Med Phys II Exam 1 Review Questions PDF

What is the difference between Beta-1 & Beta-2 receptors? o A. Beta-1 receptors are found in smooth muscle and cause bronchodilation, while Beta-2 receptors are found in the heart and increase heart rate (positive chronotropic effect). o B. Beta-1 receptors are found in the heart an...

What is the difference between Beta-1 & Beta-2 receptors? o A. Beta-1 receptors are found in smooth muscle and cause bronchodilation, while Beta-2 receptors are found in the heart and increase heart rate (positive chronotropic effect). o B. Beta-1 receptors are found in the heart and increase heart rate (positive chronotropic effect) and force of contraction (positive ionotropic effect), while Beta-2 receptors are found in smooth muscle and cause bronchodilation and vasodilation. o C. Beta-1 receptors are found in the lungs and cause vasodilation, while Beta-2 receptors are found in the heart and increase the force of contraction (positive ionotropic effect). o D. Beta-1 receptors are found in the gastrointestinal tract and cause smooth muscle relaxation, while Beta-2 receptors are found in the blood vessels and increase heart rate (positive chronotropic effect). A 45-year-old patient with a history of asthma is prescribed a beta-adrenergic agonist. This medication primarily acts on receptors found in the lungs and smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation. Which of the following receptors is most likely being targeted by this medication? o A. Alpha-1 o B. Beta-1 o C. Beta-2 o D. Muscarinic Which autonomic receptor mediates an increase in heart rate? o A. Adrenergic 1 receptors o B. Adrenergic ß1 receptors o C. Adrenergic ß2 receptors o D. Cholinergic muscarinic receptors o E. Cholinergic nicotinic receptors Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune disease characterized by which of the following mechanisms? o A. Autoantibodies destroy acetylcholine molecules in the synaptic cleft. o B. Autoantibodies stimulate excessive acetylcholine production, leading to constant muscle contraction. o C. Autoantibodies attack dopamine receptors in the brain, causing muscle rigidity. o D. Autoantibodies block acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to impaired muscle contractions causing fatigue & weakness. A 42-year-old man with myasthenia gravis notes increased muscle strength when he is treated with an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor. The basis for his improvement is increased o A. amount of acetylcholine (ACh) released from motor neurons o B. levels of ACh at the muscle end plates o C. number of ACh receptors on the muscle end plates o D. amount of norepinephrine released from motor nerves o E. synthesis of norepinephrine in motor nerves Which of the following diagnostic tests is commonly used for the evaluation of myasthenia gravis? o A. MRI of the brain o B. Electromyography o C. Edrophonium (Tensilon) test and acetylcholine receptor antibody assay  o D. Dopamine receptor antibody assay A patient suspected of having myasthenia gravis undergoes an Edrophonium (Tensilon) test and an acetylcholine receptor antibody assay. Which of the following results would most likely confirm the diagnosis? o A. Negative Edrophonium test and negative ACh receptor antibody assay o B. Positive Edrophonium test and positive ACh receptor antibody assay o C. Negative Edrophonium test and positive ACh receptor antibody assay o D. Positive Edrophonium test and negative ACh receptor antibody assay An 18-year-old college woman comes to the student health service complaining of progressive weakness. She reports that occasionally her eyelids “droop” and that she tires easily, even when completing ordinary daily tasks such as brushing her hair. She has fallen several times while climbing a flight of stairs. These symptoms improve with rest. The physician orders blood studies, which reveal elevated levels of antibodies to ACh receptors. Nerve stimulation studies show decreased responsiveness of skeletal muscle on repeated stimulation of motor neurons. What is the most likely diagnosis, and how might you treat this patient? o A. Multiple sclerosis – treat with interferon-beta o B. Guillain-Barré syndrome – treat with plasmapheresis o C. Myasthenia gravis – treat with pyridostigmine (indirect cholinergic agonist) o D. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome – treat with intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) Wernicke’s area, located in the temporal lobe, is primarily responsible for which of the following functions? o A. Controlling motor speech o B. Understanding receptive speech and language o C. Coordinating motor movements o D. Regulating emotions and behavior Wernicke’s area, identified as Brodmann area 22, is involved in which aspect of communication? o A. Forming speech sounds o B. Understanding verbal, written, and sign language o C. Controlling facial expressions o D. Coordinating muscle movements for speech A 55-year-old patient presents with difficulty understanding spoken and written language. Physical exam reveals fluent but nonsensical speech. A lesion in which of the following brain areas is most likely responsible for these symptoms? o A) Wernicke’s area o B) Broca’s area o C) Precentral gyrus o D) Cerebellum The blood supply to Wernicke’s area, which is crucial for language comprehension, is provided by which of the following? o A. Anterior cerebral artery (ACA) o B. Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) o C. Inferior division (M2) of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) o D. Superior division (M2) of the middle cerebral artery (MCA)  A 63-year-old right-handed female presents with difficulty understanding spoken language following a stroke. Imaging confirms an ischemic event affecting Wernicke’s area. Which artery is most likely involved in the ischemic event? o A. Anterior cerebral artery (ACA) o B. Superior division of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) o C. Inferior division (M2) of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) o D. Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) A patient presents with difficulty understanding both spoken and written language after suffering a stroke in the dominant hemisphere. The stroke most likely affected which of the following brain regions? o A. Broca’s area o B. Cerebellum o C. Wernicke’s area o D. Hippocampus Damage to the inferior division of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) in the dominant hemisphere would most likely result in which of the following symptoms? o A. Motor weakness on the contralateral side o B. Difficulty understanding written and spoken language (sensory aphasia) o C. Loss of coordination and balance o D. Inability to produce coherent speech A 68-year-old male presents with difficulty understanding spoken and written language following a stroke. His speech is fluent but nonsensical. Imaging shows an infarct in the dominant hemisphere involving the inferior division of the middle cerebral artery (MCA). Which of the following symptoms is most consistent with damage to this region? o A. Hemiplegia o B. Sensory aphasia o C. Loss of coordination o D. Expressive aphasia Broca’s area, located in the frontal lobe, is primarily responsible for which of the following functions? o A. Understanding spoken and written language o B. Controlling motor coordination o C. Forming speech (motor speech function) o D. Regulating emotional responses Broca’s area, identified as Brodmann area 44, is located in which part of the brain and is responsible for what function? o A. Temporal lobe, speech comprehension o B. Parietal lobe, sensory processing o C. Frontal lobe, speech formation o D. Occipital lobe, visual processing  A 60-year-old male presents with difficulty speaking following a stroke. His comprehension is intact, but his speech is halting and effortful. Imaging reveals damage to Brodmann area 44. Which of the following best describes the patient’s condition? o A. Wernicke’s aphasia o B. Broca’s aphasia o C. Global aphasia o D. Conduction aphasia A 45-year-old right-handed female suffers a stroke involving Brodmann area 44. What is the most likely symptom she would experience? o A. Fluent but nonsensical speech o B. Impaired speech formation with preserved comprehension o C. Loss of sensory perception o D. Difficulty recognizing faces A stroke affecting Broca’s area, located in the frontal lobe, would most likely result in which of the following deficits? o A. Difficulty understanding spoken language o B. Inability to produce coherent speech (expressive aphasia) o C. Impaired visual processing o D. Inability to regulate motor coordination Which artery supplies Broca’s area, responsible for speech formation? o A. Anterior cerebral artery (ACA) o B. Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) o C. Superior division (M2) of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) o D. Inferior division (M2) of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) A 55-year-old male presents with difficulty speaking after suffering a stroke. His comprehension remains intact, but he has trouble forming words and sentences. Imaging reveals a stroke affecting Broca’s area. Which artery is most likely involved? o A. Inferior division of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) o B. Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) o C. Superior division (M2) of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) o D. Anterior cerebral artery (ACA) A lesion or stroke affecting the superior division (M2) of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) at the lateral inferior frontal lobe in the dominant hemisphere would most likely result in which of the following symptoms? o A. Difficulty understanding spoken and written language o B. Motor aphasia (difficulty with speech and writing, but comprehension remains intact) o C. Hemiplegia on the contralateral side o D. Visual field deficits Damage to the superior division (M2) of the MCA in the dominant hemisphere, specifically in the lateral inferior frontal lobe, would result in which of the following? o A. Sensory aphasia with impaired language comprehension o B. Expressive aphasia with intact comprehension o C. Loss of motor control in both arms o D. Complete loss of language function  Which of the following is a primary function of the amygdala? o A. Regulation of heart rate & blood pressure o B. Processing of fear & emotional responses o C. Coordination of motor movements o D. Memory formation & language processing A 34-year-old male experiences heightened emotional responses and difficulty processing fear after suffering a brain injury. Which of the following brain structures is most likely involved? o A. Hippocampus o B. Cerebellum o C. Amygdala o D. Thalamus Damage to the mammillary bodies can impair memory, leading individuals to “confabulate” or make things up. In which of the following conditions is confabulation commonly seen? o A. Schizophrenia o B. Alcoholism o C. Depression o D. Parkinson’s Disease If the mammillary bodies are damaged and a person is unable to remember events, what behavior are they likely to exhibit? o A. Repeatedly ask the same questions o B. Confabulate (make up stories) o C. Exhibit violent outbursts o D. Experience hallucinations A 52-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents with memory impairment. He frequently fabricates stories when asked about recent events that he cannot recall. Which brain structure is most likely damaged, leading to this behavior? o A. Hippocampus o B. Amygdala o C. Mammillary bodies o D. Prefrontal cortex What is the role of calcium influx at the synaptic bulb? o A. It inhibits the release of neurotransmitters. o B. It causes mobilization and release of neurotransmitters by mobilizing neurotransmitter-containing vesicles. o C. It decreases the sensitivity of the synaptic membrane. o D. It blocks the action potential from reaching the synapse. A 32-year-old male presents with muscle weakness and delayed reflexes. Upon investigation, it is noted that there is impaired neurotransmitter release at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following ions is most directly involved in the release of neurotransmitters at the synaptic bulb? o A. Sodium o B. Potassium o C. Calcium  o D. Chloride What area of the brain is primarily responsible for memory formation & retrieval? o A. Amygdala o B. Thalamus o C. Cerebellum o D. Hippocampus Damage to which of the following brain structures would most likely result in memory deficits? o A. Cerebellum o B. Occipital lobe o C. Hippocampus o D. Medulla oblongata A 65-year-old patient presents with difficulty forming new memories following a stroke. Imaging reveals damage to the brain region primarily responsible for memory processing. Which of the following areas is most likely affected? o A. Amygdala o B. Hippocampus o C. Thalamus o D. Frontal lobe A patient with Alzheimer’s disease is found to have significant atrophy in the area of the brain responsible for memory consolidation. Which of the following structures is most likely affected? o A) Cerebellum o B) Basal ganglia o C) Hippocampus o D) Medulla Which brain structure is primarily involved in the formation of new memories and is often the first affected in neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer’s? o A. Hippocampus o B. Amygdala o C. Prefrontal cortex o D. Pons What is the primary function of the pineal gland? o A. Regulate blood pressure o B. Secrete melatonin to regulate sleep-wake cycles o C. Produce insulin to control blood glucose levels o D. Control muscle movement The pineal gland plays a key role in regulating which of the following processes? o A. Digestive enzyme secretion o B. Circadian rhythms and sleep patterns o C. Motor coordination o D. Cognitive function  A 45-year-old patient presents with difficulty falling asleep and disrupted sleep-wake cycles. Dysfunction in which of the following glands is most likely responsible for this condition? o A. Pituitary gland o B. Pineal gland o C. Adrenal gland o D. Thyroid gland Which of the following is a characteristic of REM sleep? o A. Increased muscle tone o B. Pupillary constriction and loss of temperature regulation o C. Slower eye movements o D. Decreased heart rate and respiration REM sleep is often referred to as paradoxical sleep because: o A. The EEG resembles deep sleep, but the person is easily awakened. o B. The EEG resembles the awake state, but the person is most difficult to awaken. o C. Muscle tone increases, yet the person is still in a deep sleep. o D. Dreams do not occur during this stage. Which of the following best describes the state of muscle tone during REM sleep? o A. Muscle tone is increased, allowing for body movements during dreams. o B. Muscle tone is decreased, leading to near-complete paralysis of major muscle groups. o C. Muscle tone remains the same as during wakefulness. o D. Muscle tone fluctuates, allowing for intermittent body movements during sleep. Which of the following best describes the appearance of the EEG during REM sleep? o A. High amplitude, slow waves o B. Low amplitude, mixed frequency waves similar to wakefulness o C. High frequency, rapid spikes o D. Low frequency, delta waves A patient is undergoing a sleep study. During the study, the EEG shows low amplitude, mixed frequency brain waves similar to wakefulness, but the patient remains difficult to awaken. Which of the following sleep stages is the patient most likely in? o A. Non-REM Stage 2 o B. Non-REM Stage 3 o C. REM sleep o D. Stage 1 A 40-year-old patient undergoing a sleep study shows rapid eye movements, loss of muscle tone, and pupil constriction. These findings are most consistent with which stage of sleep? o A. Stage 1 sleep o B. Stage 2 sleep o C. Stage 3 sleep o D. REM sleep A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who report episodes of screaming and intense fear during the night. They state that the child appears confused and is difficult to console, but does not remember the events the next morning. These episodes are most likely occurring during which stage of sleep? o A. REM sleep  o B. Stage 1 NREM sleep o C. Stage 4 NREM sleep o D. Stage 2 NREM sleep Which of the following is true regarding night terrors? o A. They occur during REM sleep and are typically recalled by the individual. o B. They occur during Stage 4 NREM sleep and are not usually remembered. o C. They occur during REM sleep and are associated with vivid dreaming. o D. They occur during sleep onset and are easily recalled upon waking. Which stage of NREM sleep is most associated with bedwetting, night terrors, and sleepwalking? o A. NREM-1 o B. NREM-2 o C. NREM-3 o D. NREM-4 During which stage of sleep is the EEG dominated by delta waves, making arousal very difficult? o A. NREM-1 o B. NREM-2 o C. NREM-4 o D. REM sleep Which stage of sleep is characterized by alpha waves on EEG and is the easiest stage for arousal? o A. NREM-1 o B. NREM-2 o C. NREM-3 o D. REM sleep In which stage of sleep do vital signs such as heart rate and respiration begin to decline, and the EEG shows theta and delta waves? o A. NREM-1 o B. NREM-2 o C. NREM-3 o D. REM sleep A patient reports difficulty waking their child during episodes of sleepwalking. Which stage of sleep is the child most likely experiencing during these episodes? o A. NREM-1 o B. NREM-2 o C. NREM-4 o D. REM sleep During which stage of sleep do sleep spindles appear on the EEG, and arousal becomes more difficult? o A. NREM-1 o B. NREM-2 o C. NREM-3  o D. REM sleep Which EEG pattern is most commonly associated with NREM-2 sleep? o A. Alpha waves o B. Delta waves o C. Sleep spindles o D. Theta waves In NREM-2 sleep, arousal is more difficult than in NREM-1 because: o A. Delta waves dominate the EEG. o B. Sleep spindles and K-complexes appear, indicating deeper sleep. o C. The body is in its most relaxed state with minimal brain activity. o D. The individual is experiencing vivid dreams. A patient undergoing a sleep study is noted to have an EEG pattern showing short, high- amplitude bursts of brain activity. In which stage of sleep is this pattern typically seen? o A. NREM-1 o B. NREM-2 o C. NREM-4 o D. REM sleep Which of the following functions is primarily associated with the precentral gyrus? o A. Sensory perception o B. Motor control o C. Language comprehension o D. Visual processing The precentral gyrus, also known as the primary motor cortex, is responsible for which of the following? o A. Coordinating voluntary muscle movements o B. Interpreting sensory information o C. Regulating circadian rhythms o D. Processing auditory stimuli Damage to the precentral gyrus, located in the frontal lobe, would most likely result in: o A. Loss of sensation in the affected area o B. Paralysis or weakness on the contralateral side of the body o C. Difficulty with language comprehension o D. Visual field deficits A 45-year-old male experiences sudden weakness on the right side of his body. Imaging reveals an ischemic stroke affecting the left precentral gyrus. This area of the brain is primarily responsible for: o A. Controlling voluntary muscle movements o B. Processing sensory input from the body o C. Interpreting spoken and written language o D. Coordinating visual stimuli The precentral gyrus is part of which of the following cortical areas? o A. Primary sensory cortex  o B. Primary motor cortex o C. Broca’s area o D. Wernicke’s area The inability to perform rapidly alternating movements (dysdiadochokinesia) is associated with lesions of the o A. premotor cortex o B. motor cortex o C. cerebellum o D. substantia nigra o E. medulla Which of the following structures has a primary function to coordinate rate, range, force, and direction of movement? o A. Primary motor cortex o B. Premotor cortex and supplementary motor cortex o C. Prefrontal cortex o D. Basal ganglia o E. Cerebellum A 65-year-old patient presents with difficulty maintaining balance and coordination. Upon examination, they have an unsteady gait and difficulty with fine motor tasks. Damage to which part of the brain is most likely responsible for these symptoms? o A. Frontal lobe o B. Occipital lobe o C. Cerebellum o D. Temporal lobe A patient presents with dysmetria (difficulty in controlling the distance and speed of movements) and an intention tremor. Which part of the brain is most likely affected? o A. Basal ganglia o B. Cerebellum o C. Frontal lobe o D. Parietal lobe Damage to the cerebellum would most likely result in which of the following clinical findings? o A. Hemiparesis o B. Aphasia o C. Ataxia and loss of coordination o D. Visual field deficits Damage to the superior temporal gyrus following a stroke would most likely cause which of the following clinical findings? o A. Visual field deficits o B. Sensory loss o C. Wernicke’s aphasia o D. Hemiparesis  A 62-year-old male presents with difficulty understanding language after suffering a stroke. He frequently substitutes incorrect words when speaking. Which brain region is most likely affected? o A. Precentral gyrus o B. Superior temporal gyrus o C. Occipital lobe o D. Parietal lobe Damage to the superior temporal gyrus, as seen in a stroke, would most likely result in which of the following symptoms? o A. Loss of motor function o B. Visual field deficits o C. Aphasia with word substitution o D. Loss of coordination A patient presents with contralateral hemiparesis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation on the contralateral side, and ipsilateral tongue deviation. Which of the following vascular events is most likely responsible for these findings? o A. Middle cerebral artery stroke o B. Medial medullary stroke o C. Lateral medullary stroke o D. Posterior cerebral artery stroke A 56-year-old male presents with dysphagia, hoarseness, vertigo, and ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation on the face. Examination also reveals contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation on the body and ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome. Which stroke syndrome is most consistent with these findings? o A. Medial medullary syndrome (Dejerine syndrome) o B. Lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome) o C. Weber syndrome o D. Benedikt syndrome Which of the following is a characteristic finding in medial medullary syndrome (Dejerine syndrome)? o A. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation on the face o B. Contralateral hemiparesis and ipsilateral tongue deviation o C. Contralateral Horner’s syndrome o D. Loss of proprioception and vibration in the ipsilateral limbs Which of the following arteries is most commonly involved in a stroke causing lateral medullary syndrome? o A. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) o B. Anterior cerebral artery o C. Middle cerebral artery o D. Basilar artery Which of the following is most characteristic of lateral medullary syndrome? o A. Ipsilateral tongue deviation o B. Contralateral loss of proprioception and vibration o C. Ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome and contralateral loss of pain and temperature  o D. Complete paralysis of the lower extremities A stroke causing medial medullary syndrome is most commonly due to occlusion of which artery? o A. Anterior spinal artery o B. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) o C. Middle cerebral artery o D. Superior cerebellar artery A patient presents with contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral loss of proprioception and vibration, and ipsilateral tongue deviation. Occlusion of which artery is most likely responsible for these symptoms? o A. Anterior spinal artery o B. Vertebral artery o C. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) o D. Basilar artery A stroke involving the lateral medulla affecting the nucleus ambiguous, trigeminal nucleus, and spinothalamic tract is most likely caused by occlusion of which of the following arteries? o A. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) o B. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) o C. Basilar artery o D. Anterior spinal artery A 65-year-old man with a 40-year smoking history and uncontrolled hypertension presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden-onset dysphagia and hoarseness. Vitals are blood pressure 170/95 mmHg, heart rate 87 bpm, respiration rate 14 breaths/min, and temperature 98.6 F (37 C). On physical examination, he has decreased sensation to pinprick on the left side of his face and right side of his body. His gag reflex has diminished, and his uvula deviates to the right. No facial droop is present. There is nystagmus on eye examination. A stroke in the brainstem is suspected. Given the patient's symptoms, what artery is most likely affected? o A. Middle cerebral artery o B. Anterior spinal artery o C. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) o D. Basilar artery A 65-year-old man with a 40-year smoking history and uncontrolled hypertension presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden-onset dysphagia and hoarseness. Vitals are blood pressure 170/95 mmHg, heart rate 87 bpm, respiration rate 14 breaths/min, and temperature 98.6 F (37 C). On physical examination, he has decreased sensation to pinprick on the left side of his face and right side of his body. His gag reflex has diminished, and his uvula deviates to the right. No facial droop is present. There is nystagmus on eye examination. A stroke in the brainstem is suspected. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s presentation? o A. Medial medullary syndrome o B. Lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome) o C. Weber syndrome o D. Locked-in syndrome  A 65-year-old man with a 40-year smoking history and uncontrolled hypertension presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden-onset dysphagia and hoarseness. Vitals are blood pressure 170/95 mmHg, heart rate 87 bpm, respiration rate 14 breaths/min, and temperature 98.6 F (37 C). On physical examination, he has decreased sensation to pinprick on the left side of his face and right side of his body. His gag reflex has diminished, and his uvula deviates to the right. No facial droop is present. There is nystagmus on eye examination. A stroke in the brainstem is suspected. Which of the following is the most likely site of the patient’s lesion? o A. Pons o B. Medial medulla o C. Lateral medulla o D. Thalamus A 70-year-old patient with a history of chronic hypertension and cardiovascular disease presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden-onset dysphagia, hoarseness, and nystagmus. Apart from a blood pressure of 160/95 mmHg, his vital signs are unremarkable. On physical examination, he has decreased sensation to pinprick on the left side of his face and right side of his body. He has a diminished gag reflex, and it is noted that his uvula points to the right. No weakness or loss of sensation is noted on the tongue. He has an ataxic gait, diplopia and nystagmus. A stroke in the brainstem is suspected. What is the most likely part of the brainstem that is affected in this lesion? o A. Medial medullary syndrome o B. Lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome) o C. Weber syndrome o D. Locked-in syndrome A 70-year-old patient with a history of chronic hypertension and cardiovascular disease presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden-onset dysphagia, hoarseness, and nystagmus. Apart from a blood pressure of 160/95 mmHg, his vital signs are unremarkable. On physical examination, he has decreased sensation to pinprick on the left side of his face and right side of his body. He has a diminished gag reflex, and it is noted that his uvula points to the right. No weakness or loss of sensation is noted on the tongue. He has an ataxic gait, diplopia and nystagmus. A stroke in the brainstem is suspected. Which artery is most likely affected based on this patient’s symptoms? o A. Anterior spinal artery o B. Middle cerebral artery o C. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) o D. Basilar artery A 70-year-old patient with a history of chronic hypertension and cardiovascular disease presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden-onset dysphagia, hoarseness, and nystagmus. Apart from a blood pressure of 160/95 mmHg, his vital signs are unremarkable. On physical examination, he has decreased sensation to pinprick on the left side of his face and right side of his body. He has a diminished gag reflex, and it is noted that his uvula points to the right. No weakness or loss of sensation is noted on the tongue. He has an ataxic gait, diplopia and nystagmus. A stroke in the brainstem is suspected. Which part of the brainstem is most likely affected by this lesion? o A. Pons o B. Medial medulla o C. Lateral medulla o D. Midbrain  A lesion to the chorda tympani nerve would most likely result in o A. impaired olfactory function o B. impaired vestibular function o C. impaired auditory function o D. impaired taste function o E. nerve deafness A patient presents with dysphagia, hoarseness, and a diminished gag reflex following a stroke. These symptoms are most likely due to damage to which of the following structures? o A. Precentral gyrus o B. Nucleus ambiguus o C. Hippocampus o D. Cerebellum Damage to the nucleus ambiguus during a brainstem stroke can result in which of the following clinical findings? o A. Diplopia (double vision) o B. Dysphagia and hoarseness o C. Loss of proprioception in the limbs o D. Hemiparesis of the face In lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome), a stroke affecting the nucleus ambiguus would lead to which of the following symptoms? o A. Contralateral hemiparesis o B. Hoarseness and difficulty swallowing o C. Loss of vision in one eye o D. Ataxia Which part of the neuron has fewer sodium channels compared to other regions? o A. Axon hillock o B. Nodes of Ranvier o C. Synaptic bulb o D. Dendrites In the synaptic bulb, which ion channels play a more dominant role compared to sodium channels? o A. Chloride channels o B. Calcium channels o C. Potassium channels o D. Magnesium channels A 67-year-old female presents with sudden onset of partial hearing loss (hypoacusis) and imbalance. Imaging reveals an infarct in the brainstem affecting cranial nerve VIII. Which artery is most likely involved in the stroke? o A. Middle cerebral artery (MCA) o B. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) o C. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) o D. Anterior cerebral artery (ACA)  A stroke affecting the anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) can lead to hypoacusis and vertigo. This is due to the involvement of which cranial nerve? o A. Cranial Nerve VI (Abducens) o B. Cranial Nerve VII (Facial) o C. Cranial Nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear) o D. Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal) Hypoacusis due to a stroke is most likely caused by damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve. Which stroke syndrome is most commonly associated with involvement of this cranial nerve? o A. Lateral medullary syndrome o B. Medial medullary syndrome o C. Pontine stroke involving AICA o D. Frontal lobe infarction Which type of stroke is more common? o A. Hemorrhagic stroke o B. Ischemic stroke o C. Arteriovenous malformation (AVM) stroke o D. Subdural stroke A hemorrhagic stroke is most likely caused by which of the following? o A. Arterial rupture o B. Embolism from the heart o C. Atherosclerosis of a carotid artery o D. Venous thrombus A patient experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and is found to have a stroke. Which artery is most likely involved? o A. Middle cerebral artery (MCA) o B. Vertebrobasilar artery o C. Anterior cerebral artery (ACA) o D. Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) Sudden loss of consciousness due to stroke is most commonly associated with an infarction or hemorrhage in which part of the brain? o A. Cerebellum o B. Brainstem o C. Frontal lobe o D. Parietal lobe A patient presents with a sudden “thunderclap” headache described as the worst headache of their life. Imaging reveals bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Which type of hemorrhagic stroke is this patient most likely experiencing? o A. Intracerebral hemorrhage o B. Subdural hematoma o C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage o D. Epidural hematoma Which of the following best describes a subdural hematoma? o A. Bleeding between the dura mater and skull, usually caused by arterial rupture  o B. Bleeding between the arachnoid and pia mater, commonly from an aneurysm o C. Bleeding between the dura and arachnoid layers, often caused by venous injury o D. Bleeding into the brain parenchyma, commonly caused by hypertension Which of the following is a risk factor specifically associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage? o A. Carotid artery stenosis o B. Aneurysm rupture o C. Atrial fibrillation o D. Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis A patient presents with sudden-onset hemiparesis, which imaging confirms is due to a lacunar ischemic stroke. Which of the following is a likely cause of this ischemic event? o A. Aneurysm rupture o B. Hypertension causing small vessel occlusion o C. Trauma to the head o D. Carotid artery dissection A hemorrhagic stroke in the pons is most likely to result in which of the following symptoms? o A. Quadriplegia, pinpoint pupils, and no horizontal eye movement o B. Contralateral hemiparesis and aphasia o C. Hemiparesis and sensory loss in the lower extremities o D. Ataxia and vertigo Which of the following brain regions is associated with ataxia, headache, and vertigo when affected by a hemorrhagic stroke? o A. Thalamus o B. Cerebellum o C. Frontal lobe o D. Parietal lobe A stroke affecting the vertebrobasilar arteries is most likely to cause which of the following symptoms? o A. Contralateral hemiparesis o B. Aphasia o C. Loss of consciousness (LOC) o D. Hemispatial neglect Which of the following characteristics best distinguishes a TIA from a full stroke? o A. The symptoms last more than 24 hours o B. It results in permanent damage o C. It affects the cerebellum o D. The symptoms resolve within 24 hours without permanent damage A 68-year-old patient presents with homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing after suffering a stroke. Which artery is most likely involved in this case? o A. Anterior cerebral artery (ACA) o B. Middle cerebral artery (MCA) o C. Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) o D. Basilar artery  A 47 year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to occipital headache and nausea. The headache began suddenly when she was climbing stairs at the subway station. She rested at home for 12 hours after the onset of symptoms, but the headache continues to be very intense. She denies vomiting, blurry vision, muscle weakness or syncope. The patient has a history of moderate-intensity tension headaches that concentrate around the temple. She takes over-the-counter pain relievers for these headaches, but they have not helped the current headache; it is much worse and differs from her usual pattern. The patient has a 15- pack-year history. Temperature is 98°F, BP is 143/90 mmHg, and pulse is 95/min. She is in significant distress due to pain but is cooperative. There are no focal neurologic deficits. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s presentation? o A. Subdural hematoma o B. Tension headache o C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) o D. Cluster headache A 47 year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to occipital headache and nausea. The headache began suddenly when she was climbing stairs at the subway station. She rested at home for 12 hours after the onset of symptoms, but the headache continues to be very intense. She denies vomiting, blurry vision, muscle weakness or syncope. The patient has a history of moderate-intensity tension headaches that concentrate around the temple. She takes over-the-counter pain relievers for these headaches, but they have not helped the current headache; it is much worse and differs from her usual pattern. The patient has a 15- pack-year history. Temperature is 98°F, BP is 143/90 mmHg, and pulse is 95/min. She is in significant distress due to pain but is cooperative. There are no focal neurologic deficits. Which artery is most likely involved in this patient’s condition? o A. Middle cerebral artery o B. Anterior communicating artery o C. Posterior cerebral artery o D. Vertebral artery A 47 year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to occipital headache and nausea. The headache began suddenly when she was climbing stairs at the subway station. She rested at home for 12 hours after the onset of symptoms, but the headache continues to be very intense. She denies vomiting, blurry vision, muscle weakness or syncope. The patient has a history of moderate-intensity tension headaches that concentrate around the temple. She takes over-the-counter pain relievers for these headaches, but they have not helped the current headache; it is much worse and differs from her usual pattern. The patient has a 15- pack-year history. Temperature is 98°F, BP is 143/90 mmHg, and pulse is 95/min. She is in significant distress due to pain but is cooperative. There are no focal neurologic deficits. Which area of the brain is most likely affected in this patient? o A. Occipital lobe o B. Subarachnoid space near the Circle of Willis o C. Cerebellum o D. Brainstem A 47 year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to occipital headache and nausea. The headache began suddenly when she was climbing stairs at the subway station. She rested at home for 12 hours after the onset of symptoms, but the headache continues to be very intense. She denies vomiting, blurry vision, muscle weakness or syncope. The patient has a history of moderate-intensity tension headaches that concentrate around the temple. She  takes over-the-counter pain relievers for these headaches, but they have not helped the current headache; it is much worse and differs from her usual pattern. The patient has a 15- pack-year history. Temperature is 98°F, BP is 143/90 mmHg, and pulse is 95/min. She is in significant distress due to pain but is cooperative. There are no focal neurologic deficits. What is the best initial diagnostic test? o A. MRI of the brain o B. CT angiography o C. Non-contrast CT scan of the head o D. Lumbar puncture A 67-year-old man presents with sudden onset of difficulty swallowing, labored breathing, and slurred speech. He is unable to speak but can blink his eyes to answer questions. Physical examination reveals loss of eye movement, bilateral facial droop, and flaccid quadriparesis. The sensory examination is impaired to light touch, pain, and vibration on both sides. Babinski sign is positive bilaterally. He is intubated and placed on a mechanical ventilator. What is the most likely diagnosis? o A. Brainstem glioma o B. Locked-in syndrome o C. Guillain-Barré syndrome o D. Myasthenia gravis A 67-year-old man presents with sudden onset of difficulty swallowing, labored breathing, and slurred speech. He is unable to speak but can blink his eyes to answer questions. Physical examination reveals loss of eye movement, bilateral facial droop, and flaccid quadriparesis. The sensory examination is impaired to light touch, pain, and vibration on both sides. Babinski sign is positive bilaterally. He is intubated and placed on a mechanical ventilator. Which artery is most likely involved? o A. Middle cerebral artery o B. Basilar artery o C. Anterior cerebral artery o D. Vertebral artery A 67-year-old man presents with sudden onset of difficulty swallowing, labored breathing, and slurred speech. He is unable to speak but can blink his eyes to answer questions. Physical examination reveals loss of eye movement, bilateral facial droop, and flaccid quadriparesis. The sensory examination is impaired to light touch, pain, and vibration on both sides. Babinski sign is positive bilaterally. He is intubated and placed on a mechanical ventilator. Which area is the most likely affected? o A. Ventral pons o B. Medulla o C. Dorsal midbrain o D. Cerebellum A 60-year-old man presents with acute weakness on the left side of the body. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is noncompliant with medication. Physical examination demonstrates left hemiplegia involving the face more than the arm and leg. The suck and grasp reflexes and speech are preserved. Which cerebral vessel is involved? o A. Left anterior cerebral artery o B. Right middle cerebral artery  o C. Right posterior cerebral artery o D. Left middle cerebral artery A 60-year-old man presents with acute weakness on the left side of the body. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is noncompliant with medication. Physical examination demonstrates left hemiplegia involving the face more than the arm and leg. The suck and grasp reflexes and speech are preserved. What is the most likely diagnosis? o A. Right cerebellar stroke o B. Left anterior cerebral artery stroke o C. Right middle cerebral artery stroke o D. Left vertebral artery stroke A 60-year-old man presents with acute weakness on the left side of the body. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is noncompliant with medication. Physical examination demonstrates left hemiplegia involving the face more than the arm and leg. The suck and grasp reflexes and speech are preserved. What area of the brain is most likely affected? o A. Right cerebellum o B. Left temporal lobe o C. Right cerebral hemisphere o D. Brainstem What is the most common site for the development of a cerebral aneurysm? o A. Anterior cerebral artery (ACA) o B. Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) o C. Anterior communicating artery (AComA) o D. Basilar artery Berry aneurysms are most commonly found at which of the following locations? o A. Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) o B. Anterior communicating artery (AComA) o C. Middle cerebral artery (MCA) o D. Basilar artery A 55-year-old patient presents with a sudden “thunderclap” headache and loss of consciousness. A CT scan reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, likely due to a ruptured berry aneurysm. Which of the following is the most common site of this type of aneurysm? o A. Middle cerebral artery (MCA) o B. Anterior communicating artery (AComA) o C. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) o D. Basilar artery Where does blood accumulate in an epidural hematoma? o A. Between the brain and pia mater o B. Between the dura mater and arachnoid mater o C. Between the skull and dura mater o D. Between the brain and arachnoid mater A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department after being struck on the side of the head with a baseball bat. He briefly lost consciousness, but now appears lucid. A CT scan  reveals a biconvex (lens-shaped) mass in the right parietal region. Where does blood typically accumulate in an epidural hematoma? o A. Between the brain and pia mater o B. Between the dura mater and arachnoid mater o C. Between the skull’s inner periosteum and dura mater o D. Between the brain and arachnoid mater A 70-year-old male with a history of multiple falls presents with confusion and a headache that has progressively worsened over the last few days. A CT scan reveals a crescent-shaped collection of blood. Where does blood accumulate in a subdural hematoma? o A. Between the skull and dura mater o B. Between the brain and pia mater o C. Between the dura mater and arachnoid mater o D. Between the brain and arachnoid mater A 52-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a sudden, severe headache described as the “worst headache of her life.” She also has neck stiffness and photophobia. A CT scan of the head shows bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Where does blood accumulate in a subarachnoid hemorrhage? o A. Between the skull and dura mater o B. Between the dura mater and arachnoid mater o C. Between the brain and pia mater o D. Between the arachnoid mater and pia mater A 6-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department after experiencing seizures. The infant’s mother reports that the baby has been lethargic and irritable. A CT scan of the head reveals a crescent-shaped collection of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid mater. Which type of hematoma is most likely associated with shaken baby syndrome? o A. Epidural hematoma o B. Subdural hematoma o C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage o D. Intraventricular hemorrhage A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a car accident. He has difficulty recalling the events leading up to the injury and appears disoriented. The physician suspects a traumatic brain injury with memory impairment. Which area of the brain is most likely affected? o A. Occipital lobe o B. Hippocampus o C. Cerebellum o D. Parietal lobe A patient sustains a spinal cord injury that affects sensory information coming from the limbs. Which part of the spinal cord is most likely involved in this injury? o A. Ventral horn o B. Ventral root o C. Dorsal root o D. Cerebellum  Which of the following correctly describes the flow of afferent information in the nervous system? o A. Sensory signals entering the spinal cord through the ventral root o B. Sensory signals entering the spinal cord through the dorsal root o C. Motor signals exiting the spinal cord through the dorsal root o D. Motor signals exiting the spinal cord through the ventral root Which root of the spinal cord is responsible for carrying efferent (motor) signals from the CNS to the body? o A. Dorsal root o B. Ventral root o C. Dorsal ganglion o D. Posterior column A patient presents with loss of sensation in their right leg but retains motor function. A lesion in which of the following areas is most likely responsible for this deficit? o A. Ventral root o B. Dorsal root o C. Ventral horn o D. Lateral horn Which type of neurons are predominantly found in the ventral root of the spinal cord? o A. Sensory neurons o B. Interneurons o C. Motor neurons o D. Autonomic sensory neurons A 25-year-old male is undergoing an EEG while solving math problems. During this period of mental alertness and concentration , which brain wave pattern is most likely dominant? o A. Theta waves o B. Delta waves o C. Beta waves o D. Alpha waves A 32-year-old woman is undergoing an EEG. She is awake but in a calm and relaxed state with her eyes closed. Which type of brain wave is most likely dominant in this scenario? o A. Delta waves o B. Beta waves o C. Theta waves o D. Alpha waves A 7-year-old child undergoes an EEG. Theta waves are noted to be dominant, which is most common in children. In adults, theta waves are more likely to be seen during which of the following states? o A. Concentrating o B. Deep sleep o C. Calm wakefulness o D. General anesthesia  During an EEG study of a 65-year-old male who is under general anesthesia, delta waves are observed. In a conscious adult, the presence of delta waves is most concerning for which of the following conditions? o A. Mental alertness o B. Brain damage o C. Light sleep o D. Hyperactivity A 70-year-old male is undergoing a sleep study. During deep sleep (NREM Stage 3), which of the following brain waves would be most prominent on the EEG? o A. Alpha waves o B. Theta waves o C. Delta waves o D. Beta waves The postcentral gyrus is primarily responsible for which of the following functions? o A. Voluntary motor control o B. Auditory processing o C. Somatosensory processing o D. Visual processing Which adrenergic receptor is primarily responsible for regulating bronchodilation in the lungs and improving airflow during breathing? o A. Alpha-1 receptor o B. Beta-1 receptor o C. Alpha-2 receptor o D. Beta-2 receptor A 45-year-old male with a history of asthma presents with shortness of breath and wheezing. He is given an inhaler containing albuterol, which rapidly improves his symptoms by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscles. Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most likely stimulated by albuterol to cause bronchodilation? o A. Alpha-1 receptor o B. Beta-1 receptor o C. Alpha-2 receptor o D. Beta-2 receptor A 30-year-old female with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and wheezing. She is administered a bronchodilator, which quickly alleviates her symptoms. Which class of medications is most commonly used as bronchodilators in the acute treatment of asthma due to their stimulation of adrenergic receptors? o A. Alpha-1 agonists o B. Beta-1 agonists o C. Beta-2 agonists o D. Muscarinic antagonists Which ion plays the most significant role in maintaining the resting membrane potential of a neuron by moving out of the cell, contributing to the negative charge inside? o A. Sodium (Na⁺)  o B. Potassium (K⁺) o C. Calcium (Ca²⁺) o D. Chloride (Cl⁻) A 5-year-old boy is diagnosed with obstructive hydrocephalus due to a blockage preventing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from draining from the lateral ventricles into the third ventricle. Which of the following foramen is most likely obstructed? o A. Foramen of Magendie o B. Foramen of Monro o C. Cerebral aqueduct o D. Foramen of Luschka Which of the following is a property of C fibers? o A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any nerve fiber type o B. Have the largest diameter of any nerve fiber type o C. Are afferent nerves from muscle spindles o D. Are afferent nerves from Golgi tendon organs o E. Are preganglionic autonomic fibers A patient presents with lower back pain, urinary retention, and saddle anesthesia. Injury to which type of nerve fibers found in the cauda equina is most likely contributing to the loss of sensation and autonomic dysfunction? o A. Type A-alpha fibers o B. Type A-delta fibers o C. Type C fibers o D. Type B fibers Type C fibers, which are unmyelinated and slow-conducting, are primarily responsible for carrying which type of sensory information? o A. Proprioception o B. Sharp, localized pain o C. Dull, diffuse pain and temperature o D. Vibration sensation A 65-year-old patient presents with uncoordinated gait, clumsiness in performing fine motor tasks, and difficulty maintaining balance. MRI reveals a lesion in the brain. Which area is most likely affected? o A. Hippocampus o B. Cerebellum o C. Basal ganglia o D. Occipital lobe Huntington’s disease is associated with an abnormal expansion of CAG trinucleotide repeats. Which of the following is the primary clinical feature observed in this condition? o A. Resting tremor o B. Chorea and cognitive decline o C. Ataxia o D. Muscle rigidity  In Huntington’s disease, chorea is a prominent clinical feature. Which of the following best describes chorea? o A. Slow, writhing movements of the hands and feet o B. Rapid, jerky, and involuntary movements o C. Sustained muscle contractions causing twisting and repetitive movements o D. Unilateral, flinging movements of the limbs A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation across the upper back and arms. Light touch and proprioception remain intact. MRI reveals a fluid-filled cyst (syrinx) in the cervical spinal cord. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? o A Multiple sclerosis o B. Syringomyelia o C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) o D. Guillain-Barré syndrome In syringomyelia, the loss of pain and temperature sensation is due to the disruption of which spinal cord structure? o A. Dorsal columns o B. Corticospinal tract o C. Anterior horn cells o D. Spinothalamic tract Syringomyelia is characterized by a central cord lesion caused by a fluid-filled cavity or syrinx within the spinal cord. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of neurological deficit in this condition? o A. Demyelination of the spinal cord tracts o B. Transection of the spinal cord o C. Destruction of spinal motor neurons o D. Compression of spinal cord tissue due to expansion of the syrinx A 55-year-old male presents with unsteady gait and difficulty with balance. During the physical exam, he is unable to touch his nose with his finger accurately during the finger-to-nose test, and his gait is wide-based and uncoordinated. Damage to which of the following brain structures is most likely responsible for these findings? o A. Cerebellum o B. Basal ganglia o C. Parietal lobe o D. Occipital lobe Anterior spinal artery occlusion syndrome causes which of the following neurological deficits? o A. Loss of proprioception and vibration sensation o B. Paralysis with preserved pain and temperature sensation o C. Loss of motor function and loss of pain and temperature sensation, with intact proprioception o D. Loss of all sensory and motor function A 60-year-old male presents with sudden onset of weakness in his legs and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the chest after aortic surgery. Physical examination reveals complete paralysis of the lower extremities and loss of pain and temperature sensation, but proprioception and vibration are preserved. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?  o A. Multiple sclerosis o B. Anterior spinal artery occlusion syndrome o C. Guillain-Barré syndrome o D. Central cord syndrome A 65-year-old man with a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with an inability to move either of his lower extremities and loss of pain and temperature sensation below his waist. His symptoms came on suddenly approximately three hours ago. A full neurologic exam shows 0/5 power in both lower extremities, but his proprioceptive and fine touch sensations to be normal. However, after an hour in the emergency department, he begins to complain of suprapubic discomfort, and an overly distended bladder on ultrasound is discovered. o A) Central cord syndrome o B) Anterior spinal artery occlusion o C) Brown-Séquard syndrome o D) Cauda equina syndrome A 50-year-old male presents with bilateral paralysis and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of a spinal cord injury. His proprioception and vibration sense remain intact. Which of the following spinal tracts are most likely affected in this patient? o A. Dorsal columns o B. Corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts o C. Corticospinal and dorsal columns o D. Spinothalamic and dorsal columns A 55-year-old male presents with decreased vibratory sensation, a high steppage gait, hyperreflexia, absent knee jerk reflex, and a positive Romberg’s test. His symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few months. He denies recent trauma or autoimmune disease. Neurological examination reveals increased reflexes in the upper limbs and absent reflexes in the lower limbs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? o A. Peripheral nerve injury o B) Compression of the spinal cord o C) Demyelinating disease affecting the upper motor neurons o D) Autoimmune destruction of peripheral nerves A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being stabbed in the back. On examination, he has weakness and loss of proprioception and vibration on the right side of his body below the level of the injury, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? o A. Anterior cord syndrome o B. Central cord syndrome o C. Brown-Séquard syndrome o D. Cauda equina syndrome In Brown-Séquard syndrome, which of the following findings would you expect on the side ipsilateral to the spinal cord lesion? o A. Loss of pain and temperature sensation o B. Loss of proprioception and vibration sense, along with motor weakness o C. Hyperreflexia with loss of pain and temperature sensation o D. Loss of all sensory and motor function  Brown-Séquard syndrome results from hemisection of the spinal cord. Which of the following tracts is responsible for the contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion? o A. Corticospinal tract o B. Spinothalamic tract o C. Dorsal columns o D. Vestibulospinal tract A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a traumatic injury to the right side of his back. On neurological exam, you find weakness, loss of proprioception, and decreased reflexes on the right side below the level of the injury, as well as increased reflexes and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral left side below the injury. Which of the following best explains the patient’s findings? o A. Anterior cord syndrome o B. Central cord syndrome o C. Brown-Séquard syndrome o D. Cauda equina syndrome A 28-year-old male presents after a knife injury to the right side of his back. Neurological examination reveals right-sided weakness, loss of motor control, and loss of proprioception and vibration below the level of the injury, as well as loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side below the injury. Which of the following best describes the findings? o A. Anterior cord syndrome o B. Central cord syndrome o C. Brown-Séquard syndrome o D. Posterior cord syndrome A patient is diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which of the following findings would suggest lower motor neuron (LMN) involvement? o A. Increased deep tendon reflexes o B. Spastic paralysis o C. Muscle fasciculations and atrophy o D. Hypertonia A 48-year-old male presents with progressive muscle weakness, hyperreflexia, occasional fasciculations, and a diminished gag reflex. Physical examination reveals increased muscle tone in the limbs and a positive Babinski sign. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of an upper motor neuron lesion? o A. Hyperreflexia and spasticity o B. Muscle atrophy and fasciculations o C. Absent deep tendon reflexes o D. Loss of sensation in the extremities The anterior horn cells of the spinal cord are primarily responsible for which of the following functions? o A. Transmission of afferent sensory signals to the brain o B. Efferent transmission of motor signals to skeletal muscles o C. Modulation of autonomic functions o D. Transmission of sensory signals for pain and temperature  A 65-year-old male suddenly develops weakness in his right arm and leg, slurred speech, difficulty understanding spoken language (aphasia), and spacial neglect. He also has signs of apraxia (diminished motor planning) and agnosia. His family also notices his face appears uneven, with drooping on the right side. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms? o A. Myasthenia gravis o B. Guillain-Barré syndrome o C. Transient ischemic attack o D. Stroke A 62-year-old female who recently suffered a stroke is unable to recognize familiar objects when looking at them, despite having intact vision. She can identify the objects by touch or sound. What is the most likely diagnosis? o A. Apraxia o B. Visual agnosia o C. Aphasia o D. Auditory agnosia A 70-year-old woman is unable to carry out a sequence of actions, such as brushing her teeth, despite being physically capable of doing so. She does not have muscle weakness or sensory loss. She can describe the task but cannot perform the required movements when asked. What is the most likely diagnosis? o A. Agnosia o B. Apraxia o C. Aphasia o D. Dysarthria A 45-year-old farmer presents to the emergency department with salivation, lacrimation, diarrhea, vomiting, and miosis after being exposed to pesticides. His heart rate is 45 beats per minute, and he has bronchorrhea. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment? o A. Epinephrine o B. Atropine and pralidoxime o C. Naloxone o D. Flumazenil A patient presents with cholinergic toxicity from organophosphate poisoning. In addition to atropine, which of the following agents is administered to reactivate acetylcholinesterase? o A. Pralidoxime o B. Physostigmine o C. Flumazenil o D. Naloxone A 42-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after exposure to pesticides. He is drooling, sweating profusely, has pinpoint pupils, and his heart rate is 40 bpm. The first-line therapy to treat his bradycardia and muscarinic symptoms is: o A. Atropine o B. Epinephrine o C. Physostigmine o D. Propranolol  A 45-year-old male with a history of asthma and hypertension presents for a routine follow-up. Which of the following medications should be avoided due to its potential to exacerbate his asthma? o A. Amlodipine o B. Propranolol o C. Lisinopril o D. Losartan A 70-year-old patient presents with difficulty initiating movements and orienting herself in space, often neglecting the left side of her visual field. Imaging reveals damage to the right hemisphere of the brain. Which brain regions are most likely involved? o A. Right parietal lobe and premotor cortex o B. Left occipital lobe and parietal lobe o C. Left temporal lobe and frontal lobe o D. Right frontal lobe and occipital lobe