Microbiology Exam PDF

Which of the following statements about viruses is true? Viruses are autotrophs The viral capsid is made up of carbohydrates The viral envelope does not contain any protein Viruses can grow in cell culture Viruses cannot replicate without the golgi apparatus Which of the following assays measu...

Which of the following statements about viruses is true? Viruses are autotrophs The viral capsid is made up of carbohydrates The viral envelope does not contain any protein Viruses can grow in cell culture Viruses cannot replicate without the golgi apparatus Which of the following assays measures infectious viruses? Hemagglutination assay Electron microscopy Plaque assay Measuring viral enzymes Serological methods What do scientists look at when attempting to detect the cytopathic effect of viruses? Formation of cell nuclear enveloped, decreased cell cytoplasm Cell detachment and destruction Cell swelling with transformation into a phagocyte Speed of cell replication Visible change on light microscope What is the difference between infectivity assays and viral assays? Infectivity assays measure how many viral particles are present Viral assays measure how many viral particles are present Infectivity assays measure the viral load Viral assays measure how many particles can infect the host Viral assays measure the ability to produce disease in the host Which of the following cultures are used to grow viruses in laboratories? Blood culture Dextrose culture TSA culture Spinner culture Sabouraud's culture Which effect causes most cells breakdown during viral replication? Mitochondrial effect Cytopathic effect Warburg’s effect Von Willebrand effect Virotic effect How can viruses in a sample be measured? By Dextrose culture By Monolayer culture By Spinner culture TSA culture By measuring infectivity of the virus Which family of viruses infects almost all of the human population but causes disease only in immunocompromised patients? Poxviridae Polyomaviridae Papillomaviridae Adenoviridae Herpesviridae What do DNA viruses employ as a template to make mRNA? DNA-RNA composite strands  Gapped DNA Single-stranded RNA Double-stranded DNA Single-stranded DNA Which virus family is responsible for cervical and genital cancers? Herpesviridae Poxviridae Adenoviridae Polyomaviridae Papillomaviridae Repair of gapped DNA occurs in which organelle? Nucleus Endoplasmic reticulum Mitochondria Lysosomes Golgi Appratus Without the enzyme reverse transcriptase, what step in the replication process of gapped DNA viruses cannot happen? Destabilization of tRNA will occur DNA will not be cleaved into pieces mRNA will not be converted to protein Positive strand of RNA will NOT be converted to a negative strand of DNA. Mitochondria of the cell will stop working In gapped double-stranded DNA genome, what is the structure of the portion referred to as the "gap"? Single-stranded positive-sense DNA Double-stranded DNA without histones  Single-stranded negative-sense RNA Single-stranded negative-sense DNA Without the enzyme reverse transcriptase, what step in the replication process of gapped DNA viruses cannot happen? Destabilization of tRNA will occur DNA will not be cleaved into pieces Positive strand of RNA will NOT be converted to a negative strand of DNA. Mitochondria of the cell will stop working mRNA will not be converted to protein Which viral DNA genome can be immediately copied into mRNA upon entry into the cell? Linear ssDNA Gapped dsDNA Circular ssDNA dsDNA Which of the following is a ssDNA virus with a small, circular genome? Herpesviridae Polyomaviridae Poxviridae Adenoviridae Circoviridae Parvoviruses cause which of the following diseases in humans? Hepatitis Tuberculosis Fifth disease  Tumors Warts A researcher is able to isolate the RNA genome of a pathogen that is responsible for a wide-spread disease. Which kind of organism is this pathogen most likely to be? Eukaryotic Bacteria Prokaryotic bacteria Fungi Virus Parasites Normal animal cells can NOT directly replicate RNA molecules because they lack which of the following enzymes? Na+ /K+ -ATPase DNA dependent DNA polymerase DNA dependent RNA polymerase RNA dependent DNA polymerase RNA dependent RNA polymerase hich of the following statements regarding the genome of double-stranded RNA viruses is TRUE? Viruses have non segmented genomes overlapping segmented genomes Viruses have non-segmented genomes Viruses have segmented genomes Viruses have partially segmented genomes Viruses have a composite of segmented and non-segmented genomes Which family of viruses is most commonly associated with jaundice and liver disease? Cliciviridae Picornaviridae Coronaviridae Togaviridae Flaviviridae What kind of genome must a virus be composed of for it to be able to replicate without carrying its own polymerase? Double-stranded mRNA Positive sense mRNA Gap strand mrNA Negative sense mRNA What is the size range of the genomes of viruses in the Coronaviridae family? 28 to 40kb 22 to 30 kb 33 to 36kb 28 to 33 kb 24 to 28 kb What is a unique characteristic of the genome of members of the Flaviviridae that is not shared by other single-stranded +RNA viruses? They do not have a poly A at the 3 prime end They have a poly A at the 5 prime end They are composed of only the positive-strand They have a cap at the 3 prime end Which of the following statements regarding viral RNA genomes is correct? Positive sense single stranded RNA virus replication cycles do not require a negative strand intermediate Double-stranded RNA genomes can be directly translated to make viral protein by ribosomes Positive sense single-stranded RNA genomes may be translated directly by the host cell ribosomes to make viral protein RNA genomes can be copied by host cell RNA-dependent RNA polymerases The positive sense RNA strand of a double stranded RNA virus has the sole purpose of serving as a template for viral replication Ebolaviruses belong to which of the following families? Filoviridae Arenaviridae Mumps viruses Orthomyxoviridae Paramyxoviruses Presence of which enzyme is essential for the synthesis of viral proteins by Orthomyxoviridae? Golgi apparatus Lysosome Mitochondria Endoplasmic reticulum Polymerase New strains of influenza arise frequently because of which of the following processes? Loss of cellular energy Reassortment Extensive replication  Misfolding of viral proteins Genetic breakdown Why are ambisense genomes so named? Their minus-strand cannot be cleaved by endonucleases Their minus strand is used to make NP mRNA They have both plus and minus strand polarities They have predominantly minus-stranded genome, but they carry some plus- stranded DNA They have predominantly plus-stranded genome, but they carry some minus- stranded DNA Which of the following methods can NOT be used for the physical measurement of viral particles? Hemagglutination Viral enzymes measurement Crown heel length measurement Serologic techniques Electron microscopy Which of the following statements regarding viruses is true? Viruses are autotrophs by nature Viruses cannot replicate without golgi apparatus Viral envelop does not contain any protein Viral capsid is made up of carbohydrates in nature Viruses cannot synthesize their own proteins In the Hershey-Chase experiment what was used to label viral particles? Globulin proteins Human hormones CA-125 Tumor markers Radioactive isotopes Which of the following is TRUE about Streptococcus pneumoniae vaccines? The vaccines commonly in use today protect against all known strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae. There are 4 different vaccine strains, each catering to the bacteria most likely to infect the subgroup they are intended for (children, adults, the elderly, and the immunocompromised). There is one vaccine that can be given to all patients regarding of age to prevent contracting pneumococcal pneumonia. A child inoculated with a pneumococcal vaccine will need to receive a booster as an adult to remain protected. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine should be administered to adults previously unimmunized for S. pneumoniae. Which of the following is the bacterial pathogen most commonly found in cases of community acquired pneumonia? Group B Streptococci Streptococcus pneumoniae Staphylococcus epidermidis Group A Streptococci Staphylococcus aureus Which of the following pathological features caused by smoking puts smokers at increased risk for pneumococcal lung infections? Decreased CRP Decreased phagocyte activation Increased incidence of colonization Decreased ciliary elevator activity Increased respiratory secretions Secretory diarrhea is primarily transmitted to humans via which of the following? Respiratory droplets Contaminated food and water Through a wound or break in the skin  Contact with farm animals Fomites Pathogens that cause secretory diarrhea have toxins that effect electrolyte transport in the gut lumen in which of the following ways? Increased Na absorption, Increased Cl secretion Increased Na absorption, decreased Cl secretion Decreased Na absorption, increased Cl secretion Increased Cl absorption, decreased Na secretion Decreased Cl absorption, increased Na secretion A scientist develops a form of V. cholerae that can produce cholera toxin but does not cause disease. Which of the following structures is likely missing from this strain of bacteria? Pili LPS Cell wall Membrane bound organelles Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the cholera toxin? Degrades adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP ADP-ribosylation of Gi receptor Increased adenylate cyclase activity, increasing cAMP Inhibits Gs receptor Cell lysis via electrolyte shift What is the most dangerous complication of a cholera infection? Severe dehydration Hypernatremia Intestinal rupture Massive blood loss  Ischemic bowel One of the underlying causes of the recent outbreak of cholera in Haiti in 2010 was which of the following? An earthquake that brought up contaminate water Contaminated oral rehydration therapy Spread of the disease by asymptomatic carriers Contaminated food products A new water filtration system Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of urinary tract infections? Salmonella S. aureus Shigella V. cholera E. coli What is the morphology of E. coli? Gram positive bacillus Gram negative cocci Gram positive rod Gram positive spirochete Gram negative rod Which of the following is NOT a common causes of E. coli infection? Contaminated drinking water Contaminated respiratory droplets Contaminated irrigation of fruits and vegetables Manure contamination of food Improper food preparation/handling Travelers' diarrhea is most commonly caused by which of the following? EPEC EHEC V. cholerae ETEC EAggEC What is the mechanism of action of LT enterotoxin? Decreases Cl absorption, increases Na secretion Decreases secretion of fluids and electrolytes, leading to cell lysis Increases levels of cGMP into the intestine Inhibits the 60s subunit of ribosomes Activates adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP concentrations Which of the following is the correct pairing of ETEC enterotoxins with their pathologic effect? ST toxin — increased cGMP; LT toxin — increased cAMP ST toxin — decreased cAMP; LT toxin — decreased cGMP ST toxin — decreased cGMP; LT toxin — increased cAMP ST toxin — increased cGMP; LT toxin — decreased cAMP ST toxin — increased cAMP; LT toxin — increased cGMP What is the pathogenesis of EPEC is mediated by? Intimin LT toxin Pili Shiga-like toxin ST toxin Which of the following toxins is associated with VTEC?  ST toxin Cholera toxin Shiga toxin LT toxin Intimin Which of the following is NOT associated with EHEC serotype O157:H7? Travelers diarrhea Contaminated water HUS Undercooked hamburger meat Shiga toxin Which of the following symptoms is NOT seen with hemolytic uremic syndrome? Kidney failure Thrombocytopenia Small blood vessel damage Lysis of red blood cells Bloody sputum An HIV-positive patient residing in a developing country would be most susceptible to which of the following pathogens? EAEC EHEC EPEC ETEC EIEC EAggEC produces a toxin that does which of the following? Acts like ETEC LT toxin Acts like cholera toxin  Acts like Shiga toxin Increases cAMP in the enterocyte Increases cGMP in the enterocyte The presence of blood in dysenteric diarrhea is due to which of the following? Stimulation of angiogenesis Production of enterotoxins Bacterial pili adhesion Biofilm formation Invasion into enterocytes with damage to mucosa Shigella invades the host through which of the following mechanisms? Phagocytosis via luminal macrophages Receptor mediated endocytosis Epithelial cell destruction and invasion Pili adhesion Enteric M cell invasion Which of the following describes the pathological mechanism of action of a Shiga toxin? Prevents formation of the mammalian 30s ribosomal subunit Increases intracellular cGMP Cleaves mammalian 60s ribsosomal subunit Decreases absorption of Na, increases secretion of Cl Increases protein synthesis What is the name of the disease caused by the systemic spread of a salmonella species? Typhoid fever Hemolytic uremic syndrome Travelers diarrhea  Cholera Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura Which of the following organisms is closely associated with osteomyelitis in patients with Sickle Cell disease? V. cholera EHEC EAggEC Salmonella Shigella During the incubation period of a systemic salmonella infection, replication of salmonella can be found in the macrophages of which organ? Gallbladder Brain Liver Kidney Large intestine Chronic carriers most often carry colonization of salmonella in which of the following organs? Gallbladder Liver Kidney Spleen Small intestine What is the name of the disease caused by the systemic spread of a salmonella species? Hemolytic uremic syndrome Travelers diarrhea  Cholera Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura Typhoid fever Which of the following species belonging to the Bacillus genus is most likely to be implicated if a patient presents with 'reheated rice syndrome'? Bacillus mycoides Bacillus thuringiensis Bacillus anthracis Bacillus cereus Bacillus subtilis Which of the following refers to the pathogenic mechanism of action of the edema factor produced by Bacillus anthracis? Increase in cyclic AMP Increase in cyclic GMP Cleavage of phosphokinase Decrease in cyclic AMP Decrease in cyclic GMP Which of the following is responsible for the manifestation of rapid-onset, excessive vomiting in patients infected with Bacillus cereus? Heat-labile enterotoxin Protective factor Edema factor Lethal factor Heat-stable enterotoxin Which of the following characteristic findings is observed on blood agar when growing a specimen obtained from an individual infected with Bacillus anthracis? Alpha-hemolysis  Beta-hemolysis Pinpoint colonies Medusa-head colonies Double-zone hemolysis Which of the following brings about the cleavage of phosphokinase in the cells of a patient who has cutaneous anthrax? Edema factor Protective factor Heat-labile exotoxin Heat-stable exotoxin Lethal factor Food poisoning manifesting as nausea, abdominal cramps, and excessive vomiting due to infection with Bacillus cereus usually develops within how many hours after ingestion of the contaminated food? Within 5 hours Within 24 hours Within 12 hours Within 8 hours Within 18 hours The shape of the endospores formed by Clostridium species is characteristically......needle-like....bullet-like....polyhedral....brick-like....spherical. Gram staining of a specimen obtained from an individual infected with Clostridium species shows which of the following? Gram-positive cocci Gram-negative cocci Gram-negative spirochetes Gram-negative rods  Gram-positive rods Which of the following subtypes of Clostridium perfringens is regarded as the most virulent? Subtype D Subtype E Subtype C Subtype A Subtype B Adhesion factor produced by Clostridium difficile helps the bacteria bind to the cells of which of the following parts of the gastrointestinal tract? Rectum Ileum Stomach Colon Duodenum The pathophysiology of tetany is best explained as the inhibition of release of which of the following neurotransmitters by tetanospasmin? Glutamate and serotonin Histamine γ-aminobutyric acid and glycine Acetylcholine Epinephrine and norepinephrine The botulinum toxin produces flaccid paralysis primarily by blocking the release of which of the following neurotransmitters? Epinephrine and norepinephrine Glutamate and serotonin Acetylcholine γ-aminobutyric acid and glycine Histamine Which disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi? Sickle cell disease Celiac disease Lyme disease Graves disease Addison disease What is a common reservoir for Borrelia burgdorferi? Cow Sheep White‐footed mouse Mosquito Goat The life cycle of Borrelia burgdorferi takes how long to complete? 3 months 3 weeks 6 weeks 6 months 3 years Ticks in which two stages can transmit Borrelia burgdorferi to humans? Nymph and larval stages Adult and larval stages Larval and egg stages Nymph and adult stages Nymph and egg stages When does erythema chronicum migrans develop in the patients with untreated Lyme disease? 3–30 weeks after tick bite 3–30 days after tick bite 2–20 hours after tick bite 2–20 weeks after tick bite 2–20 days after tick bite Which major manifestation in the patients with Lyme disease has the longest duration? Cardiac dysfunction Migratory polyarthritis Severe fatigue and malaise Neurological disorders Erythema chronicum migrans Which is the most common cardiac dysfunction seen in the patients with untreated Lyme disease? Mitral valve prolapse Endocarditis Aortic valve stenosis Cardiomegaly Atrioventricular block Lyme disease in pregnant women and children can be treated by which antibiotic? Ceftriaxone Ciprofloxacin Gentamicin Cefuroxime Doxycycline What is the duration of the afebrile phase in relapsing fever? 1 day 2 weeks 1 month 2 days 1 week Relapsing fever with single relapse is typically associated with which Borrelia species? Borrelia burgdorferi Borrelia mayonii Borrelia hermsii Borrelia afzelii Borrelia recurrentis What is the severe form of leptospirosis caused by Leptospira interrogans? Adams‐Stokes syndrome DiGeorge syndrome Weil syndrome Crigler‐Najjar syndrome Brown‐Séquard syndrome Dysfunction of which organs can be seen in Weil syndrome? Liver and heart Liver and kidneys Lungs and heart Heart and kidneys Lungs and kidneys Diagnosis of Leptospira interrogans infection can be made by examining which fluid of the body? Blood Urine Saliva Gastric juice Semen Which of the following features describe the elementary body form of Chlamydia? Extracellular, infectious, and nonresistant Extracellular, noninfectious, and resistant Intracellular, noninfectious, and nonresistant Extracellular, infectious, and resistant Intracellular, infectious, and resistant Inclusion bodies of Chlamydia trachomatis can be seen by which stain? PAS stain Romanowsky stain Silver stain Gram stain Iodine stain Chlamydia trachomatis can be differentiated from other forms of Chlamydia on the basis of sensitivity to which antibiotic? Macrolides Sulfonamides Tetracyclines Aminoglycosides Penicillin What type of stain is used to identify Chlamydia trachomatis? Iodine stain Romanowsky stain Gram stain PAS stain Silver stain Which system of the body is the most common target of Chlamydia trachomatis? Respiratory system Gastrointestinal system Integumentary system Cardiovascular system Genitourinary system In female patients, what is the presentation of urogenital infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis? Cervicitis, urethritis, and gastritis Appendicitis, salpingitis, and gastritis Urethritis, salpingitis, and cervicitis Urethritis, salpingitis, and gastritis Urethritis, appendicitis, and salpingitis Which type of ocular infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis in adults? Keratitis Blepharitis Keratoconjunctivitis Conjunctivitis Endophthalmitis Which of the following represents the classic triad of Reiter syndrome? Vaginitis, blepharitis, and arthritis Arthritis, blepharitis, and uveitis Urethritis, vaginitis, and arthritis Arthritis, urethritis, and uveitis Arthritis, uveitis, and vaginitis Which neonatal infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis 2–3 weeks after birth? Emphysema Bronchitis Bronchiectasis Asthma Pneumonia What is the drug of choice for lymphogranuloma venereum caused by Chlamydia trachomatis? Gentamicin Ceftriaxone Ampicillin Penicillin Doxycycline Which disease is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci? Valley fever Parrot fever Cat scratch disease Mad cow disease Rabbit fever Chlamydophila pneumoniae is strongly associated with which disease? Arrhythmia Mitral valve stenosis Cardiomyopathy Congestive heart failure Coronary artery disease Which of the following represents the classic triad of symptoms in Rocky Mountain spotted fever caused by Rickettsia rickettsii? Headache, fever, and inward‐spreading maculopapular rash Headache, fever, and outward‐spreading macular rash Headache, fever, and inward‐spreading macular rash Headache, fever, and outward‐spreading papular rash Headache, fever, and inward‐spreading papular rash Migratory polyarthritis and outward‐spreading macular rash can be seen in which rickettsial infection? Epidemic typhus Rocky Mountain spotted fever Endemic typhus Q fever Rickettsialpox Maculopapular rash in endemic typhus caused by Rickettsia typhi can be found on which part of the body? Back Feet Face Hands Trunk Which type of rash is associated with rickettsialpox caused by infection with Rickettsia akari? Vesicular rash Papular rash Macular rash Maculopapular rash Papulovesicular rash Granulomatous hepatitis is associated with which rickettsial infection? Rickettsialpox Endemic typhus Ehrlichiosis Q fever Epidemic typhus Mulberry‐like inclusions in monocytes can be found in which rickettsial infection? Q fever Rocky Mountain spotted fever Ehrlichiosis Endemic typhus Cat scratch fever Which of the following features best describe Mycoplasma species? Largest bacteria, lack peptidoglycan, and require sterols for growth Smallest bacteria, have peptidoglycan, and require sterols for growth Smallest bacteria, have peptidoglycan, and require nitrogen for growth Largest bacteria, lack peptidoglycan, and require nitrogen for growth Smallest bacteria, lack peptidoglycan, and require sterols for growth Mycoplasma pneumoniae initiates pathogenesis by releasing which compound? Nitrogen Hydrogen peroxide Carbon monoxide Oxygen Carbon dioxide Atypical pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae commonly affects which individuals? Sailors Fishermen Military recruits Office workers Nurses Which of the following symptoms represent atypical pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae? Nonproductive cough, rhonchi, and myalgia Nonproductive cough, rhonchi, and arthralgia Productive cough, wheezing, and arthralgia Productive cough, rhonchi, and arthralgia Nonproductive cough, wheezing, and myalgia Which of the following features differentiates infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae from pneumococcal infection? Preceding pharyngitis Cough Fever Association with otitis media Infiltrates on chest X‐ray Which of the following is a complication of atypical pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae? Erythema multiforme Otitis externa Meningitis Bacteremia Endocarditis Which type of lymph nodes are involved in tracheobronchitis caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae? Inguinal lymph nodes Submandibular lymph nodes Axillary lymph nodes Cervical lymph nodes Mediastinal lymph nodes Pharyngitis caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae is associated with which autoimmune disease? Systemic lupus erythematosus Myasthenia gravis Guillain‐Barré syndrome Rheumatoid arthritis Graves disease Mycoplasma pneumoniae binds to the respiratory epithelial cells by which protein? P1 adhesin protein Lipoproteins Phosphoproteins P2 adhesin protein P4 adhesin protein Colonies of which type are formed by Mycoplasma hominis on culture media? Filamentous colonies Mucoid colonies Colonies with fried egg appearance Purple colonies Brittle colonies Dysuria along with the presence of yellow mucoid discharge indicates which infection by Ureaplasma urealyticum? Prostatitis Vaginitis Gonococcal urethritis Non‐gonococcal urethritis Cervicitis Which of the following is a complication of non‐gonococcal urethritis caused by Ureaplasma urealyticum during pregnancy? Multicystic dysplastic kidney Chorioamnionitis Renal agenesis Potter sequence Hemolytic disease of the newborn  Which disease is caused by Clostridium botulinum in infant - Fragile X syndrom - Erythroblastosis fetali - Down syndrom - Floppy baby syndrom - Neuro bromatosi Foul-smelling diarrhea is a characteristic feature of which disease caused by Clostridium dif cile? - Crohn's diseas - Ulcerative coliti - Food poisonin - Necrotizing enterocoliti - Pseudomembranous coliti Hemorrhagic bullae and foul-smelling brownish discharge represent which disease caused by Clostridium perfringens? - Fasciiti - Celluliti - Folliculiti - Gas gangren - Impetig Generalized tetanus caused by Clostridium tetani causes which type of failure? - Renal failur - Respiratory failur - Multiple organ failur - Cardiac failur - Liver failur Which antibiotics are given for the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium dif cile? - Ceftriaxone and oral vancomyci - Oral vancomycin and penicilli - Metronidazole and oral vancomyci - Metronidazole and intravenous vancomyci - Metronidazole and penicilli Which vaccine should be given to prevent infections by Clostridium tetani? - BCG vaccin - Tetanus toxoid vaccin fi s s o s e e e e e g e e s e s e e s e e s fi s n n fi n n n s  - Hib vaccin - MMR vaccin - OPV vaccin Which disease is caused by Clostridium botulinum in infants? - Down syndrom - Neuro bromatosi - Erythroblastosis fetali - Fragile X syndrom - Floppy baby syndrom Foul-smelling diarrhea is a characteristic feature of which disease caused by Clostridium dif cile? - Food poisonin - Pseudomembranous coliti - Crohn's diseas - Necrotizing enterocoliti - Ulcerative coliti Which of the following would you expect to nd on the growth culture of a specimen obtained from an individual suspected to be infected with Listeria monocytogenes? - Alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, motile bacteri - Beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive, motile bacteri - Gamma-hemolytic, catalase-negative, motile bacteri - Beta-hemolytic, catalase-negative, motile bacteri - Alpha-hemolytic, catalase-positive, motile bacteri The typical location of growth of Listeria monocytogenes is... - intravascula - extravascula - intracellula - intercellula - intralymphati Which of the following manifestations is most likely when an immunocompetent adult male is infected with Listeria monocytogenes? - Sepsi - Flu-like illnes - Gastroenteriti - Disseminated abscesse - Meningiti s fi s e r r e r e r c s s g e e s s e s e s s fi s fi a a a a a  Which of the following is considered the drug of choice for a 3- week-old baby presenting with meningitis due to infection by Listeria monocytogenes? - Doxycyclin - Ceftriaxon - Ampicilli - Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazol - Cipro oxaci The typical shape of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is which of the following? - Bullet-lik - Polyhedra - Needle-shape - Club-shape - Spherica Which of the following forms of pharyngitis would you expect to encounter in a patient presenting with respiratory diphtheria? - Catarrhal pharyngiti - Ulcerative pharyngiti - Purulent pharyngiti - Atrophic pharyngiti - Pseudomembranous pharyngiti Which of the following terms best describes the characteristic granules present in Corynebacterium diphtheriae? - Isochromati - Metachromati - Apochromati - Panchromati - Monochromati Which of the following refers to the type of vaccine used for the prevention of diphtheria? - Live attenuate - Toxoi - Subuni - Recombinan - Killed/inactivate d fl t n e l l e e d c n c c t c d d c d s s s s e s  The macroscopic yellow-orange masses observed in wounds infected by Actinomyces species are best described as which of the following? - Sulfur granule - Polysaccharide granule - Volutin granule - Selenium granule - Poly (3-hydroxybutyrate) granule Which of the following species belonging to the Actinomyces genus is most commonly implicated in patients presenting with cervicofacial disease? - Actinomyces catul - Actinomyces funke - Actinomyces howelli - Actinomyces israeli - Actinomyces dentali Which of the following best describes the typical cutaneous lesions produced by infection of wounds by Nocardia species? - Plaque - Petechial lesion - Granulomatous lesion - Nodular lesion - Vesicular lesion Bronchopulmonary disease occuring in an immunocompromised individual due to infection with Nocardia asteroides characteristically produces which of the following types of necrosis? - Liquefactive necrosi - Fat necrosi - Coagulative necrosi - Caseous necrosi - Fibroid necrosi Which of the following species belonging to the Nocardia genus is most commonly implicated in the manifestation of mycetoma in wound infections? - Nocardia african - Nocardia blackwelli - Nocardia brasiliensi - Nocardia brevicaten s s s s s s s s a s s i i i i s s s s a i s s s - Nocardia asteroide The cell wall of Mycobacterium contains which acid that makes it an acid-fast bacillus? - Mycolic aci - Carbonic aci - Acetic aci - Boric aci - Oxalic aci Which of the following refers to the typical mode of transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis? - Through sexual contac - Via vector - Through respiratory droplet - By a fecal-oral rout - Through bloo The release of which of the following proin ammatory cytokines primarily induces bacterial killing in response to the phagocytosis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis by alveolar macrophages? - Interferon-gamm - Tumor necrosis factor-alph - Interleukin- - Interleukin-1 - Interleukin-1 Which of the following terms best describes the involvement of the hilar lymph nodes during infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis? - Ghon focu - Consolidatio - Miliary sprea - Cavitary lesio - Ghon comple Which of the following is a characteristic pulmonary nding in cases of secondary tuberculosis? - Cavitary lesions in the upper lobe - Ghon focus in the upper lobe - Consolidation in the lower lobe - Ghon complex in the upper lobe - Consolidation in the upper lobe d d d s s d 6 1 8 n d d d x n a e s t a s s s s s s fl fi Previous administration of which of the following vaccines may result in a false-positive result on a tuberculin skin test? - BCG vaccin - Hib vaccin - DPT vaccin - HPV vaccin - MMR vaccin Which of the following stains will best detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the sputum of an infected individual? - Periodic acid–Schiff stai - Gram stai - Acid-fast stai - Hematoxylin and eosin stai - Auramine–rhodamine stai Which of the following culture media is most commonly used to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis? - Löwenstein-Jensen mediu - MacConkey aga - Blood aga - Chocolate aga - Baird-Parker aga Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions is expected in response to injection of puri ed protein derivative (PPD) in an individual exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis? - Type III hypersensitivity reactio - Type IV hypersensitivity reactio - Type I hypersensitivity reactio - Type V hypersensitivity reactio - Type II hypersensitivity reactio An immune response produced by which of the following types of T helper cells in response to infection by Mycobacterium leprae produces tuberculoid leprosy? - Type 3 T helper cell - Type 4 T helper cell - Type 1 T helper cell - Type 2 T helper cell - Type 5 T helper cell n r e e e e e n r r r s s s s s n n m n n n n n n fi  Observation of 'foamy' macrophages and the absence of Langerhans cells on skin biopsy specimens is characteristic of which of the following types of leprosy? - Lepromatous lepros - Borderline tuberculoid lepros - Borderline lepromatous lepros - Mid-borderline lepros - Tuberculoid lepros Manifestation of disease after exposure to Mycobacterium avium- intracellulare complex is most likely if the CD4 cell count of a patient with acquired immunode ciency syndrome falls below... -...300/mm3 -...200/mm3 -...250/mm3 -...150/mm3 -...100/mm3 Which of the following is considered the drug of choice for the prophylaxis of infection by Mycobacterium avium complex in an immunocompromised individual with a CD4 cell count of less than 50/mm3? - Isoniazi - Ethambuto - Rifampi - Pyrazinamid - Azithromyci On gram staining of a specimen obtained from an individual infected by Neisseria species, which of the following would you expect to nd? - Gram-positive bacill - Gram-negative diplococc - Gram-positive diplococc - Gram-positive monococc - Gram-negative bacill Which of the following refers to the shape of bacteria observed on microscopic evaluation of a specimen obtained from an individual infected by Neisseria meningitidis? - Bullet-like bacteri - Kidney-shaped bacteri n d fi l..... n e a y i y i y a i fi i i y y  - Brick-shaped bacteri - Spindle-shaped bacteri - Club-shaped bacteri Which of the following culture media allows the best growth of Neisseria meningitidis? - Mannitol salt aga - Thayer-Martin aga - MacConkey aga - Baird-Parker aga - Hektoen enteric aga Species of the Neisseria genus most likely to cause Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome is... -...Neisseria wadsworthii -...Neisseria lactamica -...Neisseria avescens -...Neisseria gonorrhoeae -...Neisseria meningitidis Which type of vaccine is most commonly used for the prevention of Neisseria meningitidis infection? - Recombinan - Toxoi - Conjugat - Live attenuate - Killed/inactivate Which of the following antituberculosis drugs is commonly used for prophylaxis after exposure to Neisseria meningitidis? - Rifampi - Streptomyci - Isoniazi - Ethambuto - Pyrazinamid - d n d e l fl n e t d d r r r r a r a.. a... Morphologically, how many kinds of fungi are there? 3 8 4 2 6 Mushrooms belong to which kingdom? Fungi Animals Chromista Plants Protozoa To which morphological fungal type does Saccharomyces cerevisiae belong? Mushroom Aspergillus Caloplaca Boletus Yeast What is the major difference between autotrophs and heterotrophs? Autotrophs are unicellular organism while heterotrophs are multicellular Autotrophs are eukaryotic while heterotrophs are prokaryotic Autotrophs absorb nutrients and break them down to make energy while heterotrophs make their own Heterotrophs absorb nutrients and break them down to make energy while Autotrophs make their own All autotrophs can live without water and oxygen while heterotrophs cannot Dimorphism refers to which fungal ability? To grow as mold but not forming spores To grow as yeast only To grow as mold only To grow as yeast but not forming spores  To grow as both a yeast and a mold Which infectious fungus exists as both yeast and mold in the human body? Trichophyton Candida albicans Tenia saginata Epidermophyton Microsporum Patients suffering from which of the following medical conditions are more likely to be infected by Candida albicans? Hepatitis C Diarrhea Glaucoma AIDS Urinary tract infection Which of the following parts of the human body are most affected by subcutaneous mycoses? Heart Spleen Kidney Skin and underlying tissue Liver Where are fungi that can cause human disease normally found? Human body and environment Environment excluding decaying vegetables Human body only Environment only Environment excluding forests Which of the following organisms are part of the normal flora of the human body?  Bacteria only Viruses and fungi Fungi only Bacteria and viruses Bacteria and fungi What is the fungicidal mechanism of action of polyene class antifungals? Disruption of the cell membrane by binding to ergosterol Block ergosterol synthesis Inhibitor of pyrimidine Inhibit cell wall synthesis Blocking of G6PD Which of the following antifungal drugs acts by inhibiting DNA and protein synthesis? Oxiconazole Caspofungin Fluconazole Itraconazole Flucytosine Which of the following statements about fungi is false? Fungi are ubiquitous in the environment There are two major types of fungi, filamentous and yeast All fungi are strict anaerobes Fungi are heterotrophs Fungi can secrete enzymes that digest cellulose from plants In which of the following environments are you LEAST likely to find fungi growing? On a rotting tree trunk On the moon In a vat of freshly brewed beer In the grout between bathtub tiles On a piece of fruit abandoned in a school locker Most filamentous fungi are dimorphous, meaning......they are made of only two key materials...they die once producing offspring...they can only reproduce asexually...they can grow with one of two forms...they can only grow inside a place that is dark Which of the following mycoses is NOT matched to its correct description? Infections caused by geographically restricted fungi, that is, they only occur in certain places in the world: Endemic mycoses Infections specifically in immunosuppressed patients: Opportunistic mycoses An infection that specifically targets previously healthy patients rather than the immunocompromised: Irregular mycoses An infection that involves the skin or the underlying tissue that can get into the lymphatic system and spread throughout: Subcutaneous mycoses Infections limited to the surface of the skin and the skin structures: Superficial / Cutaneous mycoses Which of the following antifungal agents is not matched with its correct mechanism of action? Nystatin inhibits DNA and protein synthesis The echinocandins inhibit cell wall synthesis The azoles are used to block the synthesis of ergosterol The polyenes and allylamines bind a component of the cell membrane called ergosterol, which disrupts the membrane Which of the following antifungal agents cannot be given intravenously? Ketoconazole Fluconazole Caspofungin Itraconazole Voriconazole Which of the following statements regarding endemic mycoses are true? They are caused by viruses that exist in very specific geographical locations. They are caused by parasites that exist in very specific geographical locations. They are caused by fungi that exist in very specific geographical locations. They are caused by bacteria that exist in very specific geographical locations.  They are caused by plants that exist in very specific geographical locations. In what patient populations are infections with Histoplasma capsulatum common? Patients who engage in same-sex intercourse Patients with congenital kidney disease Cave explorers Patients with chronic liver disease Scuba divers Which of the following makes up the primary line of defense against Histoplasmosis? Lymphocytes RBCs Platelets Macrophages The epithelial lining of the lungs Yeast cells in a granuloma of the lungs will not present a problem until the person suffers a defect in which system? Circulatory system Respiratory system Urogenital system Gastrointestinal system Immune system How are Histoplasma capsulatum infections acquired? Inhalation of spores Blood transfusion with nonsterile equipment During childbirth in certain endemic areas By fecal-oral transmission Sexual contact with an infected partner Why does Histoplasma capsulatum live in soil where birds or bats leave their droppings? That type of soil is neutral in pH That type of soil is alkaline That type of soil is rich in nitrogen That type of soil is rich in sodium That type of soil is acidic How much time is required to culture histoplasmosis from a sample of sputum? 12 weeks 3 weeks 2 weeks 6 weeks 10 weeks How does ELISA testing detect histoplasmosis infection? By detecting antigens on the fungal cell wall By staining fungal cells By detecting macrophages in yeast cells By antibody-antibody complex formation What is a common name for coccidioidomycosis? Hand, foot and mouth disease Fifth disease Valley fever Miner's lung Bird fancier's lung Why are macrophages unable to clear Coccidioides immitis infections? They transform into spherules that have a thick cell wall They produce cytosol that is too basic They transform into spherules are too large They transform into spherules that are not recognized by the body They produce cytosol that is too acidic Why are AIDS patients more vulnerable to Coccidioides immitis? They have decreased RBC count They have decreased anti-body mediated immunity They have decreased platelets They have decreased cell-mediated immunity Which of the following patient populations is more vulnerable to Coccidioides immitis? Males with kidney disease Patients undergoing hormone replacement therapy Children older than 15 Pregnant females  Patients with severe eczema Disseminated coccidioidomycosis may lead to which of the following CNS complications? Meningeal cancer Chronic meningitis Acute encephalitis Spontaneous strokes Demyelination of nerve cells Which of the following medications is utilized in the treatment of coccidioidomycosis? Methotrexate Nystatin Propranolol Itraconazole Aspirin Which of the following people is LEAST likely to be exposed to histoplasmosis? A chicken farmer A person who has made a hobby of feeding local pigeons A construction worker helping demolish an old bank A person with several used ash trays scattered throughout their home A spelunker who maps caves for a local park Which of the following does NOT make someone more likely to develop severe histoplasmosis? Having COPD Being an active smoker Being immunosuppressed Having CD4 positive T-helper lymphocytes Having AIDS Which of the following is NOT a technique used to diagnose Histoplasmosis? Analyzing clinical specimens such as sputum, blood, tissue samples or other body fluids Using enzyme linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA) to look for fungal antigen Looking for the polysaccharide antigen from the cell wall of the fungus in a urine or serum sample  Using enzyme linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA) to grow the active fungus from a urine or serum sample Analyzing samples of bone marrow, liver, lung or lymph In what specific part of the world is coccidioidomycosis or Valley Fever common? Southwestern United States Eastern Europe Northeastern United States West Africa Sub-Saharan Africa Histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis share which of the following characteristics? Both fungi are endemic to the same geographic area With both fungi, the presence of functioning macrophages is an essential requirement for growth Both fungal infections can be transferred through coughing and sneezing from an infected individual Spores of both fungi are found in soil rich in bat and bird feces With both fungi, spores are inhaled into the lungs and establish the infection there Which of the following is NOT true about the treatment of coccidioidomycosis? Treatment is typically done with itraconazole or fluconazole More severe infections require amphotericin B as a part of treatment A short term treatment option is to combine fluconazole and amphotericin B 1 to 2 years of treatment is required Meningitis caused by Coccidioides immitis requires treatment with fluconazole and that must continue for the rest of the patient's life Why is mRNA placed at the center of the Baltimore scheme?  Because all viral genomes are made of mRNA  Because all virus particles contain mRNA  Because it is convenient due to language conventions among scientists  Because all viruses must manufacture mRNA to replicate What information may be encoded in a viral genome?  Complete protein synthesis systems  Gene products that catalyze energy production  Gene products that catalyze membrane biosynthesis  Enzymes to replicate the viral genome  Centromeres or telomeres How does hemagglutination measures viral particles?  By electron microscopy  By assaying viral enzyme activity  By measuring particles attached to WBCs  By measuring particles attached to RBCs  By measuring viral particle load Which part of a bacteriophage is injected into the host bacterial cell?  DNA  mRNA  Virus  Protein precursors  Viral envelope What is the first crucial step in viral replication?  Viral DNA must be replicated in the cytoplasm  Viral genome must be converted into mRNA  Host ribosomes must form into 30s and 50s subunits  Host DNA must be spliced with viral DNA  Proteins from the virus must interact with the host DNA Based on the mRNA theory, how many viral genomes exist?  357   37 x 10  7  3  37 Which of the following statements regarding mRNA is true?  mRNA is always a neutral polarity  mRNA is always (-) sense  mRNA is always (+) sense  mRNA is always composed of DNA  mRNA is always reciprocal to the polarity of DNA Most viral genomes lack which of the following?  Viral products necessary for genome replication  Genes necessary for regulation of the cell cycle  Genes encoding for complete protein synthesis machinery  Proteins necessary for infection of host cells Which among the following is the largest virus?  Hepatitis B virus  Parvovirus  Pandoravirus  Mimivirus  Pox virus In RNA and DNA, what is the name of the strand complementary to the plus strand?  The coding strand  The sense strand  The positive strand  The minus strand  The non template strands Which of the following genes are absent in viruses?  Genes for enzymes  Genes for energy production  Genes for structure proteins   Genes for nucleocapsid core proteins  Genes for pol proteins Which of the following corresponds to the shape of the capsid of adenoviruses?  Triacontahedral  Prolate  Helical  Dodecahedral  Icosahedral The genome of viruses belonging to the family Adenoviridae is best explained by which of the following?  Circular double-stranded RNA  Linear single-stranded RNA  Circular double-stranded DNA  Linear double-stranded DNA  Circular single-stranded DNA Age group most at risk of developing febrile pharyngitis due to adenovirus infection is...? ...< 5 years of age. ...< 3 years of age. ...< 6 years of age. ...< 4 years of age. ...< 7 years of age Infection by which of the following pathogenic bacteria resembles febrile pharyngitis in children caused by adenoviruses?  Chlamydophila pneumoniae  Corynebacterium  Group A streptococcus  Staphylococcus aureus  Mycoplasma pneumoniae Which of the following time frames depicts the incubation period of adenovirus induced gastroenteritis?  14–18 days   3–10 days  24–30 days  10–14 days  18–24 days Which of the following refers to the management of choice for patients suffering from conjunctivitis caused by adenoviruses?  Acyclovir ointment  Penciclovir cream  Supportive care  Oral acyclovir  Oral famciclovir Which of the following herpesviruses is most likely to be the culprit if a patient presents with sporadic fatal encephalitis?  Epstein-Barr virus  Herpes simplex virus 1  Herpes simplex virus 2  Varicella-zoster virus  Cytomegalovirus Which Herpesviridae family member is most likely to be associated with the premalignant condition known as hairy oral leukoplakia?  herpes simplex virus 1  Cytomegalovirus  Epstein-Barr virus  Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus  herpes simplex virus 2 Which of the following refers to the human herpesvirus 5 (HHV-5)?  Roseolovirus  Epstein-Barr virus  Cytomegalovirus  Herpes simplex virus  Varicella-zoster virus In which of the following structures does the latent infection of herpes simplex viruses develop?   Sympathetic ganglia  Lamina propria  Parasympathetic ganglia  Mucoepithelial cells  Sensory ganglia Which of the following parts of the human brain is most likely to be involved in sporadic encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus 1?  Frontal lobe  Temporal lobe  Occipital lobe  Parietal lobe  Medulla oblongata An immune-mediated hypersensitivity rash resulting most commonly from infection by herpes simplex virus 1 is known as which of the following?  Erythema migrans  Erythema infectiosum  Erythema nodosum  Erythema marginatum  Erythema multiforme Which of the following refers to the typical lesions caused by herpes simplex viruses?  Wheals  Nodules  Plaques  Vesicles  Macules Which of the following best describes the vaccine used for the prevention of infection by varicella-zoster virus?  Live-attenuated  Fractional  Toxoid  Conjugate  Inactivated whole-cell Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for a child presenting with vesicular lesions all over the body in different stages of healing?  Rubella  Roseola  Measles  Shingles  Chickenpox The classical distribution of the maculopapular rash due to reactivation of infection by varicella-zoster virus in an adult is justified by which of the following?  Scalp and back of the neck  Face and trunk  Palms and soles  Dermatomal pattern  All over the body Which of the numerically labeled members of the Herpesviridae family correctly corresponds with the Epstein-Barr virus?  Human herpesvirus 5  Human herpesvirus 4  Human herpesvirus 6  Human herpesvirus 8  Human herpesvirus 3 The Epstein-Barr virus primarily infects and achieves latency in which of the following?  B lymphocytes  Basophils  Neutrophils  T lymphocytes  Eosinophils Which of the following antibiotics is typically associated with induction of a hypersensitivity rash in a patient with infectious mononucleosis?  Azithromycin  Cefixime  Ampicillin  Ciprofloxacin   Doxycycline Downey cells appreciated on the blood smear of a patient suffering from Epstein-Barr virus-induced infectious mononucleosis are best described by which of the following?  Atypical macrophages  Atypical lymphocytes  Atypical basophils  Atypical neutrophils  Atypical eosinophils Which of the following characteristic histopathological findings can be appreciated in the nuclei of the cells infected by cytomegalovirus?  Cowdry type A inclusion bodies  Bollinger inclusion bodies  Owl's eye inclusion bodies  Cowdry type B inclusion bodies  Negri inclusion bodies n a patient presenting with infectious mononucleosis, infection by cytomegalovirus must be differentiated from which of the following pathogenic viruses?  Human herpesvirus 6  Epstein-Barr virus  Varicella-zoster virus  Human herpesvirus 8  Herpes simplex virus 1 Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is regarded as the most common non- genetic etiology of loss of... ...vision. ...hearing. ...taste. ... proprioception. ...smell. According to the numerical classification, the macular rash resulting from infection by roseolovirus is also known as...  ...sixth disease ...fourth disease ...fifth disease ...seventh disease ...third disease Which of the following forms of pityriasis has the human herpesvirus 7 been commonly associated with?  Pityriasis versicolor  Pityriasis rubra pilaris  Pityriasis amiantacea  Pityriasis rosea  Pityriasis alba The typical cutaneous lesions appreciated in Kaposi's sarcoma are which of the following?  Crusted  Pustular  Plaque-like  Vesicular  Ulcerated The genome of papillomaviruses is best described by which of the following?  Linear double-stranded DNA  Linear double-stranded RNA  Circular double-stranded RNA  Circular double-stranded DNA  Linear single-stranded DNA The proteins playing a vital role in the pathogenesis of human papillomavirus by inactivating the cell growth suppressor proteins in the epithelial tissue are which of the following?  E4 and E5  E1 and E2  E8 and E9  E12 and E13  E6 and E7 Which of the following best describes the presence of dysplastic squamous epithelial cells with large nuclei and hyperchromasia on a Pap smear of a young lady?  Lichenification  Anisocytosis  Keratosis pilaris  Poikilocytosis  Koilocytosis Which of the following serotypes of human papillomaviruses are associated with the development of condylomata acuminata?  7 and 13  1 and 4  16 and 18  6 and 11  9 and 21 Which of the following refers to the shape of the capsid of polyomaviruses?  Dodecahedral  Helical  Icosahedral  Prolate  Circular Reactivation of the BK polyomavirus in an immunosuppressed patient is most likely to involve which of the following organs?  Lungs  Brain  Kidneys  Spleen  Bone Which of the following serotypes of Polyomaviridae is most likely to be associated with the development of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in a patient suffering from acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?  WU polyomavirus  JC polyomavirus  KI polyomavirus   Merkel cell polyomavirus  BK polyomavirus The enzyme that gives poxviruses the ability to replicate in the cytoplasm is... ...RNA hydroxylase ...RNA polymerase ...DNA hydroxylase ...DNA reductase ...Reverse transcriptase Cowpox viral species belongs to which of the following genera of poxviruses?  Orthopoxvirus  Capripoxvirus  Parapoxvirus  Molluscipoxvirus  Yatapoxvirus Which of the following viruses in the live attenuated form are used to vaccinate individuals at risk of developing smallpox?  Tanapox virus  Variola virus  Monkeypox virus  Vaccinia virus  Pseudocowpox virus Which of the following paramyxoviruses is regarded as the most common culprit in the pathogenesis of croup?  Human parainfluenza virus  Respiratory syncytial virus  Human metapneumovirus  Mumps virus  Measles virus Which of the following protein complexes is encoded by the viral genome of the paramyxoviruses?  RNA-dependent RNA polymerase  DNA-dependent RNA transcriptase  RNA-independent RNA polymerase  DNA-dependent RNA polymerase  DNA-dependent DNA polymerase Which of the following refers to the approximate incubation period of measles virus?  25–30 days  7–13 days  14–18 days  1–4 days  19–24 days Which of the following present as an early pathognomonic sign of measles appearing as bluish- gray grains of salt surrounded by a red halo on the buccal mucosa?  Canker sores  Forchheimer spots  Roth spots  Koplik's spots  Bitot's spots The typical type of rash observed due to infection by the measles virus is... ...vesicular. ...petechial. ...eczematous. ...maculopapular. ...purpuric. Which of the following is regarded as the most serious complication of infection by the measles virus?  West Nile encephalitis  Wernicke encephalopathy  Japanese encephalitis  Toxic-metabolic encephalopathy  Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis Which of the following structures are most likely to be primarily infected as a result of exposure of the upper respiratory tract to the mumps virus?  Sublingual glands  Tonsils  Adenoids  Parotid glands  Submandibular glands Which of the following types of vaccines is used for the prevention of infection by mumps virus?  Toxoid  Conjugate  Live attenuated  Whole-cell inactivated  Recombinant Which of the following is the treatment of choice for the management of infection by parainfluenza viruses?  Inhaled ribavirin  Oral oseltamivir  Inhaled zanamivir  Oral baloxavir  Supportive management Which of the following serotypes of parainfluenza viruses is most likely to be the culprit if an infant presents with bronchiolitis?  4  3  1  2  5 Which of the following do you expect to find on the chest X-ray radiograph of a child presenting with 'seal bark' cough and inspiratory stridor secondary to infection by the parainfluenza virus?  Finger-in-glove sign  Comet tail sign  Bulging fissure sign  Steeple sign  Westermark sign Which of the following corresponds with the typical shape of the rabies virus?  Brick-shaped  Spherical  Bullet-shaped  Worm-like  Polyhedral Which of the following adequately describes the genome of the rhabdoviruses?  Circular, double-stranded DNA  Linear, single-stranded RNA  Circular, single-stranded RNA  Linear, double-stranded DNA  Circular, single-stranded DNA The non-specific prodromal phase of infection by the rabies virus typically lasts... ...2–10 days. ...30–40 days. ...60–365 days. ...12–20 days. ...24–30 days. Which of the following viral inclusion bodies do you expect to find upon histological evaluation of the diseased neurological tissue of a patient infected by the rabies virus?  Bollinger bodies  Guarnieri bodies  Torres bodies  Negri bodies  Cowdry type A bodies The type of vaccine used for the prevention and prophylaxis of infection by the rabies virus is which of the following?  Recombinant  Live attenuated  Inactivated/killed  Toxoid  Subunit Which of the following describes the shape of the capsid of the Ebola virus?  Helical  Prolate  Dodecahedral  Circular  Icosahedral Which of the following corresponds with the typical incubation period of infection by the Ebola virus?  Up to 14 days  Up to 35 days  Up to 21 days  Up to 28 days  Up to 7 days In suspected cases of Ebola virus infection, reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT- PCR) should ideally be performed within... ...72 hours of onset. ...48 hours of onset. ...24 hours of onset. ...36 hours of onset. ...60 hours of onset. The genome of the influenza type C virus is best described by which of the following?  Circular, single-stranded DNA  Circular, double-stranded DNA  Linear, single-stranded DNA  Circular, single-stranded RNA  Linear, single-stranded RNA Which of the following corresponds with the shape of the nucleocapsid of influenza type B virus?  Helical  Circular  Prolate  Icosahedral  Dodecahedral Which of the following will most likely result from an antigenic shift in the genome of the influenza type A virus?  An epidemic  A pandemic  An endemic  An isodemic  A syndemic The typical incubation period of classic acute influenza infection in adults is... ...10–14 days. ...4–7 days. ...15–18 days. ...7–10 days. ...1–3 days. Which of the following terms best describes the gradual, minor mutations in the genomes of the influenza viruses that eventually leads to an epidemic?  Antigenic grift  Antigenic shift  Antigenic lift  Antigenic drift  Antigenic swift Which of the following investigations primarily detects the antigens of influenza viruses from nasal secretions?  Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay  Hemagglutination test  Hemagglutination inhibition test  Hemadsorption test  Reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction The typical incubation period of infection by the Lassa fever virus is which of the following?  6–21 days  1–4 days  21–28 days  30–38 days  40–45 days Which of the following refers to the approximate percentage of cases of lymphocytic choriomeningitis that will have central nervous system involvement?  75%  10%  50%  90%  25% Administration of aspirin to an individual infected by the Lassa virus may cause liver involvement and further worsening of the patient's condition leading to a syndrome known as which of the following?  Rett syndrome  Reynolds syndrome  Rombo syndrome  Riley-Day Syndrome  Reye syndrome Which of the following is most likely to serve as a vector for the transmission of hantaviruses?  Ticks  Mosquitoes  Rodents  Sandflies  Fleas A fourfold rise in which of the following immunoglobulins is considered diagnostic in a suspected case of hantavirus hemorrhagic fever?  IgM  IgG  IgE  IgA  IgD Sudden onset, severe shortness of breath encountered as a manifestation of hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is most likely due to the development of which of the following?  Pulmonary edema  Pleural effusion  Septic shock  Pulmonary embolism  Subglottic stenosis Species belonging to which of the following genera of mosquitoes are most likely to serve as vectors for the transmission of California encephalitis virus?  Ochlerotatus  Aedes  Anopheles  Culiseta  Culex What is the natural reservoir for Yersinia pestis?  Sheep  Goat  Rabbit  Rodent  Mosquito The presence of which lesion on the skin in humans indicates an infection by Yersinia pestis?  Ulcer  Livedo reticularis  Bubo  Granuloma  Bruise The presence of which lesion in the lung of humans indicates an infection by airborne transmission of Yersinia pestis?  Hematoma  Pneumonic plague  Ulcer  Bubonic plague  Granuloma What are the drugs of choice for infections caused by Yersinia pestis?  Streptomycin and gentamicin  Macrolides and penicillin  Penicillin and gentamicin  Streptomycin and tetracyclines  Streptomycin and macrolides Which type of lymph nodes are involved in the infections caused by Yersinia enterocolitica?  Mesenteric lymph nodes  Cervical lymph nodes  Pelvic lymph nodes  Axillary lymph nodes  Mediastinal lymph nodes Which condition is most commonly associated with mesenteric lymphadenitis caused by Yersinia enterocolitica?  Pseudoappendicitis  Hepatitis  Esophagitis  Gastritis  Pancreatitis Which type of diarrhea is associated with enterocolitis caused by Yersinia enterocolitica?   Watery diarrhea  Mucoid diarrhea  Bloody diarrhea  Secretory diarrhea  Osmotic diarrhea What is the unique feature of Proteus mirabilis?  Mucoid growth on agar  Spreading growth on agar  Swarming growth on agar  Filamentous growth on agar  Powdery growth on agar Which of the following indicates urinary tract infection caused by Proteus mirabilis?  Foul smell in urine  Ammonia smell in urine  Glucose in urine  Fruity smell in urine  Proteins in urine Haemophilus species can be grown on blood agar in the presence of which bacteria?  Neisseria gonorrhoeae  Escherichia coli  Streptococcus pyogenes  Proteus mirabilis  Staphylococcus aureus Unencapsulated Haemophilus influenzae is part of the normal flora of which system of the body?  Gastrointestinal tract  Lower respiratory tract  Upper respiratory tract  Lower urinary tract  Upper urinary tract Which enzyme is used by Haemophilus influenzae type B to invade the mucosal lining?  Urease  Lipase  Carboxylase  IgA protease  Hydroxylase Which is the most common disease associated with all types of Haemophilus influenzae?  Meningitis  Cellulitis  Otitis media   Arthritis  Epiglottitis Which sign on X-ray imaging is indicative of epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B?  Thumb sign  Crescent sign  Target sign  Coffee bean sign  Abadie's sign Which is the most common disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B in asplenic patients?  Gastritis  Pneumonia  Arthritis  Cellulitis  Meningitis Which type of sexually transmitted disease is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi?  Gonorrhea  Chancroid  Herpes  Syphilis  Chlamydia What are the features of vaginal discharge is caused by Gardnerella vaginalis infection?  Painful, gray discharge with fishy smell  Nonpainful, gray discharge with pungent smell  Painful, yellow discharge with fishy smell  Nonpainful, gray discharge with fishy smell  Nonpainful, yellow discharge with pungent smell Diagnosis of Gardnerella vaginalis infection can be made by the presence of which type of cells seen with a microscope?  Foam cells  Clue cells  Kulchitsky cells  Multinucleated giant cells  Oxyntic cells Which of the following features best describe Pasteurella species?  Short, unencapsulated, gram-positive coccus  Short, unencapsulated, gram-negative rod  Short, encapsulated, gram-negative coccus  Short, encapsulated, gram-positive rod   Short, encapsulated, gram-negative rod Which disease is caused by the transmission of Pasteurella multocida in humans by cat bites?  Osteosarcoma  Osteomalacia  Osteomyelitis  Osteogenesis imperfecta  Osteoporosis Which of the following features best describe Bacteroides species?  Aerobic, gram positive, and encapsulated rods  Anaerobic, gram negative, and unencapsulated rods  Anaerobic, gram negative, and encapsulated rods  Anaerobic, gram positive, and encapsulated rods  Aerobic, gram negative, and encapsulated rods Bacteroides species are most commonly found in which system of the body?  Urinary system  Gastrointestinal system  Respiratory system  Integumentary system  Reproductive system Bacteroides species are most commonly found below which structure of the body?  Pancreas  Liver  Stomach  Spleen  Diaphragm The presence of which lesion in the abdomen indicates an infection by Bacteroides fragilis?  Lipoma  Abscess  Fibroma  Hematoma  Granuloma Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by Treponema pallidum?  Gonorrhea  Chlamydia  Syphilis  Herpes  Genital warts Treponemal tests are based on which type of immunoglobulin?   IgM  IgA  IgE  IgD  IgG Which is the most common screening test used for syphilis?  VDRL test  FTA-ABS test  MHA-TP test  RPR test  Stool antigen test In addition to treponemal infections, treponemal and nontreponemal test results can be positive for which of the following conditions?  Ulcerative colitis  Crohn's disease  Cirrhosis  Pregnancy  Gastrinoma The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is caused by injecting high doses of which antibiotic in the patients with syphilis?  Azithromycin  Ceftriaxone  Penicillin  Ciprofloxacin  Gentamicin Which of the following describes chancres formed as a result of primary syphilis?  Painless, ulcerated skin lesion  Painful, ulcerated skin lesion  Painful, raised skin lesion  Painless, nodular skin lesion  Painless, raised skin lesion When do buboes appear in patients with primary syphilis?  1–2 days after chancres  1–2 weeks after chancres  1–2 weeks before chancres  1–2 hours after chancres  1–2 days before chancres For patients with primary syphilis, diagnosis can be made by observing treponemes under which microscope?   Electron microscope  Immunofluorescence microscope  Light microscope  Dark-field microscope  Stereo microscope Which of the following describe the condyloma lata formed as a result of secondary syphilis?  Rough, painless, flat lesions  Rough, painful, raised lesions  Smooth, painful, raised lesions  Smooth, painless, flat lesions  Smooth, painful, flat lesions Which type of rash is present in patients with secondary syphilis?  Vesicular rash  Papulovesicular rash  Macular rash  Maculopapular rash  Papular rash Which disease is caused when Treponema pallidum involves the nervous system in patients with tertiary syphilis?  Posterior cord syndrome  Tabes dorsalis  Syringomyelia  Lumbar spinal stenosis  Central cord syndrome Which type of disease is caused when Treponema pallidum involves the cardiovascular system in patients with tertiary syphilis?  Pancarditis  Pericarditis  Endocarditis  Myocarditis  Aortitis Which cranial nerve is damaged in congenital syphilis?  Cranial nerve VI  Cranial nerve VIII  Cranial nerve VII  Cranial nerve X  Cranial nerve V The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is caused by injecting high doses of which antibiotic in the patients with syphilis?   Gentamicin  Ceftriaxone  Ciprofloxacin  Azithromycin  Penicillin Which type of skin lesions develop in yaws caused by Treponema pallidum?  Elevated, ulcerated skin lesions  Depressed, ulcerated skin lesions  Depressed, papilloma-like skin lesions  Elevated, nodular skin lesions  Elevated, papilloma-like skin lesions Which type of lesions initially develop in pinta caused by Treponema pallidum?  Large pruritic papules  Small pruritic macules  Small pruritic papules  Large pruritic macules  Small pruritic vesicles Which of the following refers to the characteristic lesions caused by molluscum contagiosum? Vesicular Pustular Ulcerative Scaly Wart-like The genome of the viruses responsible for hepatitis B is best described as......linear, partially double-stranded DNA....circular, partially double-stranded RNA....linear, partially double-stranded RNA....linear, partially single-stranded RNA....circular, partially double-stranded DNA. Which of the following enzymes is produced by the hepatitis B virus that plays a vital role in its replication and pathogenesis? RNA hydroxylase DNA hydroxylase RNA reductase Reverse transcriptase RNA polymerase In an individual vaccinated against hepatitis B virus, which of the following serological markers do you expect to nd? HBcAg IgG antibody HBsAg antibody HBcAg IgM antibody HBeAg antibody HBV DNA Which of the following would an individual with persistently positive HBsAg, but negative HBeAg and HBV DNA be labeled as? Infective carrier Recently infected Vaccinated against hepatitis B Previous infection in the past year Healthy carrier Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions is triggered in response to hepatitis B surface antigen? fi  Type I Type III Type II Type IV Type V Which of the following best describes the genome of B19 parvovirus? Circular, single-stranded RNA Linear, single-stranded DNA Circular, double-stranded DNA Linear, double-stranded DNA Circular, single-stranded DNA The primary target cells of B19 parvovirus are......endothelial progenitor cells....erythroid precursor cells....pancreatic progenitor cells....lymphoid precursor cells....radial glial cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of a child presenting with 'slapped-cheek rash' gradually spreading to the extremities caused by B19 parvovirus? Erythema induratum Erythema toxicum neonatorum Erythema multiforme Erythema infectiosum Erythema nodosum If a patient with sickle cell disease gets infected with B19 parvovirus, which of the following refers to the basic pathophysiological feature of development of severe anemia? Transient lymphopenia Transient reticulocytosis Transient reticulocytopenia Transient lymphocytosis Transient thrombocytopenia Which of the following adequately describes the genome of the Colorado tick fever virus? Circular, double-stranded DNA  Segmented, double-stranded DNA Segmented, single-stranded DNA Segmented, double-stranded RNA Segmented, single-stranded RNA The incubation period of rotavirus induced gastroenteritis is......48 hours....36 hours....24 hours....72 hours....60 hours. In the pathogenesis of diarrhea induced by rotavirus, villous destruction is brought about by which of the following? Clostridium toxin-like protein Campylobacter toxin-like protein Shiga toxin-like protein Cryptosporidium toxin-like protein Cholera toxin-like protein Which of the following immunoglobulins provides immunity in response to partially digested virions in an individual presenting with watery diarrhea due to rotavirus infection? IgE IgG IgD IgA IgM Which of the following picornaviruses is most likely to be the culprit if a patient presents with hand, foot, and mouth disease? Echovirus Coxsackievirus Rhinovirus Hepatitis A virus Poliovirus Which of the following is considered the most likely viral etiology if a diagnosis of herpangina is established in a patient presenting with sore throat and painful vesiculopapular lesions on the soft palate? Herpes simplex virus 2  Reovirus Coxsackie A virus Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex virus 1 Sudden onset severe, paroxysmal chest pain associated with fever and headache caused by the Coxsackie B virus is known as......endemic rachiodynia....epidemic pleurodynia....epidemic angina....endemic angina....endemic pleurodynia. Which of the following refers to the management of choice for acute, severe chest pain occurring as a manifestation of Bornholm disease? Oral famciclovir Intravenous acyclovir Oral acyclovir Supportive care Intranasal pleconaril Damage to which of the following structures by the poliovirus results in accid paralysis? Oligodendrocytes Upper motor neurons Satellite glial cells Schwann cells Lower motor neurons Which of the following is most likely to be appreciated in the cerebrospinal uid of a patient presenting with fever, headache, and neck sti ness without paralysis as a consequence of poliovirus infection? Pleocytosis Markedly decreased glucose Xanthochromia Erythrocytosis Markedly elevated proteins Development of acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is usually a consequence of infection by which of the following enteroviruses? Echovirus ff fl fl  Poliovirus Coxsackie A virus Rhinovirus Coxsackie B virus Which of the following best describes the oral polio vaccine discovered by Sabin? Whole-cell inactivated Subunit Live-attenuated Toxoid Conjugate Serological diagnosis of active hepatitis A infection is based on the detection of which of the following antibodies formed against the virus? IgG IgE IgD IgA IgM Which of the following describes the most frequently used vaccine against hepatitis A virus? Subunit Inactivated Live attenuated Recombinant Toxoid Which of the following is regarded as the typical mode of transmission of the hepatitis A virus? Infected mosquito bite Droplet spread Infected tick bite Feco-oral route Sexual contact The genome of hepatitis E virus is adequately described by which of the following? Linear, single-stranded RNA Linear, double-stranded DNA Circular, double-stranded RNA  Circular, single-stranded DNA Circular, single-stranded RNA Which of the following populations is most at risk of developing fulminant hepatitis secondary to infection by the hepatitis E virus? Pregnant women Young adults Elderly Toddlers Infants Norwalk virus primarily infects and replicates in which of the following parts of the gastrointestinal tract? Colon Esophagus Mouth Small intestine Rectum Which of the following refers to the shape of the capsid of coronaviruses? Circular Prolate Dodecahedral Icosahedral Helical What's the rate of spontaneous resolution of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)? 79% 15% 30% 10% 25% Which of the following corresponds with the incubation period of the most common manifestation of coronavirus infection? 3 days 1 day 5 days 7 days  9 days A person who becomes infected by the 2019 novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) has what percentage of: recovering without hospitalization; having severe disease (usually necessitating hospitalization); or having a critical infection (usually requiring ICU care)? Select the answer in the same order as the order of presentation in this question. 70%, 15%, 15% 90%, 5%, 5% 80%, 15%, 5% 60%, 35%, 5% 70%, 20%, 10% COVID-19 is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT? High infectivity Development of septic arthritis High attack rate in a population Progression to hypotensive shock Progression to severe pneumonia and/or ARDS Why did the World Health Organization (WHO) declare COVID-19 a global pandemic on March 11, 2020? To stimulate a global response with the goal of limiting the worldwide spread of COVID-19 To prevent the entry of COVID-19 into Switzerland, where the international headquarters of WHO is located To support the governments of China, South Korea, and Japan in their battle against the local spread of COVID-19 To stabilize the world economic indices and prevent a global recession To free up international resources to ght the disease in Wuhan, China What is the incubation period of COVID-19? 5–10 days 1–4 days 3–7 days 2–14 days 7–21 days Which of the following complaint is most commonly seen in COVID-19? Fatigue Shortness of breath Myalgias fi  Dry cough Fever A 71-year-old man with a recent history of travel to a COVID-19–endemic region presents with a u-like illness (cough, myalgias, and fatigue) and signi cant loss of appetite but no fever. If con rmed to have COVID-19, this patient may be at higher risk for: Rapid resolution of COVID-19 Permanent hearing loss SARS-CoV-2–associated viral exanthem Refractory COVID-19 Development of diabetes mellitus fl fi fi Morphologically, how many kinds of fungi are there? 4 2 6 8 3 Mushrooms belong to which kingdom? Protozoa Animals Chromista Plants Fungi To which morphological fungal type does Saccharomyces cerevisiae belong? Aspergillus Mushroom Yeast Boletus Caloplaca What is the major difference between autotrophs and heterotrophs? Autotrophs are unicellular organism while heterotrophs are multicellular Autotrophs absorb nutrients and break them down to make energy while heterotrophs make their own All autotrophs can live without water and oxygen while heterotrophs cannot Heterotrophs absorb nutrients and break them down to make energy while Autotrophs make their own