GNK128 Block Test PDF 2021

User Mr IC (Ivan) Moller Course GNK 128 S2 2021 Test Block Test (GNK128) - 5 Nov 2021 Started 11/5/21 9:01 AM Submitted 11/5/21 10:46 AM Due Date 11/5/21 12:00 PM Status Completed Attempt 92 out of 100 points Score Time 1 hour, 4...

User Mr IC (Ivan) Moller Course GNK 128 S2 2021 Test Block Test (GNK128) - 5 Nov 2021 Started 11/5/21 9:01 AM Submitted 11/5/21 10:46 AM Due Date 11/5/21 12:00 PM Status Completed Attempt 92 out of 100 points Score Time 1 hour, 45 minutes out of 2 hours Elapsed Instructions 1. The block test will start at 09:00. 2. Once a test is started, it must be completed within 2 hours, after which it will automatically be saved and submitted. 3. The questions may include Multiple-Choice Questions, Jumbled Sentences, True or False, Matching, or Multiple-Answer Questions. 4. Each question can only be answered once without the opportunity to go back for an answer to be changed. 5. Should any technical fault occur, please contact your course co-ordinator, Dr Morné Strydom ([email protected]), with evidence of the fault. As allowances are audited, we require this evidence for smooth progression. Faults with no evidence may lead to the test receiving naught depending on circumstances. 6. Declaration of integrity: By submitting your test, you agree to the following declaration.The University of Pretoria commits itself to produce academic work of integrity. I affirm that I am aware of and have read the Rules and Policies of the University, more specifically the Disciplinary Procedure and the Tests and Examinations Rules, which prohibit any unethical, dishonest or improper conduct during tests, assignments, examinations and/or any other forms of assessment. I am aware that no student or any other person may assist or attempt to assist another student, or obtain help, or attempt to obtain help from another student or any other person during tests, assessments, assignments, examinations and/or any other forms of assessment. Results All Answers, Submitted Answers, Feedback, Incorrectly Answered Questions Displayed Question 1 1 out of 1 points Please indicate if the following statement is true or false: Prisoners lose their right to provide informed consent for clinical research and offers a large untapped resource for clinical trials. Selected Answer: False Answers: True False Response Correct! Feedback: Prisoners are classified as sensitive and vulnerable communities. Every person has the right to proper informed consent before participating in clinical research. Question 2 1 out of 1 points Considering the phases of investigational product development, the purpose of Phase I is to: Selected d. Answer: Test on small group healthy volunteers for safety and determine dose range. Answers: a. Test in subjects (n = 200-300) the effective dose, safety, and adverse events.  b. Test in subjects (n = thousands) the long-term safety, adverse events and efficacy. c. Conduct tests in the lab and on animals to validate drug discovery. d. Test on small group healthy volunteers for safety and determine dose range. e. Conduct post-market testing for long-term safety and efficacy in large population. Response Feedback: Correct! Question 3 1 out of 1 points Please indicate if the following statement is true or false: In the search for an experimental investigational product during the discovery phase of the drug development process the investigators need to enroll human subjects to identify early sighs of adverse events. Selected Answer: False Answers: True False Response Correct! Feedback: No humans subjects are involved in experimentation during the drug discovery phase. Question 4 1 out of 1 points Considering the phases of investigational product development, the purpose of Phase III is to: Selected c. Answer: Test in subjects (n = thousands) the long-term safety, adverse events and efficacy. Answers: a. Test in subjects (n = 200-300) the effective dose, safety, and adverse events. b. Conduct tests in the lab and on animals to validate drug discovery. c. Test in subjects (n = thousands) the long-term safety, adverse events and efficacy. d. Conduct post-market testing for long-term safety and efficacy in large population. e. Test on small group healthy volunteers for safety and determine dose range. Response Feedback: Correct! Question 5 1 out of 1 points What is characteristic of the oral route of drug administration?  Selected c. Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function Answer: Answers: a. Fast onset of effect b. A drug reaches the blood (systemic circulation), usually by bypassing the liver c. Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function d. Sterilization of tablets/pills/capsules is obligatory Question 6 2 out of 2 points Select the sections that are included in Module 2 of the South African CTD: Selected Answers: a. Clinical Summary c. Clinical Overview Answers: a. Clinical Summary b. Non-clinical Study Reports c. Clinical Overview d. Clinical Study Reports e. Quality evaluation f. Regional administrative information Question 7 1 out of 1 points Herbal remedies can be administered in a variety of ways including: Selected Answers: a. Tea b. Enemas c. Snuffs d. Vapours Answers: a. Tea b. Enemas c. Snuffs d. Vapours Question 8 1 out of 1 points Drugs in patients with renal impairment have the same pharmacokinetic profile as in a person without renal failure. Selected Answer: False Answers: True False Response Explanation: Drugs in patient with renal impairment has changed pharmacokinetic. Feedback: The drugs’ renal clearance, elimination rate is reduced, whereas the elimination half-life is increasing a lot, even apparent volume of distribution is altered. Thus, dose must be altered depending upon the renal function of the patient Question 9 1 out of 2 points  Acidic urine will lead to a larger concentration of [a] being retained in the systemic circulation compared to [b]. Selected Acidic urine will lead to a larger concentration of weak acid being retained in the Answer: systemic circulation compared to weak bases. Answers: weak acid weak bases ionised unionised Response Feedback: Where do weak acids ionise or unionise? Question 10 1 out of 1 points After visiting his grandfather’s farm, John learnt about Callilepis laureola DC and he would like to know more about it. What is it used for or to treat? Selected Answer: b. Induction of fertility Answers: a. Rheumatism b. Induction of fertility c. Induction of abortion d. Palpitations Question 11 1 out of 1 points A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property: Selected Answer: a. Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids Answers: a. Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids b. Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier c. High reabsorption in renal tubules d. Penetrates through membranes by means of endocytosis Question 12 1 out of 1 points Select the parenteral route of drug administration from the following options: Selected Answer: b. Intramuscular Answers: a. Oral b. Intramuscular c. Sublingual d. Rectal Question 13 1 out of 1 points Please indicated if the following statement is true or false: Medicinal plants contain one specific chemical compound which is responsible for its ability to treat a specific disease. Selected Answer: False Answers: True False Response Feedback: Correct! Question 14 1 out of 1 points Vitamin K will decrease the efficacy of warfarin by inducing a pharmacokinetic drug- drug interaction. Selected Answer: False Answers: True False Response Vitamin K opposes the mechanism of action of warfarin, thus is a Feedback: pharmacodynamic interaction. Question 15 0 out of 1 points Nonlinear pharmacokinetics means: Selected b. Answer: Drug serum concentrations decrease in a straight line when plotted on a log concentration-time graph. Answers: a. Drug serum concentrations decrease in a straight line when plotted on a concentration-time graph. b. Drug serum concentrations decrease in a straight line when plotted on a log concentration-time graph. c. Steady-state drug serum concentrations change proportionally to dose. d. Steady-state drug serum concentrations change non-proportionally to dose. Question 16 1 out of 1 points Withdrawal symptoms upon cessation of drug use occur as a result of adaptive physiological changes induced by drug use. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Question 17 1 out of 1 points Please indicated if the following statement is true or false: Strychnine is associated with convulsions.  Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Response Feedback: Correct! Question 18 1 out of 1 points A patient suffering from bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation and bronchorrhoea can be treated with atropine. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Response Feedback: Atropine may reduce the symptoms of a cholinergic toxidrome. Question 19 1 out of 1 points Parenteral administration: Selected Answer: c. May produce a more rapid response than oral administration Answers: a. Is too slow for emergency use b. Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration c. May produce a more rapid response than oral administration d. Cannot be used in unconscious patients Question 20 1 out of 1 points Post market drug safety surveillance largely depends on spontaneous reports by patients and health care providers Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Question 21 1 out of 1 points Structured pharmaceutcial regulatory affairs, as governed by SAHPRA, aims to achieve all of the following, EXCEPT: Selected Answer: b. independence of foreign regulation Answers: a. improved transparency and communication b. independence of foreign regulation c. accountability and responsibility d. good review practices e. good governance Response Correct. SAHPRA aims to improve regulation by co-operating with select Feedback: international regulators. Question 22 1 out of 1 points Atenolol selectivity targets β1-adrenergic receptors. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Response Feedback: Atenolol blocks β1-adrenergic receptors. Question 23 1 out of 1 points Zodwa is a 67 year old female living in Hammanskraal. She is not schooled, and her native language is Tswana. She receives treatment for diabetes and hypertension at her local clinic, however, her conditions are not well controlled. The clinic doctor thinks she may be a good candidate to participate in a clinical trial at one of the academic hospitals. The few ethical issues regarding informed consent in this specific case should be considered. Please select the incorrect statement: Selected e. Answer: Tailor process to suite local custom and culture even if it goes against ICH-GCP principles. Answers: a. Informed consent should be administered in the home language, coupled with an understanding of her world view or value system. b. Oral consent which is witnessed and verified is an ethical alternative in certain instances. c. Consult with members of local community what appropriate procedures to follow. d. Written consent may be impossible and worthless. e. Tailor process to suite local custom and culture even if it goes against ICH-GCP principles. Response Correct! Feedback: Tailor process to suite local custom and culture, however retain principles of ICH-GCP. Question 24 1 out of 1 points A competitive antagonist is a substance that: Selected d. Answer: Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response Answers: a. Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist b. Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect c. Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue d.  Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response Question 25 1 out of 1 points What does “affinity” mean? Selected Answer: b. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor Answers: a. A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug b. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor c. A measure of bioavailability of a drug d. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins Question 26 1 out of 1 points Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the highest bioavailability? Selected Answer: c. Intravenous Answers: a. Sublingual b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Oral Question 27 1 out of 1 points The pharmaceutical equivalent that produces the same effects in patients is known as: Selected Answer: a. Therapeutic equivalent Answers: a. Therapeutic equivalent b. Therapeutic window c. Minimum effective concentration (MEC) d. Minimum toxic concentration (MTC) Question 28 1 out of 1 points Mirabegron selectively binds to which adrenergic receptor subtype? Selected Answer: E. β3 Answers: A. β1 B. α1 C. β2 D. α2 E. β3  Response Feedback: Mirabegron binds to β3- adrenergic receptors. Question 29 1 out of 1 points As per ICH-GCP, who is respondible for compliance activities such as: Protecting the rights, safety, and welfare of the study subjects Reporting adverse events Assuring that only qualified personnel perform study activities Selected Answer: c. The Investigator Answers: a. The Independent Ethics Committee (IEC) b. The Regulatory Authority (e.g. SAHPRA) c. The Investigator d. The Institutional Review Board (IRB) e. The Sponsor Response Feedback: Correct! Question 30 1 out of 1 points Factors determing bioavailability include: Selected Answer: b. Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect Answers: a. Oral dose of a substance b. Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect c. Rheological parameters of blood d. Glomerular filtration rate Question 31 1 out of 1 points During which clinical research phase is the safety of the investigational product determined? Selected Answer: e. In all the above phases Answers: a. Phase I b. Phase II c. Phase III d. Phase IV e. In all the above phases Response Feedback: Correct! Safety is a primary concern in all phases of drug study. Question 32 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following is true about the LD50? Selected b. Dose of a substance which kills 50% of animals that are exposed to it. Answer: Answers: a. 50% of the dose of a substance which can kill an animal. b. Dose of a substance which kills 50% of animals that are exposed to it. c. 50 mg/kg dose of a substance used to test the toxic responses in animals. d. Dose of a substance to which 50% of animals do not show any response. e. Dose of a substance which can kill 50 animals. Question 33 1 out of 1 points South Africa is a unique and highly attractive research environment. To conduct research in South Africa, certain requirements should be in place. Please select the true statement: Selected b. Answer: Research staff should be ICH-GCP compliant and SA-GCP Compliant. Approval from SAHPRA and an independent research committee is mandatory. Answers: a. Research staff do not have to be SA-GCP compliant if they were granted a waiver from the Sponsor Company. b. Research staff should be ICH-GCP compliant and SA-GCP Compliant. Approval from SAHPRA and an independent research committee is mandatory. c. Research staff should only be ICH-GCP compliant. Approval from SAHPRA and an independent research committee is recommended, but not mandatory. d. Research staff should only be ICH-GCP compliant. Approval from SAHPRA and an independent research committee is mandatory. Response Feedback: Correct! Question 34 1 out of 1 points What does the term “bioavailability” mean? Selected a. Answer: Fraction of an unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route of administration Answers: a. Fraction of an unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route of administration b. Degree of plasma protein binding of a substance c. Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial dose d. Permeability through the brain-blood barrier Question 35 1 out of 1 points Which of the following may be categorized as toxicity? Selected b. Development of chronic lung inflammation in smokers. Answer: Answers: a. All of the above. b. Development of chronic lung inflammation in smokers. c. Post-surgical pus formation in a wound on the forearm. d. Chronic rhinitis associated with influenza. e. Gout, which is inflammation of joints caused by accumulation of uric acid crystals. Question 36 1 out of 1 points The following pertaining to the sublingual route of administration is true: Selected Answer: b. Rapid absorption Answers: a. A drug is exposed to gastric acid secretion b. Rapid absorption c. A drug is exposed to prominent initial liver metabolism d. Paracetamol is a sublingual medicine Question 37 1 out of 1 points Which factors are taken into account when calculating the dose interval? Selected Answer: b. Half-life of the drug Answers: a. Active drug concentration in the formulation b. Half-life of the drug c. Duration of the disease d. Age of the patient Response Explanation: Any dose frequency is being calculated on the basis of half-life of the Feedback: drug. If the interval is increased without changing the dose, Cmax, Cmin, Cav decreases but the ratio of Cmax/Cmin increases. Opposite can be observed if dosing interval is reduced frequency increased. It can also result in accumulation and toxicity. Question 38 1 out of 1 points Activated charcoal may reduce the absorption of drugs from the gastrointestinal tract by preventing transporter function. Selected Answer: False Answers: True False Response  Feedback: Activated charcoal adsorbs drugs in the gastrointestinal tract, thus decreasing absorption. Question 39 1 out of 1 points Which drug would be most appropriate to treat a patient suffering from a bronchoconstrictive disorder? Selected Answer: A. Salbutamol Answers: A. Salbutamol B. Atenolol C. Phenylephrine D. Clonidine Response Salbutamol, which is a beta-2 selective sympathomimetic, will reduce Feedback: bronchoconstriction. Question 40 0 out of 1 points A rectal suppository is used to treat a fever. This would represent what type of drug delivery? Selected Answer: c. Enteral and local Answers: a. Parenteral and local b. Parenteral and systemic c. Enteral and local d. Enteral and systemic Response The drug is absorbed through the (terminal region of the) gastrointestinal tract so Feedback: this is enteral delivery. The API would then be carried in the bloodstream to the target receptors and so exerts a systemic effect. Question 41 1 out of 1 points All of the following are commonly associated with the use of amphetamines, EXCEPT? Selected Answer: e. hypotension Answers: a. euphoria b. psychosis c. bruxism d. confusion e. hypotension Question 42 1 out of 1 points Select the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”:  Selected d. Answer: Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to combine with in order to elicit its specific effect Answers: a. Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug b. Carriers activated by a drug c. All types of ion channels modulated by a drug d. Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to combine with in order to elicit its specific effect Question 43 1 out of 1 points Breakdown of muscle fibres may occur as a consequence of using: Selected Answer: A. Suxamethonium chloride Answers: A. Suxamethonium chloride B. Donepezil C. Atropine D. Mivacurium E. Nicotine Response Feedback: Suxamethonium chloride's rhabdomyolysis is due to fasciculations. Question 44 1 out of 1 points Dobutamine may induce arrhythmias in patients being treated for cardiogenic shock. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Response Feedback: Dobutamine increases the heart rate, which may set of arrhythmias. Question 45 1 out of 1 points What ethical principle implies that participants should be presented with relevant information in a comprehensible format and then should voluntarily agree to participate in clinical research? Selected Answer: d. Patient autonomy Answers: a. Distributive justice b. Non-maleficence c. Beneficence d. Patient autonomy Response Feedback: Correct! Question 46 1 out of 1 points An agonist is a substance that: Selected c. Answer: Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects Answers: a. Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect b. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect c. Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects d. Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect Question 47 1 out of 1 points Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily solutions: Selected Answer: False Answers: True False Question 48 1 out of 1 points In plasma drug concentration versus time graph as shown in the picture, what should be the correct option for the marked place? Selected Answer: b. Minimum effective concentration Answers: a. Maximum safe concentration b. Minimum effective concentration c. Therapeutic range d. Onset of action Response Explanation: This graph is plasma drug concentration versus time curve obtained Feedback: after single oral dosage of a drug. Minimum effective concentration is the minimum concentration of the drug in plasma which is necessary to produce a therapeutic effect. It also says about the minimum concentration of drug at the receptor site to elicit the desired pharmacological response. Question 49 1 out of 1 points Characteristics of a particular route of drug administration include all of the following, EXCEPT: Selected Answer: c. Inhalation provides slow access to the general systemic circulation Answers: a. Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique b. Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation c. Inhalation provides slow access to the general systemic circulation  d. Intravenous administration provides a rapid response Question 50 1 out of 1 points The comparison of bioavailability between two dosage forms is referred to as____________. Selected Answer: d. Bioequivalence Answers: a. Bioavailability b. Biopharmaceutics c. Biological d. Bioequivalence Question 51 0 out of 1 points Drug clearance is: Selected a. Dependent on the value of the volume of distribution Answer: Answers: a. Dependent on the value of the volume of distribution b. Dependent on the value of the half-life c. A function of the blood flow to clearing organs and the efficiency of the organ in extracting the drug d. How the drug binds in blood and tissues e. Both (a) and (d) Question 52 1 out of 1 points Please indicate if the following statement is true or false: Considering the phases of investigational product development, the purpose of Phase IV is to test in subjects (n = thousands) the long-term safety, adverse events and efficacy in smaller controlled populations. Selected Answer: False Answers: True False Response Correct - Phase IV is post-marketing testing for long-term safety and efficacy Feedback: is large population. Question 53 4 out of 4 points Match the following toxins with their effects: Question Selected Match Digoxin-like glycosides (Oleander) d. Cardiac arrhythmias Pyrrolizidines (Senecio spp) a. Veno-occlusive liver disease  Ricin (Castor oil plant) b. Haemagglutination Amphetamine (Catha edullis) c. Delirium All Answer Choices a. Veno-occlusive liver disease b. Haemagglutination c. Delirium d. Cardiac arrhythmias Question 54 0 out of 1 points Compulsive drug use is the result of a sustained feeling of reward when consuming the drug of abuse. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Response Incorrect! Feedback: Feeling of reward leads to drug seeking behaviour, resulting in dependence. Compulsive drug use results due to dependence. Question 55 1 out of 1 points Compulsive drug use results from adaptive neurological changes that are mediated by repetitive exposure to drug compounds. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Question 56 1 out of 1 points Quaternary ammonium compounds may cause confusion as anticholinergic side effect. Selected Answer: False Answers: True False Response Tertiary ammonium compounds are more likely to cross the blood-brain barrier Feedback: and exert CNS side effects. Question 57 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is an anticancer drug that inhibits mitosis by binding to tubulin and prevent cells from making spindles? Selected Answer: b. Caranthus roseus Answers: a. Taxus brevifolia b. Caranthus roseus  c. Podophyllum d. Asimina spp Question 58 1 out of 1 points Which route of administration accounts for the most first pass hepatic metabolism: Selected Answer: b. Oral Answers: a. Sublingual b. Oral c. Transdermal d. Rectal Question 59 1 out of 1 points One of the major problems with plant based medicine in developing countries is toxicity. Which of the following are extrinsic factors that can lead to herbal remedy toxicity? Selected Answers: a. Contamination b. Adulteration d. Misidentification e. Substitution Answers: a. Contamination b. Adulteration c. Pharmacodynamics d. Misidentification e. Substitution Question 60 1 out of 1 points Which non-depolarising neuromuscular blocker will have the shortest duration of activity? Selected Answer: C. Mivacurium Answers: A. Cisatracurium B. Atracurium C. Mivacurium D. Rocuronium Response Mivacurium is the shortest-acting neuromuscular blocker of the non- Feedback: depolarising type. Question 61 1 out of 1 points Which of the following provides the best definition of pharmaceutics? Selected a. Answer:  It is the study of dosage form design, including associated manufacturing techniques Answers: a. It is the study of dosage form design, including associated manufacturing techniques b. It is the study of the effect that drugs have on the body c. It is the study of the effect that the body has on drugs d. It is the study of how drugs can be chemically synthesised Response Pharmaceutics is the scientific study of how drugs may be formulated into Feedback: medicines that are suitable for presentation to the patient. This includes the design of dosage form and the development of manufacturing techniques that eliminate micro-organisms. Question 62 0 out of 1 points Most drugs are distributed homogeneously. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Question 63 4 out of 4 points Match each of the following attributes or drug examples with a scheduling status according to South African regulation: Question Selected Match Schedule 1 B. No diagnosis and monitoring Schedule 3 F. anti-inflammatory drugs Schedule 4 D. antibiotics Schedule 5 C. moderate potential for abuse All Answer Choices A. high potential for abuse B. No diagnosis and monitoring C. moderate potential for abuse D. antibiotics E. clinical research only F. anti-inflammatory drugs Question 64 1 out of 1 points What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration? Selected c. Oily solutions can be injected Answer:  Answers: a. The onset of action is always slower than oral administration b. Only water solutions can be injected c. Oily solutions can be injected d. Intramuscular injection of hypertonic saline (4-6% NaCl) is recommended for pain relief Question 65 1 out of 1 points Give the definition for a therapeutical dose: Selected a. The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients Answer: Answers: a. The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients b. The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism c. The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of medicine in an organism d. The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect Question 66 2 out of 2 points Entacapone promotes sympathetic nervous system activity by inhibiting [a], while tranylcypromine inhibits [b]. Selected Entacapone promotes sympathetic nervous system activity by Answer: inhibiting catechol-O-methyltransferase, while tranylcypromine inhibits monoamine oxidase. Answers: acetylcholinesterase catechol-O-methyltransferase dopa decarboxylase monoamine oxidase Response Entacapone and tranylcypromine are indirect-acting sympathomimetics by Feedback: inhibiting COMT and MAO, respectively. Question 67 1 out of 1 points Half-life determines: Selected e. Both (a) and (d) Answer: Answers: a. The time to reach steady state b. The loading dose required to achieve the desired steady-state concentration c. The maintenance dose required to achieve the desired steady-state concentration  d. The dosage interval e. Both (a) and (d) Question 68 1 out of 1 points Most medicines are made up of the active pharmaceutical ingredient (API) and various excipients. Which one of the following is NOT a possible justification for formulating medicines in this way? Selected c. The API and the excipients each exert a pharmacological effect Answer: Answers: a. The excipients stabilise the API so that it does not degrade appreciably before administration b. The excipients reduce the possibility of the API irritating the body c. The API and the excipients each exert a pharmacological effect d. The API is too potent to use undiluted Response Excipients are categorized as being pharmacologically inactive and can be added Feedback: to reduce potency, stabilise the API, or reduce the irritant effect of APIs. Question 69 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following is a characteristic of a risk-free drug treatment? Selected Answer: a. highly selective Answers: a. highly selective b. variable dosing c. different mechanisms d. patients are genetically heterogenous e. disease is poorly understood Question 70 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following is not a common dosage form for fentanyl? Selected Answer: a. Vaporizer Answers: a. Vaporizer b. Lollipop c. Transdermal patch d. IV Infusion Response Feedback: Fentanyl is not volatile and is therefore not suited to a vaporizer. Question 71 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following is not a route of administration?  Selected Answer: d. Dissolution Answers: a. Intravenous (IV) b. Oral c. Topical d. Dissolution Response Dissolution is not a route of administration in itself, but may occur as part of drug Feedback: delivery via a particular route. For example, an oral tablet that is swallowed may exert its pharmacological effect only after dissolution in the gastrointestinal tract. Question 72 1 out of 1 points St. John's wort may reduce the plasma concentration of diazepam (a CYP450 substrate) by increasing its metabolism. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Response St. John's wort induces CYP450 enzymes, thus increasing their substrates Feedback: metabolism. Question 73 1 out of 1 points James an asthmatic present to the emergency room with the following symptoms: blurred vision, suppressed salivation, vasodilation, delirium, and hallucinations. His cousin mentions that he has taken a herbal medicine for his asthma symptoms. Which of the following plant species may have been taken by James? Selected Answer: d. Datura spp Answers: a. Senecio spp b. Solanum spp c. Oleander spp d. Datura spp Question 74 1 out of 1 points Consider types of clinical study design, select the correct statement that best describes a Blinded Study: Selected b. Answer: Involved parties do not know whether the subject is receiving the investigational product, a placebo, or a comparator product. Answers: a. All subjects receive the same treatment. b. Involved parties do not know whether the subject is receiving the investigational product, a placebo, or a comparator product. c. A product that is currently marketed is used to treat the control group of subjects, while the active Investigational Product is used to treat another group.  d. The effect of the drug is compared with the effect of a placebo, and inactive substance designed to resemble the drug. e. All parties concerned know the treatment. Response Feedback: Correct! Question 75 1 out of 1 points All of the following are side-effects often associated with the abuse of anabolic steroids, EXCEPT? Selected Answer: d. anaemia Answers: a. liver disease b. acne c. hirsutism d. anaemia e. striae Question 76 1 out of 1 points Please indicated if the following statement is true or false: Thorn apple / Jimson weed (Datura stramonium) poisoning presents with delirium. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False Response Feedback: Correct! Question 77 2 out of 2 points During a pharmacokinetic drug-drug interaction, a(n) [a] drug will affect the [b] of another drug. Selected During a pharmacokinetic drug-drug interaction, a(n) precipitant drug will affect Answer: the plasma concentration of another drug. Answers: potency plasma concentration efficacy precipitant mechanism of action object Response Precipitant drugs alter the effects of an object drug. In the case of a Feedback: pharmacokinetic interaction, thus will change the plasma concentration. Question 78 1 out of 1 points  In plasma drug concentration versus time graph as shown in the picture, what should be the correct option for the marked place? Selected Answer: a. Maximum safe concentration Answers: a. Maximum safe concentration b. Minimum effective concentration c. Therapeutic range d. Onset of action Response Explanation: This graph is plasma drug concentration versus time curve obtained Feedback: after single oral dosage of a drug. Maximum safe concentration or the minimum toxic concentration is the concentration of drug in plasma above which adverse or unwanted effects are most probably to be occurred. Any concentration of drug above maximum safe concentration will be in the toxic level. Question 79 1 out of 1 points The liver is the main metabolizing organ. Which of the following statements is true regarding toxicant metabolism and reduction of toxicity? Selected d. Answer: Kidneys play an essential role in the elimination of metabolized toxicants via the urine. Answers: a. The liver alone metabolizes all the toxicants and does not need any further assistance. b. The cardiovascular system plays an important role in the detoxification of the chemicals. c. The gastrointestinal tract controls the flow of chemicals into the liver. d. Kidneys play an essential role in the elimination of metabolized toxicants via the urine. e. After the metabolism in the liver, all chemicals are removed from the body through bile. Question 80 1 out of 1 points Induction of P-glycoprotein transporters may result in a drug being: Selected C. rendered ineffective due to reduced bioavailability Answer: Answers: A. localised in the intracellular environment for a longer time B. more likely to reach the brain due to greater transport through the blood-brain barrier C. rendered ineffective due to reduced bioavailability D.  more toxic due to higher plasma concentrations being achieved after absorption E. absorbed to a higher degree from the gastrointestinal tract Response P-glycoprotein effluxes drugs, and thus reduce their intracellular accumulation Feedback: and/or absorption. Question 81 0 out of 1 points Which one of the following medicines does not rely on topical drug delivery? Selected Answer: a. Nasal spray Answers: a. Nasal spray b. Anti-dandruff shampoo c. Insulin pen d. Nicotine patch Response An insulin pen is a syringe designed to deliver the drug parenterally. Any drug that Feedback: exerts its effect after application to an external surface of the body, including the nasal passages, scalp, and skin, is an example of topical delivery. Question 82 0 out of 1 points The volume of distribution is: Selected c. Answer: A function of the blood flow to clearing organs and the efficiency of the organ in extracting the drug Answers: a. Dependent upon the value of clearance b. Dependent upon the value of half-life c. A function of the blood flow to clearing organs and the efficiency of the organ in extracting the drug d. A function of the physiologic volume of blood and tissues and how the drug binds in blood and tissues e. Both (a) and (b) Question 83 2 out of 2 points The parasympatholytic, hyoscine, is used to treat motion sickness. As a [b] ammonium compound, the drug [c] cross the blood-brain barrier. Selected The parasympatholytic, hyoscine, is used to treat motion sickness. As Answer: a tertiary ammonium compound, the drug does cross the blood-brain barrier. Answers:  tertiary quaternary does does not Response Feedback: Tertiary ammonium compounds cross the blood-brain barrier. Question 84 1 out of 1 points Select the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptors: Selected Answer: d. cAMP Answers: a. Adenylyl cyclase b. Phospholipase C c. Sodium ions d. cAMP Question 85 1 out of 1 points What is randomisation? Selected e. Process by which study subjects are allocated to different treatment groups. Answer: Answers: a. Process by which treatment is stopped for a period of time and switched. b. Process by which a study is unblinded due to safety concerns. c. Process by with the Study Protocol builds in safety measures to assess adverse events (AEs). d. Process by which subjects receive no treatment for a period, so that the effects of a previous treatment can be eliminated. e. Process by which study subjects are allocated to different treatment groups. Response Correct! Feedback: Randomisation prevents bias by ensuring that any differences between the groups at study entry are due to chance alone. Question 86 4 out of 4 points Match each of the following drugs of abuse with their main molecular target: Question Selected Match Opioids C. µ-opioid receptor γ-hydroxybutyric acid D. GABAB-receptor LSD A. 5HT2A-receptor marijuana F. CB1-receptor All Answer Choices A. 5HT2A-receptor B. GABAA-receptor C. µ-opioid receptor D. GABAB-receptor E. NMDA-receptor F. CB1-receptor