Haematology Questions PDF

Haematology Questions Blood Typing 26M arrives at ED with traumatic injuries following an MVA. His Hb is 65 and he is bleeding profusely. His blood type is not known to the hospital. You are the intern - what should you do? A. Immediately transfuse him with O- blood B. Immediately transfuse hi...

Haematology Questions Blood Typing 26M arrives at ED with traumatic injuries following an MVA. His Hb is 65 and he is bleeding profusely. His blood type is not known to the hospital. You are the intern - what should you do? A. Immediately transfuse him with O- blood B. Immediately transfuse him with AB- blood C. Order a group & hold and push IV fluids in the meantime D. Give him iron tablets 26M arrives at ED with traumatic injuries following an MVA. His Hb is 65 and he is bleeding profusely. His blood type is not known to the hospital. You are the intern - what should you do? A. Immediately transfuse him with O- blood B. Immediately transfuse him with AB- blood C. Order a group & hold and push IV fluids in the meantime D. Give him iron tablets Universal Plasma Donor is... A. O+ B. O- C. AB+ D. AB- Universal Plasma Donor is... A. O+ B. O- C. AB+ D. AB- Haemolytic Disease of the Newborn occurs when... A. Mother is RhD +ve, Father is RhD +ve, Fetus is RhD +ve B. Mother is RhD +ve, Father is RhD -ve, Fetus is RhD -ve C. Mother is RhD -ve, Father is RhD +ve, Fetus is RhD +ve D. Mother is RhD -ve, Father is RhD -ve, Fetus is RhD -ve Haemolytic Disease of the Newborn occurs when... A. Mother is RhD +ve, Father is RhD +ve, Fetus is RhD +ve B. Mother is RhD +ve, Father is RhD -ve, Fetus is RhD -ve C. Mother is RhD -ve, Father is RhD +ve, Fetus is RhD +ve D. Mother is RhD -ve, Father is RhD -ve, Fetus is RhD -ve Antibodies present in HDN are... A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD Antibodies present in HDN are... A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD Which of the following is correct? A. A direct Coombs test involves taking the patient’s serum and mixing it with known RBCs B. An indirect Coombs test involves 1 stage C. A direct Coombs test is usually performed for pretransfusion testing D. A direct Coombs test is usually performed to confirm the cause of haemolysis Which of the following is correct? A. A direct Coombs test involves taking the patient’s serum and mixing it with known RBCs B. An indirect Coombs test involves 1 stage C. A direct Coombs test is usually performed for pretransfusion testing D. A direct Coombs test is usually performed to confirm the cause of haemolysis Anemia The most likely cause of pernicious anaemia A) Reduced gastrin secretion B) Parietal cell dysfunction C) Poor absorption in jejunum D) Reduced pepsinogen secretion The most likely cause of pernicious anaemia A) Reduced gastrin secretion B) Parietal cell dysfunction C) Poor absorption in jejunum D) Reduced pepsinogen secretion A Greek women comes in with this blood film... A) B12 deficiency B) Iron deficiency C) Alpha thalassaemia D) Beta thalassaemia A Greek women comes in with this blood film... A) B12 deficiency B) Iron deficiency C) Alpha thalassaemia D) Beta thalassaemia Which is not a cause of microcytic anaemia? A) Lead poisoning B) Iron deficiency C) Hypothyroidism D) Thalassaemia Which is not a cause of microcytic anaemia? A) Lead poisoning B) Iron deficiency C) Hypothyroidism D) Thalassaemia Which is not a cause of macrocytic anaemia? A) Vitamin B12 deficiency B) Chronic alcohol use C) Methotrexate D) Kidney failure Which is not a cause of macrocytic anaemia? A) Vitamin B12 deficiency B) Chronic alcohol use C) Methotrexate D) Kidney failure Which is false? A. Folate deficiency is more common nutritional deficiency than B12 B. Vitamin B12 deficiency in utero can cause spina bifida C. Vitamin B12 deficiency usually has a more insidious onset D. Folate deficiency presents with megaloblastic anaemia Which is false? A. Folate deficiency is more common nutritional deficiency than B12 B. Vitamin B12 deficiency in utero can cause spina bifida C. Vitamin B12 deficiency usually has a more insidious onset D. Folate deficiency presents with megaloblastic anaemia Which pair is correct? A) Stomach - Folate B) Duodenum - Vitamin B12 C) Jejunum - Iron D) Ileum - Vitamin B12 Which pair is correct? A) Stomach - Folate B) Duodenum - Vitamin B12 C) Jejunum - Iron D) Ileum - Vitamin B12 A 50F with Crohn’s comes in with fatigue and progressive lower limb weakness. A) Leukemia B) Iron deficiency anaemia C) Vitamin B12 deficiency D) Sideroblastic anaemia A 50F with Crohn’s comes in with fatigue and progressive lower limb weakness. A) Leukemia B) Iron deficiency anaemia C) Vitamin B12 deficiency D) Sideroblastic anaemia Which is not a symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia A) Hair loss B) Leukonychia C) Pica D) Glossitis Which is not a symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia A) Hair loss B) Leukonychia - koilonychia C) Pica - unusual cravings D) Glossitis - non-specific The most likely cause of pernicious anaemia A) Reduced gastrin secretion B) Parietal cell dysfunction C) Poor absorption in jejunum D) Reduced pepsinogen secretion The most likely cause of pernicious anaemia A) Reduced gastrin secretion B) Parietal cell dysfunction C) Poor absorption in jejunum D) Reduced pepsinogen secretion Which is false in relation to thalassaemia? A) Thalassaemia alpha is generally more severe than beta B) Thalassaemia is caused by faulty haemoglobin synthesis C) Thalassaemia is protective against malaria D) A blood film will show uniform hypochromic cells Which is false in relation to thalassaemia? A) Thalassaemia beta is more common in Asian countries B) Thalassaemia is caused by faulty haemoglobin synthesis C) Thalassaemia is protective against malaria D) A blood film will show uniform hypochromic cells Coagulation Which need monitoring of INR? A) Warfarin B) Apixaban C) Rivaroxaban D) Heparin Which need monitoring of INR? A) Warfarin B) Apixaban C) Rivaroxaban D) Heparin A patient’s APTT corrects after a mixing study. Which is to be the cause? A) Haemophilia A B) Elevated active Protein C C) Elevated antithrombin III D) Warfarin A patient’s APTT corrects after a mixing study. Which is to be the cause? A) Haemophilia A Haemophilia A - factor 8 B) Elevated active Protein C deficiency C) Elevated antithrombin III If coagulation time corrects D) Warfarin with mixing study then it is likely to a coagulation factor deficiency rather than presence of an inhibitor Which is the correct sequence of events leading to blood clotting? A) Platelet adhesion, activation, aggregation B) Vascular spasm, platelet aggregation, coagulation C) Platelet aggregation, coagulation, fibrinolysis D) Vascular spasm, formation of prothrombin, formation of fibrin Which is the correct sequence of events leading to blood clotting? A) Platelet adhesion, activation, aggregation B) Vascular spasm, platelet aggregation, coagulation C) Platelet aggregation, coagulation, fibrinolysis D) Vascular spasm, formation of fibrin, formation of prothrombin Which of the following is involved in breaking down a clot? A) Fibrinogen B) Thrombin C) Protein C D) Plasmin Which of the following is involved in breaking down a clot? A) Fibrinogen B) Thrombin C) Protein C D) Plasmin What is the MOA of clopidogrel? A) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B) Irreversibly inhibit COX enzyme C) Inhibit ADP binding to P2Y12 receptor D) Potentiates the action of antithrombin What is the MOA of clopidogrel? A) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist - e.g. abciximab B) Irreversibly inhibit COX enzyme - e.g. aspirin C) Inhibit ADP binding to P2Y12 receptor D) Potentiates the action of antithrombin - e.g. heparin A decreased prothrombin time could be because of a deficiency of: A) Factor VII B) Factor XII C) Factor VIII D) Factor IX A decreased prothrombin time could be because of a deficiency of: A) Factor VII B) Factor XII C) Factor VIII D) Factor IX Which anticoagulant would be most suitable for a 24 year old woman trying to get pregnant? A) Low molecular weight heparin B) Dabigatran C) Rivaroxaban D) Warfarin Which anticoagulant would be most suitable for a 24 year old woman trying to get pregnant? A) Low molecular weight heparin B) Dabigatran C) Rivaroxaban D) Warfarin - teratogenic Which suggests a coagulation disorder rather a platelet disorder? A) Bruising B) Gum bleeding C) Nosebleeds D) Bleeding into joints Which suggests a coagulation disorder rather a platelet disorder? A) Bruising B) Gum bleeding C) Nosebleeds D) Bleeding into joints  Which should be started with a parenteral anticoagulant? A) Dabigatran B) Warfarin C) Apixaban D) Rivaroxaban Which should be started with a parenteral anticoagulant? A) Dabigatran B) Warfarin C) Apixaban D) Rivaroxaban  Haem Malignancies Auer Rods A. AML B. ALL C. CML D. CLL Auer Rods A. AML B. ALL C. CML D. CLL Smudge Cells A. AML B. ALL C. CML D. CLL Smudge Cells A. AML B. ALL C. CML D. CLL Which of the following is most commonly seen in young children? A. AML B. ALL C. CML D. CLL Which of the following is most commonly seen in young children? A. AML B. ALL C. CML D. CLL How should you treat a patient with CML A. Aggressive Chemotherapy B. Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) C. Gentle Chemotherapy D. Watch & Observe How should you treat a patient with CML A. Aggressive Chemotherapy B. Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) C. Gentle Chemotherapy D. Watch & Observe How should you treat a patient with ALL A. Aggressive Chemotherapy B. Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) C. Gentle Chemotherapy D. Watch & Observe How should you treat a patient with ALL A. Aggressive Chemotherapy B. Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) C. Gentle Chemotherapy D. Watch & Observe Which of the following is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome A. AML B. ALL C. CML D. CLL Which of the following is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome A. AML B. ALL C. CML D. CLL What chromosomes are involved in the Philadelphia translocation A. 9 B. 12 C. 21 D. 22 What chromosomes are involved in the Philadelphia translocation A. 9 B. 12 C. 21 D. 22 Blast crisis in CML is defined as A. ≤10% of blast cells in the BM B. 10-19% of blast cells in the BM C. ≥20% of blast cells in the BM D. ≥30% of blast cells in the BM Blast crisis in CML is defined as A. ≤10% of blast cells in the BM B. 10-19% of blast cells in the BM C. ≥20% of blast cells in the BM D. ≥30% of blast cells in the BM Which of the following is a favourable prognostic for ALL A. Chromosome 8:21 translocation B. Chromosome 12:21 translocation C. Chromosome 9:22 translocation D. Chromosome 13:18 translocation Which of the following is a favourable prognostic for ALL A. Chromosome 8:21 translocation B. Chromosome 12:21 translocation C. Chromosome 9:22 translocation D. Chromosome 13:18 translocation Reed Sternberg cells A. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma B. Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma C. Burkitt’s Lymphoma D. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma Reed Sternberg cells A. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma B. Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma C. Burkitt’s Lymphoma D. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma Which of the following drugs is not typically used to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma A. Prednisolone B. Rituximab C. Cyclophosphamide D. Bleomycin Which of the following drugs is not typically used to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma A. Prednisolone B. Rituximab C. Cyclophosphamide D. Bleomycin Pruritis after a hot shower A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Pruritis after a hot shower A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Thrombotic events, spontaneous abortion A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Thrombotic events, spontaneous abortion A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Teardrop cells A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Teardrop cells A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Which of the following is not associated with a JAK2 mutation A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Which of the following is not associated with a JAK2 mutation A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Which of the following is not a S&S of multiple myeloma A. Hypercalcemia B. Renal failure C. Impaired glucose tolerance D. Anemia Which of the following is not a S&S of multiple myeloma A. Hypercalcemia B. Renal failure C. Impaired glucose tolerance D. Anemia Rouleaux Bodies A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Rouleaux Bodies A. Polycythemia Rubra Vera B. Essential thrombocytosis C. Multiple Myeloma D. Primary Myelofibrosis Ineffective maturation of all cell lineages A. Multiple Myeloma B. Primary Myelofibrosis C. Myelodysplasia D. Burkitt’s lymphoma Ineffective maturation of all cell lineages A. Multiple Myeloma B. Primary Myelofibrosis C. Myelodysplasia D. Burkitt’s lymphoma What is this A. Neutrophil B. Macrophage C. Lymphocyte D. Eosinophil What is this A. Neutrophil B. Macrophage C. Lymphocyte D. Eosinophil What is this A. Neutrophil B. Macrophage C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte What is this A. Neutrophil B. Macrophage C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte What is this A. Neutrophil B. Macrophage C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte What is this A. Neutrophil B. Macrophage C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte What is this A. Eosinophil B. Neutrophil C. Basophil D. Megakaryocyte What is this A. Eosinophil B. Neutrophil C. Basophil D. Megakaryocyte  Other Questions Which form of malaria is most severe? A) Plasmodium ovale B) Plasmodium falciparum C) Plasmodium vivax D) Plasmodium knowlesi Which form of malaria is most severe? A) Plasmodium ovale B) Plasmodium falciparum C) Plasmodium vivax D) Plasmodium knowlesi