Final Practice Exam Key Fall 2024 PDF
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2024
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This is a practice exam key for a course on communication variations across the lifespan. It includes multiple-choice questions and answers, covering topics such as the Zone of Proximal Development, presbycusis, and adapting communication for individuals with hearing loss. The exam seems to focus on communication with elderly individuals and those with cognitive or language impairments.
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SPLP 1312 Communication Variations Across the Lifespan Fall 2024 _______________________________________________________ ____________________________ Name ID number Practice Exam Key 1. What is...
SPLP 1312 Communication Variations Across the Lifespan Fall 2024 _______________________________________________________ ____________________________ Name ID number Practice Exam Key 1. What is the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) in Vygotsky’s Social Interactionist Theory? A. The period when children naturally develop language without external help B. The range of tasks a child can perform independently C. The range of tasks a child can perform with guidance from others D. The critical period for language acquisition Answer: C 2. What is one common reason people may hesitate to communicate with elderly individuals? A. Lack of shared interests B. Belief that the elderly are always cheerful C. Fear of being criticized D. Overconfidence in their communication skills Answer: A 3. What is presbycusis? A. Age-related vision loss B. A fear of aging C. Age-related hearing loss D. Cognitive decline due to dementia Answer: C 4. Which of the following is an example of adapting communication for someone with hearing loss? A. Speaking louder and faster B. Avoiding nonverbal cues C. Speaking clearly and facing the individual D. Using complex language to ensure understanding Answer: C 5. What is a common fear associated with communication with elderly individuals? A. Being perceived as too formal B. Addressing topics that remind the younger person of their own aging C. Discussing technology-related topics D. Feeling out of touch with cultural trends Answer: B 6. Why might simplifying language be necessary when communicating with the elderly? A. To match their educational level B. To address cognitive or processing challenges C. To avoid condescension D. To ensure they feel respected Answer: B 7. What is a recommended strategy when speaking with someone with dementia? A. Frequently correcting their mistakes to improve accuracy B. Using nonverbal cues to complement verbal communication C. Avoiding repetition to prevent frustration D. Using abstract and open-ended questions Answer: B 8. What can contribute to a young person’s discomfort when communicating with elderly individuals? A. Their reliance on nonverbal cues B. Fear of using formal language C. Stereotypes and misconceptions about aging D. Lack of experience with young children Answer: C 9. Which of the following is a behavior often associated with dementia that affects communication? A. Excessive use of slang B. Impulsivity or inappropriate responses C. Speaking too quickly for others to understand D. Preferring written communication over verbal Answer: B 10.What is a useful technique for caregivers to maintain effective communication with individuals with cognitive impairments? A. Avoiding discussions about feelings or emotions B. Using reflective listening to validate understanding C. Correcting inaccuracies in their statements immediately D. Speaking in abstract and generalized terms Answer: B 11.Why is creating a comfortable communication environment important for elderly individuals? A. To minimize distractions and help them focus B. To encourage faster responses C. To reduce the use of nonverbal cues D. To test their ability to adapt to difficult settings Answer: A 12.What is the purpose of early writing systems like cuneiform and hieroglyphs? A. Entertainment B. Administrative record-keeping C. Casual communication D. Artistic expression only Answer: B 13.Which of the following best describes functional illiteracy? A. Total inability to read or write B. Difficulty with basic reading and writing tasks needed for daily life C. Fluency in reading but difficulty in comprehension D. Inability to decode phonemes Answer: B 14.What percentage of adults in the U.S. read below a 6th-grade level? A. 21% B. 43% C. 54% D. 75% Answer: C 15.What is the "Matthew Effect" in literacy? A. The ability to recover reading skills after intervention B. A widening gap between strong and struggling readers over time C. The belief that reading is easier for boys than girls D. A preference for math over literacy development Answer: B 16.According to the Simple View of Reading, what two skills are essential for reading comprehension? A. Fluency and speed B. Decoding and language comprehension C. Vocabulary and memorization D. Syntax and writing skills Answer: B 17.What is dyslexia primarily characterized by? A. Difficulties with spoken language comprehension B. Challenges with decoding, word recognition, and spelling C. Lack of motivation for reading D. Impaired grammar and syntax use Answer: B 18.Which of the following is a strength commonly associated with individuals with dyslexia? A. Exceptional phonological processing B. Big-picture thinking and creativity C. Advanced decoding skills D. Early reading fluency Answer: B 19.What is a key benefit of intrinsic motivation for reading? A. It ensures students receive rewards for their efforts. B. It fosters deep engagement and long-term reading habits. C. It reduces the need for guided instruction. D. It limits reading to enjoyable texts only. Answer: B 20.Which historical writing system is still undeciphered? A. Cuneiform B. Maya script C. Hieroglyphs D. Indus script Answer: D 21.What does health literacy involve? A. Reading medical literature fluently B. Understanding and applying health-related information C. Memorizing medical terminology D. Writing health-related documents Answer: B 22.What does the term "spectrum" in Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) indicate? A. It refers to the emotional range of individuals with ASD. B. It describes the wide variation in symptoms and support needs. C. It highlights the age of onset for autism. D. It focuses on a specific set of behaviors common to all individuals with ASD. Answer: B 23.Which of the following is NOT a core diagnostic criterion for ASD according to the DSM-5? A. Persistent deficits in social communication B. Restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior C. Hyperactivity and impulsivity D. Symptoms present in the early developmental period Answer: C 24.Which level of ASD severity requires the most substantial support? A. Level 1 B. Level 2 C. Level 3 D. Level 4 Answer: C 25.Which of the following is an example of echolalia? A. Stuttering during stressful situations B. Repeating words or phrases heard from others C. Mispronouncing words due to articulation difficulties D. Avoiding conversations in social settings Answer: B 26.What is a common characteristic of individuals with ASD who have hyper-reactivity to sensory input? A. Seeking loud and chaotic environments B. Covering their ears to block out loud noises C. Ignoring extreme sensory stimuli D. Showing no reaction to sensory overload Answer: B 27.What type of communication tool is often used for nonverbal or minimally verbal individuals with ASD? A. Written language exercises B. Augmentative and Alternative Communication (AAC) devices C. Picture books with short sentences D. Group speech therapy sessions Answer: B 28.What is one of the main goals of the Picture Exchange Communication System (PECS) for individuals with ASD? A. To develop complex sentence structures B. To enhance their ability to request items or express needs C. To teach proper pronunciation of words D. To reduce repetitive behaviors Answer: B 29.What is a common neurological finding in individuals with ASD? A. Overgrowth in early brain development B. Reduced neurotransmitter activity in the brainstem C. Increased activity in the occipital lobe D. A larger corpus callosum Answer: A 30.Which maternal health condition during pregnancy is associated with a higher risk of ASD? A. High blood pressure B. Low blood sugar C. Gestational diabetes D. Both A and C Answer: D 31.Which of the following is a goal of parent and caregiver training in autism intervention? A. To replace therapists in delivering interventions B. To help parents implement strategies for communication and reinforce skills in daily life C. To reduce their involvement in the therapeutic process D. To emphasize only academic goals over social development Answer: B 32.What is the primary foundation for how individuals relate to others later in life, according to attachment theory? A. Peer relationships B. Caregiver responsiveness and consistency C. Life events during adolescence D. Genetic predispositions Answer: B 33. What is the primary purpose of AAC? A. To replace all forms of verbal communication B. To enhance communication and improve quality of life C. To simplify language use for individuals with hearing loss D. To teach sign language to all individuals with speech impairments Answer: B 34. Which of the following is an example of unaided AAC? A. Picture boards B. Eye-tracking devices C. Gestures like pointing or waving D. Speech-generating devices Answer: C 35. Which population is most likely to benefit from AAC? A. Individuals with hearing loss only B. Anyone with speech or language impairments, temporary or permanent C. Adults with no cognitive impairments D. Individuals who prefer sign language exclusively Answer: B 36. What is a common misconception about AAC? A. AAC hinders speech development B. AAC is only for people who cannot speak at all C. AAC is a last resort after all other options fail D. All of the above Answer: D 37. What does a high-tech AAC device typically include? A. Static picture boards B. Dynamic touchscreens with changing menus C. Basic alphabet charts D. Manual gestures for communication Answer: B 38. Which of the following is a key component of an AAC system? A. Motor skills B. Output methods like synthesized speech C. Cognitive ability to memorize speech patterns D. Exclusive reliance on manual communication Answer: B 39. What should caregivers focus on when introducing AAC? A. Ensuring that the device works perfectly before use B. Training the individual to use AAC effectively in daily life C. Limiting AAC use to formal therapy sessions D. Avoiding involvement in the user's learning process Answer: B 40. What is one major challenge in AAC implementation? A. Overuse of the device in social settings B. Limited accessibility to funding or insurance coverage C. Inability to create individualized symbols D. Reduced independence for users Answer: B 41. How does predictive text in AAC devices help users? A. By simplifying the vocabulary available B. By reducing the need for typing or selection effort C. By limiting the length of messages D. By encouraging reliance on caregivers Answer: B 42. What is the best way to communicate with someone using AAC? A. Speak to their caregiver or interpreter instead of them B. Allow extra time for them to formulate their responses C. Simplify your language excessively to ensure understanding D. Avoid making eye contact to reduce pressure Answer: B 43.At what age do infants typically begin to exhibit stranger anxiety and separation distress? A. 0-6 months B. 6-12 months C. 12-24 months D. 2-3 years Answer: B 44.What is the purpose of an internal working model in attachment theory? A. To develop physical boundaries B. To build a secure base for exploration C. To serve as a mental blueprint for relationships D. To create emotional distance from caregivers Answer: C 45.Which attachment style is characterized by discomfort with emotional closeness and a preference for independence? A. Secure attachment B. Anxious attachment C. Avoidant attachment D. Fearful-avoidant attachment Answer: C 46.Which of the following is a typical communication trait of someone with an anxious attachment style? A. Avoiding deep conversations B. Giving and receiving feedback comfortably C. Seeking frequent reassurance and validation D. Using mixed signals during communication Answer: C 47.What is a common impact of trauma on communication? A. Greater openness to discussing difficult topics B. Heightened sensitivity to triggers C. Improved ability to resolve conflicts D. Reduced reliance on verbal communication Answer: B 48.What behavior might a trauma survivor exhibit as part of the 'freeze' response during communication? A. Becoming defensive or argumentative B. Physically leaving the conversation C. Becoming non-verbal or dissociating D. Over-accommodating the other person Answer: C 49.Which nonverbal coping mechanism involves creating a physical boundary to feel safer in communication? A. Avoiding eye contact B. Placing objects on a table C. Using exaggerated gestures D. Crossing arms Answer: B 50.What is a key goal of trauma-informed communication? A. To teach individuals to suppress triggers B. To avoid emotional engagement altogether C. To create a safe and supportive environment D. To encourage emotional detachment from others Answer: C 51.How can secure individuals support communication with people who have insecure attachment styles? A. By avoiding deep conversations to prevent distress B. By offering consistent reassurance and active listening C. By mirroring their partner’s communication style D. By avoiding discussions about vulnerabilities Answer: B 52.What is the term for the stage when children use single words to represent entire thoughts or sentences? A. Babbling B. Holophrastic stage C. Multi-word stage D. Pre-linguistic stage Answer: B 53.During which age range does the critical period for first language acquisition typically occur? A. Birth to 1 year B. 2 to 6 years C. Birth to around 5 years D. 5 to 10 years Answer: C 54.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the pre-linguistic stage of language development? A. Cooing B. Babbling C. Combining words into sentences D. Gestural communication Answer: C 55.What is a holophrase in child language development? A. A repeated sound pattern with no meaning B. A single word that expresses a complete thought C. A gesture used to supplement speech D. A sentence with basic grammatical errors Answer: B 56.Which theory of language acquisition emphasizes the role of innate biological mechanisms? A. Social Interactionist Theory B. Cognitive Development Theory C. Nativist Theory D. Learning Theory Answer: C 57.Which of the following best describes the “30-million-word gap” identified in the Hart and Risley study? A. The gap in vocabulary size between children from bilingual and monolingual families B. The difference in words heard by children from high- and low-income families by age 3 C. The number of words children learn through structured classroom activities D. The total words learned during the critical period for language acquisition Answer: B 58.Which of the following is a cognitive benefit of bilingualism? A. Reduced need for intervention in early language delays B. Enhanced executive function and problem-solving skills C. Faster acquisition of grammatical rules in one language D. Stronger reliance on rote memorization for vocabulary Answer: B 59.What did the case of Genie primarily illustrate about language acquisition? A. Language acquisition is unaffected by social interaction. B. Early exposure to language is essential for grammar and syntax development. C. Vocabulary can develop without a critical period. D. Language learning is not biologically constrained. Answer: B 60.Which stage of language development is characterized by the use of plurals, conjunctions, and complex sentence structures? A. Holophrastic stage B. Two-word stage C. Early multi-word stage D. Later multi-word stage Answer: D