Nursing Aptitude Test Reviewer PDF

Nursing Aptitude Test Reviewer 1. The process by which the body regulates its temperature is referred to as: a. Chemotropism b. Osmosis c. Homeostasis d. Hemostasis 2. This set up is used to illustrate which of the following process? a. Diffusion b. Osmosis c. Geotropism d. Active diffusion 3. Which...

Nursing Aptitude Test Reviewer 1. The process by which the body regulates its temperature is referred to as: a. Chemotropism b. Osmosis c. Homeostasis d. Hemostasis 2. This set up is used to illustrate which of the following process? a. Diffusion b. Osmosis c. Geotropism d. Active diffusion 3. Which of the following is correct? a. The water molecules flow from the concentrated to the less concentrated solution. b. The water molecules flow from the less concentrated to the more concentrated solution. c. The salt molecules flow from the concentrated solution to the water. d. There is no flow of water molecules in both solutions. 4. What is the process by which water flows from the soil into the roots? a. Diffusion b. Osmosis c. Active diffusion d. Facilitated diffusion 5. Dogs take in oxygen during inspiration by which of the following process? a. Passive diffusion b. Osmosis c. Active Diffusion d. Facilitated Diffusion 6. The functional unit of lungs is the: a. Nephron b. Capillaries c. Alveoli d. Hepatocytes 7. The functional unit of the kidney is the: a. Capillaries b. Alveoli c. Villi d. Nephron 8. Which part of the brain is associated with hearing? a. Occipital lobe b. Frontal lobe c. Parietal lobe d. Temporal lobe 9. The occipital lobe of the cerebrum is associated with which of the following? a. Vision b. Hearing c. Touching d. Smelling 10. Jane had an injury to her cerebellum. Which of the following is likely to occur? a. Inability to see clearly b. Difficulty of hearing music c. Difficulty on swallowing fluids d. Difficulty of balancing herself 11. In which organ can you locate the semicircular canals? a. Eye b. Ears c. Stomach d. Kidneys 12. There are three semi-circular canals. What are their functions? a. Excretion of waste products b. Absorption of digested food c. Hearing d. Balancing 13. What is the test that can be used to identify potassium, sodium, and calcium? a. Benedict’s test b. Flame test c. Lugol’s test d. Litmus paper test 14. What test would you perform on potatoes to identify starch? a. Benedict;s test b. Fehling’ test c. Iodine test d. Litmus paper test 15. Human skeleton is made of: a. 201 bones b. 206 bones c. 198 bones d. 200 bones 16. Spinal column has vertebrae: a. 12 b. 20 c. 25 d. 33 17. Longest bone of the human body is; a. Femur b. Humerus c. Tibia d. Fibula 18. The skull is consisting of: a. 14 bones b. 22 bones c. 12 bones d. 8 bones 19. The smallest bone of human body is: a. Stapes b. Phalanges c. Metacarpals d. Xiphisternum 20. What should the nurse do immediately before performing any procedure? a. Shut the door b. Wash their hands c. Close the curtain d. Drape the patient 21. Which patient would be at the greatest risk of electrolyte imbalance? a. A child who is vomiting and has diarrhea b. An athlete playing games on a hot summer day c. A renal failure patient d. A patient who is having nasogastric suctioning 22. A patient who is undergoing cancer chemotherapy says to the nurse, “This is no way to live.” Which responses uses reflective technique? a. “Tell me more about what you are thinking.” b. “You sound discouraged today.” c. “Life is not worth living?” d. “What are you saying?” 23. Which patient statement indicates a further need for teaching about vitamins? a. “My need for vitamins will change as I get older.” b. Some vitamins can be manufactured by the body” c. “I don’t need vitamins because I eat a balanced diet.” d. “Vitamins can be taken without the fear of toxic effects.’ 24. A patient report being constipated. What should the nurse encourage the patient to eat? a. Fresh fruit and whole wheat bread b. Whole-wheat bread and chicken c. Plain yogurt and fresh fruit d. Chicken and plain yogurt 25. A nurse assesses that a postoperative patient has a decreased blood pressure and weak, thread pulse and concludes that the patient may be hemorrhaging. For what additional signs of hemorrhage should the nurse assess the patient? a. Pain b. Respiration Rate c. Tachycardia d. Fever 26. The patient diagnosed with an exacerbation of COPD is in respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Assist the patient into a sitting position at 90 degrees. b. Administer oxygen at 6 LMP via nasal canula. c. Monitor vital signs with the patient sitting upright d. Notify the health care provider about the patient’s status 27. The nurse writes a problem of “impaired gas exchange” for a patient diagnose with cancer of the lung. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply o2 via nasal canula b. Have the dietitian plan for 6 small meals a day c. Place the patient in respiratory isolation d. Assess vital signs for fever e. Listen to lung sounds every shift 28. The production of parathyroid hormone will have all of the following effects EXCEPT a. Dissolving of calcium phosphate crystals present in bones b. Increased excretion of phosphate ions by the kidneys c. Long-term increased phosphate concentration in the extracellular fluids d. Increased calcium ion concentration in the extracellular fluids 29. The following are characteristics of hormones except a. Catalyze a metabolic reaction b. Alter metabolic processes within target organs c. Alter a person’s entire metabolism d. Travel from the site of production to the site of action via the circulatory system 30. The production of parathyroid hormone is turned by a. Low concentrations of calcium ions in extracellular fluids b. High concentrations of calcium ions in extracellular fluids c. High concentrations of phosphate ions in extracellular fluids d. High concentrations of phosphate ions in the kidneys 31. The master control center of the endocrine system is the a. Pituitary gland b. Thyroid gland c. Hypothalamus d. Cerebral cortex 32. Production and secretion of thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) will lead to all of the following EXCEPT a. A change in the metabolic rates of cells b. Production of thyroid stimulating hormone by the thyroid gland c. Secretion of the thyroxin by the thyroid gland d. Decreased production of TRH by neurons in the hypothalamus 33. Cells that can live with or without oxygen are known as a. Obligate anaerobes b. Fermenters c. Facultative anaerobes d. Chemiosmotic complexes 34. Epinephrine is secreted from the a. Liver b. Adrenal cortex c. Adrenal medulla d. Hypothalamus 35. Peptide hormones can a. Enter into target cells b. Act on target cells from a distance c. Act through second messengers d. Bind to and activate specific enzymes in the cell 36. The role of insulin a. Bind directly to glucose b. Prevent cells from taking in glucose c. Allow cells to take in glucose d. Monitor the levels of glucose to regulate glucose utilization 37. Several hours after a meal, a. The glucose levels will still be high so the beta cells will continue to secrete insulin b. The glucose levels will be low so the beta cells will no longer secrete insulin c. Insulin will continue to stimulate the cells to take in glucose d. The glucose levels will be low so the alpha cells will continue to secrete insulin. 38. In this type of diabetes, the cells in the Islets of Langerhans are defective. a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. All types 39. The Islets of Langerhans are found in which of the following organ: a. Stomach b. Heart c. Kidney d. Pancreas 40. Insulin is secreted by the a. Alpha cell b. Beta cells c. Gamma cell d. Delta cells 41. The hormone calcitonin is secreted by the parafollicular cells found in which gland? a. Pancreas b. Pituitary c. Thyroid d. Adrenal 42. Which of the following element is needed for thyroxin production? a. Sodium b. Magnesium c. Calcium d. Iodine 43. Goitre is used to describe the enlargement of the ___? a. Thyroid b. Ovary c. Pituitary d. Hypothalamus 44. Goitre occurs because of deficiency of which substance in diet? a. Sodium b. Magnesium c. Calcium d. Iodine 45. A pair of genes that control two contrasting characters are called a. Phenotypes b. Genotypes c. Alleles d. Homozygotes 46. A pair of genes that control two contrasting characters are the same, the genotype is said to be a. Heterogenous b. Heterozygous c. Homogenous d. Homozygous 47. The bond formed between sodium (Na) and chlorine (Cl) in sodium chloride (NaCl) is referred to as a. Covalent bond b. Ionis bond c. Hydrogen bond d. Metallic bond 48. The bond formed between hydrogen (H) and oxygen (O) in water (H2O) molecule is referred to as a. Electrostatic bond b. Ionic bond c. Van de Waal bond d. Covalent bond 49. The bond that exist between water (H2O) molecules is referred to as a. Hydrogen bond b. Ionic bond c. Van de Waal bond d. Covalent bond 50. Using the principles of standard precautions, the nurse would wear gloves in what nursing interventions? a. Providing a back massage b. Feeding a client c. Providing hair care d. Providing oral hygiene 51. The nurse is preparing to take vital sign in an alert client admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the client’s temperature? a. Oral b. Axillary c. Radial d. Hat sensitive tape 52. A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse document this finding as: a. Tachypnea b. Hyperpyrexia c. Arrhythmia d. Tachycardia 53. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to us a wide base support when assisting a client to get up in a chair? a. Bend at the waist and place arms under the client’s arm and lift b. Face the client, bend knees and place hands on client’s forearm and lift a. Keep unnecessary furniture out of the way b. Keep the lights on at all time c. Keep side rails up at all time d. Keep all equipment out of view 57. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse takes the client’s vital sign hereafter. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse? a. Assessment c. Spread his or her feet apart b. Diagnosis d. Tighten his or her pelvic muscles c. Planning 54. A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the client’s body temperature? d. Implementation 58. It is best described as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for the individual, families, group and community a. Oral a. Assessment b. Axillary b. Nursing Process c. Arterial line c. Diagnosis d. Rectal d. Implementation 55. A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing a mouth care, the best position of a client is: a. Fowler’s position b. Side lying c. Supine d. Trendelenburg 56. A client is hospitalized for the first time, which of the following actions ensure the safety of the client? 59. Exchange of gases takes place in which of the following organ? a. Kidney b. Lungs c. Liver d. Heart 60. The chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the: a. Left atrium b. Right atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right ventricle 61. A muscular enlarge pouch or sac that lies slightly to the left which is used for temporary storage of food… a. Gallbladder b. Urinary bladder c. Stomach d. Lungs 62. The ability of the body to defend itself against scientific invading agent such as bacteria, toxin, viruses and foreign body a. Hormones b. Secretion 65. Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory? a. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air b. Self-perception c. Love and belonginess d. Physiologic needs 66. Which of the following cluster of data belong to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? a. Love and belonging b. Physiologic needs c. Self-actualization d. All of the above 67. This is characterized by severe symptoms relatively of short duration. c. Immunity a. Chronic illness d. Glands b. Acute illness 63. Hormone secreted by Islets of Langerhans a. Progesterone b. Testosterone c. Insulin d. Hemoglobin 64. It is a transparent membrane that focuses the light that enters the eyes to the retina. a. Lens b. Sclera c. Cornea d. Pupils c. Pain d. Syndrome 68. Which of the following is the nurse’s role in the health promotion? a. Health risk appraisal b. Teach client to be effective health consumer c. Worksite wellness d. None of the above 69. It is described as a collection of people who share some attributes of their lives. a. Family b. Illness c. Community c. When necessary d. Nursing d. Now 70. Five teaspoon is equivalent to how many milliliters (ml)? 75. Which of the following is the appropriate meaning of CBR? a. 30 ml a. Cardiac Board Room b. 25 ml b. Complete Bathroom c. 12 ml c. Complete Bed Rest d. 22 ml d. Complete Board Room 71. 1800 ml is equal to how many liters? 76. One tsp is equals to how many drops? a. 1.8 a. 15 b. 18000 b. 60 c. 180 c. 10 d. 2800 d. 30 72. Which of the following is the abbreviation of drops? a. Gtt. b. Gtts. c. Dp. d. Dr. 73. The abbreviation for micro drop is … a. µgtt b. gtt c. mdr d. mgts 74. Which of the following is the meaning of PRN? a. When advice b. Immediately 77. 20 cc is equal to how many ml? a. 2 b. 20 c. 2000 d. 20000 78. 1 cup is equals to how many ounces? a. 8 b. 80 c. 800 d. 8000 79. The nurse must verify the client’s identity before administration of medication. Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client? a. Ask the client for his name b. Check the client’s identification band c. State the client’s name aloud and have the client repeat it d. Check the room number 80. The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed… a. On the client’s skin c. Subcutaneous d. Intravenous 84. The nurse is ordered to administer ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The nurse should give the medication… a. Three times a day orally b. Three times a day after meals b. Between the client’s cheeks and gums c. Two time a day by mouth c. Under the client’s tongue d. Two times a day before meals d. On the client’s conjunctiva 81. The nurse administers cleansing enema. The common position for this procedure is… 85. Back Care is best described as: a. Caring for the back by means of massage a. Sims left lateral b. Washing of the back b. Dorsal Recumbent c. Application of cold compress at the back c. Supine d. Prone 82. A client complains of difficulty of swallowing, when the nurse try to administer capsule medication. Which of the following measures the nurse should do? a. Dissolve the capsule in a glass of water b. Break the capsule and give the content with an applesauce c. Check the availability of a liquid preparation d. Crash the capsule and place it under the tongue 83. Which of the following is the appropriate route of administration for insulin? d. Application of hot compress at the back 86. It refers to the preparation of the bed with a new set of linens a. Bed bath b. Bed making c. Bed shampoo d. Bed lining 87. Which of the following is the most important purpose of handwashing? a. To promote hand circulation b. To prevent the transfer of microorganism a. Intramuscular c. To avoid touching the client with a dirty hand b. Intradermal d. To provide comfort 88. What should be done in order to prevent contaminating of the environment in bed making? a. Palpation b. Auscultation a. Avoid fanning soiled linens c. Inspection b. Strip all linens at the same time d. Percussion c. Finished both sides at the same time d. Embrace soiled linen 89. The most important purpose of cleansing bed bath is: a. To cleanse, refresh and give comfort to the client who must remain in bed b. To expose the necessary parts of the body c. To develop skills in bed bath d. To check the body temperature of the client in bed 90. Which of the following technique involves the sense of sight? a. Inspection b. Palpation c. Percussion d. Auscultation 91. The first techniques used to examine the abdomen of a client is: a. Palpation b. Auscultation c. Percussion d. Inspection 92. A technique in physical examination that is used to assess the movement of air thought the tracheobronchial tree: 93. An instrument used for auscultation is: a. Percussion-hammer b. Audiometer c. Stethoscope d. Sphygmomanometer 94. Resonance is best described as: a. Sounds created by air filled lungs b. Short, high pitch and thudding c. Moderately loud with musical quality d. Drum-like 95. The best position for examining the rectum is: a. Prone b. Sim’s c. Knee-chest d. Lithotomy 96. It refers to the manner of walking: a. Gait b. Range of motion c. Flexion and extension d. Hopping 97. The nurse asked the client to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is tested? a. Optic b. Olfactory c. Oculomotor d. Trochlear 98. Another name for knee-chest position is: a. Genu-dorsal b. Genu-pectoral c. Lithotomy d. Sim’s 99. The nurse prepares IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. Which of the following is the best action in order to prevent tracking of the medication? 102. During ABG analysis, blood is collected from: a. Artery b. Vein c. Capillary d. It can be taken from any site 103. Intradermal injection is given at: a. 15° angle b. 30° angle c. 45° angle d. 90° angle 104. Abbreviation of S.O.S means: a. Use a small gauge needle a. Give immediate b. Apply ice on the injection site b. Give whenever necessary c. Administer at a 45° angle c. At bed time d. Use the Z-track technique d. Give twice a day 100. Amount of medicine can be injected into gluteal muscle is: a. Up to 2 ml b. Up to 5 ml c. Up to 10 ml d. Up to 7 ml 101. While giving enema height of enema cane from anus should be: 105. Presence of blood in stool is known as: a. Lochia b. Melena c. Hematemesis d. Hemoptysis 106. Normal respiration rate in neonate: a. 40-60 breaths/min. a. 6 inches b. 80-120 breaths/min. b. 9 inches c. 16-20 breaths/min c. 12 inches d. 20-30 breaths/min. d. 18 inches 107. Intra osseous injection is given in: a. Vein b. Axillary method b. Bone Marrow c. Rectal method c. Spinal Cavity d. All the above d. Muscles 108. To maintain normal breathing pattern, which position is beneficial? a. Sim’s position b. Knee-chest position c. Fowler’s d. Dorsal 109. Cyanosis is caused in case of: 113. Normal serum potassium level in meq/L is: a. 2.5 to 3.5 b. 3.5 to 5 c. 5.5 to 6.5 d. 6.5 to 7.5 114.The objectives of moist cold application are all, EXCEPTa. To soothe the nerve a. Lack of water b. To relieve discomfort b. Lack of blood c. To stimulate the inflammation process c. Lack of oxygen d. Lack of glucose 110. Fever with relative bradycardia is seen in: d. To reduce temperature 115.All of the following are advantage of hot compress EXCEPT it- a. Malaria a. Relieves pain b. Typhoid b. Increases tension c. Filaria c. Increases circulation d. Diphtheria d. Promotes absorption 111. Suitable site to check pulse into new born; a. Apical b. Femoral c. Pedal d. Carotid 112. Right route to check the temperature into children: a. Oral method 116. The compression to ventilation ratio in CPP in case as single rescuer is: a. 5:2 b. 15:2 c. 30:2 d. 2:30 117. The preferred site for giving IM injection to infant is: a. Gluteal a. The amount of oxygen in air is less than that of water b. Deltoid b. The amount of oxygen in air is more than that of water c. Vastus lateralis d. Umbilicus c. The amount of oxygen in air is the same as that of water 118. The suffix “itis” means: d. The amount of oxygen in air is twice that of water a. Pain b. Vomiting c. Inflammation 123. Oxygen in water is removed by gills by the process of a. Osmosis d. Swelling 119. One ml = b. Facilitated diffusion drops? c. Active diffusion a. 45 d. Passive diffusion b. 15 c. 60 124. The functional unit of the respiratory system is d. 30 a. Lung 120. When hemoglobin is in an environment that is low in oxygen: b. Bronchus c. Bronchiole a. It cannot give up its oxygen d. Alveolus b. It readily gives up its oxygen c. It cannot carry oxygen 125. Cetin is a complex substance found on the surface of d. It picks up more oxygen a. Leaves 121. Which of the following organisms have gills? b. Skin c. Kidney a. Dogs d. Eye b. Ducks c. Lobsters d. Earthworms 122. Which of the following is true concerning the amount of oxygen in water? 126. The cells of active animals: a. Are always dividing rapidly b. Require a constant supply of carbon dioxide c. Are easily poisoned by oxygen 131. d. Require rapid delivery of oxygen a. Ammonia 127. The process whereby you eliminate metabolic by-products is: b. Protein c. Amino acid a. Olfaction b. Excretion c. Digestion d. Uric acid 132. In organisms with a closed transport system, in general, blood flows: d. Mastication 128. a. In two directions around a circular path Horses excrete mostly: a. Ammonia b. In one direction around a circular path b. DNA c. Away from the heart only c. Urea d. Toward the heart only d. Uric Acid 133. 129. The amino acid resulting from the hydrolysis of proteins: b. All have only delivery chambers c. All are chamberless b. Undergo further metabolism because they cannot be stored c. Are always used immediately for the building other proteins d. Go directly into ATP molecules d. All have at least one receiving chamber and one delivery chamber 134. The intake of large quantities of water will tend to make your kidney: a. Have low output of urine The cells of multicellular organisms: b. Have a high output of urine a. Eliminate their metabolic byproducts directly into the external environment of the organism. b. Eliminate their metabolic byproducts into the internal environment of the organism. Chambered hearts: a. All have only receiving chambers a. Are readily stored by the body 130. Aquatic organisms excrete mostly: c. Have no output of urine d. Have a high output of salt 135. Photosynthesis occurs at high rate: a. During the night c. Do not eliminate their metabolic byproducts. b. During the hottest part of the day d. Do not all carry on metabolism. c. When the plant is wilted d. During the cooler parts of the day 136. Which of the following statements is false? a. Hemoglobin is a transport pigment b. Hemoglobin is found only in blood cells c. Hemoglobin contains ion d. Hemoglobin is the most common respiratory pigment 137. Which of the following is true with regard to hemoglobin? b. Glycerol c. Glycogen d. Sorbitol 141. Which of the following statements is correct? I. Lactose = Fructose + Galactose II. Maltose = Glucose + Galactose III. Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose a. I a. Hemoglobin is one of the rarest of the respiratory pigments b. II b. Hemoglobin consist only of heme c. III c. Hemoglobin consist of two parts, a heme and a globin. d. All of them d. Heme unit serves primarily as a carrier for the globin unit. 138. In what form does most of the ATP in the cell exist? a. KATP b. NaATP c. MgATP d. CaATP 139. Which of the following is not a protein? a. Myosin b. Actin c. Keratin d. Cellulose 140. a. Collagen Which of the following is a protein? 142. What will be the end-product for the digestion of milk? a. Glucose and Sucrose b. Glucose and Galactose c. Lactose and Glucose d. Fructose and Glucose 143. What is the principal component of chitin and heparin? a. Carbohydrate b. Lipid c. Protein d. Nucleic Acid 144. Which of these organisms can be classified as a prokaryote? a. Fungi b. Moss c. Bacteria a. Peroxisomes d. Algae b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 145. The liquid part of the cytoplasm is referred to as: a. Cytosol b. Cytoplast c. Chloroplast c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum d. Nucleus 150. The small vesicular bodies containing biodegradative enzymes which decompose foreign substances that invade the cell is known as d. Protoplasm a. Golgi apparatus 146. A piece of DNA has the following gene code “AGAAGTCGGCT”. If this is transcribed to an RNA, what will be the resulting sequence? a. UCUUCAGCGGA b. Smooth ER c. Contractile vacuoles d. Lysosomes 151. b. UCTUCAGCCGA a. Protein synthesis c. TCTTCAGCCGA b. Ribosome synthesis d. UCUUCAGCCGA c. Carbohydrate synthesis 147. What is the name of the protein bound to DNA? a. Histone b. Cellulose c. Fibrin d. Guanine 148. Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes? a. Peroxisomes b. Lysosomes c. Golgi body d. Mitochondrion 149. Which of the following contains oxidative enzymes? The nucleus is responsible for d. Spindle formation 152.