviridae For Parvovirus B19 it is true that: A. Its genome consists of dsDNA B. Is an enveloped virus C. Has segmented genome D. There are three structural proteins The development of polioviruses on cell cultures is characterized by: A. cytopathic effect B. Cytotoxic effect C. Cytolytic effect D. They Don't Change The Cell Cultures Epstein-Barr virus (HHV4) is associated with any of the following diseases: A. infectious mononucleosis, and certain types of cancer B. Chickenpox C. Shingles D. Roseola infantum The contents of vesicles from the mucosa of a person who has smallpox (smallpox) is sent to a laboratory for virological analysis. What will be found during smear microscopy? A. Pashen's corpuscles Which of the following proteins is encoded by the herpesvirus genome and is required for viral DNA replication? A. viral DNA polymerase B. Neuraminidase C. Ribonucleotide reductase D. Thymidine kinase What is a viral capsid : A.protein envelope around nucleic acid All listed viruses are enteroviruses with the exception of: hepatitis A virus Herpesviruses are: double-stranded DNA viruses During latency, herpesvirus DNA integrates into the chromosome of the host cell. False All of the viruses are enveloped, except for: Hepatitis A virus Adenoviruses cause lytic, persistent, and latent infections in humans, and some strains can immortalize certain animal cells. A. True B. False For coronavirus infections, it is NOT true that : A. No reinfections are observed What type of vaccine is used against rabies: C. Inactivated vaccine Poxviruses are DNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm. What problems does this feature create for viral replication? Poxviruses must encode the enzymes needed for the synthesis of mRNA and DNA. What is the associated disease for rubella virus?: Rubeola Which one is correct? All are correct. Which of the statements about ECHO viruses are NOT true: D. there is a specific prophylaxis for them All of the following are correct for Neisseria gonorrhoeae EXCEPT; They are lance-shaped bacteria. Bacillus anthracis have several clinical forms. List all possible forms: B.cutaneous, inhalation, gastrointestinal, septic Where are the genes that encode the exotoxin of bacillus anthracis located: B. in plasmids. Some pathogens can be transmitted during gestation or during birth. Which of listed is the least likely to is there a similar transmission? A. Haemophilus influenzae For diagnosis of Q-fever; All of them (Agglutination, ELISA, PCR) All statements about Proteus ssp. is correct EXCEPT: D. They do not produce phenylalanine desaminase N. meningitidis grows on; Chocolate agar. Specify the type of bacteria, which are Gram-negative, have capsule, form mucous colonies, break down lactose. They are isolated for first time with pneumonia, but now they have greater importance in urinary infections, otitis, meningitis, sepsis. Important causes are nosocomial infections. A. Klebsiella pneumoniae Which of the following statements is FALSE: D.Rickettsia conorii is highly pathogenic for people and susceptibility to it is very high The presence of blood and mucus in the feces is Typical for: A.bacterial dysentery Zygospores, ascospores and basidospores are: B. different types of sexual fungal spores. All statements concerning epidemiology of infection caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are true EXCEPT on: A. Visible growth is demonstrated after 3-6 weeks of cultivation Which of the following microorganisms have a capsule that is pathogenicity factor?.A + B + C All are possible diagnostic tools for Bordetella EXCEPT ; Ascoli's reaction All listed below are characteristics of Listeria monocytogenes except; cannot reproduce at 4 ° C Severe, often ending in fatal pneumonias is caused by: C. Klebsiella pneumoniae subspecies pneumoniae Which of the following diseases can be associated with Streptococcus pneumoniae:.All of them (meningitis, pneumonia, otitis media) Regarding the cultivation group B streptococci, they are: B. fastidious, grow in presence of native proteins (5-10% blood, serum), B vitamins Which of the following bacteria is gram-negative and rod-shaped? C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa A optochin sensitivity test demonstrates: C. pneumococci The best clinical specimen for Bordetella pertussis isolation is: C. Nasopharyngeal secretion Francisella tularensis is: An Obligate aerobes Clinical forms of infections with Mycoplasma pneumoniae are: All of them Food intoxications are caused by some strains of: B.Staphylococcus aureus Your patient is a 22 year old man. Small ulcer on penis. Local inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged. Moltile, curved spirochete present. Most common causative agent of this disease? A.Treponema pallidum Which of the following structures are present in the fungi? All of them Acute glomerulonephritis is complication after infection caused from: B.Streptococcus pyogenes Which of the listed antibiotics groups are useless in treatment of anaerobic infections: D. aminoglycosides Leptospirosis often occurs as a result of; Contact with water or moist soil, contaminated with L interrogans, from urine of wild animals The cell wall in Gram-positive bacteria contains: all listed structures Spot the correct statement; Sterilization destroys all bacteria. Penicillins can NOT be used in the treatment of: C. Mycoplasma infections building blocks of nucleic acids are: C. nucleotides 2nd ofJune Which of the following(s) is/are the determinants of antigenicity? A. Chemical nature B. Size of the antigen C. Foreign origin D. All of theses The complex of non-specific innate defense factors acting against number of infectious agents is known as: A. Adaptive immunity B. Immune memory C. Antibody D. Innate immunity (natural resistance) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding B cells A. B cells that recognize high concentrations of antigen (self) in the absence of other signals undergo apoptosis in the bone marrow B. Bone marrow stem cells migrate to the thymus and develop into B cells C. B cells synthesize antibodies and put them on their cell surface D. B cells can undergo class switching and produce a different antibody type Precipitation reaction can be converted into agglutination reaction by coating soluble antigen onto A. Bentonite (clay) particles B. RBCs C. Latex particles D. All of these The term “infectious process” means “all biological processes carried out after…” A. The attachment and penetration of microbes into the microorganism B. The attachment and penetration of microbes into the microorganisms regardless of whether or not there is clinical manifestation C. The penetration of microbes into the macroorgansim and always manifest clinically D. No correct answer The humoral immunity is related to: A. Formation of specific antibodies form T cells B. Formation of specific antibodies from B cells C. Both are correct D. There is no correct answer " : " The complex of all biological processes/mechanisms is responsible for the state of steady internal, physical, chemical conditions in the living systems and defense against all fogein agents is known as: A. Infection B. Commensalism C. Immunity D. Homeostasis What type of immunity is responsible for the agglutination of viruses: A. Passive immunity B. Humoral immunity C. Cell mediated immunity D. Non specific immunity Which of these is not a factor counteracting to the mechanisms of the immune system: A. Antigenic heterogeneity B. Antigenic mimicry C. Synthesis of IgA proteases D. Hyaluronidase synthesis What is virus Fixe? A. A vaccine strain B. A cell culture C. A wild type of rabies virus D. An infectious disease For which family the following morphological features are typical: filamentous spiral nucleocapsid, linear unsegmented single strand (-) RNA and lipid bilayer membrane of cellular origin: A. Picornaviridae B. Filoviridae C. Orthomyxoviridae D. Togaviridae Complement fixation test A. Is done in three stages B. Is a test that can be used to detect the presence of either specific antibody or specific antigen in a patient's serum C. Is done with human, not standardized complement proteins D. Can be made with or without sheep red blood cells G Unlike eukaryotic cytoplasm, the prokaryotic one is: A. More complex B. Simpler C. There is no difference in the structure D. None of the above Fimbriae ARE NOT: A. hair like structures on the outside of bacteria B. Rope like structures composed of helically coiled protein subunits (flagellin) C. Smaller in diameter from flagella D. Used to promote adherence or conjugation The bacterial cell has: A. 1 chromosome B. 23 chromosomes C. 22 chromosomes D. 46 chromosomes Cytoplasmic membrane of the prokaryotes consists of: A. Phospholipids B. Proteins C. Carbohydrates D. All of the above E. I Growth factors are substances which: A. Cannot be synthesized in the bacterial cells but are important for their growth B. Bacterial cells can synthesis in limited amount C. Bacterial cells store in the form of granules D. Bacterial cells synthesis in a large amount While was studying the pneumonic infection in in 1928 the English doctor Frederick Griffith discovered: A. Translation B. Transformation C. Transcription D. Conjugation Which of the following infections are typical for the upper respiratory tract? A. Psittacosis B. Mycoplasma bronchitis C. Chronic atrophic rhinitis D. Legionnaires disease The most common causes of urinary tract infections are: A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungi D. None of the above The sepsis is: A. Presence of bacteria in the blood B. Bacteremia, accompanied with chemical and laboratory data for systematic information C. Massive proliferation of toxins in the blood with organ failure D. All of the above Erysipelas is a bacterial infection characterised by well-defined areas of bright-red, inflamed and rough or leathery skin, Which one is the causative agent: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Candida albicans Kevin set 1. Factors for transmission of nosocomial infections are: A. Medical dressings B. Breast milk C. Toys D. All are correct 2. Which of the following viruses can cause hemorrhagic cystitis in immunocompromised patients: A. EBV B. BKV C. HSV1 D. JCV 3. Which IS NOT true about the sexually transmitted infections? A. Some sexually transmitted infections are endemic for some regions B. They are a significant healthy, social and economic problem C. Only infections that are transmitted solely by sexual contact are included D. They are anthroponotic diseases 4. Respiratory tract infections can be caused by: A. Francisella tularensis B. Bordetella pertussis C. Coxiella brunetti D. All are correct 5. Which of the following infections is typical for the lower respiratory tract? A. Haemophilus influenzae pharyngitis B. Ozeana C. Diphtherial croup D. Q-fever 6. In which of the following especially dangerous infections, the respiratory tract is not damaged A. Tularemia B. Plague C. Anthrax D. Cholera 7. Which one IS NOT true for the urinary tract infections? A. Bacterial urinary tract infections are usually after haematogenic spread B. E. Coli is the most typical pathogen C. They are more frequent in women D. Bacteria are more common cause 8. The most common causative agent of bacterial meningitis are: A. E. Coli K1, Streptococcus group B (S. agalactiae). Listeria monocytogenes B. Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis C. Staphylococcus aureus, pseudomonas aeruginosa D. None of the above 9. Which of the following viruses can cause hemorrhagic cystitis? A. BK virus B. Enteroviruses C. Flaviviruses D. Coronaviruses 10. A source of hospital-acquired infection could be: A. New patients in incubation period B. Medical staff C. Medical instruments D. All are correct 11. The most severe bacillary infections are caused by: A. Shigella boydii B. Shigella flexneri C. Shigella sonnei D. Shigella dysenteriae I 12. Not many bacterial species in nature form spores. Which of the following genera have this ability? A. Borrelia, Treponema B. Bacteroides, Fusobacterium C. Bacillus, Clostridium D. Bordetella, Brucella 13. The pertussis toxin: A. Changes the protein synthesis B. Provokes overproduction of mucus in the tracheal cells C. Changes the adenylate cyclase-mediated conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP D. Provokes release of electrolytes 14. The primary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as: A. Diffuse maculopapular rush ÷! B. Purulent exudation from the urethra C. Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) D. Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum) 15. What is the best therapeutic plan for treating actinomycosis? A. Awaiting self-clearance B. Only antibiotic therapy C. Only surgical treatment D. Chemotherapy combined with surgical therapy 16. Which one of the following statements about Campylobacter fetus is NOT CORRECT? A. Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium B. Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C C. Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients and cancer D. Fastidious, microaerophile 17. What is soor? A. Systemic candidiasis B. Aspergillosis C. Mucormycosis D. Oral candidiasis 18. The most common test for the diagnosis of Lyme borreliosis is: A. Widal agglutination test B. Cultivation on blood and chocolate agar C. ELISA, Western blot D. Ascoli thermoprecipiation test 19. A patient with a long history of chronic gastritis undergo a gastroscopy, which detects an ulcer in the duodenum area. Microscopic examination of the tissue biopsy developed Gram-negative curved bacteria and the rapid urease activity test of the biopsy material was highly positive. The most likely cause of the disease is: A. Vibrio cholerae B. Campylobacter fetus C. Acinetobacter baumannii D. Helicobacter pylori : 20. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? A. Ticks are natural reservoirs of Rickettsia conorii B. Rickettsia conorii is highly pathogenic for humans and receptivity to the bacterium is extremely high C. Mediterranean spotted fever is transmissive infection D. Mediterranean spotted fever is and endemic zoonotic infection 21. All of the following statements concerning Yersinia pestis are correct EXCEPT A. The most common serotypes for Europe are O3 and O9 B. It is motile but depending on cultivation temperature C. It is a psychrophilic microorganism D. It is a lactose-fermenting bacterium 22. Streptococcus pneumoniae are A. Gram-negative, lancet-shaped, capsulated diplococci B. gram-negative, spherical, non-capsulated diplococci C. Gram-positive, lancet shaped, capsulated diplococci D. Gram-positive, spherical, non-capsulated cocci in long chains 23. The microscopic identification of Vibrio cholerae includes: A. Spore-staining preparation B. Capsule-staining preparation C. Volutin-staining preparation D. Native slide preparation 24. Bacteria of genus Enterococcus A. Unlike streptococci they are cultivated only on differential media B. Unlike streptococci they cannot be cultured in a nutrient media C. Are primarily resistant to cephalosporins some penicillins and monobactams D. Are highly sensitive to all groups of beta-lactam antibiotics 25. Fungal spores are used for: A. Reproduction B. Adverse conditions C. Adhesion D. None of them 26. Generation time of Mycoplasma is: A. 20 min B. 20-24 hours C. 1-9 hours D. 3-21 day 27.All can be observed after cultivation of Pseudomonas aeruginosa except: A. Pigment formation B. Alpha-hemolysis C. Aroma compounds release D. Beta- hemolysis 28. Gastroenteritis is caused by: A. Salmonella enteritis B. Salmonella typhi C. Shigella dysenteriae D. None of these 29. Legionella pneumophila is an important cause of: A. Vomiting B. Atypical pneumonia C. Diarrhea D. Meningitides 30. What causes the variation in shape and size of Mycoplasma species? A. Cultivation on solid growth medium B. Lack Of synchronicity between the cell division and replication of the genome C. Cultivation in liquid medium D. It’s genetically stable characteristic 31. Which of the antibiotics listed below are not suitable for treatment of listeriosis? A. Penicillin and ampicillin B. Macerolids C. Cephalosporins D. None of them 32. By precipitation of tuberculin, a purified protein derivative (PPD) is obtained. It is used in: A. Mantoux test B. Schick test C. Dick test D. None of the above 33. Infections of Legionella pneumophila are treated with: A. Penicillins and cephalosporins B. Ethambutol and isoniazid C. Macrolides or fluoroquinolones D. Second and third generation cephalosporins 34. Sexually transmitted infection, Lymphogranuloma venerum, is caused by: A. Chlamydia pneumoniae B. Chlamydia psittaci C. Mycoplasma genitalium D. Chlamydia trachomatis 35. The specific prevention (by vaccination) of the disease gas gangrene (caused by Clostridium perfringens) is based on: A. Killed whole cell vaccine B. Anatoxin C. There is no specific prevention by vaccination D. Alive attenuated vaccine 36. Drug of first choice for the treatment of syphilis is: A. Gentamicin B. Penicillin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Chloramphenicol 37. The optochin sensitivity test demonstrates: A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Pneumococcal C. Staphylococci D. Group A streptococci 38. Neonatal meningitis is most likely to be caused by which one of the following pairs of organisms? A. Escherichia coli K1 and streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria meningitidis and streptococcus agalactiae C. E.coli K1 and group B streptococci D. Listeria and shigella ÷ 39. The spore in the cells of Clostridium tetani is located: A. Paracentrally B. Subterminally C. Centrally D. Terminally 40. Granulomatosis infantiseptica is caused by: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Listeria monocytogenes D. All of the above 42. Which are the epidemic typhus vectors: A. Head lice B. Body lice C. Fleas D. Ticks 43. After its formation, the tetanus exotoxins: A. Are neutralised by polymorphonuclear leukocytes B. Remain at the ‘front door’ and cause a local inflammatory reaction C. Accumulate in macrophages D. Are spread by blood and through retrograde axonal transport to CNS 44. Typical brucellosis symptoms include all except: A. Arthralgia B. Diarrhea C. Headache D. Undulating fever 45. For shigella is true: A. They produce hydrogen sulfide B. They ferment lactose C. They are nonmotile D. All of them are mannitol positive 46. For Parvovirus B19 is true that: a. Causes HBV b. Causes AIDS c. Causes erythema infectiosum d. Causes measles 49. Coxsackie Viruses can cause; A. Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis B. Herpangina C. Mumps D. Poliomyelitis 50.The main structure components of Viruses are; A. Glycoproteins and proteins B. Nucleic acids and lipids C. Nucleic acid and proteins D. Lipids and proteins 51.Hemagglutinin of influenza viruses; A. Is part of the viral capsid B. Is involved in viral replication C. It serves as attachment molecule to the receptor of the target cell D. It has no antigenic properties 52. All statements of viral neutralization reaction are true except; A. A key component of the reaction is the complement system involvement B. Specific virus neutralising antibodies block the viral ability to infect cells C. The antibodies are titrated and two serum samples are required D. It is also used to identify newly isolated virus Poxviruses are DNA viruses that replicate in the Cytoplasm A. True. B. False Which of the following viral infections can result in chronic carrier state. A. HBV B. HCV C. HDV D. All of these 3. Which of the following antibodies indicates acute measles infection A. Anti-mumps IgM B. Anti-rubella IgM C. Anti-measles IgM D. Anti-CMV IgM 4. The distinctive pattern of adenoviruses is due to; A. Lipid envelope B. Helical capsid C. ssDNA D. Fibers at the vertices of the icosahedron 5. Which of these is an early symptom of rabies?

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