Foundation midterm (1).pdf

‫مشروع تعديل األسئلة السابقة‬ (‫ أنفعهم للناس‬،‫)خير الناس‬ ‫محمد صلى هللا عليه وسلم‬ All Years MCQs (Midterm) Foundation Block COLOR INDEX: Biochemistry Microbiology Physiology Pharmacology...

‫مشروع تعديل األسئلة السابقة‬ (‫ أنفعهم للناس‬،‫)خير الناس‬ ‫محمد صلى هللا عليه وسلم‬ All Years MCQs (Midterm) Foundation Block COLOR INDEX: Biochemistry Microbiology Physiology Pharmacology Pathology Anatomy Human Genetics Histology Embryology Immunology  ‫بسم هللا الرحمن الرحیم‬ ‫هذا العمل يهدف إلى تجميع أسئلة اختبارات السنوات السابقة‬ ‫في ِ مجلد واحد‪ ،‬بهدف تسهیل وصولكم إلیها و تحقیق‬ ‫‪.‬االستفادة الكبرى منها لدفعتنا والدفعات القادمة بإذن هللا ُّ‬ ‫َّ‬ ‫َّ‬ ‫نود لفت االنتباه أن العمل هو عمل طالبي بحت‪ ،‬مقدم من مجموعة‬ ‫من طالب وطالبات كلية الطب ويحتمل الخطأ على الرغم من أننا‬ ‫‪.‬بذلنا ُج‍‍هدنا من أجل إخراجه بأفضل صورة‬ ‫َّ‬ ‫خيارات‬ ‫تم التعديل على بعض األسئلة وذلك بتغییر الجواب الخاطئ وإضافة‬ ‫منطقية للناقص منها وحذف بعض المالحظات اإلضافیة واألسئلة ً القدیمة من‬ ‫َّ‬ ‫‪.‬أعمال السنوات السابقة‪ ،‬كما تم فرز األسئلة تبعا للمادة ل‍تي تنتمي لها‬ ‫)الملف یحتوي على أسئلة فقط(‬ ‫ِّ‬ ‫لذلك من أراد االطالع على المالحظات أو على األسئلة كما‬ ‫َّ‬ ‫‪.‬نقلها طالب تلك السنوات فعلیه العودة للملف األصلي‬ ‫الرجاء عدم إحضار األسئلة إلى الجامعة وعدم مناقشة أعضاء ‪-‬‬ ‫‪.‬هیئة التدریس فیها لتبقى فائدتها للدفعات القادمة‬ ‫ختا ًما‪ ،‬عليكم باإل ِجتهاد واإلخالص ال َّنیة في طلب العلم‪.‬وال نريد منكم إال خالص الدعاء(‬ ‫َّ ‪ -‬تحیاتنا‬ ‫لنا)‪.‬‬ Quick link: 444 = 60Q 443 = 56Q 442 = 61Q 441 = 61Q 439 = 60Q 438 = 60Q 437 = 58Q 436 = 58Q 435 = 60Q 434 = 50Q 433 = 59Q 432 = 52Q 431 = 38Q 430 = 68Q TOTAL = 740Q  444 Anatomy Q1: Which one of following is a false rib A) Ninth B) Fifth C) Seventh D) Eleventh Answer: A Q2: Which of the following divides the body into two unequal parts? A) Midsagittal B) Parasagittal C) Frontal D) Transverse Answer: B Q3: Which one of the following applies to pronation A) The palm faces posteriorly B) Lateral rotation of the forearm C) The radius and ulna are parallel D) The thumb is approximates to the fingers Answer: A Q4: Which muscle is named according to its shape? A) Coracobrachialis B) Pectoralis major C) Latissimus Dorsi D) Teres minor Answer: D Q5: What type muscle has the highest range of movement A) Multipennate B) Parallel C) Unipennate D) Circular Answer: B Q6: Which of the following belongs to the diencephalon A) Hypothalamus B) Corpus callosum C) Midbrain D) Cerebellum Answer: A Q7: Which of the cranial nerves is purely sensory A) Vagus B) Facial C) Vestibulocochlear D) Oculomotor Answer: C Q8: CSF is finally drained into ? A) Choroid plexuses B) Subarachnoid space C) Dural venous sinus D) Spinal Cord Answer: C Q9: At which of the following sites is the location of the postganglionic neuron of the sympathetic nervous system affecting pelvic viscera? A) Inferior mesenteric B) Sympathetic chain C) Segment of sacral D) Segment of thoracolumbar Answer: A Q10: Which of the following is an example of arteriovenous anastomosis? A) Tips of fingers B) Liver C) Pituitary gland D) Bone marrow Answer: A Physiology Q11: What is the percentage of potassium in the ECF out of the potassium of the total body? A) 4% B) 14% C) 140% D) 40% Answer: A Q12: What moves downhill in secondary active transport? A) Sodium B) Hydrogen C) Calcium D) Potassium Answer: A Q13: The hypothalamic thirst center is stimulated by decreasing plasma volume of ? A) 1-2% B) 5-10% C) 10-15% D) 20-25% Answer: C Q14: What is causing this change in osmolarity and volume? A) Lose of hypertonic solution B) High NaCl intake C) Infusion of isotonic NaCl D) lose of hypotonic solution Answer: D Q15: Which of the following is a positive feedback mechanism? A) Blood pressure B) Body heat C) Uterine contraction during birth D) Blood glucose Answer: C Q16: What is the effect when the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated? A) Increased cardiac contraction B) Decreased intestinal motility C) Increased urine output D) Bronchodilation Answer: C Q17: A 30 year old lady had severe bleeding during delivery and needed a blood transfusion. Her blood type is A+ and the donated blood is +O, what will happen to her RBCs? A) Her RBCs will only be destroyed. B) Her RBCs and the donated RBCs will be destroyed. C) Neither her RBCs nor donated RBCs will be destroyed. D) The donated RBCs only will be destroyed. Answer: C Q18: A 9 years old boy has recurring infections. The physician found that type of plasma protein was low, what is it? A) Albumin B) Globulin C) Prothrombin D) Fibrinogen Answer: B Q19: After experimental separation of blood components in a test tube, we were left with multiple layers. One of them was a buffy coat. It is composed of: A) RBCs & platelets B) RBCs & WBCs C) Plasma & WBCs D) Platelets & WBCs Answer: D Q20: An old man came to the hospital and had metastatic cancer, a blood test was done, it was apparent that the patient had pancytopenia (low rbc, wbc, and platelets) -What type of metastatic cancer would cause this? A) Bone marrow cancer B) Liver C) Brain D) Kidney Answer: A Q21: A patient with anemia caused by chronic renal failure, which of the following is the treatment? A) Folic acid B) Erythropoietin C) Iron injection D) Nutrients supplement Answer: B Q22: Hemoglobin (F) of intrauterine life consists of …… polypeptides? A) 2 alpha + 2 beta B) 2 alpha + 2 delta C) 4 alpha D) 2 alpha + 2 gamma Answer: D Q23: A 57 year old woman presented with pallor and tachycardia. She had a history of GI tract issues. After blood examination they discovered she had microcytic hypochromic anemia. In which of the following segments of GI is her problem? A) Duodenum B) Ileum C) Bone marrow D) Liver Answer: A Pathology Q24: In which category is parkinson’s classified in? A) Infective B) Degenerative C) Metabolic D) Neoplastic Answer: B Q25: Which of the following directly refers to the epidemiology of the disease? A) Age, Gender, geographic distribution, socioeconomic status B) Pathogenicity of a disease C) Signs and symptoms D) Prognosis Answer: A Q26: Which of the following is a sign of Irreversible cell injury? A) Mild eosinophilia B) Hydropic C) Karyorrhexis D) Heterochromatin appearance Answer: C Q27: A 63 year old man was brought to the hospital emergency department. He was having chest pain , shortness of breath and was sweating a lot. He got diagnosed with myocardial infarction. What is the right sequence of events that lead to this disease A) Ischemia - hypoxia - irreversible cell injury - coagulative necrosis B) Ischemia - hypoxia - reversible cell injury - coagulative necrosis C) Infection - free radical injury - reversible cell injury - liquefactive necrosis D) Infection - free radical injury - irreversible cell injury - liquefactive necrosis Answer: A Q28: A patient was admitted to the hospital with abdominal pain, laboratory exams show his serum amylase level is 2900 u/i (reference range is 300 u/i), a diagnosis shows he has acute pancreatitis and abdominal calcifications, what type of necrosis is expected for this patient? A) Coagulative necrosis B) Liquefactive necrosis C) Fat necrosis D) Fibrinoid necrosis Answer: C Q29: A 19 year old female suffering with a 5 year history of acne and dark spots. Dermatologist diagnosed her with post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. Which pigment is accumulated? A. Lipofuscin B. Bilirubin C. Hemosiderin D. Melanin Answer: D  Biochemistry Q30: At physiological pH which amino acid will be fully ionized and have a positive charge? A) Histidine and lysine B) Aspartate and glutamate C) Arginine and lysine D) Histidine and valine Answer: C Q31: Along with Glycine, which amino acid is frequently found in B-bend A) Histidine B) Isoleucine C) Tryptophan D) Proline Answer: D Q32: What is the bond in Antiparallel B-sheet A) Disulfide bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Ionic bond D) Hydrophobic bond Answer: B Q33: What is the molecule that has an anticodon A) mRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) snRNA Answer: C Q34: Which of the following proofreads, and replaces incorrect nucleotides A) DNA Polymerase B) DNA ligase C) DNA helicase D) DNA primase Answer: A Q35: Which of the following is a keto-also isomer A) Glucose-fructose B) Mannose- galactose C) Glucose-Galactose D) Mannose - Maltose Answer: A Q36: What’s the function of w-6 fatty acids? A) Reducing serum cholesterol level B) Reducing serum triglycerides level C) Reducing serum HDL D) Reducing serum LDL Answer: A Q37: It is an important precursor for bile acid ,acid salt and vitamin D ? A) Lipoprotein B) Cholesterol C) Glycolipids D) Steroids Answer: B Microbiology Q38: The cell wall of gram negative bacteria is characterized by what? A) Thin layer of peptidoglycan that loses the crystal violet stain B) Second outer membrane that retains the crystal violet stain C) A thick peptidoglycan layer that retains crystal violet D) A thin plasma membrane that loses the crystal violet stain Answer: A Q39: Which of the following is Teichoic acid function A) Antimicrobial resistance B) Epithelial cell adhesion C) B-Lactamase Production D) Prevent Phagocytosis Answer: B Q40: Haemophilus influenzae becomes resistant to ampicillin by? A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Conjugation D) Mutation Answer: A Q41: What structural component is unique for all viruses A) Envelope B) Cell Wall C) Nucleus D) Capsid Answer: D Q42: During viral replication, which of the following viral genomes is directly translated into protein after infection? A) Positive polarity single stranded RNA B) Negative polarity single stranded RNA C) Double stranded DNA D) Single stranded DNA Answer: A Q43: Which of the following has nephrotoxicity as a potential side effect? A) Gentamicin B) Clindamycin C) Metronidazole D) Ciprofloxacin Answer: A Q44: How does ciprofloxacin affect the bacteria A) cell wall inhibition B) cell membrane inhibition C) protein synthesis inhibition D) nucleic acid inhibition Answer: D Q45: What antibiotic is contraindicated to use on children A) Tetracycline B) Vancomycin C) Gentamicin D) Amoxicillin Answer: A Histology Q46: Which of the following is a membranous organelle? A) Ribosome B) Cilia C) Flagella D) Golgi apparatus Answer: D Q47: Which of the following structures is responsible for the basophilic stain in the cytoplasm? A) Mitochondria B) Golgi apparatus C) Ribosomes D) Secretory vessels Answer: C Q48: Which organelle contains its own DNA? A) Mitochondria B) Golgi apparatus C) Ribosomes D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Q49: Which of the following contains goblet cells? A) Simple squamous B) Stratified simple squamous C) Transitional D) Pseudostratified Columnar Epithelium Answer: D Q50: Which of this cell Rich of lysosomes A) Macrophages B) Mast cell C) Plasma cell D) Fibroblast Answer: A Q51: What the type of dense collagenous A) Collagen I B) Collagen III C) Elastic D) Reticular Answer: A Q52: Which of the following cells secrete immunoglobulins A) Plasma cells B) Macrophages C) Fibrocytes D) Mast cells Answer: A Q53: Which of these is covered with fibromuscular CT A) Spleen B) Tonsils C) Thymus D) Lymph nodes Answer: A Q54: Where is the thymus dependent zone A) Lymph Node Medulla B) cortex Lymph Node C) paracortex Lymph Node D) Thymus cortex Answer: C Embryology Q55: Where does ectopic pregnancy often take place? A) Uterine tube B) Ovary C) Upper part of uterus D) Lower part of uterus Answer: A Q56: When does implantation occur? A) One week after fertilization B) Two weeks after fertilization C) Right after fertilization D) Two days after fertilization Answer: A Q57: When do the embryonic period ends A) 8th week B) 9th week C) 7th week D) 5th week Answer: A Human Genetics Q58: Which of the following pairs of chromosomes is acrocentric? A) 1 B) 12 C) X D) 15 Answer: D Q59: What is phytohemagglutinin used for in karyotype? A) Stop the division in metaphase B) Increase resolution of Karyotype C) Formation Spindle D) Stimulate lymphocytes to divide Answer: D Q60: What is the genotype of nondisjunction in the first meiotic division (meiosis 1) A) XX,XX,0,0 B) XX,0,X,0 C) XX,X,O,X D) X,X,X,X Answer: A Anatomy 443 Q1: Which cranial nerve is purely motor ? A. Facial B. Optic C. Vagus D. Hypoglossal Answer: D Q2:Which Artery nourishes the heart ? A. Coronary arteries B. Common arteries C. Superior arteries D. Internal arteries Answer: A Q3: Which of the following is a Multipennate Muscle? A. Biceps brachii B. Sartorius C. Deloid D. Rectus femoris Answer: C Q4: Standing on your toes is considered: A. Inversion. B. Plantar flexion. C. Eversion. D. Dorsiflexion. Answer: B Q5: A Lumbar Puncture to collect CSF is taken from from? A. L1-L2 B. L2-L3 C. L3-L4 D. L4-L5 Answer: C Physiology Q6: Which of the following is the main anion in the extracellular fluid compartment? A. Chloride B. Phosphate C. Sodium D. Potassium Answer: A Q7: what does the term hypernatremia indicate? A. Decrease in Na concentration in ECF B. Increase in Na concentration in ICF C. Increase in Na concentration in ECF D. Increase in k concentration in ECF Answer: C Q8:Which of the following represent a positive feedback mechanism? A-Uterus contraction B-Decrease Body temperature C-Blood pressure D-Increase Body temperature Answer: A Q9: In which of the following organs do the sympathetic postganglionic fibers secrete Acetylcholine? A. Adrenal medulla B. Liver C. Sweat gland D. Gastrointestinal tract Answer: C Q10: Which one of these factors is inversely proportional to rate of simple diffusion A. Molecular size B. Temperature C. Lipid soluble D. Concentration gradient Answer: A Q11: A 26-year-old pregnant woman came to the antenatal clinic, history revealed she has no prior surgical operations and no previous pregnancy or blood transfusion, she is an O negative, and her husband has an O positive blood group, she heard that she should have an injection. What is the best advice for her? A) she doesn't need to have the injection in the current pregnancy or the subsequent pregnancies B) she needs to have the injection during this pregnancy to prevent hemolysis C) she needs to have the injection during this pregnancy to prevent sensitization D) there is no need to have the injection in this pregnancy, she needs to have the injection in the next pregnancy Answer: C Q12: Which of the following causes microcytic hypochromic anemia? A. Folate deficiency. B. Iron deficiency. C. Acute hemorrhage. D. Vitamin B12 deficiency. Answer: B Q13: A 3-year ord child comes to the clinic following an infection. Which of the following plasma proteins is expected to be deficient? A. Albumin. B. α Globulins. C. β Globulins. D. γ Globulins. Answer: D Q14: A 53-year-old man came to your clinic complaining about gradually increasing shortness of breath in the past few weeks, especially with exertion. He has a past medical history of chronic renal failure. The laboratory investigations show low hemoglobin levels and haematocrit volumes. Decreased secretion of which of the following substances will most probably be responsible for his anemia? A. Cortisol. B. Erythropoietin. C. Thyroxine. D. Noradrenaline. Answer: B Q15: which of the following plasma proteins exert most of the osmotic force across the capillary wall? A. Albumin. B. α Globulins. C. β Globulins. D. γ Globulins. Answer: A Q16: In adults, which site stops contributing to erythropoiesis? A. Iliac crest. B. Shaft of Tibia C. Sternum. D. Vertebrae. Answer: B Q17: Which of the following cranial nerves is purely motor? A. Vagus B. Hypoglossal C. Facil D. Optic Answer: B Pathology Q18: The pathogenesis of apoptosis is as follows: A. Phagocytosis → activation of a gene → cell shrinkage → apoptotic body B. Activation of gene → cell shrinkage → phagocytosis→ apoptotic body C. Activation of gene → phagocytosis → apoptotic body →cell shrinkage D. Activation of gene → cell shrinkage → apoptotic body → phagocytosis Answer: D Q19: A 59 year old woman was reffered to her local hospital because of yellow discoloration of the sclera of the eye and skin. Which one of these underlying accumalations is the likely cause? A. Billurubin B. Melanin C. Lead D. Hemosiderin Answer: A Q20: A 46 years old obese man was transferred to the gastroenterologist with a history of gastric hyperacidity and discomfort in the upper part of the abdomen. He was diagnosed with gastro-esophageal reflux disease. What most likely happened in this case? A. Squamous metaplasia B. Squamous hyperplasia and hypertrophy C. Columnar hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Columnar cell metaplasia Answer: D Q21: Q35: A 63-year-old woman was referred to her local hospital because of a breast lump, the physician performed a suction of cells from this lump, specimen was later on sent to the laboratory for analysis, what is the name of the procedure performed by this physician? A. Exfoliative cytology B. Fine needle aspiration cytology C. Liquid based cytology D. Needle biopsy Answer: B Q22: A 69-year-old man was admitted into the urology department. He complains of difficulties during urination. It was found that he had an enlarged prostate. A biopsy was taken from the prostate tissue. Under the microscope, the prostate cells were exhibiting: A. Hyperplasia B. Glandular atrophy C. Hypoxia D. Liquefaction Answer: A Q23: Which one of the following is associated with fat necrosis and calcification of the abdominal fatty tissue? A. Renal failure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pancreatitis D. Myocardial infarction Answer: C Q24: A 33-year old man was referred to the thyroid clinic. It was found that he has a lump in his neck, and the physician used a fine needle to obtain the specimen. What is the used technique in this case? A. Fine-needle aspiration cytology B. exfoliative cytology C. Frozen section. B. surgical excision Answer: A Biochemistry Q25: What type of RNA is responsible for adding amino acids to the polypeptide chain A. tRNA B. mRNA C. rRNA D. snRNA Answer: A Q26: What does the codon "UAG" stand for in mRNA translation? A. start codon and methionine B. start codon C. stop codon with arginine D. stop codon Answer: D Q27: Which lipoprotein particle contains the highest amount of cholesterol? A. VLDL B. Chylomicrons C. LDL D. HDL Answer: C Q28: What is the complex lipid highly important function to nerve fibers? A. Sphingomyelin B. Phosphatidic acid C. Phosphatidylcholine D. Phosphatidylserine Answer: A Q29: What is the bond responsible for the formation between amino acids in primary proteins? A. Hydrophobic B. Hydrophilic C. Peptide bond D. Glycosidic bond Answer: C Q30: Which of the following is considered as heteropolysaccharide? A. Starch B. Cellulose C. Glycogen D. GAGs Answer: D Q31: Which one of these following amino acids contain a secondary amino group? A. Proline B. Phenylalanine C. Methionine D. Valine Answer: A Q32: What is the role of AUG codon in protein translation? A. Sart codon for Alanine B. Start codon for methionine, C. End codon D. Encodes for arginine Answer: B Q33: Which of the following is not primary amino acid? A. Valine B. Glycine C. Proline D. Isoleucine Answer: C Q34: Which of the following is nitrogenous bases are purine? A. Thiamine B. Uracil C. Cytosine D. Guanine Answer: D Q35: Antisense DNA strand sequence (3'.ATGGCCAT.'5) was transcribed to mRNA strand. Which one of the following would be the mRNA sequence? A. 5'.ATGGCCAT.3' B. 5'.AUGGCCAU.3' C. 5'.UACCGGUA.3' D. 5'.AUGGCCUA.3' Answer: C Microbiology Q36: Which of the following is applicable in endospores? A. inhibited by disinfectants. B. Inhibited by dryness C. Susceptible to high temperatures D. Resistant to poor nutritional environment Answer: D Q37: Which of the following toxins are relatively heat-sesntive? A. Exotoxin. B. Endotoxin C. Envolope D. Both A&B Answer: A Q38: Which viral structure has 3 classifications ? A.Genome type B. Symmetry C. Positive or negative strand D. Envelope Answer: B Q39: Which one of the following is a side effect of vancomycin? A. Teeth discoloration B. Nephrotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Discoloration of body fluids Answer: B Q40: Which of the following is an encapsulated pathogen? A. S.pneumoniae pneumococcus B. Brucella species C. Salmonella non-typhi D. Legionella pneumophila Answer: A Q41: Which of the following is considered a protein and is heat labile? A- exotoxin B- endotoxin C- endocrine D- exocrine Answer: A Q42: Which Antibiotic is safe for children? A. Doxycycline. B. Amoxicillin. C. Nalidexic acid. D. Trovafloxacin. Answer: B Histology Q43:Which of the following epithelial membranes may contain a keratin layer A.Stratified Squamous epithelium B. Stratified Columnar epithelium C. Simple Squamous epithelium D. Simple Columnar epithelium Answer: A Q44:Which of the following cells are found in the paracortex of the lymph node A. Epithelial reticular cells B. T-lymphocytes C. B lymphoblasts D. Plasma cells Answer: B Q45: Which of the following cells secrete immunoglobulins? A. Macrophages. B. Fibroblasts C. Plasma cells. D. Mast cells. Answer: C Q46: Which of the following cells secrete collagen fibers? A. Macrophages. B. Fibroblasts. C. Plasma cells. D. Mast cells. Answer: B Q47: Which of the following organelles contain its own DNA? A. Golgi apparatus. B. Lysosomes. C. Rough endo reticulum. D. Mitochondria. Answer: D Q48: What is the major component of Hassall’s corpuscle? A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes C. Epithelial reticular cells D. Macrophages Answer: C Q49: What's the organelle that is responsible for packaging in the cell? A. Mitochondria B. Golgi Apparatus C. Macrophages D. Endoplasmic Reticulum Answer: B Embryology Q50: At which week does the fetal period begin? A. 5th Week B. 7th Week C. 9th Week D. 6th Week Answer: C Q51: Oogenesis starts during which of the following periods? A. During fetal life B. After puberty C. Before fertilization D. 10 days after fertilization Answer: A Human genetics Q52:Which of the following karyotypes represent klinefelter syndrome A. (47, XY ,+ 21) B. (47, XYY) C. (46, XX) D. (47, XXY) Answer: D Q53:Which of the following steps best describes G Banding A. Staining of the Centromere. Treat with acid followed by alkali prior to G banding. B. Treat with trypsin and then with Geimsa Stain. C. Heat and then treat with Geimsa Stain. D. Treat with Quinicrine dye giving rise to fluorescent bands. It requires an ultraviolet fluorescent microscope. Answer: B Q54:Which of the following is the syndrome for this karyotype: (47, XY + 18) ? A. Pauta syndrome B. Edward’s syndrome C. Turner syndrome D. Klienfielter’s syndrome Answer: B Q55: Karyotyping is best taken from which of the following phases? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase Answer: B Q56: Which of the following is used in G banding? A. Quinacrine dye. B. Acid & Alkali. C. Trypsin and Geimsa stain. D. Heat and Geimsa stain. Answer: C 442 Anatomy: Q1: which chamber forms the apex of the heart? A. Left atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left ventricle D. Right atrium Answer: C Q2: Which movement is directed towards the median plane? A. Abduction B. Adduction C. Flexion D. Extension Answer : B Q3: Which term describes away from the median plane? A. Dorsal B. Lateral C. Anterior D. Proximal Answer: B Q4: what are the characteristics of origin in muscle? A. Mostly fibrous B. Most movable C. Mostly fleshy D. The distal end Answer: C Q5: which of the following muscles are named based on its shape? A. Pectoralis major B. Deltoid C. Biceps brachii D. Coracobrachialis Answer : B Q6: where Lumbar puncture is performed ? A. Between L1-L2 B. L2 C. Between L3-L4 D. L3 Answer : C Q7:In which ganglion the Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers carried by the third cranial nerve (III) terminate? A. Pterygopalatine ganglion B. Ciliary ganglion C. Submandibular ganglion D. Otic ganglion Answer : B Q8: CSF is produced by? A. Choroid plexuses B. Subarachnoid space C. Dural sinuses D. Arachnoid mater Answer : A Q9: which of the following describes the sole of the foot facing in a medial direction? A. Dorsiflexion B. Inversion C. Plantar flexion D. Eversion Answer : B Physiology: Q10: which of the following is an adrenergic neurotransmitter? A. Norepinephrine B. Acetylcholine C. Nitric oxide D. Atrial natriuretic peptide Answer : A Q11: In anemia caused by chronic renal failure, which of the following is the treatment? A. Folic acid B. Erythropoietin C. Nutrients supplements D. Iron injection Answer :B Q12: 23 years old girl complained about prolonged and persistent bleeding from a small wound, she has a little of which blood cell that caused her problem? A. Red blood cells B. Platelets C. Neutrophils D. Lymphocytes Answer : B Q13: which of the following transport mechanisms is carrier mediated that doesn’t require ATP? A. Simple diffusion B. Primary active transport C. Facilitated diffusion D. Secondary active transport Answer : C Q14:Net diffusion of water from a region of high water concentration to region of low water concentration is: A. Primary active transport B. Osmosis C. Facilitated diffusion D. Secondary active transport Answer : B Q15: A 27 years-old female came with her first pregnancy. Her blood group is O negative, and her husband’s blood group is O positive. Careful history taking revealed NO previous blood transfusion nor previous pregnancies. Which one of the following is the best advice for her?  A. this pregnancy has no risk, and nothing needs to be done. B. the mother has to receive O blood group antigen to prevent sensitization. C. the mother has to receive anti-D antibody to prevent sensitization. D. this pregnancy is at high risk of developing polycythemia. Answer :C Q16: which of the following is a parasympathetic effect? A. Dilates pupil B. Reduced secretion of salivary glands C. Increased urine formation D. Dilates bronchi Answer : C Q17: Hemoglobin (F) of intrauterine life consists of ………polypeptides? A. 2alpha+2beta B. 2alpha+2gamma C. 2alpha+ 2delta D. 2beta+2gamma Answer: B Q18: Which of the following glands gets activated by the sympathetic nervous system ? A. Sweat gland B. Salivary gland C. Lacrimal gland D. parotid gland Answer: A Q19: Which one is the major intracellular cation? A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Phosphate D. Chloride Answer : A Q20: Which of the following solutions when infused intravenously results in the increase of the extracellular volume and a decrease of the intracellular volume?  A. 1 liter of 0.9% sodium chloride B. 1 liter of 0.45% sodium chloride C. 1 liter of 3% sodium chloride D. 1 liter of pure water Answer :C Q21: Which of the following conditions represents the changes of osmolarity and volume in this picture? A. High intake of NaCl B. I.V intake of isotonic solution C. Loss of hypotonic solution D. Diarrhea Answer: C Q22: Which of the following is the best to define the term homeostasis? A. Make the internal environment relatively stable. B. Make the internal environment the same as the outside environment. C. Regulate the internal concentration. D. Increase the metabolism rate. Answer:A Q23: A16 year old female came to the clinic. She has no significant medical history.she complained from prolonged heavy menstrual period and the tests showed that she had anemia, what kind of anemia do you expect she has? A. Macrocytic/Hypochromic anemia B. Microcytic/ Hypochromic anemia C. Normocytic /Normochromic D. Pernicious anemia Answer : B Q24: A 45-year-old man came to the clinic having a chronic gastro-intestinal disease, further investigation showed that he had megaloblastic anemia. Which part of the digestive system has the disease? A. Liver B. Ileum C. Spleen D. Duodenum  Answer: B Q25: which one of the following plasma proteins has an important immune function? A. Albumin B. Prothrombin C. Gamma globulins D. Alpha globulins Answer : C Q26: What is the normal plasma osmolarity range ? A. 235-245 mosm/Kg B. 255-265 mosm/Kg C. 285-295 mosm/Kg D. 215-225 mosm/Kg Answer : C Pathology: Q27: A 51 years old man came to the hospital and was diagnosed with hemochromatosis with a dark brown pigment in his liver. What could be the cause? A. Iron B. Copper C. Indian ink D. Silver Answer: A Q28: What type of necrosis is associated with the hypoxia of the brain? A. Gangrenous B. Liquefactive C. fibrinoid D. coagulative Answer: B Q29: A 39- year old businessman has a history of some of the acid of his stomach going back to his esophagus.They found a change in the cells from stratified squamous to columnar and goblet cells. What happened to his esophagus cells? A. Dysplasia B. Metaplasia C. Atrophy D. Hyperplasia Answer: B Q30: A woman was diagnosed with dystrophic calcification. Which of the following is a cause of dystrophic calcification? A. Healed tuberculosis lesion B. Serum hypercalcemia C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Metastatic breast cancer in bones Answer: A Q31: Which one of the following is an anti-apoptotic gene? A. Bcl2 B. BRCA1 C. Bax D. CDK7 Answer: A Q32: The expected outcome of the disease based on severity of any disease? A. Prevalence B. Sequelae C. Prognosis D. Incidence Answer: C Biochemistry: Q33: Which of these bases is unique to DNA? A. Adenine B. Guanine C. Thymine D. Uracil Answer: C Q34: Which of these is an example for phospholipids? A. Ceramide B. Sphingomyelin C. Sphingosine D. Ganglioside Answer: B Q35: What is the Enzyme that unwinds the DNA? A. Helicase B. Polymerase C. Telomerase D. DNA ligase Answer: A Q36: What is the bond between nucleotides? A. Disulfide bond B. Phosphodiester bond C. N-glycosidic bond D. Hydrogen bond Answer: B Q37: What is the classification of Lysine? A. Non essential, negatively charged B. Essential, Positively charged C. Non Essential, Positively charged D. Essential, Negatively charged Answer: B Q38: Which one of the following amino acids disrupts the alpha helices shape in proteins? A. Tryptophan B. Alanine C. Glycine D. Methionine Answer: A Q39: Which one of the following GAGs is intracellular and serves as an anticoagulant? A. Heparin B. Hyaluronic Acid C. Chondroitin sulfates D. Keratin sulfates Answer: A Q40: Which of the following isn’t a post transcriptional modification? A. Remove intron B. Remove exons C. Addition of a methylated guanine nucleotide at 5’ end of mRNA D. Addition of a poly(A) tail (a highly conserved AAUAA sequence) at 3’ end of mRNA Answer: B Q41: Arachidonic acid becomes essential when which acid is deficient? A. Linoleic acid B. DHA C. Cholesterol D. a-Linolenic acid Answer: A Q42: Which one of the following is the precursor of arachidonic acid?  A. Linoleic acid B. Vitamin D C. Palmitic acid D. Oleic acid Answer: A Microbiology: Q43: Which of the following is the best to work against Staphylococcus? A. Polymyxin B B. Vancomycin C. Gentamicin D. Tetracycline Answer: B Q44: What is a characteristic special to gram negative bacteria? A. Capsule B. Cell wall C. Envelope D. Outer membrane Answer: D Q45: Which of the following is a specific defense mechanism against Microbes? A. Antibodies B. Lysozyme C. Skin D. Peristalsis Answer: A Q46: Which of the following structural components is unique in viruses? A. Cell wall B. Envelope C. Cytoplasm D. Nucleus Answer: B Q47: Transduction is mediated by? A. Bacteriophages B. Plasmids C. Exogenous DNA D. Pilli Answer: A Q48: What is a side effect of Gentamicin? A. Teeth discoloration  B. Aplastic anemia C. Phototoxicity D. Ototoxicity Answer: D Q49:Which of the following factors that infectious disease mostly depend on ? A. Host immunity and pathogen virulence B. Invasion and toxins C. Skin mucosa D. Water quality Answer: A Histology: Q50: Where can we find ciliated pseudo stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells? A. Aorta B. Trachea C. Esophagus D. lining stomach Answer: B Q51: What type of C.T. proper is rich in collagen type III? A. Dense collagenous C.T. B. Elastic C.T. C. Reticular C.T. D. Adipose tissue Answer: C Q52: What is the organelle that contains microtubules? A. Centriole B. Mitochondria C. Ribosomes D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Q53: What type of cells are located in the cortex of the thymus lobule? A. Immuno-competent B Lymphocytes B. Immuno-competent T lymphocytes C. Immature T lymphocytes D. Immature B Lymphocytes Answer: C Q54: Where is the thymus dependent zone site?  A. Cortex of lymph node B. Paracortex of lymph node C. Medulla of lymph nodes D. Cortex of thymus lobule Answer: B Q55: What equipment do we use to visualize and examine the lysosome? A. EM B. LM C. Immunofluorescence D. Cell culture Answer: A Q56: Which type of cell in the connective tissue proper is capable of secreting antibodies? A. Mast cells B. B cells lymphocytes C. Plasma cells D. Macrophages Answer: C (B cells are precursors for plasma cells) Embryology: Q57: When does the process of implantation of blastocyst begin? A. One week after fertilization B. Two weeks after fertilization C. One month after fertilization D. Two months after fertilization Answer: A Q58: Most common site of ectopic pregnancy? A. Uterine tube B. Endometrium of uterus C. Cervix of uterus D. Ovaries Answer : A Human genetics: Q59: What type of structural chromosomal anomalies that happen between chromosome 22 and the long arm of chromosome 9 that can produce chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)? A. Reciprocal translocation  B. Robertsonian translocation C. Pericentric inversion D. Paracentric inversion Answer : A Q60:Where is the location of the kinetochore? A. Centromere B. Short arm (p arm) C. Long arm (q arm) D. Telomere Answer : A Q61: What chemical we would add to arrest cell division during metaphase? A. Giemsa B. Phytohemagglutinin C. Colchicine & hypotonic saline D. Trypsin Answer : C Biochemistry 441 1-Which one of the following bases is unique to RNA? A-Adenine B-Guanine C-Uracil D-Thymine Answer: C 2-Which one is a non-polar: A-Valine B-Arginine C-Cysteine D-Tyrosine Answer: A 3-Which of the following amino acids is frequently found in B-bend? A-Glycine B-Alanine C-Guanine D-Tyrosine Answer: A 4-What is the classification of Valine? A-Nonpolar B-Polar charged C-Polar negative D-Polar positive Answer: A 5-In neutral pH which amino acids will be fully ionized and have a negative charge? A. Arginine and lysine B. Aspartate and glutamate C. Histidine and lysine D. Histidine and valine Answer: B 6-Denaturation results in the loss of which of the following? A- primary and secondary structures B- secondary and tertiary structures C- primary and tertiary structures D- primary, secondary and tertiary structures Answer: B 7-Which one of these is classified as branched homopolysaccharide? A-Glycogen B-Cellulose  C-Glycosaminoglycans D-Maltose Answer: A 8-What is the bond formed between the sugar and the phosphate in nucleic acid? A-Hydrogen bond B-Phosphodiester bond C-N-glycosidic bond D-Peptide bond Answer: B 9-Carbohydrates that have similar structure but different in configuration in one carbon? A-Epimers B-Isomers C-A&B configuration D-Enantiomers Answer: A 10-The proof-reading enzymes during newly DNA synthesis? A- Helicase B-DNA ligase C-Primase D-DNA polymerase Answer: D 11-Which one of these CHO is branched? A-GAGs B-Cellulose C-Starch Answer: C Microbiology 1-Which bacterial structure is responsible for its motility? A-Nuclei B-Mesosomes C-Ribosomes D-Flagella Answer: D 2-What are the serious potential side effects of gentamicin? A-Teeth discoloration B-Nephrotoxicity C-Aplastic anemia D-Thrombocytopenia Answer: B 3-Which of the following is effective against staphylococcus aureus? A-Cloxacillin B-Gentamicin C-Metronidazole D-Aminoglycosides Answer: A 4-Host cell receptors involved in adhesion? A-Capsid Spikes B-Pili C-Fibronectin Answer: C 5-Which of the following is a character in endotoxin bacteria? A-High immunity B-Protein C-Heat Labile D-Lipopolysaccharide Answer: D Physiology 1-Which of the following glands does not receive parasympathetic stimulation? A-Sweat gland B-Parotid gland C-Sublingual gland D-Salivary gland Answer: A 2-Which of the following neurotransmitters is found in the parasympathetic nervous system at both pre and postsynaptic fibers? A- dopamine B- Epinephrine C- norepinephrine D- Acetylcholine Answer: D 3-What causes thirst? A-Increased ECF volume B-Decreased ECF osmolarity C-Decreased ICF volume D-Increased ECF osmolarity Answer: D 4-What results in decrease in ECF volume but no change in ECF and ICF osmolarity? A-Diarrhea B-Water deprivation C-SIADH D-adrenal insufficiency Answer: A 5-Which of the following represents 2/3 of total body water? A-Intracellular B-Extracellular C-Interstitial D-Transitional Answer: A 6-Which one is the major intracellular anion? A-Chloride B-Phosphate C-Sodium D-Potassium Answer: B 7-Which protein helps the most in maintaining blood osmotic pressure? A-Albumin B-alpha globulin C-transferase D-beta globulin Answer: A 8-Which of the following is a sympathetic stimulation? A-Decrease respiratory rate B-Decrease Heart rate C-Pupil construction D-Sweating Answer: D 9-In co-transport which solutes is transported down the electrochemical gradient? A-Sodium B-Hydrogen C-Calcium D-Potassium Answer: A 10-What is associated with low erythropoietin level? A-Blood loss B-High altitude  C-Renal failure D-Heart failure Answer: C 11-After adulthood what stops producing RBC? A-Sternum B-Vertebrae C-Tibia shaft D-Iliac crest Answer: C 12-Which of the following considers as a development of the erythropoiesis? A-Increase in cell size B-Disappearance of nucleus C-Hemoglobin D-Increase in cell size Answer: B 13-What is the term when hemoglobin binds to carbon dioxide? A-Carbaminohemoglobin B-Oxyhemoglobin C-Carboxyhemoglobin D-Deoxyhemoglobin Answer: B 14-Which of the following is primary active transport? A-Na-K ATPase pump B-Na-glucose co-transport C-Na-amino acid co-transport D-Ca2+-Na+ exchange Answer: A 15-Which one of the following moves downhill in secondary Active transport? A-Sodium B-Glucose C-Calcium D-Chloride Answer: A 16-Which of the following is a Sympathetic system reaction? A-Sweat secretion B-Construction pupil D-Decreased heart rate Answer: A 17-Which of the following represent a positive feedback mechanism? A-Uterus contraction B-Decrease Body temperature C-Blood pressure D-Increase Body temperature Answer: A Pathology 1- A 65-year-old woman was referred to a local hospital, she has a history of vaginal dryness, the gynecologist tells her that there is a decrease in size and function of epithelial cells. What is diagnosis? A-Atrophy due imbalance hormones B-Metaplastic epithelial change C-Dysplasia D-Atypical secondary irritation" Answer: A 2-Wear & tear pigment also known as? A- Bilirubin B-Hemosiderin C-Melanin D- Lipofuscin Answer: D 3-During surgery the surgeon asks the pathologist to assess an excised margin of 72 years old man eyelid within 20 minutes and the surgeon will wait till the pathologist prints the report. What technique will the pathologist use? A-Frozen sections B-Immunohistopathology C-Incidental clinical features D-Exfoliative cytology Answer: A 4-What is the term for likely outcome of treatment? A-Electron microscope B-Prognosis C-Pathogenesis D-Diagnosis Answer: B 5-Which one of these components is free radical and causes cellular injury? A-Hydrogen peroxide B-Mannitol C-Catalase  D-Superoxide dismutase Answer: A 6-What is the equivalent to hydropic? A-Water loss B-Lipofuscin C-Hemosiderin D-Water accumulation Answer: D 7-Calcification due to Tuberculosis infection is called? A-Granulation tissue B-Metastatic Calcification C-Dystrophic Calcification D-Granulomatous inflammation Answer: C Anatomy 1-Which of these bones is part of the axial skeleton? A-ulna B-sternum C-femur D-tibia Anwer: B 2-Which of the following muscles is circular in direction A- Deltoid B- Pectoralis major C- Orbicularis oris D- Biceps Femoris Answer: C 3-Which one of the following lines divides the body into posterior and interior parts? A-frontal (coronal) plane B-transverse (cross) plane C-sagittal (median) plane D-parasagittal (paramedian) plane Answer: A 4-Which of the following muscles is the extension of the knee joints? A-Pectoralis Major B-Quadriceps femoris C-Biceps D-Triceps  Answer: B 5-In which of the following the third ventricle lies? A-Pons B-Midbrain C-Cerebrum D-Diencephalon Answer: D 6-Which of the following chambers receives venous blood? A-Right atrium B-Left atrium C-Right Ventricle D-Left Ventricle Answer: A 7-Which of the following valves lies between the left atrium and left ventricle? A- Tricuspid B- Bicuspid C- Pulmonary D- Aortic Answer: B 8-Which of the following is related to the ganglia? A-Fibers outside cns B-Fibers inside cns C-Neurons inside cns D-Neurons outside cns Answer: D 9-Which of the following cranial nerves contain preganglionic parasympathetic fibers? A-Seventh B-Eleventh C-Fifth D-Twelfth Answer : A Embryology 1-What will result after spermatogenesis? A-Immotile sperm B-Decrease number of sperms C-Diploid number of chromosomes D-Haploid number of chromosomes Answer: D 2-The normal site of implantation? A-Uterus B-Uterus tube C-Cervix D-Ovary Answer A Histology 1-Which organelle is responsible for Absorb and neutralize drugs and toxins? A-Smooth ER B-Peroxisome C-Mitochondria D-Lysosome Answer: A & B (both given the mark) 2-Which cellular structures contain microtubules? A- Centrioles B- lysosomes C- ribosomes D- Nucleus Answer: A 3-Which of the following structures is the location of ribosomal RNA synthesis? A-Nucleolus B-Free ribosomes C-Attached ribosomes D-Golgi apparatus Answer: A 4-What type of epithelial tissue has goblet cells? A-Simple squamous B-Pseudostratified columnar C-Simple columnar epithelium D-Transitional epithelium Answer: C 5-Where could you find the thymus dependent zone? A-Cortex of lymph node B-Paracortex of lymph node C-Medulla of lymph node D-Palatine tonsils Answer: B 6-What type of cell is rich in lysosomes? A-Mast cell B-Macrophages C-Reticulocytes D-Fibroblasts Answer: B 7-Where can you find lymphatic nodules? A-Thymus cortex B-Lymph node cortex C-Lymph node paracortex D-Thymus medulla Answer: B 8-Which of the following structures are the main component of dense collagenous C.T? A-Collagen fibers only B- Reticular fibers C-Collagen fibers and fibroblasts D-Elastic fibers Answer: C 9-Where could you find transitional epithelium? A- the wall of small intestines B- the wall of trachea C-the skin D-the wall of bladder Answer: D 10-Which of the following is responsible for phagocytosis? A-Macrophages cells B-Fibroblast cells C-Mast cells D-Plasma cells Answer: A 439 Biochemistry Q1: Dopamine is a derivative of which of the following amino acids? A. Glutamic acid B. Histidine C. Tyrosine D. Lysine Answer: C Q2: At a highly alkaline pH (pH=10), glycine will be present in which of the following forms? A. NH2-CH2-COO(-) B. NH3-CH2-COOH C. NH D. NH2-CH3-COOH Answer: A Q3: The disulfide bond is formed between which amino acids? A. Glycine-lysine B. Lysine-cysteine C. Cysteine-cysteine D. Lysine-lysine Answer: C Q4: A peptide chain consisting of 10 amino acids will have how many peptide bonds? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 Answer: C Q5: Fructose structure is classified as: A. Aldopentose B. Aldohexose C. Ketopentose D. Ketohexose Answer: D Q6: Cyclization of monosaccharides generates which kind of isomers? A. Aldo-keto isomers B. Epimers C. D and L Forms D. α and β anomers Answer: D Q7: Which of the following bonds connects nitrogenous bases in the two strands of DNA? A. Hydrogen bond B. Disulfide bond C. N-glycosidic linkage D. Phosphodiester Answer: A Q8: Which of the following forms the backbone of the DNA strand? A. Complementary base pairing B. Sugar-Phosphate bond C. Base-Phosphate bond D. Sugar-Base bond Answer: B Q9: Which of the following enzymes is responsible for adding DNA nucleotides to the RNA primer? A. DNA ligase B. DNA primase C. Topoisomerases D. DNA polymerase Answer: D Q10: Which of the following recognizes the genetic code and carries the corresponding amino acid during translation? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. Ribosomes Answer: B Microbiology Q11: Which of the following components is found in the cell wall of a gram-negative bacteria and is associated with the induction of a septic shock? A. Core polysaccharide B. Capsular protein C. Lipopolysaccharide D. Peptidoglycan Answer: C Q12: In bacterial cells, the ribosomes are packed in the cytoplasmic matrix, then attached to the plasma membrane. What is the function of these ribosomes? A. Protein synthesis B. Genetic reproduction C. Energy production D. Cell division Answer: A Physiology Q13: Which of the following output has the least amount of water excreted when you do heavy exercise? A. Urine B. Stool(Feces) C. Insensible lungs D. Insensible skin Answer: B Q14: Which of the following conditions represents the changes of osmolarity and volume in this picture? A. High intake of NaCl B. I.V intake of isotonic solution C. Loss of hypertonic solution D. Diarrhea Answer: C Q15: Which of the following molecules is highly permeable in the cell membrane? A. Water B. Oxygen C. Lactose D. Sucrose Answer: B Q16: Which of the following characteristics describes secondary active transport? A. Passive transport B. Does not require carrier protein C. Na moves into the cell D. Transport of solutes is always in the same direction Answer: C Q17: What is an example of a positive feedback mechanism? A. Contractions of the uterus dring birth B. Regulation of blood temperature C. Regulation of blood pressure D. Regulation of glucose level Answer: A Q18: What statement best describes RBC? A. Biconcave and rigid B. Biconcave and elastic C. Spherical and rigid D. Spherical and elastic Answer: B Q19: After experimental separation of different blood components in a test tube, we were left with multiple layers. One of them was a buffy coat. This buffy coat is composed of? A. RBCs & amp; platelets B. RBCs & amp; WBCs C. Platelets & amp; WBCs D. Plasma & amp; platelets Answer: C Q20: A 53-year-old man came to your clinic complaining about gradually increasing shortness of breath in the past few weeks, especially with exertion. He has a past medical history of chronic renal failure. The laboratory investigations show low haemoglobin levels and haematocrit volumes. Decreased secretion of which of the following substances will most probably be responsible for his anaemia? A. Cortisol B. Erythropoietin C. Thyroxine D. Noradrenaline Answer: B Q21: Which of the following states the composition of the hemoglobin during the intrauterine life (F hemoglobin)? A. 2 alpha and 2 beta B. 2 alpha and 2 delta C. 2 alpha and 2 gamma D. 4 alpha Answer: C Q22: A 23-year-old female presents to your office complaining about fatigue and other symptoms suggestive of anaemia. Past medical history shows a heavy menstrual period, the laboratory examination showed microcytic hypochromic anaemia. Which of the following caused this condition? A. Iron deficiency B. Folic acid deficiency C. Decrease in the intrinsic factor D. B12 deficiency Answer: A Q23: In a 4 month fetus, what is the active site of hematopoiesis? A. Bone marrow B. Femur shaft C. Iliac crest D. Liver Answer: D Q24: Which type of hemoglobin has the highest affinity to oxygen? A. Hemoglobin A1 B. Hemoglobin A2 C. Hemoglobin F D. Hemoglobin S Answer: C Q25: During a blood donation campaign, a volunteer was refused because of his hematocrit value. What was his hematocrit value? A. 30% B. 45% C. 50% D. 55% Answer: A Q26: Mohammed, a 22 years old male travelled to the south of Saudi Arabia recently. He started having chest pain and shortness of breath. What is the possible etiology for his case? A. Secondary polycythemia B. Anemia C. Leukocytosis D. Erythrophagocytosis Answer: A Q27: Which one of the following leads to accelerated iron absorption? A. Achlorhydria B. Oxalates C. Vitamin C D. Repeated Blood transfusions Answer: C Q28: Which type of adrenoreceptor stimulates the heart? A. Alpha 1 B. Alpha 2 C. Beta 1 D. Beta 2 Answer: C Q29: The effects of stimulation of postganglionic nerve fibers can be excitatory or inhibitory depending on which of the following? A. The amount of neurotransmitters released B. Type of neurotransmitters released C. Type of receptors on the target organ D. Firing rate of the preganglionic fiber Answer: B Pharmacology Q30: What type of drug absorption requires energy and a carrier protein? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Active transport C. Aqueous diffusion D. Lipid diffusion Answer: B Q31: Which of the following routes of administration should be avoided when prescribing a drug with high first-pass effect? A. Sublingual B. Rectal C. Oral D. Intravenous Answer: C Pathology Q32: While removing a breast lump from a 69-year-old female, the surgeon needed an urgent diagnosis. Which of the following histopathological techniques was used? A. Frozen section B. Immunohistochemistry C. Immunofluorescence D. Molecular pathology Answer: A Q33: You have been asked to classify Parkinson’s disease based on its pathogenesis. Under which of the following categories should you classify this disease? A. Degenerative B. Growth disease C. Metabolic D. Infective Answer: A Q34: A 59-year-old man was brought to the hospital department of emergency. He was having chest pain, shortness of breath and was sweating a lot. He got diagnosed with myocardial infarction. What is the right sequence of events that lead to this disease? A. Ischemia - hypoxia - irreversible cell injury - coagulative necrosis B. Ischemia - hypoxia - reversible cell injury - coagulative necrosis C. Infection - free radical injury – reversible cell injury - liquefactive necrosis D. Infection - free radical injury – irreversible cell injury - liquefactive necrosis Answer: A Q35: A 51-years-old male who is known as an alcoholic, came to the emergency room with severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. The laboratory studies showed that his serum amylase is 2900 u/i (reference range 300 u/i). The diagnosis shows that he has acute pancreatitis, the x-ray showed abdominal calcifications. What type of necrosis could be expected to happen to this patient? A. Coagulative necrosis B. Fat necrosis C. Fibrinoid necrosis D. Liquefactive necrosis Answer: B Q36: A 57-years-old woman who is known to have gallbladder stones was referred to her doctor because of yellow discoloration of her sclera skin and oral mucosa. Which of the following material accumulation caused this problem? A. Bilirubin B. Hemosiderin C. Lipofuscin D. Melanin Answer: A Q37: An 84-years-old man died from unknown reasons. A biopsy was taken, after histological examination they found golden yellowish brown pigments in the myocardial cells. What is the nature of this pigment? A. Carbon B. Melanin C. Lipofuscin D. Silver Answer: C Q38: A 28 years old man presents with multiple nodules in the dermis of his right arm. He has a history of trauma in the same arm in a traffic accident before and got injured. A biopsy was taken, and it was found that he has calcification in the dermis. What is the type of this calcification? A. Dystrophic calcification, with normal calcium serum level B. Dystrophic calcification, with elevated calcium serum level C. Metastatic calcification, with normal calcium serum level D. Metastatic calcification, with elevated calcium serum level Answer: A Q39: A 38-years-old man was admitted to his local hospital for investigation of his unexplained hypertension. The radiological investigations showed blockage in the right renal artery. In addition, his right kidney was smaller than the left one. What type of adaptation happened to the right kidney? A. Aplasia B. Atrophy C. Metaplasia D. Hypertrophy Answer: B Q40: A 46 years old obese man was transferred to the gastroenterologist with a history of gastric hyperacidity and discomfort in the upper part of the abdomen. He was diagnosed with gastro-esophageal reflux disease. What most likely happened in this case? A. Squamous metaplasia B. Squamous hyperplasia and hypertrophy C. Columnar hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Columnar cell metaplasia Answer: D Anatomy Q41: A radiologist wishes to image the body in a plane parallel to both scapulae. Which of the following choices best describes the desired sectioning? A. Sagittal B. Parasagittal C. Frontal D. Horizontal Answer: C Q42: Which of the following is an example of an irregular bone? A. Sternum B. Fibula C. Vertebrae D. Scapula Answer: C Q43: Which of the following bones is found in the arm? A. Clavicle B. Humerus C. Ulna D. Radius Answer: B Q44: Which of the following terms describes the mode of action of the chief muscle responsible for a particular movement? A. Agonist B. Antagonist C. Synergist D. Fixator Answer: A Q45: Which of the following muscles has parallel fibres? A. Pectoralis major B. Deltoid C. Sartorius D. Biceps brachii Answer: C Q46: The cerebrospinal fluid is present in which of the following? A. Epidural fluid B. Subarachnoid fluid C. Subdural Space D. Vertebral Canal Answer: B Q47: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by which of the following? A. Corpus callosum B. Sulci C. Conus medullaris D. Cauda equina Answer: A Q48: Which of the following indicates a group of nerve fibres within the CNS? A. Ganglia B. Nerve C. Nuclei D. Tract Answer: D Q49: The terminal part of spinal cord is called: A. Cauda equina B. Conus medullaris C. Filum terminale D. Ganglion impar Answer: B Histology Q50: Which of the following cytoplasmic organelles contains microtubules? A. Centrioles B. Mitochondria C. Nucleus D. Ribosomes Answer: A Q51: A 25 years old man complains of infertility, he has a history of chronic respiratory tract infection and has deficiency of dynein protein. Which one of the following applies to his complaint? A. Absence of cilia B. Absence of flagella C. Immotile flagella D. Low mitochondria Answer: C ( immotile cilia syndrome or Kartegener’s syndrome) Q52: A blood-stained film shows one Barr body in the nucleus of a neutrophil, Which of the following represent this Barr body? A. Active Y B. Inactive X C. Active X D. Inactive Y Answer: B Q53: Which of the following cells is responsible for phagocytosis? A. Macrophages B. Fat cells C. Mast cells D. Fibroblasts Answer: A Q54: Which of the following cells is responsible for the secretion of antibodies? A. Plasma cells B. Fibroblast C. Mast cells D. Fat cells Answer: A Q55: Which of the following epithelial membranes may contain a keratin layer? A. Simple columnar epithelium B. Simple squamous epithelium C. Stratified squamous epithelium D. Stratified columnar epithelium Answer: C Q56: Which of the following is related to simple columnar epithelium? A. It has blood capillaries B. It has a wide intercellular space C. It may have goblet cells D. It contains more than one layer Answer: C Q57: Which of the following is found in the medulla of the thymus lobule? A. Hassall’s corpuscles B. B. Lymphocytes C. Lymphoid sinuses D. Lymphoid nodules Answer: A Q58: An infant died a few months after birth due to repeated respiratory tract infections. After dissection, it was found that the thymus gland has failed to develop. Which of these cells was reduced? A. T Lymphocyte B. B Lymphocyte C. Plasma cells D. Macrophages Answer: A Embryology Q59: At which of the following times does Fetal period end? A. The 5th week B. The end of the 8th week C. The end of 2nd trimester D. At birth Answer: D Q60: What is the most critical period of human development? A. Fetal period B. Before Implantation C. Embryonic period D. Postnatal period Answer: C Biochemistry 438 Q1: At physiological PH, which of the following amino acids are fully ionized with positive change? A. Aspartate and glutamate B. Arginine and lysine C. Histidine and lysine D. Histidine and Valine Answer: B Q2: Which one of the following amino acids are considered to be precursor of thyroxine and dopamine? A. Histidine B. Proline C. Theriomiene D. Tyrosine Answer: D Q3: What's the type of bond that is responsible for the formation of primary amino acids? A. Hydrogen bond B. Ionic bond C. Peptide bond D. Polar bond Answer: C Q4: Which amino acid frequently found in the b-bends? A. Glycine B. Histidine C. Isoleucine D. Tryptophan Answer: A Q5: Anticodons are located in which of the following molecules? A. Messenger RNA B. Ribosomal RNA C. Small nucleus RNA D. Transfer RNA Answer: D Q6: According to the Watson and Crick model of the double stranded helix, which one of these is true about the B-DNA? A. Both strands are right handed B. There are 11 bases (bp) per turn C. There are minor grooves only in the stranded helix D. Both strands are parallel Answer: A Q7: Histones proteins have an abundance of which of the following proteins? A. Glutamate & aspartate B. Arginine & lysine C. Glycine & alanine D. Histidine & valine Answer:B Q8: What happens in post-transcriptional modification? A. Adding of methylated guanine to 3’ end B. Adding of poly(A) tail to 5’ end C. Removing of intron D. Removing of exons Answer: C Q9: Which amino acid does the codon AUG code for? A. Alanine B. Arginine C. Methionine D. Valine Answer: C Q10: Which one of the following polysaccharides has (B-glycosidic linkage)? A. Cellulose B. Glycogen C. Starch D. Sucrose Answer: A Q11: The best description of hyaluronic acid is: A. Heterogeneous GAGs B. The only GAG that is intracellular C. Unsulfated D. Anticoagulant Answer: C Microbiology Q12: Why is gram positive bacteria stained violet? A. Outer membrane retains the crystal violet stain B. Multiple layer of peptidoglycan retains the crystal violet stain C. The periplasmic space is going to trap the crystal violet stain D. The thick capsule will trap the crystal violet stain Answer: B Q13: Bacterial chromosomes consist of: A. Haploid, double stranded DNA B. Haploid, single stranded DNA C. Diploid, double stranded DNA D. Diploid, single stranded DNA Answer: A Physiology Q14: In which of the following organs do the sympathetic postganglionic fibers secrete Acetylcholine? A. Adrenal medulla B. Liver C. Sweat gland D. Gastrointestinal tract Answer: C Q15:Which of the following responses occur in sympathetic or fight or flight condition? A. Contraction of pupil B. Reduction in heart rate C. Relaxation of the urinary bladder D. Increased vasocontraction Answer: D Q16: Which of the following is a parasympathetic stimulation? A. Dilation of the pupil B. Increased cardiac contraction C. Increased gastric motility D. Increased respiratory rate Answer: C Q17: What is the total body water of an 80kg adult healthy male? A. 42 L B. 48 L C. 52 L D. 58 L Answer: B Q18: Which one of the following has a higher concentration in the intracellular fluid compared to extracellular fluid? A. Bicarbonate B. Proteins C. Chloride D. Sodium Answer: B Q19: What is the percentage of intracellular fluids of the total body water? A. 15% B. 25% C. 33% D. 66% Answer: D Q20: Which one of these is represented in the chart? A. Primary active transport B. Secondary active transport C. Simple diffusion D. Facilitated diffusion Answer: D Q21: Which of the following is an isotonic solution? A. 0.9% sodium chloride B. 5% sodium chloride C. 0.45 sodium chloride D. 19% sedum chloride Answer: A Q22: Which of the starling forces’ effect on the net filtration of the capillary is the largest? A. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure B. Interstitial colloid pressure C. Capillary hydrostatic pressure D. Plasma colloid pressure Answer: C Q23: Which of these reasons could be the cause of the following change in osmolarity and volume? A. High intake of NaCl B. I.V intake of isotonic solution C. Adrenal insufficiency D. Water deprivation Answer: D Q24: A 36, male patient has a chronic disease, which makes him unable to absorb vitamin B12. Which of the following may have occurred? A. Aplastic anemia B. Macrocytic anemia C. Microcytic anemia D. Normocytic anemia Answer: B Q25: Which of the following is the best form to absorb iron? A. Ferrous B. Ferritin C. Ferritic D. iron Answer: A Q26: In the 4-month fetus, where is the active site of hematopoiesis? A. Kidney B. stomach C. spleen D. Heart Answer: C Q27: Which of the following is the major stimulus for erythropoiesis? A. Acidosis B. Alkaloids C. Low CO2 D. Low O2 Answer: D Q28: Which of the following routes has the least amount of water excreted by during rest? A. Feces B. Insensible of the skin C. Insensible of lung D. Urine Answer: A Q29: Which ONE of the following transporting mechanisms across cell membranes requires energy? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Osmosis C. Secondary active transport D. Simple diffusion Answer: C Q30: Which of the following best identifies the term homeostasis? A. Internal environment is normally stable B. Everything is the same inside the body C. Nothing changes inside the body D. Uniformity of body fluids Answer: A Q31: Which of the following transport mechanisms will most be affected if the Na+/K+ pump is affected? (stopped working) A. Carrier mediated glucose B. Na - glucose co transport C. H+ ATPase D. Carbon dioxide through the membrane Answer: B Pharmacology Q32: Which of the following will insure the highest bioavailability? A. Intravenous B. Oral C. Rectal D. Intramuscular Answer: A Q33: A drug was administered orally and absorbed by a saturable mechanism that requires energy. Which of the following mechanisms was involved? A. Active transport B. Osmosis C. Facilitated diffusion D. Simple diffusion Answer: A Pathology Q34: A 61-year-old female present with ulcerated skin lesion in her face. she told the doctor she doesn’t like seeing blood. What is the best mechanism to take a scrape? A. Biopsy B. Exfoliative cytology C. FNAC D. Peripheral blood smear analysis Answer: B Q35: A 72-year-old man with a tumor in his lung. How does the histopathologist identify if it is a malignant tumor? A. DNA analysis B. Immunofluorescence C. Immunohistochemistry D. Flow cytometry Answer: C Q36: In which of the following types of necrosis preserved architecture structure? A. Fibrinoid B. Coagulative C. Liquefactive D. Caseous Answer: B Q37: An elderly woman with a history of a poorly controlled diabetes mellitus came to the hospital showing that her toe is black and cold. What is the type of necrosis? A. Coagulative B. Fibrinoid C. Gangrenous D. Liquefactive Answer: C Q38: A 73 year old man has anemia and yellow coloration of his sclera, upon clinical examination a severe abdominal pain was detected, radiological findings show a tumor in the hilum of the liver, what is the material that is accumulated intracellularly? A. Bilirubin B. Lipofuscin C. Hemosiderin D. Melanin Answer: A Q39: 65 year old female had history of breast cancer. Upon examination, lysis of bones was shown and abnormal disposition of calcium in various organs.what type of pathological calcification is here? A. Metastasis calcification,with increase in serum calcium levels B. Metastatic calcification,with decrease serum calcium level. C. Calcification,with increase in serum calcium level D. Calcification,with decrease in serum calcium level Answer: A Q40: A 54 year old man was referred to a gastroenterology clinic suffering from increased acidity and burn in his stomach and upper part of his abdomen. A biopsy was taken from his distal esophagus and was found that it has columnar and mucin secreting cells. What changes do you expect occured to this man's cells based on these findings? A. Hyperplasia B. Dysplasia C. Heteroplasia D. Metaplasia Answer: D Q41: Which of the following cellular responses is responsible for degrading the budding between fingers? A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis C. Atrophy D. Hypertrophy Answer: A Anatomy Q42: Which of the following movements deviate the sole of the foot medially? A. Inversion B. Eversion C. Dorsiflexion D. Plantar flexion Answer: A Q43: Which of the following is a flat bone? A. Hip bone B. Sternum C. Vertebrae D. Humerus Answer: B Q44: Which of the following types of actions prevent unwanted movement in an intermediate joint? A. Agonist B. Antagonist C. Synergist D. Fixator Answer: C Q45: Which of the following names indicate that the muscle is broad? A. Latissimus B. Major C. Fusiform D. Rectus Answer: A Q46: Which one of the following structures consists of a purely motor nerve in the spinal cord? A. Dorsal root B. Ventral root C. Dorsal ramus D. Ventral ramus Answer: B Q47: Which of the following cranial nerves is purely sensory? A. 7 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 Answer: B Q48: Which one of the following cranial nerves contain parasympathetic neurons? A. 3 B. 8 C. 11 D. 6 Answer: A Q49: Which one of the following glands is devoid of parasympathetic supply? A. Lacrimal gland B. Liver C. Salivary glands D. Sweat glands Answer: D Human Genetics “no questions were found” Histology Q50: Which of the following connective tissues consists of type III collagen? A. Reticular B. Dense collagenous C. Elastic D. Adipose Answer: A correct Q51: Which of the following cells is responsible for phagocytosis? A. Mast cells B. Plasma cells C. Fibroblasts D. Macrophages Answer: D correct Q52: Which of the following organelles contain DNA? A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Golgi apparatus D. Smooth ER Answer: B checked Q53: Which of the following features is seen in electron micrograph of cell membrane? A. Double layered membrane B. Inner light one C. Outer dark one D. Single layered membrane Answer: A (not sure) Q54: 25-year-old man complains of infertility, and has a history of chronic respiratory tract infection, and has deficiency of dynein protein. Which one of the following applies to his complaint? A. Absent cilia B. Absent microtubules C. Low mitochondria D. Immotile flagella Answer: B ( i didn’t find B in slides so it might be D) Q55: Which of the following cells is found in the cortex of thymic lobule? A. Immunocompetent B lymphocyte B. Immunocompetent T lymphocytes C. Immature B lymphocyte D. Immature T lymphocyte Answer: D Correct Q56: An infant died a few months after his birth due to repeated respiratory tract infection, by autopsy, we find his thymus gland failed to develop. Which type of cell will be reduced? A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes C. Mast cells D. Plasma cells Answer: A checked Q57: Which of the following types of epithelial cells can be keratinized? A. Stratified Squamous epithelium B. Stratified Columnar epithelium C. Simple Squamous epithelium D. Simple Columnar epithelium Answer: A correct Embryology Q58: When does the fetal period begin? A. After fertilization B. After 8th week C. After the 9th week D. After birth Answer: B beginning of 9th week so correct Q59: Which of the following has 46 chromosomes? A. Primary spermatocyte B. Secondary spermatocyte C. Spermatids D. Sperm Y Answer: A correct from google not slides maybe doctor said it on lecture Q60: Where is the normal site of normal fertilization? A. Uterine tube B. Cervix C. Ovary D. Uterine cavity Answer: D X answer is A Biochemistry 437 Q1: Alanine classifieds under which one of these categories? A. Essential, polar B. Essential, nonpolar C. Nonessential, nonpolar D. Nonessential, polar Answer: C Q2: Which amino acid contributes to the disulphide bond? A. Cysteine B. Histidine C. Serine D. Threonine Answer: A Q3: Which of the following best describes tertiary protein structure? A. 3D structure with side chain B. Linear sequence of amino acids C. Made of two or more subunits D. Linear sequence of amino acids near to each other without side chains Answer: A Q4: Which one of the following bonds is responsible for forming and stabilizing secondary structure in protein? A. Disulfide bond B. Hydrogen bond C. Ionic bond D. Hydrophobic bond Answer: B Q5: Based on classification of nitrogenous bases, which of the following is a purine base? A. C.G B. C.T C. T.A D. A.G Answer: D Q6: Which of the following is the composition of octamer histones? A. (H1)2 (H2)2 (H3)2 (H4)2 B. (H2A)2 (H2B)2 (H4)2 (H5)2 C. (H2A)2 (H2B)2 (H3)2 (H4)2 D. (H1)2 (H2A)2 (H2B)2 (H3)2 Answer: C Q7: Which one of the following describes the features of DNA replication in eukaryotes? A. Continuous B. Semi Conservative C. Unidirectional with single origin of replication D. Directional Answer: B Q8: Antisense DNA strand sequence is (3'.ATGGCCAT.'5) was transcribed to mRNA strand. Which one of the following would be the mRNA sequence? A. 5'.ATGGCCAT.3' B. 5'.AUGGCCAU.3' C. 5'.UACCGGUA.3' D. 5'.AUGGCCUA.3' Answer: C Q9: Which one of these glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) is intracellular and serves as an anticoagulant? A. Hyaluronic acid B. Keratin sulfates C. Chondroitin sulfates D. Heparin Answer: D Microbiology Q10: In gram negative bacteria "Endotoxin" presents in which one of the following? A. Lipopolysaccharide B. Teichoic acid C. Cell membrane D. Peptidoglycan Answer: A Q11: What makes the bacterial spore heat resistant? A. Teichoic acid B. Lipopolysaccharide C. Calcium dipicolinate D. Polysaccharide of capsule Answer: C Physiology Q12: The parasympathetic outflow originates from which of the following? A. Cervical segment of the spinal cord B. Thoracic segment of the spinal cord C. Craniosacral D. Lumbar segment of the spinal cord Answer: C Q13: Which of the following is the function of the sympathetic nervous system? A. Rest and relax B. Anabolism and energy conversion C. Digestion of food D. Pupil dilation Answer: D Q14: A cell using a lot of energy dependent mechanisms will be rich in which organelle? A. Mitochondria B. Golgi apparatus C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum D. Lysosomes Answer: A Q15: What is the significant effect of low plasma albumin on fluid transport in cases of chronic liver disease? A. Plasma oncotic osmotic pressure increases B. Interstitial fluid volume increases C. Plasma volume increases D. Interstitial fluid osmolarity increases Answer: B Q16: A sample taken from a healthy person shows that the concentration of Na and Cl is low and the concentration of K is high. The sample represents which fluid? A. Intracellular B. Interstitial fluid C. Plasma D. Transcellular Answer: A Q17: Which of the following solutions cause the largest increase in ECF volume? A. 0.45% saline B. 0.9% saline C. 5% Dextrose D. Dextrose in 0.9% saline Answer: D Q18: Which of the following is considered as a “positive" feedback mechanism? A. Blood pressure B. Blood coagulation C. Thermoregulation D. Co regulation Answer: B Q19: Which of the following diagrams is the shape resulting from water deprivation Answer: C Q20: Which of the following substances can diffuse across the cell membrane? A. Glucose B. Calcium ions C. Amino acids D. Oxygen Answer: D Q21: If there is a problem with the primary active transport pump which of the following transport methods will be most affected? A. Na/glucose co transport B. Movement of carbon dioxide across the membrane C. H+/ATPase D. Facilitated diffusion Answer: A+C (Both answers are correct) Q22: Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion share in which of the following characteristics? A. Can be blocked B. Does not require ATP C. Require transport proteins D. Transport solutes against concentration gradient Answer: B Q23: During a blood donation campaign, a volunteer was refused based on his hematocrit value. What was hematocrit? A. 30% B. 45% C. 50% D. 55% Answer: A Q24: A 50-year-old woman was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following is morphological finding? A. Normochromic anemia B. Megaloblastic C. Hyperchromic macrocytic D. Hypochromic microcytic Answer: D Q25: Which one of these stimulates Erythropoiesis? A. Hypoxia B. Renal ischemia C. Vitamin C D. Infection Answer: A Q26: Which one of the following is a cause of secondary polycythemia? A. Autoimmune disease B. Bacterial Infection C. Chronic hypoxia D. Spherocytes Answer: C Pharmacology Q27: A 45-year-old man needs drug therapy because he is suffering from a heart attack. Which of route administration will ensure the highest bioavailability for this patient? A. Rectal B. Sublingual C. Oral D. Topical Answer: B Q28: Which one of the following mechanisms of drug absorption is saturable, selective and requires energy? A. Active transport B. Phagocytosis C. Simple diffusion D. Facilitated diffusion Answer: A Pathology Q29: Which of the following refer to the mechanisms of the development of disease in the human body starting from disease to tissue injury that result in pathological manifestations? A. Aetiology B. Pathogenesis C. Outcome D. Complications Answer: B Q30: In which one of laboratory techniques is specific antigen-antibody binding a major step or component? A. Gram stain B. Karyotype C. Immunohistochemistry D. Polymerase chain reaction Answer: C Q31: Which one of the following substances is a free radical? A. Catalase B. Oxygen C. Dismutase D. Superoxide Answer: D Q32: A 26-year-old woman with arthritis and skin ulcer had complexes in her blood vessels caused by autoimmune disease. What type of necrosis can we expect in her blood vessel? A. Coagulant B. Dry gangrene C. Fibrinoid D. Enzymatic Answer: C Q33: What are the steps involved in apoptosis? A. Cell shrinkage →​chromatin condense →​apoptotic body →​phagocytosis B. Cell shrinkage →​ chromatin condense →​phagocytosis →​apoptotic body C. Chromatin condense →​phagocytosis →​Cell shrinkage →​apoptotic body D. Phagocytosis →​ chromatin condense →​Cell shrinkage →​apoptotic body Answer: A Q34: A 49-year-old man was referred to the gastroenterology clinic because of a history of heartburn and sensation of "acidity" A biopsy taken from the lower part of esophagus showed replacement of the squamous epithelium by columnar and mucin secreting cells. What is the cellular adaptive change that has occurred in this patient and what is the clinical name for this condition? A. The cellular change is anaplasia and the condition is malignancy of esophagus B. The cellular change is hypertrophy and the condition is achalasia of esophagus C. The cellular change is hyperplasia and the condition is called Barrett's esophagus D. The cellular change is metaplasia and the condition is called Barrett's esophagus Answer: D Q35: A man underwent an accident and got a ruptured spleen and liver, and he got them excised. After 3 years the liver got back to its normal size. This phenomenon is called? A. Compensatory hyperplasia B. Hormonal hyperplasia C. Pathological hyperplasia D. Pathological hypertrophy Answer: A Q36: A 50-year-old man was found to have hepatitis, a biopsy was taken from his liver to the laboratory and hemosiderin (a brown-yellow pigment) was existing. What is the best stain used to get this result? A. Fontana Masson stain B. Prussian blue stain C. Periodic acid Schiff stain D. Sudan black stain Answer: B Anatomy Q37: In anatomical position, which bone in the forearm lies medial to the body? A. Humerus B. Femur C. Radius D. Ulna Answer: D Q38: Which one of the following planes divide the body to upper and lower parts? A. Coronal B. Frontal C. Horizontal D. Sagittal Answer: C Q39: What is the chief mover muscle from the following? A. Antagonist B. Agonist C. Synergist D. Fixator Answer: B Q40: Which one of the following groups indicates nerve cells within CNS? A. Nucleus B. Nerve C. Neuron D. Tract Answer: A Q41: Which of the following structures consists of pure sensory nerves? A. Dorsal root B. Ventral root C. Dorsal ramus D. Ventral ramus Answer: A Q42: What is the name of the terminal part of the spinal cord? A. Cauda equina B. Conus medullaris C. Filum terminale D. Ganglion impar Answer: B Q43: Which one of the cranial nerves supply the preganglionic of the parasympathetic nervous system? A. 5th B. 6th C. 7th D. 11th Answer: C Q44: Which structure has only a sympathetic effect? A. Iris of eye B. Bronchi C. Lacrimal gland D. Erector pili muscles Answer: D Human Genetics no questions were found Histology Q45: Which of the following structures is responsible for the basophilic stain in the cytoplasm? A. Golgi apparatus B. Mitochondria C. Ribosomes D. Secretory vessels Answer: C Q46: What is the site for rRNA synthesis? A. Mitochondria B. Free ribosomes C. Attached ribosomes D. Nucleolus Answer: D Q47: Which one of these epithelial membranes may be keratinized? A. Simple squamous epithelium B. Simple columnar epithelium C. Stratified squamous epithelium D. Transitional epithelium Answer: C Q48: Where could you find transitional epithelial tissue? A. Oesophagus B. Stomach C. Urinary bladder D. Intestines Answer: C Q49: Which kind of reticular cells form collagen fibers? A. Adipose B. Fibroblasts C. Mast cells D. Neutrophils Answer: B Q50: Which of the following cells secrete immunoglobulins? A. Mast cell B. Plasma cell C. Fibroblast D. Macrophages Answer: B Q51: Which one of the following cells is rich in lysosomes? A. Fibroblast B. Plasma cells C. Mast cells D. Macrophages Answer: D Q52: What is the major component of Hassall’s corpuscle? A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes C. Epithelial reticular cells D. Macrophages Answer: C Q53: Which of the following contains the lymphoid follicles? A. Cortex of the thymus B. Medulla of thymus C. Cortex of lymph node D. Paracortex of lymph node Answer: C Embryology Q54: How many sperms are produced from primary spermatocytes? A. 1 Sperm B. 2 Spermatids C. 2 Sperms D. 4 Sperms Answer: D Q55: At which stage are all primary oocytes formed? A. After birth B. Before birth C. At puberty D. At ovulation Answer: B Q56: What of the following happens immediately after fertilization? A. Restore the diploid number B. Become haploid C. Beginning of 2nd meiotic D. Formation of blastocyst Answer: A Q57: During implantation which one of the following structures will invade the endometrium? A. Cytotrophoblast B. Epiblast C. Hypoblast D. Syncytiotrophoblast Answer: D Q58: Fertilization mainly occurs in? A. In ampulla of uterine tube B. In isthmus of uterine tube C. In uterine cavity D. In the vagina Answer: A Immunology no questions were found Biochemistry 436 Q1: Which of the following amino acids differ in its structure from all other standard amino acids? A. Alanine B. Phenylalanine C. Proline D. Valine Answer: C Q2: What type of bonding is mainly responsible for stabilization of the secondary structure of protein? A. Disulfide B. Hydrogen C. Hydrophobic D. Peptide Answer: B Q3: What is a Nucleoside? A. Nitrogen bases + Pentose sugar B. Nitrogen bases + Phosphate group C. Pentose sugar + Phosphate group D. Nitrogen base + Triphosphate Answer: A Q4: Which of the following is nitrogenous purine? A. Thiamine B. Uracil C. Cytosine D. Guanine Answer: D Q5: Which one of the following polymerases is responsible for transcription? A. RNA Polymerase B. RNA polymerase II C. RNA polymerase III D. RNA polymerase IV Answer: B Q6: How many codons in total code for amino acids? A. 60 B. 61 C. 62 D. 63 Answer: B Q7: What type of isomerism do we see between Glucose and Mannose? A. Epimers B. Isomers C. Enantiomers D. Aldo-Keto Answer: A Q8: Arachidonic acid becomes essential when which acid is deficient? A. Linoleic acid B. Linolenic acid C. Palmitic acid D. Nervonic acid Answer: A Q9: Which of the following determines the degree of saturation in the fatty acids? A. The number of double bonds B. The presence of glycerol C. The presence of carboxylic group D. The number of carbons Answer: A Microbiology Q10: What is the difference between gram positive and gram negative in component? A. Cell membrane B. Cell wall C. Capsule D. Pili Answer: B Q11: Which of the following bacterial structures is responsible for cell to cell attachment? A. Capsule B. Cell membrane C. Flagella D. Pili Answer: D Q12: Which of the following bacteria is an opportunistic pathogen? A. Brucella B. Bordetella species C. Pseudomona aeruginosa D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Answer: C Q13: The pathogenesis of malaria is mainly due to infection of which of the following? A. Macrophages B. Basophils C. Red blood cells D. Lymphocytes Answer: C Q14: Giardia lamblia mainly affects which part? A. Colon B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Rectum Answer: C Q15: The cytopathic effect of a virus is observed with which one of the following laboratory techniques? A. Immunofluorescence B. Light microscope C. Electron microscope D. ELISA Answer: B Q16: Which of the following indicates non-enveloped virus replication? A. Endocytosis B. Cell Lysis C. Budding D. Fusion Answer: B Q17: Which one of these bacteria has a polypeptide capsule? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Bacillus anthracis Answer: D Physiology Q18: In a 40-years-old man, which of the following has an active bone marrow? A. Tibia shaft B. Iliac crest C. Femur shaft D. Radius shaft Answer: B Q19: Which one of the following components is the most abundant in hemoglobin in adults? A. 2 alpha & 2 sigma B. 2 alpha & 2 gamma C. 2 alpha & 2 delta D. 2 alpha & 2 beta Answer: D Q20: How many oxygen atoms does the normal hemoglobin molecule carry? A. Four B. Six C. Eight D. Ten Answer: C Q21: A 35-year-old gave a history of blood loss in his stool for 4 months. On the examination day. He had 10.5 g/dl hemoglobin and 3.2 million cubic millimeter RBC. Which type of analysis would you do? A. Increase ferritin B. Increase free iron in plasma C. Obstructed of transferrin D. Increased iron binding capacity Answer: D Q22: Which one of the following is a function of the red blood cell? A. Control blood PH B. Carry hormones C. Regulate Calcium D. Temperature regulation Answer: A Q23: Which one of these substances are released during primary granules neutrophil? A. Lysozyme B. Alkaline phosphatase C. Myeloperoxidase D. Proteinase Answer: C Q24: Which of the following cells act as an antigen presenting cell? A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. Mast cell D. Monocyte Answer: D Q25: Heparin is secreted by which of the following white blood cells? A. Basophils B. Neutrophils C. Lymphocyte D. Eosinophils Answer: A Q26: Which of the following represents the average total body water content in a healthy lean 70 Kg young man? A. 40 B. 30 C. 50 D. 70 Answer: A Q27: Which of the following will increase the loss of insensible water through skin? A. Wearing warm clothes B. Burn C. Exercise D. Hot weather Answer: B Q28: Which of the following substances requires a carrier protein cross the cell membrane? A. Water B. Glucose C. Oxygen D. Alcohol Answer: B Q29: Which one of the following is a passive transport? A. Sodium potassium ATPase B. Sodium calcium ATPase C. Na by channel protein D. Sodium hydrogen ATPase Answer: C Q30: Which of the following processes is regulated through a negative feedback mechanism? A. Child birth B. Nerve singling C. Blood coagulation D. Body temperature Answer: D Q31: Which of the following is the main anion in the extracellular fluid compartment? A. Chloride B. Phosphate C. Sodium D. Potassium Answer: A Pharmacology Q32: A 45-years-old man needs drug therapy because of severe pain of a sprained ankle, what route of drug would give the highest bioavailability? A. Orally B. Intravenous C. Rectal D. Topical Answer: B Q33: Which one of the following mechanisms of drug absorption is saturable, selective and requires energy? A. Phagocytosis B. Simple diffusion C. Active transport D. Facilitated diffusion Answer: C Pathology Q34: A 69 years old male smoker, presents to his general practitioner with a history of cough, fever and mucopurulent sputum, a bacteriological culture of the sputum has revealed Staphylococcus Aureus organism. Which of the following best describes the bacteria? A. Etiology B. Incidence C. Prevalence D. Sequel Answer: A Q35: Which ONE of the following Pathology techniques uses a blue filter and employs antigens to visualize substances in tissue sections? A. Electron Microscopy B. Exfoliative Cytology C. Immunofluorescence D. Molecular biology Answer: C Q36: A 59-year-old man presented to his local hospital, because he had acute liver failure, his medical history included liver transplantation, but this liver failed to produce bile, his doctor told him that what happened was due to reperfusion injury. Which of the following is most likely to have caused the reperfusion injury? A. Free Ferric Iron B. Free Oxygen radical C. Lysosomal Enzyme D. Cationic Proteins Answer: B Q37: A 48-year-old male alcoholic presents to the emergency room with a 13-hour history of severe abdominal pain which was radiating to the back and with associated vomiting. The laboratory studies showed that his serum amylase is 2500 u/i (reference range 40.140 u/i). Which type of necrosis could be expected to happen to the peripancreatic tissue of this patient? A. Coagulative B. Fat C. Fibrinoid D. Liquefactive Answer: B Q38: An 89-year-old woman who had diabetes mellitus died in her sleep. At autopsy, her hepatocytes were noted to have a golden yellow cytoplasmic granules. Special stains for hemosiderin showed up negative. What is the main reason for this pigment accumulation? A. Advanced Age B. Hereditary Haemochromatosis C. Congestive Heart Failure D. Diabetic Keto Acidosis Answer: A Q39: A 33-year-old woman suffered a traffic accident causing a fracture in her left leg (tibia). She went to the clinic and had it casted. Two weeks, the cast was removed and she noticed that her left leg was weak and smaller than the other one. What happened to her leg? A. Atrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Irreversible Cell Injury D. Hypertrophy Answer: A Q40: A 42-year-old woman has a history of left kidney transplantation, when she came to the hospital her kidney was not functioning and she died. After biopsy her right kidney was found to be enlarged, what type of adaptation happened? A. Dysplasia B. Hypertrophy C. Metaplasia D. Hyperplasia Answer: B Anatomy Q41: The movement of the left lower limb away from the right lower limb is? A. Abduction B. Adduction C. Lateral rotation D. Flexion Answer: A Q42: Which of the following is a muscle of the upper limb? A. Brachioradialis B. External oblique C. Tibialis anterior D. Buccinator Answer: A Q43: What is the rostral part of the brainstem? A. Thalamus B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Medulla oblongata Answer: B Q44: What part of the body is responsible for equilibrium? A. Thalamus B. Pons C. Cerebellum D. Hypothalamus Answer: C Q45: Which of the following anatomical planes divides the body into upper and lower parts? A. Sagittal B. Horizontal C. Parasagittal D. Midsagittal Answer: B Q46: Which of the following muscles is multipennate? A. Deltoid B. Orbicularis Oculi C. Rectus Femoris D. Sartorius Answer: A Q47: Which of the following chambers receives the arterial blood? A. Left Atrium B. Right Atrium C. Left Ventricle D. Right Ventricle Answer: A Human Genetics Q48: Which of the following is 47, XXY? A. Klinefelter Syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. None of them D. Down syndrome Answer: A Q49: Which one of the following corresponds to the removal of a piece of the chromosome that results in the removal of some genes? A. Deletion B. Inversion C. Translocation D. Duplication Answer: A Histology Q50: Which of the following is responsible for intracellular digestion? A. Lysosomes B. Golgi Apparatus C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum Answer: A Q51: Which of the following epitheliums contains cilia? A. Simple columnar epithelium B. Simple squamous epithelium C. Stratified squamous epithelium D. Transitional epithelium Answer: A Q52: Which wall of the following contains transitional epithelium? A. Blood vessel B. Trachea C. Urinary bladder D. Esophagus Answer: C Q53: Which one of the following connective tissue cells produces Histamine? A. Plasma cells B. Macrophage C. Mast cells D. Reticular cell Answer: C Q54: What is the main type of cell in the Paracortex of the Lymph Node? A. Mast cell B. T. lymphocytes C. B. lymphocytes D. Plasma cells Answer: B Embryology Q55: When does the primary oocyte complete its first meiotic division? A. After fertilization B. At ovulation C. Before puberty D. Before birth Correct answer: At puberty shortly before ovulation. Q56: When does the primary oocyte complete its first meiotic division? A. After fertilization B. Shortly before ovulation C. Before puberty D. Before birth Answer: B Q57: Which hormone will be released at ovulation? A. Progesterone B. FSH C. Estrogen D. LH Answer: D Q58: A 33-years-old woman presented with a late period, she was referred to the lab for blood investigations, which one of the following enzymes will be found? A. Estrogen B. FSH C. hCG D. LH Answer: C Immunology “no questions were found” Biochemistry 435 Q1: Dopamine is a derivative from which one of these amino acids? A. Glutamic Acid B. Histidine C. Tyrosine D. Tryptophan Answer: C Q2: Which type of bonds stabilizes the primary structure of protein? A. Hydrogen B. Hydrophobic C. Ionic D. Covalent Answer: D Q3: Which one of the following amino acids disrupts the alpha helixes in proteins? A. Alanine B. Glycine C. Methionine D. Tryptophan Answer: D Q4: What is the main function of the histone proteins? A. Formation of the double helical structure of DNA B. Helping DNA/RNA Binding C. Packaging the DNA into the chromosomes D. Producing the naked DNA molecules Answer: C Q5: Which one of the following forms the backbone of DNA? A. Base phosphate bonding B. Complementary base pairing C. Sugar phosphate bonding D. Sugar base bonding Answer: C Q6: During DNA replication, RNA primers are removed by which ONE of the following enzymes? A. DNA polymerase B. Helicase C. Ligase D. RNA polymerase Answer: A Q7: Which one of the following sentences best describes hyaluronic acid? A. It is the most abundant GAGS B. It is unsulfated C. It is anticoagulant D. It's protein attached Answer: B Q8: Arachidonic acid is a semi essential acid; it becomes essential when which acid is deficient? A. Linoleic acid B. Palmitic acid C. Linolenic acid D. Nervonic acid Answer: A Q9: What is the particle used in the transportation of dietary organ of triacylglycerol? A. High density lipoprotein B. Chylomicrons C. Low density lipoprotein D. Very low density lipoprotein Answer: B Microbiology Q10: Which kind of laboratory test is used to detect the virus antibodies? A. Enzyme. linked immunosorbent assay B. Shell Vial Assay C. Polymerase chain reaction D. None Answer: A Q11: Which one of the following has lipopolysaccharide? A. Cell wall of gram positive B. Capsule of gram positive C. Plasma cell wall of gram negative bacteria D. Outer membrane of gram negative bacteria Answer: D Q12: Which one of the following bacterial structures is responsible for adhesion and colonization? A. Flagella B. Mesosomes C. Pili D. Spores Answer: C Q13: Which one of the following organisms is the cause of recurrent infection in a leukemic patient on chemotherapy? A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Pseudomonas Answer: D Q14: Which of the following is a normal flora of oropharynx? A. E coli B. Staph aureus C. Streptococcus spp D. Variance bacterium Answer: C Q15: Which one of the following is a specific defense mechanism? A. Ph. of stomach B. Antibodies C. Lysosome D. Neutrophil Answer: B Q16: Which one of the following is a primary pathogen? A. Escherichia coli B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Viridans streptococci Answer: B Q17: Which of the following is first invaded by malaria parasite? A. The heart B. The liver C. The kidney D. The lungs Answer: B Physiology Q18: Physiology is the study of which of the following? A. Drug action B. Normal function C. Organs distribution D. Tissue structure Answer: B Q19: Which is the most abundant cation found in the cytosol of a mammalian cell? A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium Answer: C Q20: Which one of the following transport mechanisms requires supply of energy? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Osmosis C. Primary Active transport D. Simple diffusion Answer: C Q21: Which of the following is a feature for the plasma membrane sodium-potassium pump? A. Exchanges 3 NA with 2 k B. moves K outside the cell C. moves NA into the cell D. uses energy from ADP breakdown Answer: A Q22: Which of the following best identifies the term homeostasis? A. Make the internal environment normally stable B. Make the internal environment same as outside environment C. Regulate the internal concentration D. Increase the metabolism rate Answer: A Q23: Which of the following solutions when infused intravenously it results in the increase of the extracellular volume and a decrease of the intracellular volume? A. 1 Liter of 0.9% sodium chloride B. 1 Liter of 0.45% sodium chloride C. 1 Liter of 3% sodium chloride D. 1 liter of pure water Answer: C Q24: A 35-year-old gave history of blood loss in his stool for 4 months. On the examination day, he had 10.5 g/dl hemoglobin and 3.2 million cubic millimeter RBC. Which type of anemia does he have? A. Aplastic anemia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Microcytic hypochromic anemia D. Normocytic Normochromic Anemia Answer: C Q25: Which of the following is an iron carrier? A. Ferritin B. Transferrin C. Apo Ferritin D. Hemoglobin Answer: B Q26: What is the type of chains present in hemoglobin A? A. 2 alpha and 2 Beta B. 2 alpha and 2 delta C. 2 alpha and 2 gamma D. 2 delta and 2 gamma Answer: A Q27: Which kind of white blood cell has the least percentage in differential of normal blood? A. Basophils B. Monocytes C. Neutrophils D. Lymphocytes Answer: A Q28: Which type of WBC has a long life span? A. B. lymphocyte B. T. lymphocyte C. Basophil D. Neutrophil Answer: B Q29: Which of the following is the function of the parasympathetic system? A. Rest and relaxation B. Decrease secretion C. Decrease digestion and absorption D. Increase stressful stimulation Answer: A Q30: In which following organs do sympathetic postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine? A. Sweat gland B. Gastrointestinal tract C. Heart D. Liver Answer: A Q31: Which of the following is caused by the sympathetic nervous system? A. Hea