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Questions and Answers

What should you do for a 26M with traumatic injuries, Hb 65, and unknown blood type?

  • Immediately transfuse him with AB- blood
  • Order a group & hold and push IV fluids in the meantime
  • Immediately transfuse him with O- blood (correct)
  • Give him iron tablets
  • Haemolytic Disease of the Newborn occurs when?

  • Mother is RhD -ve, Father is RhD +ve, Fetus is RhD +ve (correct)
  • Mother is RhD +ve, Father is RhD -ve, Fetus is RhD -ve
  • Mother is RhD -ve, Father is RhD -ve, Fetus is RhD -ve
  • Mother is RhD +ve, Father is RhD +ve, Fetus is RhD +ve
  • Antibodies present in HDN are?

  • IgD
  • IgA
  • IgG (correct)
  • IgE
  • IgM
  • Which is correct regarding the direct and indirect Coombs test?

    <p>A direct Coombs test involves taking the patient’s serum and mixing it with known RBCs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely cause of pernicious anaemia?

    <p>Parietal cell dysfunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is not a cause of microcytic anaemia?

    <p>Hypothyroidism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is not a cause of macrocytic anaemia?

    <p>Kidney failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is false?

    <p>Folate deficiency is a more common nutritional deficiency than B12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pair is correct regarding the absorption sites of vitamins and minerals?

    <p>Ileum - Vitamin B12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is indicated by a patient with Crohn's presenting with fatigue and lower limb weakness?

    <p>Vitamin B12 deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is not a symptom of iron deficiency anemia?

    <p>Hair loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is false in relation to thalassaemia?

    <p>Thalassaemia alpha is generally more severe than beta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug needs monitoring of INR?

    <p>Warfarin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely cause if a patient’s APTT corrects after a mixing study?

    <p>Haemophilia A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is the correct sequence of events leading to blood clotting?

    <p>Vascular spasm, platelet aggregation, coagulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is involved in breaking down a clot?

    <p>Plasmin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the MOA of clopidogrel?

    <p>Inhibit ADP binding to P2Y12 receptor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A decreased prothrombin time could be because of a deficiency of:

    <p>Factor VII</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anticoagulant is most suitable for a 24-year-old woman trying to get pregnant?

    <p>Low molecular weight heparin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which suggests a coagulation disorder rather than a platelet disorder?

    <p>Bleeding into joints</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which should be started with a parenteral anticoagulant?

    <p>Warfarin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is associated with Auer rods?

    <p>AML</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is most commonly seen in young children?

    <p>ALL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should you treat a patient with CML?

    <p>Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome?

    <p>CML</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What chromosomes are involved in the Philadelphia translocation?

    <p>9</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Blast crisis in CML is defined as?

    <p>≥20% of blast cells in the BM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a favorable prognostic factor for ALL?

    <p>Chromosome 12:21 translocation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is associated with Reed Sternberg cells?

    <p>Hodgkin’s Lymphoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs is not typically used to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

    <p>Bleomycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pruritus after a hot shower is associated with?

    <p>Polycythemia Rubra Vera</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not associated with a JAK2 mutation?

    <p>Multiple Myeloma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a sign and symptom of multiple myeloma?

    <p>Impaired glucose tolerance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ineffective maturation of all cell lineages is characteristic of?

    <p>Myelodysplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is this cell type?

    <p>Neutrophil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is this cell type?

    <p>Lymphocyte</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is this cell type?

    <p>Neutrophil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Blood Typing

    • Universal Red Blood Cell Donor: O-negative
    • Universal Plasma Donor: AB-positive
    • Haemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN): Occurs when a Rh-negative mother is exposed to Rh-positive fetal red blood cells, leading to the production of anti-Rh antibodies that can cross the placenta and destroy fetal red blood cells.
    • Antibodies in HDN: IgG antibodies are involved in HDN, as they can cross the placenta.
    • Direct Coombs Test: Detects antibodies that have already attached to red blood cells. Useful for confirming hemolysis.
    • Indirect Coombs Test: Detects free antibodies in the serum. Useful for pre-transfusion testing.

    Anemia

    • Pernicious Anemia: Caused by parietal cell dysfunction in the stomach, leading to a deficiency in intrinsic factor necessary for vitamin B12 absorption.
    • Microcytic Anemia: Characterized by small red blood cells. Causes include iron deficiency, lead poisoning, and thalassemia.
    • Macrocytic Anemia: Characterized by large red blood cells. Causes include vitamin B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, chronic alcohol use, and methotrexate.
    • Vitamin B12 Deficiency: More insidious onset than folate deficiency. Can cause neurological complications and spina bifida if present in utero.
    • Folate Deficiency: More common than B12 deficiency. Presents with megaloblastic anemia.
    • Iron Deficiency Anemia: Can cause hair loss, koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails),pica (unusual cravings), and glossitis (inflammation of the tongue).
    • Thalassaemia: Genetic disorder that affects hemoglobin synthesis. It is more common in Asian countries. Alpha thalassemia is generally less severe than beta thalassemia. Thalassaemia provides some protection against malaria.

    Coagulation

    • Anticoagulants: Warfarin is the only anticoagulant monitored by INR.
    • APTT Mixing Study: If the APTT corrects after a mixing study, it suggests a coagulation factor deficiency rather than the presence of an inhibitor.
    • Blood Clotting Sequence: The sequence is vascular spasm, platelet adhesion, activation, aggregation, coagulation, fibrinolysis.
    • Fibrinolysis: Plasmin is involved in breaking down a clot (fibrinolysis).
    • Clopidogrel: This drug inhibits ADP binding to the P2Y12 receptor on platelets.
    • Prothrombin Time: A decreased prothrombin time can be caused by a deficiency in Factor VII.
    • Anticoagulant in Pregnancy: Low molecular weight heparin is the most suitable anticoagulant for a woman trying to get pregnant.
    • Bleeding into Joints: This suggests a coagulation disorder rather than a platelet disorder.
    • Parenteral Anticoagulant: Dabigatran, Apixaban, and Rivaroxaban should be started with a parenteral anticoagulant.

    Haem Malignancies

    • Auer Rods: Are present in Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML).
    • Smudge Cells: Are present in Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL).
    • Childhood Leukemia: Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) is most common in young children.
    • CML Treatment: Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) are the preferred treatment.
    • ALL Treatment: Aggressive chemotherapy is standard treatment.
    • Philadelphia Chromosome: Associated with Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML). It is a result of a translocation between chromosome 9 and 22. (Philadelphia translocation)
    • Blast Crisis in CML: Defined as ≥ 20% blast cells in the bone marrow.
    • Favourable Prognostic for ALL: A translocation between chromosomes 8 and 21 (8:21).
    • Reed-Sternberg Cells: Present in Hodgkin's Lymphoma.
    • Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma Treatment: Bleomycin is not typically used to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
    • Polycythemia Vera: Causes pruritis after a hot shower.
    • Essential Thrombocytosis: Causes thrombotic events and spontaneous abortion.
    • Primary Myelofibrosis: Causes teardrop cells due to an ineffective maturation of all cell lineages.
    • JAK2 Mutation: It is associated with Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocytosis, and Primary Myelofibrosis, but not with Multiple Myeloma.
    • Multiple Myeloma: Symptoms include hypercalcemia, renal failure, impaired glucose tolerance, and anemia.
    • Rouleaux Bodies: Present in Multiple Myeloma.

    Other Questions

    • Most Severe Malaria: Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe form of malaria.
    • Neutrophil: A type of white blood cell with a multi-lobed nucleus and granules.
    • Macrophage: A large phagocytic cell that engulfs and digests foreign particles.
    • Lymphocyte: A type of white blood cell involved in the immune system.
    • Monocyte: A large white blood cell that can differentiate into macrophages.
    • Eosinophil: A type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections.
    • Basophil: A type of white blood cell that releases histamine and heparin.
    • Megakaryocyte: A large bone marrow cell that fragments to produce platelets.

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