Final Exam Study Guide for Anatomy and Physiology PDF

Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology 1. The pleural cavity surrounds what organ? a. Small intestines b. Brain c. Lung d. Heart 2. An organ consists of two or more different tissues working together to perform specific functions a. True b. False 3. The human body contains one (1) pleural cavity and one (1) pericardial cavity. a. True b. False 4. Match each term to its definition. a. Cervical = Region of the body that includes the neck b. Receptor = The part of homeostatic regulation that is sensitive to a particular environmental change or stimulus c. Positive feedback = An initial homeostatic response that reinforces a stimulus d. Posterior = Anatomical term meaning "behind or the back"; also known as dorsal e. Pathology = The study of the effects of diseases on organ or system functions f. Effector = The part of homeostatic regulation that responds to commands to reinforce or oppose a stimulus g. Ventral = Anatomical term meaning "to the front"; also known as anterior h. Cell physiology = The study of the functions of living cells i. Homeostatic regulation = Adjustments made to maintain a stable internal environment j. Regional anatomy = All of the superficial and internal features in a specific region of the body k. Cytology = Analyzing the internal structure of individual cells l. Peritoneum = Serous membrane lining the peritoneal cavity m. Surface anatomy = The study of general form and superficial markings n. Sebaceous glands = Secrete(s) oil that lubricates the hair shaft and epidermis o. Histology = Study of tissues 5. The abdominopelvic cavity can be divided into either four or nine regions. a. True b. False 6. Gross anatomy, or macroscopic anatomy, considers: a. A study of a system of the body b. Internal features of the body c. None of these d. Features visible with the naked, or unaided, eye 7. The diaphragm separates the abdominopelvic and ________ cavities. a. Intestinal b. Renal c. Thoracic d. Cranial 8. ________ is the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions. a. Cytology b. Anatomy c. Ornithology d. Physiology 9. A positive feedback is an initial stimulus that produces a response that reinforces that stimulus. a. True b. False 10. ________ is an anatomical term meaning "toward an attached base." a. Inferior b. Proximal c. Superficial d. Distal 11. The pericardium lies within the: a. Pelvic cavity b. Abdominopelvic cavity c. Peritoneal cavity d. Mediastinum 12. An organ is composed of similar cells working together to perform a specific function. a. True b. False 13. The axial skeleton includes all limbs and supporting bones and ligaments. a. True b. False 14. The frontal plane divides the body into the ________ and ________ portions. a. Superior, inferior b. Lateral, dorsal c. None of these d. Anterior, posterior 15. ________ are the smallest living units in the body. a. Cells b. Molecules c. Tissues d. Proteins 16. The human form shown upright, hands at the sides, palms forward, and feet together is in the ________ position. a. Prone b. Anatomical c. Supine d. Physiological 17. A person lying face down is in the ________ position. a. Supine b. Prone c. Physiological d. Anatomical 18. The ________ level is comprised of the smallest stable units of matter. a. Organ b. Molecular c. Cellular d. Tissue 19. A person lying face up is in the ________ position. a. Physiological b. Anatomical c. Prone d. Supine 20. ________ is an anatomical term meaning "above or at a higher level." a. Medial b. Superior c. Inferior d. Lateral 21. The sagittal plane runs along the long axis of the body, extending anteriorly and posteriorly and dividing the body into left and right portions. a. True b. False 22. The term ________ means "the study of internal and external structures and the physical relationships among body parts." a. Ornithology b. Physiology c. Cytology d. Anatomy 23. The layer of the pericardium covering the heart is the ________ pericardium. a. Pulmonary b. Cardio c. Parietal d. Visceral 24. Cytolism refers to all of the chemical operations under way in the body. a. True b. False Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization 1. Surface tension is an example of what kind of chemical bond? a. Ionic b. Sodium c. Hydrogen d. Covalent 2. ________ are compounds that stabilize pH by either removing or replacing hydrogen ions. a. Catalysts b. Carbohydrates c. Electrolytes d. Buffers 3. Testosterone and estrogen are examples of steroids. a. True b. False 4. Atoms of an element that contain different numbers of neutrons are: a. Natural elements b. Mass elements c. Isotopes d. Neutral elements 5. ________ are atoms or molecules with an electric charge. a. Cations b. Anions c. Ions d. All of these 6. ________ is the energy of motion. a. None of these b. Kinetic energy c. Potential energy d. Work 7. Reactions that release energy are said to be: a. Exergonic b. Indergonic c. Endergonic d. Androgenic 8. ________ is a form of decomposition reaction. a. Hydrolysis b. Digestion c. Catabolism d. All of these 9. The mass number of an isotope is its total number of: a. Electrons b. Protons c. Protons and neutrons d. Neutrons and electrons 10. What is a uniform mixture of fluid solvent and dissolved solutes called? a. None of these b. A solution c. A hydrolyzed fluid d. A solvent liquid 11. Triglycerides are the rarest forms of fat in the body. a. True b. False 12. Fat is the combination of fatty acids and: a. Cholesterol b. Glycerol c. Glycogen d. Steroids 13. Sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium are examples of: a. Anions b. Lipids c. Cations d. Proteins 14. Sulfate, biphosphate, bicarbonate, and chloride are examples of: a. Lipids b. Cations c. Proteins d. Anions 15. ________ is when the rates of two reactions are in balance. a. Reversible b. Equilibrium c. Equal balance d. None of these 16. Water is not an essential reactant in the chemical reactions of living organisms. a. True b. False 17. An acid is any substance that breaks apart in solution and releases hydrogen ions. a. True b. False 18. The number of electrons in an atom's outer shell determines its chemical properties. a. True b. False 19. Inorganic compounds do not contain hydrogen and ________ atoms. a. Carbon b. Oxygen c. Sulfur d. Magnesium 20. Molecules synthesized or broken down by chemical reactions inside our body are called: a. Both nutrients and metabolites b. Metabolites c. None of these d. Nutrients 21. A reaction where molecules are shuffled around, such as AB + CD → AD + CB, is called a(n): a. Decomposition reaction b. Reversible reaction c. Synthesis reaction d. Exchange reaction 22. Water is an excellent solvent. a. True b. False 23. Water has a very low heat capacity. a. True b. False 24. Energy cannot be destroyed; it can only be converted from one form to another. a. True b. False 25. A base is a substance that removes hydrogen ions from a solution. a. True b. false 26. ________ are chemical bonds created by the electrical attraction between anions and cations. a. Covalent bonds b. Sodium bonds c. Ionic bonds d. Hydrogen bonds 27. ________ is the amount of energy required to start a reaction. a. None of these b. Potential energy c. Activation energy d. Beginning energy 28. A(n) ________ is a subatomic particle with a negative charge. a. Neutron b. Electron c. None of these d. Proton 29. Chemical bonds created by the sharing of electrons with other atoms are called: a. Ionic bonds b. Hydrogen bonds c. Covalent bonds d. Sodium bonds 30. Which is the organic molecule that contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio near 1:2:1? Examples of this organic molecule include the sugars and starches that make up roughly half of the typical U.S. diet. a. Monosaccharide b. Carbohydrate c. Lipid d. Polysaccharide 31. The atomic number of an atom is its total number of: a. Protons b. Protons and neutrons c. Protons and electrons d. Neutrons 32. Reactions that absorb energy are said to be: a. Exergonic b. Endergonic c. Indergonic d. Androgenic 33. A subatomic particle with a positive electrical charge is called a(n): a. Proton b. None of these c. Electron d. Neutron 34. Salt dissolves into sodium and chloride, the most abundant ions in body fluids. a. True b. false 35. ________ assembles larger molecules from smaller components. a. Anabolism b. A synthesis reaction c. All of these d. Dehydration synthesis 36. What reaction breaks molecules into smaller fragments (for example, AB → A + B)? a. Exchange reaction b. Reversible reaction c. Synthesis reaction d. Decomposition reaction 37. ________ are a type of subatomic particle contained in atoms. a. Electrons b. All of these c. Neutrons d. Protons 38. ________ is stored energy. a. Work b. Kinetic energy c. Potential energy d. None of these 39. ________ are the essential elements and molecules obtained from the diet. a. None of these b. Nutrients c. Both nutrients and metabolites d. Metabolites 40. ________ are compounds that accelerate chemical reactions without themselves being permanently changed. Enzymes are an example of these compounds. a. Catalysts b. Crystalloids c. Colloids d. All of these Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function 1. ________ produces vesicles containing solid objects that may be as large as the cell itself, then breaks down the contents using the digestive enzymes in lysosomes. a. Receptor-mediated endocytosis b. Pinocytosis c. Vesicle-intruded endocytosis d. Phagocytosis 2. ________ are the carrier proteins that move sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium across plasma membranes. a. All of these b. Carrier pumps c. Ion pumps d. Cation pumps 3. ________ are the internal structures that perform specific functions essential to normal cell structure, maintenance, and metabolism. a. Cytosins b. Microvilli c. Cytoplasm d. Organelles 4. The osmotic pressure of a solution is an indication of the force of water movement into that solution as a result of solute concentration. a. True b. false 5. Which solution does not cause the net movement of water into or out of a red blood cell? a. Isotonic b. Hypertonc c. Crenatonic d. Hypotonic 6. Cells are the building blocks of all plants and animals. a. True b. false 7. In carrier-mediated transport, membrane proteins bind specific ions or organic substrates and carry them across the cell membrane. a. True b. false 8. Which part of the cell surrounds the nucleus but is separated from the exterior by a cell membrane? a. Both interstitial fluid and extracellular fluid b. Cytoplasm c. Extracellular fluid d. Interstitial fluid 9. Match each term to its definition. a. Pseudo = Prefix meaning "false" b. Ana = Prefix meaning "apart" c. Aerobic metabolism = Also known as cellular respiration d. Endo = Prefix meaning "inside" e. Golgi apparatus = Renews or modifies the cell membrane f. Mitochondria = Small organelles that provide energy for the cell g. Hyper = Prefix meaning "above" h. Exo = Prefix meaning "outside" i. Nucleus = Control center for cellular operations j. Lysosomes = Vesicles filled with digestive enzymes k. Hemo = Prefix meaning "blood" l. Meta = Prefix meaning "after" m. Inter = Prefix meaning "between" n. Hypo = Prefix meaning "below" o. Pro = Prefix meaning "before" 10. ________ is the movement of molecules from an area of relatively high concentration to an area of relatively low concentration. a. Molecular dispersion b. Diluting c. Diffusion d. Filtration 11. Permeability is the property of a cell membrane that allows substances to enter but not leave the cytoplasm. a. True b. false 12. Crenation is the swelling of red blood cells that may eventually cause them to lyse, or burst. a. True b. false 13. What is the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane called? a. Osmosis b. None of these c. Hydrogen dispersion d. Concentration gradient 14. The organelles that manufacture proteins, using information provided by the DNA of the nucleus, are called what? a. Ribosomes b. None of these c. Proteasomes d. Flagella 15. The sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains homeostasis by ejecting sodium ions and recapturing lost potassium ions. a. True b. false 16. The endoplasmic reticulum has what function(s)? a. All of these b. Synthesis of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids c. Storage and transport of molecules or materials d. Neutralization of drugs and toxins 17. Cells are produced by the division of preexisting cells. a. True b. false 18. ________ are the carrier proteins that move an ion in one direction, while simultaneously moving another ion in the opposite direction. a. Diffusion pumps b. Carrier pumps c. Exchange pumps d. Osmotic pumps 19. Which solution causes a red blood cell to lose water, causing the cell to shrink and dehydrate? a. Crenatonic b. Hypertonic c. Isotonic d. Hypotonic 20. Each cell maintains homeostasis a. True b. false 21. ________ is the process in which a vesicle created inside the cell fuses with the plasma membrane and discharges its contents, such as hormones and waste products, into the extracellular environment. a. Pinocytosis b. Endocytosis c. Phagocytosis d. Exocytosis 22. ________ is the process in which materials move in and out of the cell in small membranous sacs that form at, or fuse with, the plasma membrane. a. Venous buffering b. Vesicular transport c. Vascular transport d. Vascular insertion 23. Intracellular structures are collectively known as: a. Extracellular fluid b. Organelles c. Cytoplasm d. Cytosol 24. Lactated Ringers and normal saline are examples of what type of IV fluid? a. Blood products b. Hemoglobin-based oxygen carrying solution (HBOCs) c. Colloid d. Crystalloid 25. Cells are nearly the smallest units of life. a. True b. false 26. Glucose is passively transported across the cell membrane by binding to a receptor site on a carrier protein in a process called: a. Assisted osmosis b. Facilitated osmosis c. Assisted diffusion d. Facilitated diffusion 27. Each organism maintains homeostasis only through the combined and coordinated actions of many types of cells and the organism's interaction with the environment. a. True b. false 28. Which solution causes the movement of water into a red blood cell, causing it to swell and possibly lyse, or burst? a. Hypertonic b. Isotonic c. Crenatonic d. Hypotonic 29. What functions do the carbohydrate portions of molecules perform? a. Receptor site for extracellular compounds b. Form part of a recognition system to keep the body's immune system from attacking the body's own cells and tissues c. Cell lubricant and adhesive d. All of these 30. ________ processes require the cell to expend energy to move ions or molecules across the cell membrane, usually in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). a. Energetic b. Exothermic c. Aggressive d. Active Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization 1. The several layers of cells providing protection above the basement membrane are called the what? a. Complex epithelium b. None of these c. Layered epithelium d. Stratified epithelium 2. Mixing water and mucin to create mucus is an example of which form of secretion? a. Merocrine b. Holocrine c. Apocrine d. Epithelial 3. The red blood cell accounts for almost ________ of the volume of blood. a. One-half (50%) b. One-third (33%) c. Two-thirds (66%) d. One-fourth (25%) 4. The majority of neural tissue is found where? a. Nerve pathways b. Spinal cord c. Brain d. Both brain and spinal cord 5. Tendons and ligaments are examples of what type of connective tissue? a. Dense b. Loose c. Strengthened d. Adipose 6. ________ are proteins that destroy invading microorganisms. a. Stem cells b. Antibodies c. Fibroblasts d. Antibiotics 7. What is an essential function of epithelial cells? a. Control permeability b. All of these c. Provide physical protection d. Produce specialized secretions 8. Connective tissue proper is categorized as either loose connective tissues or dense connective tissues. a. True b. false 9. The ________ glands secrete a watery solution containing enzymes. a. Mixed b. Both serous and mixed c. Mucous d. Serous 10. Exocrine secretions are released into surrounding tissues; endocrine secretions are discharged onto the surface of the epithelium. a. True b. false 11. A single layer of cells covering the basement membrane is called the what? a. Simple epithelium b. Stratified epithelium c. None of these d. Single epithelium 12. The pleural lining of the lungs is an example of what kind of membrane? a. Synovial b. Serous c. Cutaneous d. Mucous 13. ________ is found in the epiglottis and the outer ear. a. Osteo-cartilage b. Fibrocartilage c. Elastic cartilage d. Hyaline cartilage 14. What type of muscle is also known as striated voluntary muscle because it is controlled by the nervous system and has a striated appearance? a. Synovial b. Smooth c. Cardiac d. Skeletal 15. Epithelial cells are called avascular because they lack blood vessels. a. True b. false 16. In a columnar epithelium, the cells are square. a. True b. false 17. Adipose tissue is a loose connective tissue containing large numbers of fat cells. a. True b. false 18. Supportive connective tissue contains loosely packed and flexible fibers. a. True b. false 19. Which of the following is a function of connective tissue? a. Support and protection b. Transportation of materials c. Defense of the body d. All of these 20. Which type of secretion involves the loss of cytoplasm and the secretory product? a. Epithelial b. Holocrine c. Apocrine d. Merocrine 21. Connective tissue proper consists of cells and fibers within a watery ground substance. a. True b. false 22. The watery matrix in blood is called: a. Plasma b. A platelet c. Lymph d. Hematose 23. Elastic fibers are branched and wavy and after stretching will return to near their original length. a. True b. false 24. Amniocentesis is an example of exfoliative cytology, or the study of cells shed from epithelial surfaces. a. True b. false 25. Permanent replacement of normal tissue is called fibrosis. a. True b. false 26. ________ are layers of cells that cover internal or external surfaces. a. None of these b. Epithelia c. Exithelia d. Glands 27. Which of the following is the most common type of cartilage? a. Hyaline b. Osteo-cartilage c. Fibrocartilage d. Elastic 28. ________ is an example of a connective tissue. a. Blood b. Bone c. Fat d. All of these 29. In a ________ epithelium, the cells are thin and flat. a. Cuboidal b. Cylindrical c. Columnar d. Squamous 30. In a columnar epithelium, the cells are square. a. True b. false Chapter 5: The Integumentary System 1. The skin is the second largest body system behind the circulatory system. a. True b. false 2. A blood clot consists mainly of an insoluble network of: a. Macrophages b. Phagocytes c. Fibroblasts d. Fibrin 3. The primary function of merocrine sweat glands is what? a. To excrete odorous secretions b. None of these c. To lubricate the skin d. To cool the surface of the skin 4. ________ is a red-yellow or brown-black pigment that accumulates in the epidermal cells. a. Carotene b. Melanin c. Androsin d. Melanoma 5. The erecting pili muscle forces hairs to stand up by pulling on the hair follicles. a. True b. False 6. ________ is the medical condition characterized by the eruption of groups of vesicles along the dermatome of a sensory nerve. a. Exanthems b. Toxic epidermal necrolysis c. Herpes zoster d. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome 7. A small amount of ultraviolet (UV) radiation is beneficial because it stimulates the synthesis of specific vitamins in the epidermis. a. True b. False 8. Which of the following forms the basic structure for hair, calluses, and nails? a. Caralin b. Lucidum c. Kerilia d. Keratin 9. Which of the following is a combination of fibrin, fibroblasts, and capillaries that forms during tissue repair after inflammation? a. Granulation tissue b. Dermatitis c. Scar tissue d. Granulated enzymes 10. Which of the following is the layer of the dermis that consists of areolar tissue that supports and nourishes the epidermis? a. Epidermal junction layer b. Dermal border c. Reticular layer d. Papillary layer 11. A thickened area of scar tissue is called a keloid. a. True b. False 12. An incision, or slender, straight cut, may heal faster than an abrasion. a. True b. False 13. The secretion of sebum inhibits the growth of bacteria. a. True b. False 14. The ________ is the deepest epidermal layer. a. Stratum germinativum b. None of these c. Initial stratum d. Stratum corneum 15. ________ is an orange-yellow pigment that normally accumulates in epidermal cells. a. Carotene b. Androsin c. Melanin d. Melanoma 16. The dermis stores small reserves of lipids, as well as vitamin D, which is a building block for a hormone that aids calcium uptake. a. True b. False 17. In order for a medication to be administered transdermally, it must be lipid-soluble. a. True b. False 18. A(n) ________ is a skin injury caused by heat, chemicals, electricity, or radiation. a. None of these b. Avulsion c. Thermal variant d. Burn 19. Thick skin, such as that on the soles of the feet, contains how many layers of cells a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Three 20. The layer of the epidermis comprised of flattened and dead epithelial cells is called the what? a. External stratum b. None of these c. Stratum germinativum d. Stratum corneum 21. An ________ is an injury where a flap of skin and tissues are torn loose or torn off. a. Avulsion b. Abrasion c. Amputation d. None of these 22. The integument contains two types of exocrine glands, sweat and: a. Lubricating b. Apocrine c. Sebaceous d. Sudoriferous 23. A bluish appearance of the skin is called cyanosis. a. True b. False 24. Sepsis, a widespread bacterial infection, is a rare but treatable cause of death in burn patients. a. True b. False CHAPTER 7: THE MUSCULAR SYSTEM 1. ________ is a layer of collagen fibers that separates muscle from surrounding tissues and organs. a. Epimysium b. Fascicles c. Perimysium d. Endomysium 2. Slow muscle fibers contain myoglobin, which binds oxygen molecules a. True b. False 3. Which muscle separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities? a. Rectus abdominus b. Diaphragm c. External and internal obliques d. None of these 4. Cardiac muscle tissue is found only in the heart and aorta. a. True b. False 5. A(n) ________ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement. a. Synergist b. Antagonist c. Agonist d. None of these 6. Axons penetrate the epimysium, branch through the perimysium, and enter the endomysium to control individual muscle fibers. a. True b. False 7. How many muscles make up the hamstrings? a. Six b. Three c. Two d. Four 8. A single axon of a motor neuron branches within the perimysium to form fine branches that end at an expanded: a. Axon terminal b. Motor end plate c. Synaptic cleft d. None of these 9. What is the diagnostic key to fibromyalgia a. Chronic aching pain b. Tender points c. Muscle stiffness d. Non-restorative sleep 10. ________ occurs when the rate of stimulation is increased until the relaxation phase is completely eliminated, producing maximum tension. a. Complete tetanus b. Twitch c. Incomplete tetanus d. Summation 11. Which muscle acts to maintain an erect spinal column and head? a. Iliocostalis b. Spinalis c. Longissimus d. All of these 12. The muscular system consists of voluntary and involuntary muscles only. a. True b. False 13. The enlargement of stimulated muscles, as seen in athletes, is called engorgement. a. True b. False 14. Sphincters are rings of smooth muscles that regulate movement along internal pathways. a. True b. False 15. The specialized sites that are contacts between cardiac muscle cells are called what? a. Intercardiac synapses b. Intercalated discs c. Cardiac cellular gaps d. Cardiac potential sites 16. Which of the following is a function of skeletal muscle? a. To produce movement of the skeleton b. To maintain body temperature c. To maintain homeostasis d. Both to product movement of the skeleton and to maintain body temperature 17. The largest hip flexor muscle is the: a. Iliacus b. Iliopsoas c. Psoas major d. All of these 18. In most skeletal muscle names, the first part indicates the muscle's ________ and the second part its ________. a. Origin; insertion b. Insertion; origin c. Shape; origin d. Shape; action 19. The deltoid is the major abductor of the arm. a. True b. False 20. With age, skeletal muscles become more elastic, resulting in less muscle tone. a. True b. False 21. The most abundant muscle tissue in the body is skeletal muscle. a. True b. False 22. ________ is the length of time muscle contractions can be supported by glycolysis and existing energy reserves of ATP and CP. a. Aerobic endurance b. Endurance ratio c. Anaerobic endurance d. Myoglobin endurance 23. The resting tension in a skeletal muscle is called: a. Isotonic contraction b. Muscle tone c. Atrophy d. Recruitment 24. Which muscle contracts and relaxes to move food across the teeth from the space inside the cheeks? a. Buccinator b. Pterygoid c. Temporalis d. Masseter 25. The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid in the cytoplasm of the cell is called: a. Glycophage b. Glycogen c. Glycolysis d. Aerobic metabolism 26. ________ is a disease that results from the consumption of foods (often canned or smoked) contaminated with a bacterial toxin. a. Lyme disease b. Myasthenia gravis c. Botulism d. Muscular dystrophy 27. Arm muscles, after being in a cast, can develop smaller and weaker muscle fibers in a condition called: a. Muscle tone b. Atrophy c. Recruitment d. Isometric contraction 28. Skeletal muscle fiber is said to be ________ when it can no longer contract despite continued neural stimulation. a. Drained b. Fatigued c. Depleted d. Over-stimulated 29. Force is the maximum amount of tension produced by a muscle, but not by a muscle group. a. True b. False 30. Which of the following is a primary action classification for skeletal muscle? a. Antagonist b. Synergist c. Agonist d. All of these 31. The primary function of ATP is the transfer of energy from one location to another a. True b. False 32. The ________ is the largest of the gluteus muscles and produces extension, rotation, and abduction at the hip. a. Gluteus rectus b. Gluteus majorus c. Gluteus maximus d. None of these 33. ________ is the length of time a muscle can continue to contract while being supported by mitochondrial activities. a. Aerobic endurance b. Anaerobic endurance c. Myoglobin endurance d. Endurance ratio 34. Every skeletal muscle begins at an origin, ends at an insertion, and contracts to perform a specific action. a. True b. False 35. Electrical impulses reach the muscle cell's interior to alter the cell's chemical environment via what network? a. Myofilaments b. Sacroplasm c. Myofibrils d. Transverse tubules 36. The specialized cells that determine the timing of cardiac muscle contractions are called what? a. Pacemaker cells b. Cardiac action cells c. Pacer cells d. Synovial cells 37. Which of the following is an enzyme that breaks down the chemical released by a motor neuron? a. Acetylcholine b. ACE inhibitor c. Acetylcholinesterase d. All of these 38. The smallest functional unit of the muscle fiber is the what? Interactions between its thick and thin filaments are responsible for muscle contractions. a. Sarcomere b. Sarcolemma c. Myofibril d. Myofilament 39. Fast fibers contract three times faster than slow fibers, but slow fibers can continue contracting longer than fast fibers. a. True b. False 40. Muscle contraction without neural impulse is called automaticity. a. True b. False 41. With age, skeletal muscles become smaller in diameter. a. True b. False 42. In ________, tension rises and the skeletal muscle's length changes. a. Isometric contraction b. Atrophy c. Isotonic contraction d. Muscle tone 43. ________ acid can be used as a building block to synthesize glucose or can be used by the mitochondria to generate ATP. a. Pyruvic b. Glycogen c. Lactic d. None of these 44. A hernia is the presence of a visceral organ in a weakened area of the abdominal wall. a. True b. False 45. ________ is the active force produced when muscle cells contract and pull on collagen fibers. a. Twitch b. Summation c. Tension d. Compression 46. What are the large, diamond-shaped muscles that cover the back and portions of the neck, whose specific regions can contract independently? a. Levator scapulae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Trapezius d. Rhomboid 47. Intramuscular injections have faster actions than oral medications because they are metabolized by the liver quicker. a. True b. False 48. Which muscles rotate the radius at its proximal and distal articulations, without flexing or extending the elbow? a. Extensor carpi radialis, extensor carpi ulnaris b. Biceps brachii, triceps brachii c. Pronators, supinator d. Brachialis, brachioradialis 49. Smooth muscles have high levels of myofibrils, sarcomeres, and striations. a. True b. False 50. Fascicles are bundles of muscle fibers. a. True b. False 51. ________ is the "key" that "unlocks" the active site of an actin molecule. a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Magnesium d. Potassium 52. Rhabdomyolysis is a breakdown of muscle tissue that occurs when a person is immobile for a prolonged period of time. a. True b. False 53. ________ is the activation of more and more motor muscle units, resulting in a smooth, steady increase in muscular tension. a. Recruitment b. Muscle tone c. Isotonic contraction d. Atrophy 54. ________ is the neurotransmitter or chemical released by a motor neuron to communicate with other cells. a. An ACE inhibitor b. Acetylcholine c. Acetylcholinesterase d. None of these 55. Which enzyme regulates the reaction between ADP and creatine phosphate? High levels usually indicate serious cardiac or skeletal muscle damage. a. Creatine phosphokinase b. Creatine c. Sodium d. None of these CHAPTER 10: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM 1. The stress response has three phases: alarm, flight, and reduction. a. True b. False 2. What is the most important hormone produced in the male gonads? a. Testorxine b. Testosterone c. Inhibin d. None of these 3. ________ is the result of inadequate production of calcitriol. It causes the lower limb bones to be so weak that they bend under the body's weight. a. Myasthenia gravis b. Rickets c. Multiple sclerosis d. None of these 4. A(n) ________ effect can result in two hormones having a net effect greater than the sum of their individual effects. a. Synergistic 5. What disease is caused by cortical destruction? These patients have progressive weakness, fatigue, decreased appetite, and weight loss. a. Addison’s disease b. Hyperadrenalism c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Myxedema 6. Epinephrine makes up only 20 to 25 percent of secretions from the adrenal cortex. a. True b. False 7. In a(n) ________ effect, one hormone must be present for another to work. a. Antagonistic b. Synergistic c. Permissive d. Integrative 8. Which hormone is released by the kidney to stimulate the production of red blood cells by bone marrow? a. Angiotensin b. Erythropoietin c. Angiotensin II d. Renin 9. Calcitriol synthesis is dependent on the availability of vitamin C. a. True b. False 10. ________ specifically targets cells producing hormones called glucocorticoids, which affect glucose metabolism. a. Luteinizing hormone b. Prolactin c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone 11. Which hormone helps establish day-night cycles? a. Melatonin b. Thyroxine c. Norepinephrine d. Dopamine 12. The pancreas contains both exocrine and endocrine cells. a. True b. False 13. Which corticosteroid affects the electrolyte composition of body fluids? a. Cortisone b. Cortisol c. Aldosterone d. Corticosterone 14. Which hormone is important during childhood because it stimulates active bone growth and calcium deposition in the skeleton? a. Calcitonin b. Triiodothyronine c. Thyroxine d. All of these 15. ________ hormones are hormones secreted by the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, heart, kidneys, thymus, digestive tract, and pancreas. a. Lipid derivative b. Steroid c. Amino acid derivative d. Peptide 16. Which of the following is a life-threatening emergency in which patients display high fever, delirium or coma, tachycardia, hypotension, vomiting, and diarrhea? a. Graves disease b. Myxedema c. Thyrotoxic crisis d. All of these 17. Nonketotic hyperosmolar coma is associated with non-insulin dependent diabetics. a. True b. False 18. What are the chemical messengers of the endocrine system called? a. Electrolytes b. Minerals c. Hormones d. Vitamins 19. Which of the following affects glucose metabolism? a. Aldosterone b. Androgens c. Cortisol d. None of these 20. Thyroid hormones affect the rate of metabolism and oxygen consumption, is known as a. Thyroxic b. Calorigenic c. Thyroxine d. None of these 21. The hormone that stimulates smooth muscle contractions during labor and delivery is: a. Melanocyte-stimulating b. Antidiuretic hormone c. Oxytocin d. None of these 22. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are examples of: a. Inhibin b. Gonadotropins c. Growth hormones d. All of these 23. Polyuria is excessive urine production, which is often seen in diabetes? a. True b. False 24. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are released by which gland? a. Hypothalamus b. Thyroid c. Posterior pituitary gland d. Anterior pituitary gland 25. Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and melatonin are examples of what kind of hormone? a. Lipid derivative b. Steroid c. Peptide d. Amino acid derivative 26. Follicles surrounding the ova produce testrogen and estrogen. a. True b. False 27. Which hormone produced by the thymus plays a key role in the maintenance of normal immune defenses? a. Thyroxine b. Thymosins c. Thymoxine d. Thymols 28. Peptide hormones consist of chains of amino acids. a. True b. False 29. What is a primary function of the antidiuretic hormone? a. To increase kidney function b. To decrease the amount of water lost through the kidney c. To metabolize polysaccharides d. To stimulate the bladder 30. What disease occurs when the kidneys cannot respond to ADH or there is an inadequate release of ADH into the body? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes insipidus c. Type 2 diabetes d. Type 1 diabetes 31. The endocrine cells of which organ produce glucagon and insulin? a. Pancreas b. Gallbladder c. Appendix d. Kidney 32. The ________ provides the highest level of endocrine control by acting as an important link between the nervous and endocrine systems. a. Thyroid b. Pituitary gland c. Thalamus d. Hypothalamus 33. The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans produce which hormone? a. Glucagon b. Glycogen c. Insulin d. Glycolysis 34. Epinephrine is produced by which gland? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Pituitary d. Thyroid 35. Thyroid hormones bound to mitochondria reduce the mitochondrial rates of ATP production. a. True b. False 36. What are the blood vessels that link two capillary networks called? a. A capillary junction b. Endocrine tubules c. The venous return system d. Portal vessels 37. Epinephrine and peptide hormones are not lipid-soluble, which means they: a. cannot diffuse through a cell membrane. b. bind to receptor proteins on the outer surface of the cell. c. Both cannot diffuse through a cell membrane and bind to receptor proteins on the outer surface of the cell d. None of these 38. The hormone leptin suppresses appetite and is secreted from where? a. Gallbladder b. Pituitary c. Pancreas d. Adipose tissue 39. The hormones released by the ________ control other endocrine glands. a. Anterior pituitary gland b. Posterior pituitary gland c. Thyroid d. Hypothalamus 40. Epinephrine makes up only 20 to 25 percent of secretions from the adrenal cortex. a. True b. False CHAPTER 11: THE CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM (BLOOD) 1. Which plasma protein attacks foreign proteins and pathogens? a. Fibrinogens b. Immunoglobulins c. Albumins d. Globulins 2. Which surface antigen on red blood cells determines blood type? a. A b. B c. Rh d. All of these 3. Which of the following vitamins affects almost every aspect of the clotting process? a. A b. K c. B12 d. D 4. What occurs to the platelets during the platelet phase of hemostasis? a. They break apart to form clots b. They become engorged with plasma c. They stick to the vessel wall to form a plug d. All of these 5. Agglutination occurs in which of the following? a. Blood transfusions b. Sickle cell crisis c. Dialysis d. A hemophilia patient with trauma 6. After bilirubin is absorbed by the liver, most of it goes into the bile and then into the: a. Stomach b. Small intestine c. Kidneys d. Bladder 7. In the vascular phase of hemostasis, what occurs to the vessels that have been cut? a. They become inflamed b. They shed the endothelium c. They contract d. They dilate 8. The most common rapid blood tests are the hematocrit and hemoglobin a. True b. False 9. Plasma and water are equally dense a. True b. False 10. Which organ synthesizes most plasma proteins a. Brain b. Liver c. Gallbladder d. Kidney 11. Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein and the one responsible for the osmotic pressure of plasma a. Albumin b. Globulin c. Immunoglobulin d. Fibrinogen 12. What is the most common type of white blood cells? a. Monocytes b. Neutrophils c. Lymphocytes d. Eosinophils 13. Blood reduces fluid loss at injury sites by which of the following a. Increased red factor b. Clotting c. Decreasing pressure d. All of these 14. What is the average pH of whole blood? a. 7.25 to 7.45 b. 7.40 to 7.50 c. 7.35 to 7.45 d. Varies based on age 15. A person with type A blood cannot receive type O blood. a. True b. False 16. What is a blood clot attached to a vessel wall called? a. Plaque b. An embolus c. Thrombocytopenia d. A thrombus 17. Which of the following is a characteristic of white blood cells? a. Attracted to all types of chemical stimuli b. Can engulf pathogens c. Only found in blood vessels d. All of these 18. Which clotting protein is converted into the enzyme thrombin a. Clotting factor VII b. Prothrombin c. Clotting factor X d. Prothrombinase 19. ________ bind(s) and transport(s) carbon dioxide and oxygen. a. Hematocrit b. Hemocytes c. Hemoglobin d. Hemoglobulin 20. A person with type O blood can receive type B blood but not type AB blood a. True b. False 21. Plasma contains dissolved a. Proteins b. Electrolytes c. Phosphates d. Epithelial cells 22. In red blood cells, oxygen binds by interacting with what? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Heme d. Potassium 23. Polypeptide chains from ruptured red blood cells are removed from the body through a. Defecation b. Exhalation c. Urination d. All of these 24. What are special proteins that attack invading organisms called a. Antigens b. Red blood cells c. Antibodies d. White blood cells 25. Which of the following is left in a plasma sample after clotting proteins are removed? a. Water b. Plasma c. Serum d. Lysed leukocytes 26. Which plasma protein is responsible for antibodies and transport proteins? a. Fibrinogens b. Globulins c. Albumins d. Immunoglobulins 27. A person with type O blood is considered a universal donor a. True b. False 28. What is the procedure for removing blood from a superficial vein called? a. Venous pressure b. Arteriopuncture c. Venipuncture d. All of these 29. Which plasma protein is involved in blood clotting? a. Fibrinogens b. Globulins c. Immunoglobulins d. Albumins 30. What occurs during agglutination? a. Foreign red blood cells clump together b. Red blood cells cannot transport oxygen c. Red blood cells rupture d. None of these 31. Excess calcium and potassium are moved between interstitial fluids and blood by a. Osmosis b. Hyperdiffusion c. Diffusion d. Pressure gradient 32. The ________ is the percentage of whole blood volume occupied by formed elements. a. Hematocrit b. Hematine c. Hematocrite d. Hemocult 33. Where are red blood cells engulfed before they can undergo hemolysis a. Spleen b. Liver c. Red bone marrow d. All of these 34. What is leukopenia a. Low white blood cell counts b. White blood cells attacking healthy cells c. High white blood cell count d. Malformed white blood cells 35. What type of tissue is blood? a. Connective b. Adipose c. Absorbent d. Epithelial 36. Which clotting pathway begins with the release of a lipoprotein called tissue factor? a. Expanded b. Common c. Intrinsic d. Extrinsic 37. Red blood cell formation occurs in myeloid tissue in the: a. Sternum b. Femur c. Pelvis d. All of these 38. Red blood cells obtain energy a. Oxygen while passing through capillaries b. Diffusion c. Aerobic metabolism d. Glucose obtained from plasma 39. The normal temperature of whole blood is 100.4 degrees F a. True b. False 40. Heme molecules are stripped of iron and converted to what green-colored organic compound? a. Biliverdin b. Bilirubin c. Jaundice d. Transferrin 41. The percentage of whole blood occupied by cellular elements in an average adult male is 85 percent. a. True b. False 42. What vitamin is needed, along with intrinsic factor, for erythropoiesis to occur? a. A b. B12 c. C d. D 43. During the coagulation phase of hemostasis, ________ is (are) converted into the insoluble protein fibrin. a. Red blood cells b. Platelets c. Fibrinogen d. All of these 44. What is thrombocytopenia? a. High white blood cell count b. High plasma to red blood cell ratio c. Low platelet count d. High red blood cell count 45. Leukocytes transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. a. True b. False 46. Which type of white blood cell discharges granules that prevent blood clotting a. Neutrophils b. Monocytes c. Basophils d. Eosinophils 47. Individuals with type AB blood are considered universal recipients. a. True b. False 48. As many as 30 million red blood cells per second are produced during maximum erythropoietin stimulation. a. True b. False 49. Formed elements of the blood are formed through what process? a. Hemopoiesis b. Hematic composition c. Hepatopoiesis d. None of these CHAPTER 12: THE CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM (HEART) 1. ________ are the specialized sites that each cardiac muscle cell is in contact with. a. Vericalane discs b. Intercalane discs c. Cardium discs d. None of these 2. What are the small tributaries between the left and right coronary arteries called? a. Anastomoses b. Middle cardiac veins c. Endostomoses d. Myocardiastomoses 3. The normal rate of contraction is established by ________ cells, the nodal cells that reach threshold first. a. Pacemaker b. Pacer c. Conducting d. Nodal rate 4. Which connective tissue divides the thoracic cavity into two pleural cavities and encloses the heart? a. Mediastinum b. Pleural sac c. Pericardial sac d. None of these 5. An ________ is the recording of the electrical events of the heart. a. EEG b. Electrogram c. Afibrillation d. ECG 6. Where is blood pressure highest in the systemic circuit? a. Inferior vena cava b. Superior vena cava c. Aorta d. All of these 7. ________ is an irregularity in the heart's electrical activity. a. Myocardial infarction b. Arrhythmia c. Dysrhythmia d. Angina 8. Which of the following is a possible treatment for myocardial infarctions? a. Thrombolytic agents b. CABG c. PTCA d. All of these 9. Which of the following contains the major arteries and veins that supply blood to the cardiac muscle? a. Apex b. Auricle c. Sulci d. Epicardium 10. What is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle called a. Diastole b. Endocardiotole c. Systole d. Cardiac 11. Which cardiac disease is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi? a. Coronary artery disease b. Wernickes disease c. Typhoid fever d. Chagas disease 12. Which part of the pericardium covers the heart and is also known as the epicardium a. Parietal pericardium b. Endocardium c. Visceral pericardium d. Apicardium 13. Which of the following is true of the left ventricle? a. During contraction, the diameter of the ventricular chamber decreases b. It is thicker than the right ventricle c. During contraction, the distance between the heart’s apex and base decreases d. All of these 14. Which pathway conveys the electrical impulses to the contractile cells of the ventricular myocardium? a. Bundle of Hess b. Bundle of His c. Purkinje fibers d. AV bundle 15. Which of the following can cause the heart to go into an extended state of contraction, possibly resulting in death? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypocalcemia 16. What occurs during a single heartbeat? a. The atria contract b. The atria and ventricles contract in a coordinated manner c. The ventricles contract d. The atria and ventricles contract at the same time 17. The ________ is the start of the pulmonary circuit. a. Pulmonary trunk b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary vein d. Pulmonary valve 18. The right coronary artery supplies the a. Right atrium and left atrium b. Right atrium and right ventricle c. Right atrium and both ventricles d. Right atrium and septum 19. Which of the following is true of the cardiac skeleton of the heart? a. Contains thin bands of connective tissue b. Stabilizes the position of the heart valves c. Links the atria and ventricles d. All of these 20. Which system coordinates the activities of the contractile cells? a. Conducting b. Contractile c. Cardiac evolution d. None of these 21. Which of the following is true of the foramen ovale? a. Penetrates the interatrial septum from the fifth week of embryonic development until birth b. Allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the left atrium c. Closes at birth d. All of these 22. Which ion rushes out of the cell during repolarization a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Magnesium 23. Which chambers of the heart are associated with the pulmonary circuit? a. Right atrium; right ventricle b. Left atrium; left ventricle c. Right ventricle; left atrium d. Left ventricle; right atrium 24. The left coronary artery divides into what branches a. Circumflex and anterior interventricular b. Marginal and posterior interventricular c. Marginal and circumflex d. Posterior and anterior interventricular 25. Where do the left and right coronary arteries originate a. Aortic valve b. Pulmonary vein c. Left ventricle d. Aortic sinuses 26. ________ are responsible for establishing the rate of cardiac contraction. a. Nodal cells b. Conducting cells c. Conduction cells d. Cardiac cells 27. ________ is the backflow of blood from the ventricle into the atrium. a. Redundancy b. Resistance c. Regurgitation d. Reflux 28. Which vessels are known as efferent vessels? a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins d. All of these 29. In what order do the heart chambers contract when the heart beats? a. Left side then right side b. Atria then ventricles c. Right side then left side d. Ventricles then atria 30. Which of the following, caused by a streptococcal infection, may lead to carditis? a. Coronary thrombus b. Arteriosclerosis c. Rheumatic fever d. Commotio cordis 31. The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the: a. Bicuspid valve b. Left atrioventricular valve c. Mitral valve d. All of these 32. The muscular wall of the heart is called the what a. Epicardium b. Myocardium c. Endocardium d. None of these 33. The general rule of "more in equals more out," or the output of blood from the left and right ventricles is balanced under a variety of conditions, is referred to as the: a. Sparrow principle b. Fick principle c. Frank-Starling principle d. None of these 34. The T wave on an ECG tracing indicates: a. Depolarization of the ventricles b. Ventricular repolarization c. Depolarization of the atria d. Myocardial infarction 35. The ________ is a deep groove, usually filled with substantial amounts of fat, which divides the atria and ventricles. a. Coronary sulcus b. Coronary sinus c. Venous surface d. Capillary sulcus 36. The ________ is the network of blood vessels that carries blood to and from the rest of the body. a. Vascular circuit b. Systemic circuit c. Pulmonary circuit d. Peripheral circuit 37. The P wave on an ECG tracing indicates: a. Ventricular repolarization b. Myocardial infarction c. Depolarization of the ventricles d. Depolarization of the atria 38. Which condition causes a reduced heart rate? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypocalcemia 39. ________ is a faster than normal heart rate. a. Bradycardia b. Ectopic pacemaker c. Tachycardia d. Dyspnea 40. The atrium opens into the ventricle through the: a. Coronary sinus b. Chordae tendineae c. Atrioventricular valve d. All of these 41. Which of the following conditions occurs when the flaps of the left AV valve do not close properly? a. Tricuspid prolapse b. Tricuspid regurgitation c. Mitral valve prolapse d. Mitral valve regurgitation 42. The flaps of the right atrioventricular, or tricuspid valve are called what? a. Trigeminal folds b. Valvular segment c. Cusps d. Geminal folds 43. ________ is a blow to the myocardium where no obvious gross or microscopic injury can be found. a. Cardio cordis b. Commotio cordis c. Cardiac blow d. Commotio cardio 44. The right coronary artery divides into what branches? a. Posterior and anterior interventricular b. Circumflex and anterior interventricular c. Marginal and circumflex d. Marginal and posterior interventricular 45. A normal cardiac muscle cell is limited to ________ contractions per minute. a. 300 b. 200 c. 250 d. 150 46. Which of the following produces adjustments in heart rate in response to an increase in the venous return? a. Venous reflex b. Atrial reflex c. Cardiac reflex d. Ventricular reflex 47. Which nerve monitors baroreceptors, which in turn monitor oxygen and carbon dioxide levels? a. Thalamic nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Hypopharyngeal nerve d. Oculomotor nerve 48. The right atrium receives blood from the head and neck via which vessel? a. Descending aorta b. Inferior vena cava c. Superior vena cava d. Ascending aorta 49. ________ is the delivery of sufficient electrical energy to the heart to depolarize the myocardial muscle mass with limited damage. a. Afibrillation b. Shocking c. Defibrillation d. All of these 50. ________ is the amount of blood ejected by a ventricle during a single beat. a. Systolic volume b. Ventricular volume c. Cardiac output d. Stroke volume 51. The introduction of ________ initiates contraction during the plateau phase. a. Calcium b. Magnesium c. Potassium d. Sodium 52. What is another name for the conductive pathway between the AV node and the bundle branches? a. Purkinje fibers b. AV branch c. Bundle of Hess d. None of these 53. What is the most common cause of heart attacks? a. Coronary artery disease b. Peripheral vascular disease c. Pulmonary embolism d. Thrombus 54. What is an area of dead tissue caused by an interruption in cardiac blood flow called? a. Disruption site b. Ischemia c. Infarct d. None of these 55. The left coronary artery supplies the: a. Left atrium, both ventricles, and the interventricular septum b. Left ventricle and interventricular septum c. Left ventricle, left, atrium, and interventricular septum d. Left atrium and left ventricle 56. ________ are the connective tissue fibers that brace the flaps of the tricuspid valve. a. Chordae tendinae b. Valvular fibers c. Papillary muscles d. Chordae tensionae 57. A 12-lead ECG may be used to triage patients into which of the following groups? a. Nondiagnostic b. ST-segment elevation c. New left bundle branch block d. All of these 58. The QRS wave on an ECG tracing indicates: a. Myocardial infarction b. Depolarization of the ventricles c. Ventricular repolarization d. Depolarization of the atria 59. The influx of ________ rapidly depolarizes the cardiac contractile cells. a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Magnesium d. Potassium 60. What are the major sites of conducting cells a. AV node b. Bundle branches c. SA node d. All of these CHAPTER 13: THE CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM (BLOOD VESSELS) 1. Stimulation of the vasomotor centers causes what action? a. Vasodilation b. Vasoconstriction c. Both vasodilation and vasoconstriction d. None of these 2. The ________ of skeletal muscles near a vein compress it, helping push blood toward the heart. a. Extension b. Flexion c. Contraction d. Relaxation 3. Another name for sphygmomanometer is what? a. Blood pressure cuff b. Electrocardiogram c. Thermometer d. Stethoscope 4. The ________ respond to changes in carbon dioxide, oxygen, or pH levels in blood and cerebrospinal fluid. a. Baroreceptor reflexes b. Arterial gas reflexes c. Chemoreceptor reflexes d. Mean arterial pressure reflexes 5. Which of the following affects tissue perfusion? a. Blood pressure b. Cardiac output c. Peripheral resistance d. All of those 6. How does interstitial fluid osmotic pressure affect fluid movement at the arterial end? a. Moves fluid inward b. Varies based on pressure gradient c. Has no effect on fluid d. Moves fluid outward 7. Which layer of a blood vessel contains smooth muscle within loose connective tissue? a. Tunica lumena b. Tunica externa c. Tunica interna d. Tunica media 8. In ________, degenerating smooth muscle in the tunica media is replaced by calcium deposits. a. Focal calcification b. Lumena calcification c. Media calcification d. Tunica calcification 9. Which portion of the brain has the cardiac and vasomotor centers? a. Medulla oblongata b. Cerebellum c. Cerebrum d. Occipital 10. ________ is a fatty mass of tissue that projects into the lumen of a vessel. a. Calcification b. Plaque c. Plague d. All of these 11. ________ is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces. a. Edema b. Hyperlipidemia c. Hypertrophy d. Petal fluid 12. The vagus nerve releases ________, which reduces the rate and strength of cardiac contractions. a. Potassium b. Acetylcholine c. Acetylcholinesterase d. Sodium 13. As a result of ________, the blood flow within any one capillary is intermittent. a. Vasomotion b. Vasoconstriction c. Vasodilation d. Vasoaction 14. A rhythmic pressure oscillation that accompanies each heartbeat is: a. Stroke volume b. A pulse c. Systole d. Diastole 15. Which layer of a blood vessel forms a sheath of connective tissue around the vessel? a. Tunica externa b. Tunica lumena c. Tunica interna d. Tunica media 16. What is a normal body temperature? a. 37 degrees C b. 39 degrees C c. 100 degrees C d. 98.6 degrees C 17. The goal of cardiovascular regulation is to ensure that blood flow changes occur: a. In the right area b. At appropriate times c. Without drastically altering blood pressure d. All of these 18. ________ distribute blood to body organs. a. Veins b. Arteries c. Both veins and arteries d. None of these 19. Which nervous system adjusts cardiac output and peripheral resistance? a. Autonomic b. Central c. Dynamic d. Peripheral 20. The most important factor in vascular resistance is friction between the blood and the: a. Vessel walls b. Amount of plasma in the blood c. Amount of red blood cells d. Blood’s density 21. ________ reflexes respond to changes in blood pressure. a. Arterial b. Baroreceptor c. Chemoreceptor d. Venous 22. The formation of lipid deposits in the tunica media associated with damage to the endothelial lining is called what? a. Arteriosclerosis b. Atherosclerosis c. Lumenasclerosis d. Atherosclerosis 23. Which of the following control the flow of blood into the capillary? a. Precapillary sphincter b. Capillary pressure gradient c. Capillary control muscle d. Capillary tone 24. Tissues rely on ________ to obtain nutrients and oxygen and to remove metabolic wastes. a. Venous pressure b. Capillary osmosis c. Capillary diffusion d. Capillary gradient 25. When the average of two systolic blood pressures taken on two different occasions is 130 mm Hg or higher, this can lead to a diagnosis of: a. Anemia b. Decreased cardiac output c. Hyperlipidemia d. Hypertension 26. Which layer of a blood vessel includes the endothelial lining of the vessel and an underlying layer of connective tissue? a. Tunica lumena b. Tunica media c. Tunica interna d. Tunica externa\ 27. Which vessel type has a thicker smooth muscle layer? a. Capillaries b. Veins c. Arteries d. All are the same 28. When resistance increases, flow a. Increases b. Decreases c. Varies d. Stays the same 29. ________ arteries distribute blood to skeletal muscles and internal organs. a. Pressure b. Elastic c. Skeletal d. Muscular 30. During exercise, what cardiovascular changes occur? a. Cardiac output rises b. Venous return increases c. Extensive vasodilation takes place d. All of these 31. ________ is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. a. Pressure variable b. Pressure gradient c. Pulse d. Pulse pressure 32. The aorta and pulmonary trunk are ________ arteries. a. Rigid b. Muscular c. Dilated d. Elastic 33. Small veins in the neural tissue of the brain empty into a network of thin-walled channels called what? a. Dural capillaries b. Venous ports c. Dural sinuses d. Jugular sinuses 34. The high resistance of the arterial system is called what? a. Capillary resistance b. Peripheral resistance c. Arteriole resistance d. Arterial resistance 35. Which of the following is a function of capillary exchange? a. Flushing bacterial toxins to lymphatic tissues and organs that function in providing immunity to disease b. Preventing the movement of insoluble lipids through the capillary wall c. Stopping the distribution of dissolved gasses d. All of these 36. ________ is the formed tubule through which blood completely bypasses a capillary bed. a. Capillary anastomosis b. Venous anastomosis c. Arterial anastomosis d. Arteriovenous anastomosis 37. What is an interconnected network of capillaries called a. Capillary bed b. Capillary arterioles c. Capillary branches d. Capillary diffusion 38. The inferior vena cava and right atrium fill with blood when you: a. Breathe in and out b. Breathe in c. Breathe out d. None of these, breathing does not affect him 39. ________ is the thickening and toughening of arterial walls. a. Atherosclerosis b. Arteriosclerosis c. Anterosclerosis d. Lumenasclerosis 40. What type of circulatory pressure is commonly referred to as blood pressure? a. Arterial pressure b. Venous pressure c. Capillary pressure d. All of these 41. When pressure increases, flow: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Varies d. Stays the same 42. ________ is the resistance to flow resulting from interactions among molecules and suspended materials in a liquid. a. Pressure variable b. Density c. Turbulence d. Viscosity 43. The posterior pituitary gland releases what hormone that results in peripheral vasoconstriction? a. Natriuretic peptide b. Erythropoietin c. Angiotensin II d. None of these 44. Eddies and swirls in blood flow are called: a. Pressure variable b. Viscosity c. Density d. Turbulence 45. ________ is the increase of the diameter of an artery and its central opening. a. Vasodilation b. Vessel atrophy c. Vagal response d. Vasoconstriction 46. Hypoperfusion, or a state of inadequate tissue perfusion, is more commonly called what? a. Shock b. Renal insufficiency c. Cardiac disruption d. None of these 47. Where would you find the blood mobilized by the venous reserve? a. Large intestines b. Liver c. Heart d. Kidney 48. Which hormone released by the kidneys stimulates red blood cell production? a. Natriuretic peptide b. Anti-diuretic hormone c. Angiotensin II d. Erythropoietin 49. A bulging in the weakened wall of a blood vessel is called a(n) what? a. Aneurysm b. Embolism c. Thrombus d. Hyperlumena 50. ________ form branching networks and are barely the diameter of a single red blood cell. a. Veins b. Capillaries c. Arteries d. All of these CHAPTER 14: LYMPHATIC SYSTEM 1. In what way do cytotoxic T cells destroy pathogens? a. By secreting cytokines b. By secreting lymphotoxin c. By releasing perforin d. All of these 2. Which of the following is an example of primary lymphoid tissues? a. Tonsils b. Thalamus c. Thymus d. Spleen 3. What is the term for inflammation of the lymphoid nodules in the appendix? a. Appendicitis b. Appendicular flammation c. Appenditrophy d. All of these 4. ________ is the body's ability to resist infection and disease through the activation of specific defenses. a. Immunity b. The immune response c. Immunity suppression d. Resistance 5. ________ are specialized cells that perform an array of specific functions in defending the body. a. Podocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Phagocytes d. Red blood cells 6. Which medicine is considered an antipyretic? a. Acetaminophen b. Ibuprofen c. Penicillin d. Both acetaminophen and ibuprofen are correct 7. ________ stimulate lymphocyte stem cell divisions and T cell maturation. a. Thyroxines b. Thyritazines c. Thymosins d. All of these 8. ________ are small proteins released by activated lymphocytes, macrophages, and tissue cells infected with viruses. a. Interons b. Interferons c. Masts d. Complements 9. The ________ acts as the body's thermostat. a. Hypothalamus b. Spleen c. Thalamus d. Pituitary 10. Which chemicals initiate the process of inflammation? a. Bicarbonate and histamine b. Bicarbonate, histamine, and heparin c. Heparin and bicarbonate d. Histamine and heparin 11. The purpose of inflammation is to a. prevent the access of unneeded mast cells. b. inhibit regeneration. c. increase the spread of pathogens from the injury site. d. None of these 12. ________ proteins interact with one another in chain reactions similar to those of the clotting system. a. Complacent b. Compliant c. Complement d. None of these 13. Antibodies eliminate antigens by: a. Inhibition b. Mast cell production c. Releasing cytotoxins d. None of these 14. Which of the following is a general property of immunity? a. Versatility b. Tolerance c. Memory d. All of these 15. Which of the following is a class of antibodies? a. lgR b. lgA c. lgT d. All of these 16. Which hormone stimulates NK cells and macrophages? a. Interferons b. TNFs c. Interleukins d. Phagocytic regulators 17. Which type of lymphocyte can differentiate into plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies? a. B cells b. T cells c. NK cells d. All of these 18. A person who has a splenectomy is at higher risk for what complication? a. Bacterial infection b. Anemia c. Viral infection d. Cancer 19. ________ stimulate the activities of both T cells (cell-mediated) and B cells (antibody-mediated). a. Helper T cells b. A cells c. Suppressor T cells d. Helper B cells 20. The ________ delivers lymph from the right side of the body and empties into the right subclavian vein. a. Left lymphatic duct b. Thoracoabdominal duct c. Thoracic duct d. Right lymphatic duct 21. How many tonsils does a person have? a. Five b. Two c. Three d. Four 22. ________ immunity is genetically determined. a. Innate b. Active c. Inborn d. Genetic 23. ________ immunity appears after exposure to an antigen as a consequence of the immune response. a. Passive b. Genetic c. Redundant d. Active 24. The phenomenon of being attracted to or repelled by chemicals in surrounding fluid is called what? a. Chemotaxis b. Chemophonic c. Chemophagia d. Chemoendocrine 25. The first event in antibody-mediated immunity is the sensitization of ________ cells. a. Mast b. Suppressor T c. Memory T d. B 26. Which proteins reset the body's "thermostat" and cause a rise in body temperature? a. Pharonesis b. Pyrokinesis c. Pyrogens d. Leukocytes 27. ________ in peripheral tissues remove cellular debris and respond to invasion by foreign compounds or pathogens. a. Phagocytes b. Immunocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Andocytes 28. Tissue destruction that occurs after cells have been injured or destroyed is called what? a. Phlebitis b. Necrosis c. Inflammation d. Nephritis 29. ________ is blockage of lymphatic drainage from a limb, which can cause the limb to swell due to the accumulation of interstitial fluid. a. Edema b. Lymphedema c. Lymphatic hypertrophy d. Lymphatic regurgitation 30. Which of the following is involved with bone marrow in the production of T cells? a. Pituitary b. Thymus c. Hypothalamus d. Thalamus 31. The Lymphatic system begin in peripheral tissues and end at connections to the ________ system. a. Digestive b. Venous c. Renal d. Arterial 32. The ________ collects lymph from the lower abdomen, pelvis, lower limbs, and from the left half of the head, neck, and chest. It empties near the junction between the left internal jugular vein and the left subclavian vein. a. Thoracoabdominal duct b. Left lymphatic duct c. Thoracic duct d. Right lymphatic duct 33. What type of allergy is the most common and includes "hay fever"? a. Delayed hypersensitivity b. Immediate hypersensitivity c. Immune complex disorder d. Cytotoxic reactions 34. ________ are small, oval lymphoid organs that filter and purify the lymph before it reaches the venous system. a. Lymphatic nodules b. Lymphoids c. Lymph nodes d. Lymph nodules 35. Which of the following is a preparation designed to create an immune response? a. Antibiotic b. Antiviral c. Vaccine d. All of these 36. Which hormone increases T cell sensitivity to antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells? a. Colony-stimulating factors b. Interleukins c. Interferons d. All of these 37. Which type of lymphocyte directly attacks foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses? a. B cells b. T cells c. NK cells d. All of these 38. What is formed when an antibody molecule binds to its specific antigen? a. Antigen-pathogen complex b. Pathogen-antibody complex c. Antigen-antibody complex d. All of these 39. Which type of lymphocyte attacks cancer cells that appear in normal tissue? a. B cells b. T cells c. NK cells d. All of these 40. The hepatitis B vaccine is ________ immunity a. Naturally acquired b. Induced passive c. Induced active d. Acquired passive 41. A ________ carries its genetic information in RNA rather than DNA. a. Helpervirus b. Hepavirus c. Retrovirus d. Redundant virus 42. Which of the following is a function of the spleen? a. To filter blood b. To store iron from recycled red blood cells c. To initiate the responses of B cells and T cells to antigens in the blood d. All of these 43. ________ is the process of NK cells constantly monitoring normal tissues. a. Immune oversight b. Immunological monitoring c. Immunological trapping d. Immune surveillance 44. ________ is the process of insoluble complexes settling out of body fluids. a. Filtering b. Inhibition c. Limiting d. Precipitation 45. The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body is found where? a. Thymus b. Spleen c. Appendix d. Pancreas 46. NK cells kill abnormal cells by secreting ________, which kill the cells by creating large pores in their plasma membranes. a. Perforations b. Perforines c. Perforins d. Perforates 47. A(n) ________ defense may oppose infection by one type of bacterium but ignore other bacteria and all viruses. a. Limited b. Direct c. Oppositional d. Specific 48. The relatively diffuse collection of phagocytic cells throughout the body is called what? a. Monocyte-macrophage system b. Reticuloendothelial system c. Phagocytic system d. Both Monocyte-macrophage system and Reticuloendothelial system 49. When antibodies produced by a mother protect her baby against infections, it is called ________ immunity. a. Genetic b. Active c. Passive d. Passed 50. ________ disorders develop when the immune response targets normal body cells and tissues. a. Immunodeficiency b. Autoimmune c. Allergy d. None of these 51. ________ are small, oval lymphoid organs that filter and purify the lymph before it reaches the venous system. a. Lymph nodules b. Lymphoids c. Lymphatic nodules d. Lymph nodes CHAPTER 15: THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 1. What is the physical movement of air into and out of the lungs called? a. Respiration b. Inhalation c. Perfusion d. Pulmonary ventilation 2. A segment of lung tissue that is bounded by connective tissue partitions and supplied by a single bronchiole is called what? a. Alveolar ducts b. A lobe c. Bronchial termination d. A pulmonary lobule 3. The ________ is the maximum amount of air that can be moved into and out of the lungs in a single respiratory cycle. a. Reserve capacity b. Lung capacity c. Vital capacity d. Expansion/contraction capacity 4. Which membrane is made up of respiratory epithelium and the lamina propria (or the areolar tissue)? a. Respiratory mucosa b. Tracheal lining c. Lacrimal sinuses d. All of these 5. ________ molecules are the most abundant gas molecules in the air we breathe. a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Hydrogen d. Nitrogen 6. Which of the following is a basic function of the respiratory system? a. To produce sounds b. To provide a large area for gas exchange c. To provide olfactory sensations d. All of these 7. Which subdivision of the pharynx extends between the level of the hyoid bone and the entrance to the esophagus? a. Laryngopharynx b. Nasopharynx c. Tracheopharynx d. Oropharynx 8. Which of the following breaks the fluid bond between the pleurae? a. Pneumothorax b. Thoracotomy c. Thoracentesis d. Pulmonary embolism 9. Rising PCO2 levels cause the ________ of smooth muscles in the walls of arterioles. a. Spasm b. Constriction c. Relaxation d. None of these 10. Which of the following is a type of obstructive lung disease? a. Chronic bronchitis b. Emphysema c. Asthma d. All of these 11. The best defense against the spread of upper respiratory infection is to: a. Take antihistamines b. Practice common hygiene c. Restrict antibiotic use d. Practice early antibiotic intervention 12. ________ is a severe, prolonged asthma attack that cannot be broken by repeated doses of bronchodilators. a. Redundant bronchoconstriction b. Repetitive asthmatic c. Status asthmaticus d. None of these 13. Which of the following is treated by a pleural decompression? a. Spontaneous pneumothorax b. Tension pneumothorax c. Pericardial tamponade d. Hemothorax 14. Foods that touch the ________ trigger the coughing reflex. a. Tracheal cartilages b. Vocal cords c. Epiglottis d. Any of these 15. ________ is low tissue oxygen levels. a. Hypoxia b. Hypoventilation c. Hyperventilation d. Anoxia 16. The diffusion of gasses between the blood and alveolar air across the respiratory membrane is called: a. External respiration b. Internal respiration c. Respiratory perfusion d. Respiratory diffusion 17. What is the movement of air into and out of the alveoli called? a. Alveolar diffusion b. Alveolar respiration c. Alveolar osmosis d. None of these 18. The ________ is the amount of air that remains in the lungs even after a maximal exhalation. a. Tidal capacity b. Residual volume c. Ending respiratory volume d. Residual capacity 19. The maxillary, nasal, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones form the lateral and superior walls of the: a. Sinuses b. Mouth c. Oropharynx d. Nasal cavity 20. The amount of air that can be taken in over and above the resting tidal volume is the: a. Inspiratory reserve volume b. Inspiratory limits c. Inspiratory capacity d. Inspiratory exertion volume 21. The ________ is the amount of air moved into or out of the lungs during a single respiratory cycle. a. Tidal volume b. Respiratory volume c. Ventilatory volume d. Ventilatory capacity 22. The trachea begins at the level of the ________ cervical vertebra and ends at the level of the ________ thoracic vertebra. a. Sixth, eighth b. Sixth; fifth c. Sixth; sixth d. Fourth; third 23. ________ is one of the world's most common and serious infectious diseases. a. Tuberculosis b. Community acquired pneumonia c. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) d. Pneumocystis pneumonia 24. Initial tidal volume for a patient on a mechanical ventilator is set at ________. a. 10-15 ml/kg b. 5 cc/kg c. 700 cc d. 20 ml/kg 25. The pressure contributed by a single gas is the ________ pressure of that gas. a. Atmospheric b. Partial c. Complete d. Elemental 26. The ________ prevents the lungs from over expanding during forced breathing. a. Inhalation receptor b. Constriction reflex c. Inhalation reflex d. Inflation reflex 27. Forced breathing involves the accessory muscles during inhalation and the ________ muscles and abdominal muscles during exhalation. a. Internal intercostal b. Sternal c. External intercostal d. All of these 28. The medial margin of the left lung is indented where? a. Aortic notch b. Splenic notch c. Cardiac notch d. Pulmonary notch 29. Changes in the volume of the thoracic cavity result from movements of the diaphragm and the: a. Appendicular skeleton b. Rib cage c. Pectoral muscles d. None of these 30. ________ is the process that involves gas exchange and gas transport. a. Inhalation b. Ventilation c. Perfusion d. Respiration 31. The division of the trachea into the right and left primary bronchi occurs at the: a. Xiphoid process b. Carina c. Mediastinum d. Suprasternal notch 32. The pharynx, larynx, and bronchi are in what portion of the respiratory tract? a. Passage b. Respiratory c. Conducting d. Pathway 33. The ________ provide(s) posterior support to the larynx. a. True vocal cords b. False vocal cords c. Thyroid d. Cricoid cartilage 34. The blockage of a pulmonary blood vessel that restricts blood flow to the lung is called what? a. Pulmonary embolism b. Pulmonary infarction c. Pulmonary hypertrophy d. None of these 35. The ________ of the lungs is an indication of their resilience and ability to expand. a. Compliance b. Complacence c. Durability d. Elasticity 36. ________ are common chambers connected to multiple individual alveoli. a. Alveolar sacs b. Bronchiole sacs c. Alveolar ducts d. None of these 37. When PCO2 declines, bronchioles: a. Remain the same b. Spasm c. Constrict d. Relax 38. Which of the following genetic diseases involves mucous cells in the respiratory mucosa producing dense, viscous mucus that cannot be transported by respiratory cilia? a. Pneumonia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Myasthenia gravis d. Down syndrome 39. High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, as in emphysema, are called what? a. Hypercapnia b. Hyperperfusion c. Hypercarbia d. Hyperlipidemia 40. The base of the lung can be found where? a. The level of the heart b. At the top of the sternum c. On top of the diaphragm d. The base of the neck 41. Only about 1.5 percent of the oxygen content of arterial blood consists of oxygen molecules in solution. The rest of the oxygen molecules are bound to ________ molecules. a. Hemoglobin b. Leukocyte c. Hematocrit d. Macrophage 42. The ________ separate(s) the oral and nasal cavities. a. Ventral sinuses b. Soft palate c. Ethmoid bone d. Hard palate 43. Which of the following secrete surfactants? a. Alveolar epithelium cells b. Alveolar macrophages c. Septal cells d. Squamous epithelium cells 44. Enlargement of the lower airways due to sympathetic activation is called: a. Alveoladilation b. Bronchodilation c. Bronchiolitis d. Vasodilation 45. What anatomical structure consists of nine cartilages stabilized by ligaments, skeletal muscles, or both? a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Voice box d. Both larynx and voice box 46. ________ results from an increase in the number of goblet cells in the respiratory system. a. Anemia b. Asthma c. Pleuritis d. Chronic bronchitis 47. ________ levels are responsible for regulating respiratory activity under normal conditions. a. Oxygen b. Carbonic acid c. Carbon dioxide d. All of these 48. Patients who require prolonged ventilation assistance are placed on what device? a. Pneumatic ventilator b. Mechanical respirator c. Respirator d. Mechanical ventilator CHAPTER 8: NERVOUS SYSTEM 1. Ataxia is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal involuntary movements, unusual sensations, or inappropriate behavior. a. True b. False 2. Every spinal segment is associated with a pair of ________ that contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons. a. Ventral roots b. Dorsal root ganglia c. Cauda equina d. Spinal nerves 3. ________ increase(s) the speed at which action potential travels along the axon of an oligodendrocyte. a. Gray matter b. Myelin c. Neural spacing d. Nodes 4. The area of the diencephalon whose functions include the subconscious control of skeletal muscle contractions associated with rage, pleasure, pain, and sexual arousal is the: a. Thalamus b. Hypothalamus c. Hyperthalamus d. Epithalamus 5. The nervous system coordinates voluntary and involuntary responses of many other organ systems. a. True b. False 6. Stimulation of alpha 1 receptors causes vasodilation. a. True b. False 7. Any stimulus that alters the activity of the exchange pump will disturb the resting potential of a cell. a. True b. False 8. Which region of the brain controls conscious thoughts, sensations, memory storage, and complex movements? a. Diencephalon b. Midbrain c. Medulla oblongata d. Cerebrum 9. The elevated ridges of the cerebral hemispheres that increase the surface area of the cerebrum, and thus the number of neurons in the cortex, are called what? a. Gyri b. Fissures c. Sulci d. Sulcus 10. The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates tissue metabolism, increases alertness, and prepares the body to deal with emergencies. a. Parasympathetic b. Emergent c. Sympathetic d. None of these 11. Organs that receive instructions from both autonomic divisions are said to receive: a. Dual innervation b. Single innervation c. Group innervation d. Bi-innervation 12. The ________ is the association area responsible for coordinating learned movements. a. Premotor cortex b. Somatic motor association area c. Somatic sensory association area d. Both premotor cortex and somatic motor association area 13. The parasympathetic division of the ANS constricts the pupils, stimulates defecation, and reduces the heart rate. a. True b. False 14. ________ are learned motor behaviors that, with repetition, become incorporated at the unconscious level. a. Skill memories b. Fact memories c. Moto memories d. Gross function memories 15. Which of the following is the dural space containing areolar tissue, blood vessels, and adipose tissue? a. Subdural space b. Epidural space c. Subarachnoid space d. All of these 16. Which neuron has two or more dendrites and a single axon? a. Megapolar b. Unipolar c. Bipolar d. Multipolar 17. Aphasia is a disorder affecting the comprehension and use of words. a. True b. False 18. Amnesia is the loss of memory from disease or trauma a. True b. False 19. The spinal cord extends into the coccyx area of the vertebral column. a. True b. False 20. Match each term to its definition. a. Cranial Nerve I; responsible for smell = Olfactory nerves b. Cranial Nerve II; responsible for carrying visual information = Optic nerves c. Cranial Nerve III; responsible for four of the six muscles that move the eyeball = Oculomotor nerve d. Cranial Nerve V; responsible for motor control over chewing = Trigeminal nerve e. Cranial Nerve VII; controls tear and salivary glands = Facial Nerve f. Cranial Nerve VIII; monitors the sensory receptors of the inner ear = Vestibulocochlear nerve g. Cranial Nerve IX; monitors blood pressure and dissolved gas concentrations in major blood vessels = Glossopharyngeal nerve h. Cranial Nerve X; provides sensory information vital to autonomic control of visceral function = Vagus nerve i. Cranial Nerve XI; controls the laryngeal muscles that control the vocal cords = Accessory nerve j. Cranial Nerve XII; provides voluntary control over the skeletal muscles of the tongue = Hypoglossal nerve 21. There are 32 pairs of spinal nerves grouped according to the region of the vertebral column from which they originate. a. True b. False 22. Ependymal lining is freely permeable except at the choroid plexus, where cerebrospinal fluid is produced. a. True b. False 23. Synapses that release norepinephrine are called: a. Aternergic b. CNS axons c. Adrenergic d. MAOI inhibitors 24. Which of the following is an example of a demyelination disorder? a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. Multiple sclerosis c. Heavy metal poisoning d. All of these 25. Which receptors of the somatic sensory system monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints? a. Proprioceptors b. Visceral receptors c. External receptors d. Skeletal receptors 26. In ________, several neurons synapse on a single postsynaptic neuron, making possible both voluntary and involuntary control of some body processes. a. Convergence b. PNS junctions c. Divergence d. None of these 27. What is a shift of membrane potential toward 0 mV called? An example is the entry of sodium into the cell. a. Hyperpolarization b. Depolarization c. Action potential d. Repolarization 28. Which of the following is a withdrawal reflex affecting the muscles of a limb? a. Flexor reflex b. Tension reflex c. Plantar reflex d. Both tension reflex and plantar reflex 29. All neural tissue outside of the brain and spinal cord makes up which nervous system? a. Appendicular b. Peripheral c. Autonomic d. Anatomical 30. The white matter of the peripheral nervous system contains axons bundled together in: a. Nerves b. Column c. Tracts d. The neural cortex 31. The dorsal and ventral roots from each segment of the spinal cord leave the vertebral column between adjacent vertebrae at the intervertebral foramen. a. True b. False 32. Which of the following is caused by an imbalance in the amount of cerebrospinal fluid produced and the rate at which it is absorbed? a. Hydrocephalus b. Hypercephalus c. Cephalomegaly d. None of these 33. The stimulation of Beta 1 receptors causes which of the following? a. An increase in heart rate b. An increase in cardiac conduction c. An increase in cardiac contractility d. All of these 34. Which motor pathway is responsible for conscious, voluntary control of skeletal muscles? a. Lateral b. Medial c. Corticospinal d. Cerebral 35. Masses of gray matter that lie beneath the lateral ventricles and direct activities outside of our conscious awareness are the: a. Basal nuclei b. Dual sinuses c. Corpus callosum d. None of these 36. The brain contains almost 97 percent of the neural tissue in the body. a. True b. False 37. Each pair of spinal nerves monitors a specific region of the body surface known as: a. A dermatome b. Nerve plexuses c. The plexus region d. None of these 38. The three layers of specialized membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord are the: a. Meninges b. CNS white matter c. Dorna matter d. Dural folds 39. Neurons are the basic functional units of the nervous system. a. True b. False 40. Information is carried to the CNS by the ________ division, and motor commands are carried to muscles and glands via the ________ division. a. Efferent; afferent b. Afferent; efferent c. Inherent; reactive d. Reactive; inherent 41. Twelve pairs of cranial nerves connect to the brain a. True b. False 42. Which neuroglia produces cerebrospinal fluid in some regions of the brain? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Astrocytes c. Ependymal cells d. Microglia 43. ________ is when a cell membrane cannot respond normally to further stimulation. a. The refractory period b. Action potential c. Threshold d. Repolarization 44. The entire spinal cord consists of 42 segments. a. True b. False 45. Which type of headache is characterized by very severe, unilateral pain in the orbit, forehead, or temple? a. Tension b. Cluster c. Migraine d. All of these 46. Which region of the brain is responsible for control of autonomic functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestive activities? a. Cerebellum b. Medulla oblongata c. Pons d. Diencephalon 47. The hypothalamus is connected to what gland, which is the primary link between the nervous and endocrine systems? a. Pituitary b. Sebaceous c. Epithalamus d. Thyroid 48. The ________ system establishes emotional states and related behavioral drives. a. Peripheral nervous b. Mamillary body c. Limbic d. Autonomic 49. ________ breaks down acetylcholine into acetate and choline at the synaptic cleft and postsynaptic membrane. a. Serotonin b. Dopamine c. Norepinephrine d. Acetylcholinesterase 50. The parasympathetic nervous system has nicotinic and ________ receptors. a. Dopaminergic b. Beta c. Muscarinic d. Adrenergic 51. Which nervous system component provides automatic involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular secretions? a. Somatic b. Afferent c. Autonomic d. Automone CHAPTER 9: General and Special Senses 1. Which of the following is a general sense? a. Smell b. Temperature c. Taste d. Balance 2. Temperature receptors are found in the bladder and kidney. a. True b. False 3. ____ is a reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus. It reduces the amount of information arriving at the cerebral cortex a. Adaptation b. Disintegration c. Activation d. None of these 4. Which sense informs a person of his or her position in space by monitoring gravity, linear acceleration, and rotation? a. Equilibrium b. Inertia c. Balance d. None of th

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