Final Review Anatomy PDF

Blood Define and be prepared to label the components of centrifuged blood - be prepared to provide an estimation of 3 components: erythrocytes (44% total blood volume, includes hematocrit), buffy coat (1% total blood the relative percentages of total blood volume for each volume, WBC and platele...

Blood Define and be prepared to label the components of centrifuged blood - be prepared to provide an estimation of 3 components: erythrocytes (44% total blood volume, includes hematocrit), buffy coat (1% total blood the relative percentages of total blood volume for each volume, WBC and platelets), plasma (55% total blood volume, contains water, proteins, and other solutes) What are the erythrocytes and why are they referred to as red blood cells, not true cells because they do not contain organelles or a nucleus, biconcave to increase formed elements? surface area, contain hemoglobin What is the composition of plasma? How much water? How much protein? Other substances? 92% water, 7% plasma proteins, 1% nutrients, wastes, respiratory gases albumin (58%) involved in blood volume, globulins (37%) - antibodies, fibrinogen (4%) - inactive form, Name the plasma proteins and their functions in order of when activated becomes fibrin and aids in blood clotting, regulatory proteins (1%) - enzymes and most to least abundant hormones transportation of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste products; regulation of body temperature, What are the general functions of blood? (3) pH, and fluid volume; immune response - protection via antibodies biconcave to increase surface area, not a true cell because it does not contain organelles or a nucleus, What is the structure of a red blood cell? Why? contains hemoglobin What is the function of hemoglobin and how many protein in red blood cells that binds to either 4 oxygen or carbon dioxide molecules (never both at once), molecules of oxygen/carbon dioxide can each molecule transports oxygen to tissues, picks up carbon dioxide from tissues and transports it back to the lungs to bind to? How many hemoglobin molecules per RBC? be exhaled, 280 million molecules of hemoglobin per red blood cells creation of red blood cells at the red marrow, low oxygen levels in the blood cause the kidneys to Describe the process of erythropoiesis. What is the stimulus produce the hormone erythropoietin which signals red bone marrow to increase red blood cell for this production? production to improve oxygen delivery to tissues used to enhance athletic performance by increasing the number of red blood cells in the bloodstream to boost oxygen-carrying capacity, improves endurance and decreases fatigue, can be done by transfusing What is blood doping? How might it positively or red blood cells back into the body or by using synthetic erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell negatively affect physiology? production, health risks - increased blood viscosity, blood clots, strokes, heart attacks Define and be able to draw the various classifications of true cells that contain nucleus and organelles, involved in the immune response, 1.5-3 times larger than leukocytes. What is their prevalence compared to RBC? red blood cells five types divided into 2 classes based on presence or absence of visible organelles called granules; Neutrophils - granulocytes, 50-70%, involved in bacterial/fungal infections, first responders, Lymphocytes - agranulocytes, 20-40%, activate B and T cells to provide immunity, Monocytes - agranulocyte, 2-8%, migrate from blood to form macrophages, targets bacteria and tumor cells, Eosinophils - granulocytes, 1- Classification of Leukocytes 4%, allergens and parasites, Basophils - granulocytes,.5-1%, releases histamine during inflammation diapedesis - white blood cell leaving the blood vessels to enter tissues; chemotaxis - attraction of white Define diapedesis and chemotaxis. Which cells would blood cell to site of infection or damage by chemicals; allow white blood cells to target and eliminate exhibit these processes and how/why do they occur? pathogens or damaged cells, playing a vital role in immune defense and healing formed in bone marrow via cellular fragments called megakaryocytes, become activated when blood is How are platelets formed and what function do they serve? exposed to collagen, involved in blood clotting, 1/4 size of red blood cells hemocytoblasts (stem cells) located in the red bone marrow differentiate via 2 lines of development to Describe hemopoiesis and the stem cell tissue that develops form blood cells, myeloid line - creation of erythrocytes, megakaryocytes, all leukocytes except into various blood cells. lymphocytes, lymphoid - creates lymphocytes Heart Define the two paths of circulation from the heart and how pulmonary circuit pumps blood to the lungs, systemic circuit pumps blood to most body tissues, blood they relate to heart structure. flow is unidirectional Force exerted by blood against the walls of blood vessels due to contraction of the heart and influenced by the elasticity of the vessel walls; clinically, a measure of the pressure in the brachial artery during What is blood pressure? ventricular systole and ventricular diastole. List the various layers of the pericardium and the anatomy fibrous pericardium - outer covering of tough, dense irrgular connective tissue; serous pericardium - two of the heart wall (be prepared to draw) and reference layers: parietal (lines inner surface of fibrous pericardium) and visceral layer (epicardium, covers outer specific tissue types surface of the heart, contains pericardial cavity) List all the features of internal/external heart anatomy and epicardium - visceral layer of serous pericardium and areolar connective tissue; myocardium - cardiac be prepared to draw a simple version of the major muscle, thickest layer; endocardium - internal surface heart chambers, external surface of heart valves; structures. External: four hollow chambers, 2 atria, 2 ventricles, auricles, coronary sulcus Right atrium - receives deoxygenated blood from the heart, muscles, and systemic circulation. superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sulcus drain into right atrium, tricuspid valve separates right atrium and ventricle; Right Ventricle - receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium, separation of ventricles via interventricular septum, contains trabeculae carneae, papillary muscles, and chorade tendineae; Left atrium - oxygenated blood flows from lungs via pulmonary veins, bicuspid valve; Left Ventricle - receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium, has thicker myocardium than right side, contains papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and trabeculae carneae; Four valves - right Internal Heart Anatomy: 4 chambers and 4 valves atrioventricular (tricuspid), pulmonary semilunar, left strioventricular (bicuspid), aortic semilunar right atrium receives deoxygenated venous blood from heart, muscles, and systemic circulation (superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus drain into right atrium) -> blood moves from right atrium to right ventricle causing ventricle to contract and tricuspid valve to close -> pulmonary semilunar valve -> pulmonary trunk and arteries -> gas exchange at pulmonary capillaries (gaining Understand the specific pathway of blood (including major oxygen and losing carbon dioxide) -> pulmonary veins receive oxygenated blood -> left atrium -> vessels) from the heart to pulmonary/systemic circulation bicuspid valve -> left ventricle -> aortic semilunar valve -> aorta and systemic arteries -> gas exchange at and back to the heart. systemic capillaries (losing oxygen and gaining carbon dioxide) prevent backflow and promote unidirectional flow; as blood flows into ventricles during relaxation it becomes trapped in semilunar cusps and the semilunar valves close, when ventricular pressure drops below atrial pressure , the atrioventricular valves open and ventricular filling begins; during atrial How do valves affect blood flow and what is their ultimate systole atrioventricular valves are still open and semilunar valves are closed; during ventricular systole function? Which valves are active during different points all four valves are cosed briefly, when left ventricular pressure rises above arterial pressure both of the cardiac cycle? semilunar valves open and ejection of blood from heart begins How does the left ventricle differ from the right? Why? much thicker myocardium because it has to generate more force to pump blood throughout the body Arteries: right - marginal supplies right ventricle, posterior interventricular supplies posterior surface of ventricles. left - anterior interventricular supplies anterior of ventricles, circumflex supplies left atrium and ventricle; Veins: great cardiac drains anterior surface of ventricles, middle cardiac drains posterior What is the function of the coronary arteries and veins? Be surface of ventricles, small cardiac drains right border of heart, coronary sinus receives deoxygenated able to identify each on an image blood from all cardiac veins gap junctions comprise intercalated discs where electrical impulse is distributed immediately and Define the path and location of the cardiac conducting spontaneously throughout the entire myocardium; sinoatrial node is the pacemaker of the heart; Path: SA fibers. What is the "true" pacemaker of the heart and how node -> atria -> AV node -> AV bundles -> IV septum R/L bundle branches -> Purkinje fibers -> ventricular does it affect the myocardium? myocardium  systole = chambers are contracting and ejecting blood; diastole = chambers are relaxing and refilling with blood; Sequence of Chamber Contractions: SA node generates impulse -> atria contract (systole) and Define systole and diastole. How do the atria and ventricles ventricles relax (diastole) -> impulse to AV node, then to ventricles -> ventricles contract (systole) while work together to ensure efficient pumping action atria relax (diastole) Vessels and Circulation Define arteries, capillaries, and veins. What is/are the functions of each, how are they connected, how do they artery= moves blood away from body, become smaller as they move away from the heart; vein= change in different regions of the body (closer to or farther transports blood to heart, get bigger as they get closer to the heart; capillary= site for metabolic exchange, away from the heart)? connects arteries and veins, form capillary beds Tunica Externa= connective tissue outer layer, anchors vessel to organs, sometimes contains a vasa Know, and be prepared to draw/label the tunics of arteries vasorum that has its own blood supply; Tunic Media= layer of smooth muscle, allows for vaosconstriction and veins. What is the composition of each of these layers and vasodilation via the sympathetic nervous system; Tunica Intima= simple squamous endothelium and and what function do they serve (example: where do we subendothelium made of areolar connective tissue; Internal elastic lamina= between tunic intima and see internal/external elastic laminae and what function do media, provides elasticity, found mostly in muscular and elastic arteries; External elastic lamina= they serve)? between tunic media and externa, structural support and elasticity, mostly in muscular arteries Elastic - largest (aorta, brachicephalic trunk, branches off heart), contain elastic fibers in all 3 layers due to increased pressure. Muscular - medium diameter, elastic fibers in 2 concentric rings between 3 tunics (internal elastic lamina separates tunica intima and media, external elastic lamina separates tunica Define the 3 forms of arteries and where they might be media and externa), have thick tunica media. Arterioles - smallest, have subclavian vein -> brachiopcephalic vein -> superior vena cava Respiratory System conducting zone - filters, warms, and moistens air and conducts it into lungs; respiratory zone - main sites of gas exchange between air and blood; additional functions - gas conditioning, sound production, Defined the functions of the respiratory system olfaction, defense Anatomical - (1) upper respiratory system includes nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, associated structures (2) lower respiratory system includes larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs; Functional - (1) conducting zone - Differentiate between the anatomical and functional series of interconnecting cavities and tubes both outside and within lungs. Includes nose, nasal cavity, divisions of the respiratory system (know the structures of pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and terminal bronchioles that function in filtering, each). Detail the epithelial characteristics of each region. warming, and moistening air and conducting it to the lungs. (2) respiratory zone - consists of tubes and Why would we see certain epithelial types in certain tissues within the lungs where gas exchange occurs, includes respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, regions? alveolar saccules, and pulmonary alveoli Divisions of pharynx - nasopharynx (pseudostratified columnar epithelium), oropharynx What are the divisions of the pharynx and where are they (nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium), and laryngopharynx (nonkeratinized stratified located. Again, know the epithelial characteristics of each. squamous epithelium) connects pharynx to trachea; 3 major cartilages - (1) thyroid cartilage - largest, has anterior and lateral wall, v-shaped laryngeal prominence also known as adam's apple (2) cricoid cartilage - inferior to thyroid What are the structures of the larynx and functions of cartilage, connected by cricothyroid ligament (3) epiglottis - spoon-shaped, swallowing causes it to move each? What is housed in the thyroid cartilage? down to cover opening into larynx/glottis Layers deep to superficial - respiratory mucosa (pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium and underlying layer of lamina propria that contains elastic and reticular fibers), submucosa (areolar connective tissue with seromucus glands), fibromusculocartilagenous layer (hyaline cartilage in the form of stacked rings joined together by dense connective tissue), adventitial layer (areolar connective tissue); Describe the structure of the trachea (with respect to CT) mucus escalator - defense mechanism that helps clear pathogens and foregin material from respiratory it's associated epithelial structure - what is the mucous tract, goblet cells secrete mucus that traps particles and cilia helps to expel particles via coughing or escalator? sneezing Conducting portion ends at the terminal bronchioles; Right branching - right primary (main) bronchus -> 3 secondary (lobar) bronchi -> 8-10 tertiary (segmental) bronchi; Left branching - left primary (main) bronchus -> 2 secondary (lobar) bronchi -> 8-10 tertiary (segmental) bronchi; As branching continues and bronchioles become smaller, the following is observed: incomplete rings of cartilage become smaller and less numerous, all bronchi are lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium, bronchi branch into bronchioles which lack rings of cartilage and are lined with ciliated simple columnar or simple squamous epithelium; bronchioles function in bronchoconstriction and dilation, contain thick layer of Detail the structure of the bronchial tree and various smooth muscle; Conducting zone - trachea, main bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, bronchioled divisions. Where does the conducting portion end? and terminal bronchioles; Respiratory zone - respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar saccules What are the structures of the respiratory portion? Where respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar saccules; metabolic exchange occurs at the alveoli, each can gas exchange occur? alveolus contains a capillary alveolar type 1 cells are predominant in the alveolar wall, made of simple squamous epithelium, form a nearly continuous lining of the pulmonary alveolar wall, main site of gas exchange between pulmonary alveoli and pulmonary blood; alveolar type 2 cells are rounded or cuboidal epithelial cells with microvilli Differentiate between alveolar type one, type two, and that form part of the pulmonary alveolar wall, secrete alveolar fluid which includes surfactant, macrophage cells. What are the functions of each? What is surfactant lowers surface tension of pulmonary alveolar fluid to reduce the tendency of pulmonary the function of pulmonary surfactant? Alveolar alveoli to collapse; alveolar macrophages are wandering phagocytes that remove fine dust particles and macrophages? other debris in the pulmonary alveolar spaces and fibroblasts that produce reticular and elastic fibers What is the structure of the respiratory membrane and diffusion barrier containing the plasma membrane of type 1 alveolar cells, the plasma membrane of the what occurs there? Which cell types are connected here, capillary cell, and the fused basement membrane of both cells; capillary and type 1 alveolar cells are why? connected to facilitate diffusion of gases Understand the relationship of the pleural membranes and the respiratory system. Know the structures of each lung. pleura - thin, double-layered membranes that surround the lungs and line the chest cavity In a closed chamber increased volume decreases pressure; inverse relationship between pressure and What is Boyle's law and how does it relate to pulmonary volume; inhalation uses diaphragm and external intercostals, increases volume to drop pressure in function? Know the relationship described between lungs, pressure gradient; passive exhalation - no muscles involved, decreased volume and increased pressure and volume. pressure What are the muscles of inspiration, forceful/active inspiration, and muscles of active expiration? How does main - diaphragm and external intercostals; accessory muscles - scalenes and sternocleidomastoid; expiration typically occur (with respect to muscle)? muscles of active expiration - internal intercostals, abdominal muscles How does the autonomic nervous system affect respiration? How would this relate to medicines prescribed for all allergic responses? No the location/function of the parasympathetic stimulation results in bronchoconstriction, sympathetic results in bronchodilation via major respiratory centers of the brain. epinephrine Digestive System ingestion, digestion (mechanical and chemical), propulsion, secretion (enzymes, mucous, bile, and acids), What are the functions of the digestive system? absorption, and elimination What are the digestive system organs and the accessory Primary- contain food, directly involved in digestion and absorption; Accessory - may/may not contain organs of digestion? What differentiates them? food, provides secretions to aid digestion Cephalic Phase of Digestion changes at the brain to stimulate appetite and initiate gastrointestinal activity, 10% of gastric secretions Gastric Phase of Digestion food enters stomach, 80% of gastric secretions Intestinal Phase of Digestion chyme enters duodenum, 10% of gastric secretions swallowing; soft palate contracts, elevates uvula, blocks nasopharynx, larynx elevates, epiglottis tips Deglutition down to block entrance to respiratory tract forcing food to go into esophagus Explain how the structures of the oral cavity contribute to digestion (with specific emphasis on the function of the cheeks, palate, teeth, tongue, and associated muscles) first site of mechanical and chemical digestion, creates the bolus  Glands - parotid (largest, 25-30% saliva production, serous secretion), sublingual (5-10 % saliva Describe the various salivary glands, their location, production, mucus and serous secretion), submandibular (60-70% saliva production, mucus and serous functions, and specific secretions (serous or mucous). What secretion); functions of saliva - moisten bolus for easier passage, moisten/cleanse/lubricate oral cavity, is/are the differences between serous and mucus antibacterial action via lysozymes, chemical digestion via salivary amylase, dissolves food to stimulate secretions? taste receptors; mucous cells secrete mucin; serous cells secrete ions, lysozyme, and amylase Know the basic structure of the tooth and the regional divisions of the types of teeth incisors for tearing, canines for puncturing, premolars and molars for grinding Mucosa - mucous membrane, simple columnar superficial epithelium in contact with food, underlying lamina propria composed of areolar connective tissue, muscularis mucosae (thin layer of smooth Detail the layers of the tunics/layers of the G.I. tract and muscle); Submucosa - composed of areolar and dense irregular connective tissue, contains blood vessels, how they are laid out (deep-superficial). What is found in sensory, contains submucosal nerve plexus; Muscularis - 2 layers of smooth muscle (except esophagus each region? How do the mesenteries play a role in the and stomach), inner layer contains circular muscle, outer layer contains longitudinal muscle, myenteric structure of the G.I. tract? Which type of epithelium lines nerve plexus (motor nerve plexus); Serosa/Adventitia - composed of areolar connective tissue, collagen + most of the G.I. tract? elastin, lined with serous membrane How does peristalsis differ from segmentation and how Peristalsis - wavelike contraction of smooth muscle to propel food forward, uses both circular and might they work together? Do they both occur throughout longitudinal muscles together; Segmentation - back and forth mixing of food, uses sphincter muscles; the G.I. tract? Does segmentation occur? Where does peristalsis occurs in esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine; segmentation occurs mostly peristalsis occur? in the small intestine but also in the large intestine, a little bit in the stomach muscular tube from pharynx to stomach, lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium to help with abrasive foods or harsh liquids; Muscularis - superior esophageal sphincter made of skeletal Describe the structure of the esophagus - what is the muscle because swallowing is a voluntary activity, where pharynx and esophagus meet, inferior composition of muscles and epithelial cells? Does it esophageal sphincter made of smooth muscle (also called cardiac sphincter), weak, contraction aided by change? diaphragm (esophageal hiatus) Functions- mixes and churns chyme, major site of mechanical digestion, stores food for 4-6 hours, kills What are the functions of the stomach? Does the stomach bacteria via hydrochloric acid, continued chemical digestion, limited absorptive properties except lipid role in absorption? Why or why not? soluble substances (alcohol, NSAIDS, caffeine) The structure of the stomach in detail Muscularis has 3 layers of smooth muscle- oblique layer (deepest), circular, longitudinal (superficial) mucosa lined with simple columnar cells and microscopic pits lined with various cells that produce gastric secretions; Submucosal layer contains submucosal nerve plexus; Cells of gastric glands- mucus surface cell (secretes alkaline mucus, protects stomach lining and buffers acids), mucus neck cells (secrete acidic mucus, enhances acidic environment of gastric pit for other secretions), parietal cells (secretes hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor, hydrochloric acid for killing bacteria and denaturing What are the gastric pits/glands? List the cells found in proteins, intrinsic factor aids absorption of vitamin b12 in small intestine), chief cells (secrete inactive gastric glands and the secretions of each. Use the table in pepsinogen to active pepsin via hydrochloric acid, chemically digests proteins), G cells (secrete gastrin the outline to summarize these glands and their effects. hormone, increases gastric secretions, enteroendocrine cell), D cells (secretes somatostatin, inhibits G IMPORTANT FOR FINAL EXAM cells and gastrin to inhibit gastric secretions, enteroendocrine cell) finishes chemical digestion, site of 90% of nutrient absorption, chyme remains in small intestine for 10- What is/are the primary functions of the small intestine? 12 hours Describe the histology of the small intestine and how it differs from the rest of the. What are plicae circulares (circular folds), villi and microvilli? What is the function of Circular folds - folds of mucosa slow the rate of passage of chyme, increase surface area; Villi - increase each? surface area; Microvilli - numerous folds of apical surface to increase surface area further  forms a three-sided perimeter around the centrally located small intestine, absorbs water and ions, What are the functions of the large intestine and its stores feces until defecation; Teniae coli- longitudinal bands of smooth muscle that help create tension primary regions? How do the teniae coli and haustra causing formation of haustra; Haustra - form pouches that allow large intestine to expand and contract, contribute to its function? help mix contents, aid in water absorption and formation of stool Defined the accessory organs of the G.I. tract, their Liver- produces bile to emulsify fat; Gallbladder- stores bile, released into duodenum via the cystic duct, locations and functions involved in digestion. What are the biliary apparatus is a network of ducts to transport bile from the liver to gallbladder to duodenum secretions from these organs and how do they contribute to (structures include right and left hepatic ducts, common hepatic duct, cystic duct, common bile duct); the digestive processes? Focus heavily on the liver and Pancreas - exocrine and endocrine function, pancreatic juice (exocrine) secreted into duodenum via the pancreatic secretions. Review the biliary apparatus from pancreatic duct, pancreatic juice contains sodium bicarbonate to buffer acidic chyme from the stomach lab. and numerous enzymes Urinary System removal of waste products from the bloodstream, production of urine, storage and secretion of urine, What are the functions of the urinary system? blood volume regulation, regulation of erythrocyte production What are the structures of the urinary system? kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra located retroperitoneal on posterior abdominal wall; hilum - concave medial border where vessels, nerves, and the ureter connect with kidney; hilum continuous with renal sinus; tissue layers from deepest to most superficial - fibrous capsule (direct contact with outer surface of kidney), perinephric fat (provides cushioning and insulation to the kidney), renal fascia (anchors kidney to posterior abdominal External Anatomy of the Kidneys wall), paranephric fat (outermost layer surrounding the kidney between renal fascia and peritoneum) outer renal cortex and inner renal medulla, extensions of renal cortex are called renal columns, renal columns project into renal medulla and subdivide the medulla into renal pyramids (typical kidney has 8- 15 renal pyramids), wide base of renal pyramid makes contact with cortex in the corticomedullary junction, apex of renaly pyramid is called renal papilla, each renal papilla projects into a hollow funnel- shaped structure called the minor calyx, several minor calyces fuse to form major calyx, major calyces fuse to form renal pelvis which collects the total urine output from one kidney and transports it into the Internal Anatomy of the Kidneys ureter each renal papilla projects into a hollow funnel-shaped structure called the minor calyx, several minor Describe the relationship of minor calyces, major calyces, calyces fuse to form major calyx, major calyces fuse to form renal pelvis which collects the total urine renal, pelvis, and ureter. output from one kidney and transports it into the ureter nephron = functional filtration unit of the kidney; components of nephron - renal corpuscle, proximal What is a nephron and what are the three processes seen at convoluted tubule, nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule; 3 processes seen at nephron = filtration the structure? Describe and be able to draw each (water and some solutes move into capsular space of renal corpuscle), tubular reabsorption (substances component of the nephron. Be able to distinguish between move from tubular system back into bloodstream), tubular secretion (transport of solutes out of blood filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion. into tubular fluid to be removed as urine); cortical nephrons - about 85% of all nephrons, the bulk of nephron structures reside in the kidney cortex and onlya relatively small component enters the kidney medulla; juxtamedullary nephrons - their renal corpuscle lies near the corticomedullary junction and their long nephron loops extend deep into the Two types of nephrons medulla  composed of 2 structures - glomerulus (thick tangle of fenestrated capillaries), glomerular capsule (an epithelial covering over the glomerulus); corpuscle has a vascular pole where the afferent arteriole enters and the efferent arteriole exits, tubular pole where the proximal conviluted tubule exits; 2 layers of glomerular capsule - visceral (directly overlies and comes in contact with the glomerulus, comprised of podocytes) and parietal (formed from simple squamous epithelium); podocytes - have long pedicels that What is the structure of the renal corpuscle and the glomus wrap around glomerular capillaries but do not completely ensheathe it, pedicels separated by filtration in specific? What structures do we find in the glomerular slits, filtration slits and fenestrated capillary wall make up the filtration membrane which mostly leaks capsule? What are podocytes and what is the function of indiscriminate contents from the plasma into the capsule, remainder of nephron adjusts the contents of the filtration slit/membrane? urine begins at tubular pole of renal corpuscle, walls comprised of simple cuboidal epithelium with tall microvilli, cells reabsorb almost all nutrients leaked through the filtration membrane, reabsorbed nutrients and water enter the peritubular capillaries and are returned to the general circulation in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule vascular system projects into the medulla and has two limbs that facilitate reabsorption of water and solutes - descending Nephron Loop (extends from the cortex into the medulla) and ascending (returns from medulla into cortex) Distal Convoluted Tubule found in renal cortex, secretes potassium and hydrogen from peritubular capillaries into tubular fluid important in regulation of blood pressure and is comprised of juxtaglomerular cells (modified smooth muscle cells of the afferent arteriole located at the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle) and macula densa (group of modified epithelial cells that detect ion concentration in blood, can stimulate the Juxtaglomerular Apparatus juxtaglomerular cells to secrete renin to regulate blood pressure/volume) Detail the structure of the ureters, urinary bladder, and Ureters - fibromuscular tubes that conduct urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder, originate at the urethra. What are the structural composites of each renal pelvis as it exits the hilum of the kidney then enters the posterolateral wall of the base of the (epithelial and muscular)? How do different types of urinary bladder, wall of ureter has 3 layers - mucosa (inner, transitional epithelium), muscularis (middle, muscle contribute to these structures? produces perstaltic waes to move urine), adventitia (outer layer made of areolar connective tissue) reservoir for urine, posteroinferior triangular area of the urinary bladder is called the trigone, four tunics that form wall of urinary bladder - mucosa (transitional epithelium that lines the internal surface of the bladder, rugae allow for distension), submucosa (supports bladder wall), muscularis (three layers of smooth muscle called detrusor muscle, internal urethral sphincter muscle present at urethral Structure of Urinary Bladder opening), advetitia (outer layer of areolar connective tissue) a fibromuscular tube that originates at the neck of the urinary bladder and conducts urine to the exterior of the body, internal urethral sphincter made of smooth muscle, external urethral sphincter made of skeletal muscle; Female urethra - single function of transporting urine to exterior of body; Male urethra - transports both urine and semen, partitioned into 3 segments - prostatic urethra (extends through Structure of Urethra? How do the male and female urethra prostate gland), membranous urethra (extends through urogenital diaphragm), spongy urethra (encased differ? in corpus spongiosum of penis) Reproductive Systems What are the primary sex organs of males and females? called gonads - ovaries and testes What are gametes? gonads produce sex cells called gametes; female = oocytes, male = sperm What is meiosis and what are diploid/haploid cells? diploid - 46 chromosomes, haploid - 23 pairs of chromosomes ovaries and testes produce gametes and sex hormones; clitoris and glans penis both contain autonomic nervous system axons that stimulate feelings of arousal and sexual climax; labia majora and scrotum Describe the homologues of the male/female reproductive both protect and cover some reproductive structures; vestibular and bulbourethral glands both secrete systems mucin for lubrication Define and be prepared to identify the accessory organs of the female reproductive system uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, clitoris, mammary glands germinal epithelium is superficial outer layer surrounded by simple cubopidal cells, tunica albuginea is white connective tissue capsule just deep to germinal epithelium that has an outer cortex and inner medulla; cortex is the location of ovarian follicles; medulla contains connective tissue, blood and lymph Describe and be able to draw the structure of an ovary vessels, and nerves; follicles provide immune barrier ovarian follicles consist of an oocyte surrounded by granulosa/follicle cells; Stages of follicular development: (1) primordial follicles- contain primary oocyte (46 chromosomes) 1.5 million present at birth, (2) primary follicle - follicle grows larger and contains diploid primary oocyte, 1 or more layers of granulosa, granulosa secretes estrogen and progesterone, (3) secondary follicle - primary oocyte Describe the changes that take place follicular surrounded by many layers of granulosa, fluid filled space called the antrum, (4) vesicular follicle - development. (reference to chromosomal and follicle secondary oocyte containing haploid cell, numerous layers of granulosa and large antrum, (5) ovulation - change). What is an ovarian follicle? What is the function secondary oocyte expelled, remnant of follicle becomes corpus luteum, contains zona pellucida and of the corpus luteum and what is it? What does it become if corona radiata, corpus luteum continues to secrete estrogen and progesterone to develop endometrium, implantation does or not occur? (6) corpus albicans - if no fertilization the corpus luteum recedes to become corpus albicans Meoisis 1 - primary oocyte splits into polar body and secondary oocyte (23 chromosomes); Ovulation - Detail the process of oogenesis - the stages of development secondary oocyte meets sperm and get fertilized; Meoisis 2 - fertilized egg becomes second polar body of an oocyte and how chromosome number will change and ovum; sperm and ovum form zygote (46 chromosomes) Wall of uterine tubes contains 3 layers - (1) mucosa - ciliated columnar cells, (2) muscularis - inner circular, outer longitudinal, (3) serosa - serous membrane; functions of uterus - site of implantation of fertilized egg, supports and protects the developing embryo/fetus, ejects the fetus during labor; regions - What are the functions of the uterus? Describe the fundus, body, isthmus, cervix; walls of uterus - perimetrium contains outer serous membrane, histology of its layers and if/how they may change during myometrium contains thick layer of smooth muscle, endometrium contains simple columnar cells the uterine cycle (the three phases). what are the specific (underlying lamina propria - uterine glands, which enlarge during uterine cycle); 2 layers of structures within the endometrium? How do they endometrium - basal layer is permanent and deep, functional layer changes thickness during uterine specifically change or not change? cycle and could be shed as menses uterine cycle changes are due to estrogen and progesterone secreted by the ovary; 3 phases of ovarian cycle - follicular phase days 1-13, ovulation day 14, and luteal phase days 15-28; 3 phases of uterine cycle - Ovarian and Uterine Cycles menstrual phase days 1-5, proliferative phase days 6-13, secretory phase days 14-28 10 cm fibromuscular tube, thin and dispensible with 3 tunics - inner mucosa middle muscularis and Vagina outer adventitia, hymen is folds of mucosa that form a membranous barrier mons pubis - adipose connective tissue, labia majora - thickened folds of skin, labia minora - thin folds that are highly vascularized, vestibule is space between labia minora, clitoris contains corpora cavernosa External Female Genitalia and glans and prepuce scrotum - skin covered sac that provides testes with cooler environment, sperm develop best at 3 degrees celsius below body temperature, dartos muscle is the muscularis of the scrotum made of smooth muscle; spermatic cord originates at inguinal canal - testicular artery is branch of abdominal aorta, pampiniform Describe structures within the scrotum and spermatic cord plexus is a network of testicular veins that play a role in temperature, testicular nerve innervates testes, and have a general understanding of the function of of ductus deferens is the tube that carries the sperm, cremaster muscle is an extension of the internal each oblique (skeletal muscle) What are the cremastor and dartos muscles? What are their functions with respect to the testes? Why is this important?  Functions- produce gametes (sperm), produce and secrete adrogens (testosterone); testes covered in serous membrane called tunica vaginalis; tunica vaginalis has an outer parietal layer and inner visceral What are the functions of the testes? Be prepared to layer; Tunica albuginea - fibrous connective tissue capsule, projects into testis as mediastinum testis, identify the microscopic structures of the testes as well as vessels and nerves enter and leave the testis, internally forms septa creating cavities called lobules identifying their basic function. What are the seminiferous (about 250), 4 seminiferous tubules in each lobule where sperm forms; Seminiferous tubule cells - tubules and what two cell types do we see there and their sustentacular cells assist with sperm development and form walls of seminiferous tubules and the blood- functions what is or are the functions of the interstitial testis barrier (tight junctions), dividing germ cells continuously produce sperm beginning at puberty, cells? interstitial cells reside in interstitial space and produce androgens Detail the process of spermatogenesis (with reference to (1) diploid germ cells undergo mitosis to produce a primary spermatocyte, (2) Meiosis 1 - diploid primary chromosomal change) and be prepared to draw/detail this spermatocytes become 2 haploid secondary spermatocytes, (3) Meiosis 2 - second mitotic division creates process 4 spermatids (haploid), (4) spermiogenesis occurs and forms typical sperm cell Mature structure formed during sperminogenesis - contains head midpiece and flagellum, midpiece Identify basic structures of a sperm cell - what is found in contains mitochondria to propel flagellum, acrosome contains enzymes to eat through sperm barrier of each region? egg rete testis, efferent ductules, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra; epididymis - stores Detail the ductile system of the male reproductive tract. sperm and serves in maturation process of sperm; ductus deferens - spermatic cord to pelvic cavity Detailed the secretions provided by each of the accessory through inguinal canal, ejaculatory duct; urethra - transports semen from both ejaculatory ducts to glands- what is found in each secretion? outside in the body, three regions - prostatic, membranous, spongy; three glands secrete fluids to mix with sperm to create seminal fluid, secretions nourish sperm and neutralize acidity of vagina, 3 glands - seminal vesicles, prostate glands, bulbourethral glands; seminal vesicles - alkaline, contain fructose, prostaglandins; prostate gland - slightly acidic mucin, citric acid contains nutrient for sperm, seminalplasmin is antibacterial, prostatic-specific antigen which is an Accessory Glands enzyme to liquify semen; bulbourethral glands - mucin, lubricates and buffers urethra Semen seminal fluid and sperm make up semen; 3-5 mL; 200-500 million sperm in one ejaculate Be prepared to label and describe the external structures of cylindrical erectile bodies - corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum both compose of venous spaces to the male genitalia produce an erection; How does the autonomic nervous system contribute to erection and ejaculation? parasympathetic promotes erection, sympathetic produces ejaculation Muscle List the 3 types of muscle and the 4 characteristics they all share. Types: skeletal, cardiac, smooth; Properties - excitability, contractility, elasticity, extensibility Extensibility - ability of muscle fiber to be stretched beyond its resting length; Contractility - stimulation of muscle fiber leads to contraction/shortening; Elasticity - muscle fiber's return to original length when contraction is released; Excitability - outside stimuli initiate electrical changes Extensibility, contractility, elasticity, excitability in muscle fiber to promote contraction body movement, maintenance of posture, temperature regulation, storage and movement of Functions of skeletal muscle materials, support Describe the hierarchy of skeletal muscle organization. muscle, fascicles, muscle fiber, myofibrils, myofilaments, actin and myosin 3 layers of concentric CT (epimysium, perimysium, endomysium, deep and superficial fascia) comprised mainly of collagen and elastic fibers to provide protection, sites for blood vessel and CT of muscle - composition nerve distribution, and a means of attaching muscle to skeleton Epimysium - surrounds entire muscle, dense irregular CT; Perimysium - surrounds individual fascicles, dense irregular CT; Endomysium - innermost layer, surrounds, electrically insulates each muscle fiber, areolar CT; Superficial Fascia - continuous with subcutaneous layer, areolar and adipose CT; Deep Fascia - separates individual muscles, surrounds each muscle superficial to CT of muscle - describe each layer epimysium, dense irregular CT sarcolemma = plasma membrane; sarcoplasm = cytoplasm; sarcoplasmic reticulum = smooth ER, Describe the microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle - filamentous sx and fx (cellular major calcium reservoir; T-tubules = deep invaginations of sarcolemma that extend into sarcoplasm; components) Terminal Cisternae = sacs at ends of sarcoplasmic reticulum; multinucleated Myofibrils extend the entire length of the cell, able to contract, short bundles of myofilaments; Myofilaments do not run entire length of fiber, arranged in repetitive groupings, composed of thick Myofibrils vs. Myofilaments and thin filaments Thin (myosin binding site) = contain 2 strands, tropomyosin strands that block myosin binding sites on actin at rest, troponin bound to tropomyosin that can bind to calcium; Thick (actin binding site) = contain myosin, head and elongated tail, creates crossbridges with thin filaments during Thick vs. Thin Filaments contraction; organization of thick/thin filaments causes striations A bands = dark part, contains entire thick filament and overlapping actin; I bands = light part, gap with only thin filament; Titin = elastic protein; H zone/band = gap between thick filaments, central region of sarcomere; M Line = protein in the H zone that keeps thick filaments aligned; Z Disc/Band = Be able to draw/label a sarcomere, all associated sx, bands/zones protein for attachment of thin filaments, region between 2 of these is a sarcomere Describe exactly what happens at the sarcomere during contraction (sliding filament thick and thin filaments interact and slide past each other causing the A band to remain constant, H theory) zone to narrow/disappear, z discs to narrow, sarcomere narrows, i bands narrow/disappear How do bands/zones change in different levels of contraction/lengthening? A band to remain constant, H zone to narrow/disappear, z discs to narrow, sarcomere narrows, i bands narrow/disappear ATTACH - myosin binds to actin, PIVOT - myosin heads pivot inwards, DETACH - myosin heads Detail the crossbridge cycle that occurs in the interaction between myosin and actin detach from actin using ATP, RETURN - myosin heads return to ready position, energized Define all components of the neuromuscular junction and how a muscular process at synapse, fx of acetylcholine/acetylcholinerase, sx of motor end plate, how this affects contraction begins calcium release at terminal cisternae Calcium ions bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to uncover active binding sites, allows myosin What is calcium's role in muscle contraction? How does it relate to myofilaments? and actin to bind to form crossbridge and for muscle to contract one somatic motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates; small MU good for precision, large MU What is a motor unit and how does it relate to precision and/or force? good for force, follows all or none principle the type of muscle fiber is closely related to the function and characteristics of that unit; low- intensity activities will recruit type 1 fibers and smaller motor units first, higher intensity or How do motor units relate to muscle fiber type? powerful movements will recruit types 11a or 11b fibers and larger motor units concentric - muscle contracts as it shortens; eccentric - muscle contracts as it lengthens (stronger What are concentric, eccentric, and isometric contractions? than concentric); isometric - muscle contracts with no change in length  a small amount of tautness or tension in the muscle due to weak, involuntary contractions of its motor units; established by neurons in the brain and spinal cord that excite the muscle's somatic motor neurons; small groups of motor units are alternatively active and inactive in a shifting What is muscle tone? pattern to sustain tone; not strong enough to produce movement Muscle Fiber Types - fatigue, tolerance, energy systems, force potential, myoglobin/mitochoindrial concentrations, typical activities that may involve specific fiber types slow twitch; slow oxidative, can use aerobic metabolism, abundant mitochondria/myoglobin, small MU, slower contraction, has more capillaries, good for endurance, do not fatigue quickly, not meant Type I muscle fibers for force intermediate/fast twitch, more mitochondria/myoglobin than slow twitch, increased capillary Type IIa muscle fibers supply, greater resistance to fatigue than slow twitch fast gycolytic, rely on anaerobic metabolism, "white meat", very little mitochondria/myoglobin, large Type IIb muscle fibers glycogen stores, largest fiber size, large MU, fatigue rapidly, meant for force not endurance circular - concentric rings of fibers (sphincters); parallel - fibers parallel to long axis; convergent - broad origin, converge on distal tendon tip; pennate - fibers at oblique angle to central tendon, Forms of skeletal muscle organization - circular, parallel, pennate, fusiform, unipennate = one-sided (extensor digitorum), bipennate = two-sided (rectus femoris), multipennate convergent, fascicular arrangement = several bipennate muscles (deltoid) striated, one or two nuclei, y-shaped branches, join other adjacent cells to form intercalated discs Sx and fx of cardiac muscle comprised of gap junctions, autorhythmic (generates impulse w/out nervous stim), involuntary found in walls of viscera and blood vessels, short fusiform cells, one central nucleus, no striations, Sx and fx of smooth muscle thin filaments attached to dense bodies, involuntary Nervous Tissue collecting information (input), processing and evaluating information (CNS determines what List the general functions of the nervous system (3 main) response is required), responding to information (output via to effectors- muscle or gland) (1) Central Nervous System (CNS) - brain and spinal cord, contains receptors and transmits information from PNS receptors to the CNS, 2 subdivisions: somatic sensory (voluntary) receives sensory information from skin, fascia, joints, skeletal muscles, and special senses; visceral sensory (involuntary) receives sensory information from the viscera; (2) Motor Nervous System: transmits information from CNS to the rest of the body, sends motor information to effectors, 2 subdivisions: Identify the basic divisions (2) of the nervous system including the major (1) somatic motor (voluntary) innervates skeletal muscle, (2) Autonomic Motor (involuntary) subdivisions (4) innervates cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands Sensory - afferent, divided into somatic (voluntary) and visceral (involuntary) systems, somatic involved in sensation, visceral receives sensory information from organs, transmits information from PNS receptors to the CNS; Motor - efferent, sends motor information to effectors, somatic motor controls skeletal muscles, autonomic motor controls smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, Fx and type of information delivered from each system (sensory and motor) sympathetic/parasympathetic fall under this subdivision unipolar- begin in embryo as bipolar and fuse into a single process; multipolar- several dendrites and one axon, usually motor neurons or neurons in brain and spinal cord; bipolar- one main Draw a unipolar, bipolar, multipolar neuron - where to find each? dendrite and one axon, found in retina of eye, inner ear, and olfactory area of brain sensory - transmit AP from sensory receptors to CNS; motor - transmit AP from CNS to effectors (muscle or gland); interneurons - facilitate communication between sensory and motor neurons Functional classifications of neurons and how they fx together (3 classes) (found only in CNS) CNS - astrocytes (most abundant, form blood brain barrier, replace damaged neurons, form a structural network), ependymal cells (ciliated cuboidal epithelial cells that line brain ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord, produce cerebrospinal fluid), microglial cells (small, motile, Define the detailed fx of all of the various glial cells - distinguish between CNS and exhibit phagocytic activity while wandering through the CNS), oligodendrocytes (CNS axons only, PNS (4 types of cells) produce myelin); PNS - satellite cells, neurolemmocytes What is the composition of myelin and what function does it serve? myelinated vs multilayered lipid and protein covering, formed by schwann cells and oligodendrocytes, insulates nonmyelinated? axon of a neuron and increases speed of nerve impulse conduction cablelike bundle of parallel axons; endoneurium - separates individual axons, made of areolar CT; What is the basic structure of a nerve? What kind of tissue would you expect to find Perineurium - separates bundles of axons (fascicles), dense irregular CT; Epineurium - surrounds in each layer? entire nerve, dense irregular CT Chemical - junction between two neurons or neuron and effector in which an action potential is transmitted by the release of neurotransmitters (acetylcholine) from the presynaptic neuron into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptors on the postsynaptic cell; Electrical - electrical signals are transmitted directly between two neurons or a neuron and another cell through gap junctions, allow for instantaneous communication by allowing ions and small molecules to pass directly from Chemical vs electrical synapses - examples of each one cytoplasm to the other Spinal Cord & Spinal Nerves conduction of sensory and motor impulses: sensory input travels along posterior funiculi and spinthalamic tracts in white matter, motor output travels via direct/indirect pathways in the white What are the primary fx of the spinal cord and what are its major regions? matter, coordination for locomotion, reflexes (gray matter) cervical enlargement - extends from C4-T1, nerves to and from upper limbs arise from this enlargement; lumbosacral enlargement - T9-T12, nerves to and from lower limbs arise from lumbar enlargement; conus medullaris - tapered portion of spinal cord inferior to lumbar enlargement; Where do you see enlargements and termination of the spinal cord? cauda equina - tail-like array of roots of spinal nerves at the inferior end of the spinal cord white matter - myelinated axons that occur on the outer region of the cord and carries tracts to and from the brain called funiculi, gray matter- dendrites, cell bodies of neurons, unmyelinated axons, glial cells, forms an "x" or butterfly shape, consists of anterior/lateral/posterior horns, anterior = somatic motor nuclei that provide nerve impulses for contraction of skeletal muscles, posterior = contain cell bodies and axons of interneurons as well as axons of incoming sensory neurons, lateral gray horns = present only in thoracic, upper lumbar, and mid-sacral segments of spinal cord, contain cell bodies of autonomic motor nuclei that regulate activity of smooth muscle, cardiac Be able to define and draw gray/white matter, sx/fx of each region muscle, and glands Dorsal ramus = serves the deep muscles and skin of the lateral and anterior regions of the trunk; Define the pathway of dorsal and ventral rami in spinal nerves. What areas do each Ventral ramus = serves the muscles and structures of the upper and lower limbs and the muscles serve? and skin of the lateral and anterior regions of the trunk cervical plexus= nerve axons from ventral rami of the first 4 cervical nerves and receiving gray communicating rami from superior cervical ganglion; brachial plexus = nerve axons of ventral rami What are the different plexuses formed by the interweaving of anterior rami, and of spinal nerves C5-C8 and T1, nerves supply upper limb; lumbar plexus = ventral branches of L1-L4; what regions do they innervate? (4 plexuses) Sacral plexus = anterior rami of spinal nerves L4-S3 cervical plexus - C1-C5, innervates skin, muscles of neck, and diaphragm, phrenic nerve; brachial plexus - C5-T1, skin and muscles of of shoulder and arm; lumbar plexus - L1-L5, innervates skin and muscles of anterior and medial thigh; sacral plexus - L4-S4, innervates skin and posterior muscles of What are the major nerves associated with each plexus? the leg, thigh, foot, sciatic nerve specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve (except C1); dermatome map and referred What is a dermatome and how might referred pain be involved? pain monosynaptic - involves only one synapse between the sensory and motor neuron, patellar knee jerk reflex, stretch reflex = when a muscle is stretched, muscle spindles (sensory receptors) detect change in length, spindles send signals to to spinal cord, sensory neurons directly synapses with motor neuron, motor neuron sends impulse to muscle causing it to contract and counteract the initial stretch; polysynaptic - golgi tendon reflex, pretects from excessive tension, increased tension causes sensory neurons from golgi tendon organs to send signal to spinal cord, sensory neuron synapses with inhibitory interneuron which inhibits the muscle from contracting, prevents muscle Be able to draw and define the mono/polysynaptic reflexes - functions of these? or tendon damage from excessive force Muscle spindle - helps maintain muscle tone and posture by automatically regulating muscle length; Locations/fx of muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs Golgi tendon organ - prevents muscle or tendon damage from excessive force Stretch and golgi tendon organ reflexes - mono or polysynaptic? stimulus and response of each, examples of when these effects would be present see above answers Brain and Cranial Nerves Primary - prosencephalon (forebrain), mesencephalon (midbrain), rhombencephalon (hindbrain); Secondary - telencephalon (forms cerebrum), diencephalon (forms thalamus, hypothalamus, and Describe the primary vesicles of brain development and the secondary vesicles they epithalamus), mesencephalon, metencephalon (forms the pons and cerebellum), myelencephalon develop into within each secondary vesicle (forms medulla oblongata) Gray matter - motor/interneuron cell bodies, dendrites, telodendria, unmyelinated axons, forms Distinguish between white and gray matter and cerebral nuclei. Why do the colors cortex, cerebral nuclei located in discrete regions of gray matter deep to white matter; White matter vary and where are each type located? - myelinated axons, deep to gray matter Fx - 3 CT layers that separate soft tissue from cranium, enclose and protect blood vessels of brain, contain and circulate CSF, from veins that drain brain; Layers - dura mater (dense irregular CT, periosteal/meningeal), arachnoid mater (collagen and elastin), pia mater (delicate areolar CT); dural Describe the function of the cranial meninges and their associated layers - including venous sinuses run within margins of dural septa (superior sagittal sinus, inferior sagittal sinus, fx/sx of dural venous sinuses transverse sinuses, occipital sinus) Receiving venous blood- via cerebral veins; Receiving CSF - via arachnoid villi, CSF from How do the dural venous sinuses receive venous blood/excess CSF and how is it subarachnoid space flows into sinuses via arachnoid villi (valve like sxs), villi do not allow for drained from the cranium? backflow; Drainage - into jugular veins via sinuses Ventricles are cavities that contain CSF; 2 lateral ventricles located within cerebrum, 3rd ventricle at Describe the location and function of brain ventricles diencephalon, 4th ventricle between pons and cerebellum provides liquid cushion between the brain and cranium for sudden movements, transports nutrients and removes waste from the brain; Production - produced by choroid plexus of each ventricle, flows through ventricles and into subachronoid space via median and lateral apertures (some through central canal of spinal cord), flows through subachronoid space, CSF absorbed into What are the functions of the CSF? How is it produced? the dural venous sinuses via the arachnoid villi How is the BBB formed and what are its functions - why is this barrier so crucial for strictly regulates what can enter the interstitial fluids of the brain, formed by tight junctions function of the brain/neural tissue? between capillary endothelial cells Mesencephalon (midbrain) - sends signals to erector spinae to maintain posture, tectum (superior colliculus - visual reflexes, inferior colliculus - auditory reflexes), reticular activating system provides for consciousness; Pons - contains respiratory centers (pneumotaxic - rate, apneustic - depth), area for sound localization; Medulla Oblongata - inferior brainstem, communicate between brain and spinal cord, centers (cardiac, vasomotor - blood vessels, respiratory - influenced by pons), pyramids (most axons cross opposite side of body so each hemisphere controls opposite side of body); Cerebellum - 2nd largest part of brain, develops from metencephalon, left/right cerebellar hemispheres, balance/torso position, contains arbor vitae, functions (coordinates and fine tunes motor patterns, stores memories of movement patterns, maintains equilibrium and posture, Describe the major regions of the brainstem, their locations, and functions of each receives proprioceptive info for body positioning, monitors position of each joint and muscle tone) Epithalamus - posterior roof diencephalon, contains pineal gland that secretes melatonin and regulates circadian rhythm; Thalamus - paired oval masses of gray matter on each side of 3rd ventricle, contains interthalamic adhesion, sensory impulses from all conscious senses except olfaction converge here, sensory filter; Hypothalamus - anteroinferior region of diencephalon, Location and structure of diencephalon and fx of each infundibulum extends inferiorly to pituitary gland, major homeostatic center of brain Why is the hypothalamus considered the master control center of the ANS and endocrine systems? it's a major homeostatic center for the body and connects directly with pituitary gland develops from metencephalon, arranged in left and right hemispheres, arbor vitae; Fx - coordinates and fine tunes motor patterns, stores memories of movement patterns, maintains equilibrium and posture, receives proprioceptive info for body positioning, monitors position of each joint and What are the general fx of the cerebellum and where is it located? muscle tone  coordinates sensory input with motor commands, can send corrective signals to adjust muscle How is the cerebellum involved in 'fine tuning' movement? Do motor commands activity and plays a roel in learning/memory of motor skills; motor commands originate in the originate there? primary motor cortex in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe location and origin of intellectual fx, formed from telencephalon, contains a large number of neurons for complex analytical and integrative fx, white matter (association tracts - axons that conduct impulses between gyri in same hemisphere, commisural tracts - conduct from gyri in one Describe the major regions/sx of the cerebrum, functions, locations hemisphere to same gyri in other hemisphere, projection tracts - conduct to lower parts of CNS) Motor - primary motor cortex (somatic motor area, frontal lobe, voluntary skeletal muscle activity), motor speech area (frontal lobe, muscular movements for vocalization), frontal eye field (frontal Motor Association Area lobe, controls and regulates eye mvmts and binocular vision) conscious awareness of sensation, primary somatosensory cortex (parietal lobe, general somatic sensory, postcentral gyrus), primary visual cortex (occipital, receives and processes incoming visuals), primary auditory cortex (temporal, auditory info), primary gustatory cortex (insula lobe, Sensory Association Area taste), primary olfactory cortex (temporal, smell) premotor cortex (somatic motor association, frontal lobe, processes and coordinates memories of movement), somatosensory (parietal, integrates and interprets sensory info), auditory (temporal, sound characteristics and memories), visual (occipital, processes visual info), wernicke's area Association Areas (posterior language, parietal/temporal, recognizes and comprehends spoken/written language) Primary motor cortex fx and location frontal lobe, voluntary skeletal muscle activity, motor homunculus parietal lobe, general somatic sensory (touch, pressure, pain, temperature), postcentral gyrus, Primary sensory cortex fx and location sensory homunculus What are the sensory and motor homonculi and where are these regions located on sensory - postcentral gyrus; motor - primary motor cortex, where motor functions are activated at the brain? specific gyri of brain, largest areas for face and hands How do homonculi demonstrate the amount of brain tissue devoted to certain visual representations of the body mapped to demonstrate amount of brain tissue devoted to regions of the body? different body regions and show relative size according to level of control or sensitivity required Location/fx of other motor/sensory/association areas composed of multiple cerebral and diencephalic sxs that collectively process and experience emotions, affects memory formation through the integration of past memories of physical Fx/sx of limbic system sensations with emotional states; Tie-in - olfactory bulbs, tracts, cortex Name and number all 12 cranial nerves and fx of each see chart Autonomic Nervous System What are the basic fx of the ANS? regulation of involuntary bodily functions, 2 divisions working antagonistically What tissue in the body does the ANS target? cardiac and smooth muscle tissue collection of cell bodies outside the CNS, preganglionic - cell body that orginates in the brain or What is a ganglion? Preganglionic/postganglionic neurons? spinal cord (CNS, axon projects to PNS; postganglionic - cell bodies originate at ganglia PSYM- maintain homeostasis, decrease HR, increase digestive activity, controls sphincters, constriction of pupils, preganglionic neurons originate at craniosacral division and secrete Ach, postganglionic are shorter and secrete Ach; SYM - mobilizes body for response to emergencies or stress, increases HR, dilation of pupils, blood gets shunted to skeletal muscle and skin, increased respiratory rate, preganglionic neurons originate at thoracolumbar regions to secrete ACh, postganglionic neurons secrete norepinephrine and effects are typically excitatory, innervates Compare location/fx of sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions adrenal medulla What are the neurotransmitters utilized within each neural pathway? PSYM - ACh, SYM - Ach and norepinephrine How is the Vagus nerve involved in parasympathetic activity? controls most internal viscera What are the sympathetic chain ganglia, and how is the adrenal medulla involved in sympathetic chain ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies outside of CNS that initiate and sympathetic activity? coordinate body's response to external threats/stressors, adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine Endocrine System endocrine glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream, have an extensive distribution of many blood vessels, organs: pituitary gland, pineal gland, hypothalamus, thyroid, adrenal gland, pancreas, ovaries, testes; hormones can only affect target cells with a receptor for a particular What are the major features of the endocrine system? hormone How is negative/positive feedback controlled by the endocrine system? Which is Negative - response in opposite direction of initial response to reverse a change, most common; more common and why? Positive - response in same direction as initial response to accelerate change, rare acts as interface between nervous and endocrine systems, considered the master gland, controls and How does the hypthalamus influence endocrine activities? oversees most activities of the endocrine system anterior - controlled by regulatory hormones from hypothalamus via hypophyseal portal veins, 6 tropic and 1 non-tropic hormone is secreted via the anterior pituitary; posterior - neural connection between hypothalamus and posterior pituitary via hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract, has What are its influences on the anterior/posterior pituitary gland? neurosecretory neurons that originate in the hypothalamus follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, thyroid Hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland stimulating hormone, prolactin, growth hormone, melanocyte-stimulating hormone Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone Define the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system and tract. What are these portal system - regulatory hormones from hypothalamus travel to anterior pituitary via portal systems and how do they influence the endocrine system/hormone production? veins; tract - neural connection between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary Effects of all hormones released by the anterior and posterior pituitary gland. Why are most APG hormones tropic? see chart thyroid - follicle is the functional unit and is made up of thyroglobulin (simple cuboidal cells), when thyroid is stimulated TGB and iodine combine to create the hormone that is secreted into the bloodstream, parafollicular cells detect calcium concentrations in the blood and secrete calcitonin to lower blood calcium by activating osteoblasts; parathyroid - four small glands on posterior thyroid, monitor blood calcium and secrete parathyroid hormone to elevate blood calcium by activating Know the structures and basic functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands osteoclasts suprarenal glands, divided into adrenal cortex and medulla, adrenal cortex - zona glomerulosa (produce mineralcorticoids aka aldosterone to regulate BP/volume), zona fasciculata (produce glucocorticoids aka cortisol, major stress hormone), zona reticularis (produce sex hormones, Define the structural components of the adrenal glands and the hormones produced estrogen and testosterone related hormones); adrenal medulla - has chromaffin cells which are in the various regions of the gland. Basic effects of each of the hormones. modified cells of the sympathetic nervous system that secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla are modified sympathetic NS cells that secrete epinephrine and How are the adrenal glands and sympathetic nervous systems related? norepinephrine Describe the structure of the pancreas and associated exocrine/endocrine secretions 99% = pancreatic acini that produce exocrine secretions to aid in digestion, 1% = pancreatic islets, (which region/cells produce which secretions: alpha, beta, delta, F)). What are the secrete 4 different hormones: glucagon (alpha cells), insulin (beta cells), somatostatin (delta cells), effects of the hormones produced by the pancreas? pancreatic polypeptide (F cells); see chart for full details on hormones pineal gland - secretes melatonin which is involved in circadian rhythm and promotes sleep, located What are the effects of the pineal gland and the thymus? on posterior region of epithalamus; thymus - regulates immunity Understand the other organs with various endocrine fx and the respective hormones kidney = calcitriol and erythropoietin; heart = atriopeptin; GI tract = digestive hormones; ovaries = they release estrogen, progesterone, inhibin; testes = androgens (testosterone), inhibin Introduction Define Anatomy study of body structure Types of anatomy comparative, regional, systemic, surface, embryology, developmental Define Physiology study of body function What is the hierarchy of organization? atom, molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism atom = made up of an element (singular), molecule = 2 or more atoms, cell = many molecules, tissue = group of cells (4 types of tissues), organ = 2 or more tissues, organ system List characteristics for each of the categories of organization = related organs with a common function Metabolism