Final Coaching M1 PDF

1. Has greatest factor among the quantum numbers in determining the atomic radius: A. Principal quantum number - n; size (atomic radius) and overall energy PMS B. Azimuthal quantum number - l; orbital angle and shape and angular momentum (spdf) OSAA C. Magnetic quantum number - ml; spatial o...

1. Has greatest factor among the quantum numbers in determining the atomic radius: A. Principal quantum number - n; size (atomic radius) and overall energy PMS B. Azimuthal quantum number - l; orbital angle and shape and angular momentum (spdf) OSAA C. Magnetic quantum number - ml; spatial orientation of orbital, pertains to charge (- or +) D. Spin quantum number - ms; Magnetic moment/rotation (cw or ccw) Quantum numbers = pertaining to orbitals (revolves around the nucleus; physical region or space where electrons can be found) Node = space within the atom without electrons 2. What is the Pauli's Exclusion Principle? A. No two electrons in an atom may have the same principal quantum number B. An atom cannot have 2 electrons in the same energy level or orbital that have the same set of quantum numbers - qn is unique C. No more than 2 electrons may have the same set of quantum numbers D. Electrons in an atom may differ by, at most, one of four quantum numbers – correct: at least on or four QN 3. What property decreases from left to right, increases from top to bottom? A. Electron affinity B. Nonmetallic property C. Electronegativity D. Metallic property E. Ionization energy  LEFT to RIGHT and BOTTOM to TOP Increases decreases Ionization energy Atomic radius/size Electronegativity Nuclear charge Electron affinity Shielding Non-metallic character Metallic character MOST ELECTONEGATIVE – f Most ELECTRO POSITIVE – Cs Highest ionization potential: Helium 4. Property that reflects how strongly an atom attracts a shared pair of electrons.  A. Electron affinity B. Ionization energy C. Electronegativity D. Ionization Strength 5. Which of the following statements best describe elements in the Periodic Table? I. Helium is the first element in Group 1A. II. Nonmetals occupy the upper right area of the periodic table III. Metals are located in the left area of the periodic table IV. Diagonally related elements are known as Bridge elements A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV C. I, II, III D. II, III, IV 6. (BEQ) Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal? A. NH4 B. Na C. Mg D. K 7. Which group is referred to as the Coinage? A. Group 0 B. Group 2B C. Group 1B D. Group 3A 8. Which group is referred to as the Alkali Metals? A. Group 4A B. Group 1A C. Group 2A D. Group 3A E. Group 6A 9. Which elements are referred to as the Triads of Group 8? I. Co  II. Mn III. Ni IV. Fe A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV C. I, II, III D. II, III, IV Dobereigner arrange by triad 10. (BEQ) Which of the elements is the most electronegative? A. I B. F C. Cl D. Br 11. (BEQ) Arrange the elements according to increasing electronegativity A. I > Br > Cl > F ???????? greater than ang sign B. Cl > Br > F > I C. Br > Cl > I > F D. F > Cl > Br > I 12. (BEQ) Which halogen has the highest reactivity? A. Cl B. Br C. F D. I 13. (BEQ) Which of the elements is the most metallic? A. Br B. I C. Cl D. F 14. (BEQ) Which of the following is the most acidic? A. HF B. HCI C. HBr D. HI E. 15. In the reaction: U + V + UV when U is added, where will the reaction shift? A. Right B. Left C. Neither D. Insufficient data E. 16. Which of the following do not cause a shift in chemical equilibrium? A. Catalyst – speeds up rxn by lowering the activation energy, not conusmed B. Cations C. Anions D. Concentration 17. Identify the Lewis acid in the equation: Cl- + BCl3 ⇌ BC14- A. Cl- B. BCl3 C. BCl4 D. Cannot be determined 18. (BEQ) If the ion product is greater than Ksp, the solution is: A. Saturated B. Supersaturated C. Unsaturated D. Cannot be determined 19. All of the following statements about solubility is NOT TRUE, EXCEPT? A. For many solids dissolved in liquid water, the solubility increases with temperature B. Increased temperature causes a decrease in kinetic energy. Therefore, as the temperature increases, the solubility of a gas decreases C. Decreasing the surface area of a substance increases its solubility D. NOTA 20. States that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero A. Third law of thermodynamics B. Second law of thermodynamics C. Zeroth law of thermodynamics D. First law of thermodynamics 21. Second law of thermodynamics deals with which state function? A. Free Gibbs energy B. Enthalpy C. Entropy D. AOTA  22. The following are TRUE about acids & bases, EXCEPT: I. According to Arrhenius, acids are proton donors II. According to Lewis concept, acids are electron acceptors III. According to Bronsted-Lowry concept, bases are proton donors IV. According to Lewis concept, bases are electron donors A. I, II, IV B. I, III C. II, IV D. II, III, IV 23. (BEQ) Released by an acid in a solution A. Photon B. Proton – hydrogen or hydronium ion (Arrhenius) C. Neutron D. Hydroxide 24. (BEQ) Substances that shows strong conductivity property and a high degree of ionization: A. HCI, NaOH, NaCl B. Glucose, ethanol C. Ammonia, HF D. Buffer E. Two of the above 25. The following will react with water forming an acid solution, EXCEPT: A. Ammonia B. Carbon Dioxide C. Sulfur Dioxide D. Nitrogen Dioxide 26. The following elements form Basic oxides, EXCEPT: A. Sulfur B. Calcium C. Strontium D. Magnesium 27. Which of the following refers to the amount of a strong acid or base that must be added to a liter of solution to change the pH by one unit? A. Ionization constant B. Equilibrium constant C. Concentration D. Buffer Capacity 28. Which has the formula = moles solute/ kg solution A. Osmolality B. Molality C. Normality D. NOTA 29. What is the normality of sulfuric acid containing 73.5g/500 mL of solution? (MW= 98 g/mol) A. 2.0 N B. 2.5 N C. 3.0 N D. 1.0 N 30. Which of the following refers to a kind of chemical reaction whereby a substance splits into simpler substances? A. Decomposition reaction B. Single replacement reaction C. Double displacement reaction D. Combination reaction  31. If hydrogen bonds in a molecule increased in number, the polarity _____ & water-solubility _____. A. Increases; decreases B. Increases; increases C. Decreases; increases D. Decreases; decreases 32. Water is essential to life. Which of the following statements holds true for water? I. Has high boiling point II. Solid form is more dense than its liquid form III. Has high specific heat IV. Has low surface tension V. Undergoes self-ionization A. I, II, III B. I, IV, V C. I, III, V D. I, III, IV 33. When water undergoes electrolysis forming Hydrogen & Oxygen molecules, which of the following changes describes this occurrence? A. Physical Change B. Chemical Change C. Evaporation D. Substitution reaction 34. Which of the following is used as the unit of measure for radioactivity? A. Bq B. Ci C. Gy D. Sv 35. 1 Becquerel is equivalent to _____. A. 2.7 x 10-5 Curie B. 2.7 x 10-11 Curie C. 2.7 x 10-6 Curie D. 2.7 x 10-10 Curie 36. Most penetrating of all types of radiation A. Alpha particles B. Beta particles C. Gamma rays D. X-rays  37. Beta particles penetrate tissue up to ______ cm A. 100 B. 10 C. 1000 D. 1 38. The effect of radioactive particles passing through a biological tissue would depend upon which of the following characteristics? I. The ability of the radiation to penetrate the tissue II. The nature of radiation emitted by radioactive elements III. The energy of radiation IV. The dose rate of the radiation A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. AOTA  39. Which of the following statements is NOT true about half-life of radioisotopes? A. The faster the isotope decays, the more stable it is B. Half-life is the time it takes for the amount of radioactivity to reduce by 50% C. The faster the isotope decays, the more unstable it is D. The half-life is unique for any given isotope 40. Which of the following is correct regarding the handling & storage of radioactive materials? I. Radioactive materials should never be touched by hand II. Sufficient protective clothing must be used while handling the materials III. Radioactive materials should be kept in suitable labeled containers IV. Should be cost effective A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. AOTA 41. Which among the processes of separating components of mixtures makes use of difference in solvent affinity? A. Decantation B. Evaporation C. Chromatography D. Distillation 42. The following are principles of chromatography, EXCEPT: A. Size B. Charge C. Partition coefficient D. pH 43. Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly determined by which of the following analytical methods? A. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance B. pKa Determination C. Mass Spectrophotometry D. Optical Rotation 44. The alcohol resulting from hydrolysis of octyl acetate is used as: A. Lubricant B. Cleansing C. Standard for partition coefficient analysis D. Co-solvent for tinctures 45. The greater the value of distribution coefficient (D), the higher the hydrophilicity of the drug. Lipid solubility is usually expressed by the partition between water & octanol. A. First statement is true, second is false B. Second statement is true, first is false C. Both statements are false D. Both statements are true 46. Movement of particles in the body which also means solvent shifts is referred to as ____. A. Passive diffusion B. Facilitated transport C. Active transport D. Bulk transport 47. (BEQ) The following are characteristics of active transport, EXCEPT: A. Higher to lower concentration gradient B. Expenditure of energy C. Carrier mediated D. Follow saturation kinetics 48. Which of the following represents the index of the protective power of colloids? A. Lumina B. Poise C. Zsigmondy D. Nuggets 49. Compounds that result from a combination of electron donor & a metal forming a ring structure is called _____ A. Ligand B. Lactam ring C. Chelate D. Prodrug 50. (BEQ) A complex structure whereby the interactant is a surfactant & a molecule that is composed of both a non-polar & a polar portion? A. Micelle B. Self-associated aggregate C. Clathrate D. Inclusion Complexes  51. (BEQ) Elements in atmosphere I. Hydrogen is 14 times lighter than air II. Nitrogen is heavier than Oxygen III. Hydrogen was discovered by Cavendish A. I only B. I, II C. I, III D. II, III E. I, II, III Your answer is correct. The I and Ill 52. (BEQ) What metal is unaffected by body fluids hence it is used in surgical repair of bones, nerves, & muscles? A. Aluminum B. Tantalum C. Cobalt D. Palladium 53. Monel contains A. Copper B. Nickel C. Tin D. A & B E. A &C 54. 50%Bi + 25% Pb + 25% Sn A. Type Metal B. Rose Metal C. Pewter D. Solder E. Plumber's solder 55. Type of phosphorus that is poisonous A. Red B. Black C. Yellow D. NOTA 56. Carbon dioxide is stored in: A. Black container B. Brown container C. Blue container D. Gray container E. Green container 57. The following are Group V cations, EXCEPT: A. Manganese B. Lithium C. Potassium D. Sodium 58. (BEQ) In the process of purifying water by chlorination, what is the rationale of adding chlorine dioxide? A. To ensure the pH of the water is 7 B. To destroy unpleasant odor & taste C. To further disinfect the water D. To act as bleaching agent 59. What reagent can be used to test for nickel, giving a red precipitate? A. Methanol & flame B. Dimethylglyoxime C. Pyridine in acetic anhydride D. Ammonium molybdate 60. (BEQ) The positive result when ferric salts are combined with ammonium thiocyanate. A. Beautiful blue B. Blood red C. Turnbull's blue D. Thenard's blue 61. (BEQ) Carbon tetrachloride exhibits an orange-brown color when placed in a solution containing A. Iodine B. Bromine C. Fluorine D. Ethylene  62. Which are true from these statements? I. Arsenates give chocolate brown precipitate to silver nitrate test II. Arsenites give yellow precipitate to silver nitrate test III. Citrate given with Denige's reagent results to a purple color IV. Tartrate given with Denige's reagent result to an emerald green color A. I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV 63. Which test is used for nitrate, giving a positive blue color? A. Marsh test B. Turmeric paper test C. Perchromic acid test D. Lunge test 64. Which anion evolves a gas with a fruity odor when treated with concentrated sulfuric acid & ethanol? A. ClO4- B. SO4-2 C. CH3COO- D. BrO3-3 65. Caused by the excessive ingestion of NaHCO3 & CaCO3 with large amount of milk. A. Burnett's syndrome B. Wilson disease C. Parakeratosis D. Shavers disease  66. Bordeaux mixture: I. Contains lime & cupric sulfate II. Used as fungicide III. Contains lime & cuprous sulfate IV. Used as anti-acne A. I, II B. I, III C. III, IV D. II, III 67. (BEQ) Mineral chameleon is the synonym of this powerful oxidizing agent A. Manganese dioxide B. Potassium nitrate C. Potassium permanganate D. Sodium iodide  68. Which of the following substances lose water of crystallization upon exposure to air? I. Copper sulfate II. Sodium hydroxide III. Sodium carbonate IV. Ammonium chloride A. I, III B. I, IV C. III, IV D. I, II 69. Ferrous ammonium sulfate A. Green vitriol B. Mohr's salt C. Oesper's salt D. Fergon E. Toleron 70. Which of the following is the chemical name for Baker's Ammonia? A. Ammonium Hydroxide B. Ammonium Chloride C. Ammonium Carbonate D. Ammonium Molybdate 71. (BEQ) Compound responsible for the pink color of Calamine USP 24: A. Talc B. Zinc oxide C. zinc stearate D. Ferric oxide E. FD and C Red 72. (BEQ) What is Saltpeter? A. Calcium Nitrate B. Magnesium Nitrate C. Sodium Nitrate D. Potassium Nitrate -Salt prunelle, Salitre 73. (BEQ) The predominant physiological anion outside the cell A. Phosphate B. Chloride C. Sulfate D. Bicarbonate 74. Which of the following common names is the other name for Beryl? A. Borax B. Lime C. Marble D. Aquamarine  75. Which are the dissolved compounds found in Hard Water? I. Calcium Salts II. Magnesium Salts III. Polyhydroxy Ketones IV. Manganese Salts A. I, II, IV B. II, III, IV C. I, III, IV D. I, II, III 76. Which of the following compounds exhibits Amphoteric Properties that makes it suitable to prevent Systemic Alkalosis? A. Magnesium Sulfate B. Calcium Hydroxide C. Aluminum Hydroxide D. Barium Sulfate 77. Which among the following salts is used as an electrolyte replenisher in dehydration? A. Sodium Carbonate B. Sodium Iodide C. Sodium Sulfate D. Sodium Chloride 78. Which of the following reduces Iodine? A. Sodium Hydroxide B. Magnesium Sulfate C. Sodium Thiosulfate D. Potassium iodide 79. Form of sulfur used for Vleminckx's solution A. Precipitated sulfur B. Sublimed sulfur C. Sulfurated potash D. NOTA 80. (BEQ) The method of preparation must be indicated on labels for: A. Sterile water for injection B. Bacteriostatic water C. Water for injection D. Purified water 81. Fehling's & Benedict's reagent, used to determine the presence of reducing sugars, contain what salt? A. CaSO4 B. CuSO4 C. MgSO4 D. SrSO4 82. Which of the following elements is found in Grignard Reagent? A. Co B. Pb C. Fe D. Mg 83. Antidote for barium poisoning A. NaCl B. Magnesium sulfate C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium Formaldehyde Sulfoxylate 84. Which of the following is used to induce bowel movement by increasing osmotic load of the gastrointestinal tract? A. Bentonite B. Kaolin C. Pumice D. Saline cathartic 85. Which of the following will be used to correct acute metabolic alkalosis? A. NaCl B. NaHCO3 C. CaCl2 D. KCl  86. Which of the following are deliquescent substances? I. NaOH II. CaO III. NaNO3 IV. NaCl A. I, II B. II, III C. I, III D. II, IV 87. Used as treatment for mental ailments A. NaHCO3 B. Li2CO3 C. MgSO4 D. Na2CO3 88. Simethicone is a component of several antacid formulation, how is it chemically classified? A. Silicone B. Ketone C. Alcohol D. Wax  89. Which of the following gases are official & used as artificial atmosphere? I. Nitrogen II. Oxygen III. Neon IV. Carbon Dioxide A. II, III, IV B. I, III, IV C. I, II, IV D. I, II, III 90. Which of the following preparations is made up of a combination of non- ionic surfactant with iodine? A. Strong iodine solution B. Povidone Iodine C. Iodine in Potassium Iodide solution D. Tincture of Iodine  91. For a compound to be considered aromatic, it must have the following characteristics: I. planar (flat) & cyclic II. sp3 hybridization III. follows the 4n+2 rule IV. cumulated double bonds A. I, IV B. I, III C. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III  92. True about resonance I. Involves delocalization of both sigma & pi bonds II. Overall charge of the system remains the same III. Bonding can be expressed by one single Lewis formula A. I, III B. II C. III D. I, II, III 93. Homolytic cleavage results to A. Electrophiles B. Radicals C. Nucleophiles D. A & C 94. Which is TRUE for alcohols? A. Water solubility increases as the molecular weight increases B. Polarity decreases with increase in number of Hydroxyl groups C. Water solubility decreases with the branching of the carbon chain of alcohols D. Water solubility increases with an increase in the number of Hydroxyl groups 95. Which of the following is NOT soluble or miscible in Alcohol, USP? A. Ether B. Phenobarbital C. Formaldehyde D. Acacia  96. Which statements best characterize stereoisomers? I. They do not differ in the order of their Atoms II. They differ in the order and kind of atoms III. They differ in the spatial arrangement of their atoms IV. They do not differ in their configuration A. I, III B. III, IV C. II, III D. I, II 97. (BEQ) What is the IUPAC name of Lactic Acid? A. 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid B. 2- Hydroxybutanedioic acid – malic acid C. 2,3-Dihydroxybutanedioic acid – tartaric acid D. Ethanedioic acid – oxalic acid 98. Which of the following is the type formula for aldehydes? A. RCOOH B. RCOX C. RCHO D. ROH 99. Name the following structure: A. Hexyl-3-methylbutanoate B. Hexyl-4-methybutanoate C. Butyl-3-methylhexanoate D. Butyl-2-propylbutanoate 100. (BEQ) Which of the following is the strongest acid? A. Lactic acid B. Benzoic acid C. Trichloroacetic acid D. Acetic acid 101. Benzene-1,3-diol A. Hydroquinone B. Xylene C. Catechol D. Orcinol E. NOTA 102. The hydrogen will be received by the less stable vinyl carbon based on the A. Markovnikov rule B. Huckel's rule C. Hund's rule D. Zaitsev's rule 103. Chromic acid (OA) will convert acetaldehyde to A. Ethanol B. Ethanoic acid C. Acetic acid D. Two of the above RATIONALE OXIDATION REDUCTION  Alcohol Aldehyde dehydrogenase dehydrogenase inhibitor Fomepizole Disulfiram - Used for alcoholics (with consent only) - C/I when a person is drunk → accumulation of acetaldehyde levels -  acetaldehyde levels = toxic to the body - Acetaldehyde is responsible for alcoholic intoxication → drunkenness, forgetfulness, slurred movement 104. Which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. The Cahn-lngold-Prelog rules are used for naming enantiomers & diastereomers B. The D- & L- configuration is also called (+) & (-) notation C. Two groups with higher priorities on the same side is described as (Z)-isomer D. NOTA 105. Arrange from least to most water soluble A. Toluene < methanol < acetone B. Methanol < toluene < acetone C. Toluene < acetone < methanol D. methanol < toluene < acetone 106. What class of organic compounds will result after a Friedel Crafts acylation? A. Carboxylic acid B. Alkyl halide C. Aldehyde D. Ketone 107. The following depicts the structures of isoproterenol & metaproterenol, respectively. They are what type of isomers? A. Geometric B. Optical C. Positional D. Skeletal  108. (BEQ) Susceptibility to hydrolysis from most susceptible to least susceptible: A. Amides > Esters > Anhydrides > Acyl Halide B. Acyl Halide > Anhydrides > Esters > Amides C. Esters > Acyl Halides > Anhydrides > Amides D. Anhydrides > Esters > Amides > Acyl Halides 109. Which of the tests WILL NOT give a positive result with acetone? I. Brady test II. Iodoform test III. Fehling's test IV. Jones oxidation V. Hinsberg test A. I, II, IV, V B. I and II C. III, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V  Brady test Iodoform test Fehling's test Jones oxidation Hinsberg test Reagent: Chromic acid 2, 4 – dinitrophenylhydrazine Test for: Methylketones Aldehydes only – because it is Aldehydes (can be converted Amines: Carbonyl (C=O) a reducing substance to acid) Primary - soluble aldehydes and ketones alcohol Secondary - insoluble Tertiary – no reaction Positive result: Yellow ppt Green with chico odor red Product: (upon (+) reagent Hydrazone 110. Product in the reaction between a primary amine & aldehyde/ketone  A. Imine – aka Schiff base B. Enamine C. Amide D. Lactone 111. Enol is NOT a stable compound because it undergoes A. Electrophilic attack B. Hydrophobic attack C. Hydrophilic attack D. Hydrogen shift E. Tautomerization 112. (BEQ) Trans-2-alkene: I. Asymmetrical II. Non-polar III. Higher melting point IV. Lower boiling point A. II, II, III B. II, III, IV C. I, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV 113. The ring common among Penicillins & Cephalosporins is _____. A. Beta-Lactam ring – cyclic amide B. Thiazole Ring C. Benzene Ring D. Phenothiazine Ring 114. (BEQ) Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render: A. Activity against Pseudomonas B. Acid stability C. Activity against Gram (-) bacteria D. Penicillinase resistance 115. The only part of penicillin that is always present but not essential. A. Sulfur B. Cis-stereochemistry C. Lactam ring D. Free carboxylate 116. Azlocillin is one of the few penicillins effective for Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the structures is it? A. B. C. D. 117. Aryloxypropanolamine (structure below) is the chemical classification of what group of drugs? A. ARBs B. Opioids C. B-blockers D. Cholinergic agonists  118. Which are the two chemical groups that comprise alpha agonist? I. Phenylethylamines II. Catecholamines III. 2-Arylimidazolines IV. Xanthines A. I, II B. III, IV C. II, III D. I, III 119. Which of the following is chemically a fluoroquinolone? A. Econazole B. Methenamine – combined with phosphates (responsible for urine acidification) C. Pipemidic Acid D. Norfloxacin 120. (BEQ) Which among the following is an alternative antibiotic for patient allergic to penicillin? A. Aureomycin B. Erythromycin C. Chloramphenicol D. Tetracycline 121. Which of the following agents is NOT used for local candidiasis? A. Nystatin B. Miconazole C. Gentian Violet D. Griseofulvin E.  m-arrest is “metaphase arrest” 122. Azole antifungals are a group of medicines that contain an azole ring & inhibit the growth of a wide range of fungi. They are classified into two groups: imidazole & triazole. Which of the following is an example of a triazole? A. Fluconazole B. Imidazole C. Miconazole D. Ketoconazole 123. barbiturates: barbie perfect symmetry of private part cos pantay na pantay The structure above is classified as: A. Ultra-short acting – dapat may sulfur, structure above is thiopental B. Short acting C. Intermediate acting D. Long acting 124. (BEQ) The onset & duration of Barbiturate action is a function of its A. Lipid solubility - increase LS then u are short acting B. Renal excretion C. Plasma binding D. Mode of administration 125. (BEQ) An example of Barbiturate with intermediate action? A. Phenobarbital B. Thiopental C. Pentobarbital D. Amobarbital 126. A semisynthetic tetracycline used in SIADH A. Minocycline B. Tigecycline C. Oxytetracycline D. Demeclocycline 127. Based on the following reaction: The reactant must have likely undergone A. Hydroxylation B. Demethylation C. Methylation D. A&B E. A&C 128. Which of the following HIV drugs is also used as treatment for Hepatitis B infection A. Azidothymidine B. Saquinavir C. Lamivudine – antiretroviral, but can still be used for hepa B D. Efavirenz Antiretroviral drugs prevent conversion of RNA back to DNA 129. The structure below can cause what adverse effect? A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome B. Bradycardia C. Addiction D. Cycloplegia 130. The structure above is classified as? A. Penicillin B. Cephalosporin C. Carbapenem – structure above is imipenem D. Monobactam 131. What is the other name for phenylmethanol? A. Chloretone - chlorobutanol, or chlorbutol B. Benzyl Alcohol – present in bacteriostatic water that’s why C/I to neonates because they are unable to undergo glycine conjugation. C. Diphenylethanol - Benzeneethanol D. Carvacrol – phenol derivative Benzyl Alcohol – present in bacteriostatic water that’s why C/I to neonates because they are unable to undergo glycine conjugation → gasping syndrome - Benzyl alcohol → benzoic acid (shoud be converted into hipurric acid to become easily metabolized) 132. (BEQ) What is the mechanism of action of Trimethoprim? A. Inhibits protein synthesis B. Competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA - - enzyme inhibited by dihydropteroate synthase inh. (sulfonamide) C. Folate reductase inhibitor - - prevents formation of DNA of bacteria D. Destruction of bacterial cell wall  Protein biosynthesis Cell Wall Synthesis DNA replication Folic acid metabolism 30S subunit Inhibitors 50S subunit Inhibitors Sulfonamides with Penicillins Aminoglycosides Chloramphenicol Quinolones trimethoprim 1. Amoxicillin 1. Amikacin Macrolides 1st Generation 1. Mafenide 2. Ampicillin 2. Gentamicin 1. Azithromycin 1. Nalidixic acid 2. Sulfacetamide 3. Carbenicillin 3. Kanamycin 2. Clarithromycin 2nd Generation: A 3. Sulfadiazine 4. Dicloxacillin 4. Neomycin 3. Erythromycin 1. Enoxacin 4. Sulfadoxine 5. Flucloxacillin (Floxacillin) 5. Plazomicin 4. Fidaxomicin 2. Norfloxacin 5. Sulfamethizole β-lactam 6. Nafcillin 6. Streptomycin Lincosamides 3. Ciprofloxacin 6. Sulfamethoxazole antibiotics 7. Oxacillin 7. Tobramycin 1. Clindamycin 2nd Generation: B 7. Sulfanilamide 8. Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin) 2. Lincomycin 8. Sulfasalazine 9. Penicillin V Tetracyclines 1. Ofloxacin (L-isomer 9. Sulfisoxazole 1. Chlortetracycline 3. Pirlimycin = levofloxacin) (phenoxymethylpenicillin) 10. Piperacillin 2. Doxycycline Streptogramins 2. Lomefloxacin 11. Ticarcillin 3. Eravacycline 1. Quinupristin 3rd Generation 4. Lymecycline 2. Dalfopristin 1. Sparfloxacin 5. Minocycline Oxazolidinones 2. Grepafloxacin  6. Omadacycline 1. Linezolid 3. Clinafloxacin 7. Tetracycline 2. Tedizolid 4. Gatifloxacin Carbapenems 4th Generation 1. Doripenem 1. Moxifloxacin 2. Ertapenem 2. Gemifloxacin 3. Imipenem 3. Trovafloxacin 4. Meropenem 4. Garenoxacin Cephalosporins 1st Generation 2nd Generation 1. Cephalothin 1. Cefacor 2. Cefazolin 2. Cefotetan 3. Cefadroxil (Cefotan) 4. Cephapirin 3. Cefprozil 5. Cephalexin 4. Cefmetazole 3rd Generation 1. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 2. Cefoperazone 3. Cefotaxime 4. Cefexime 5th Generation 4th Generation 1. Ceftaroline 1. Cefepime 2. Ceftobiprole 2. Cefpirome Monobactams 1. Aztreonam Glycopeptides 1. Dalbavancin 2. Oritavancin 3. Teicoplanin 4. Telavancin 5. Vancomycin 133. 8-aminoquinoline antimalarial agent for radical cure for P. vivax & P. ovale & is effective in exoerythrocytic stage of malaria A. Primaquine B. Chloroquine C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine  Merozoites – excreted out from liver and goes to blood stream then destroy red blood cells Exoerythrocytic stage – in the liver Erythrocytic stage – in the blood 134. Which is TRUE to the alkaloid Quinine Sulfate? A. Has a sweet & pleasant taste B. May be dissolved in water by addition of a small amount of sulfuric acid to convert it to a more soluble bisulfate - C. This alkaloid is poorly absorbed from the Gastrointestinal tract D. It is not affected by exposure to light B. Remember quinine is a free base and when converted to salt it becomes soluble 135. Which of the following is the major organ for drug metabolism? A. Liver - - because it contains mixed function oxidases (lots of enzymes present) B. Small intestine - ABSORPTION C. Kidney - EXCRETION D. Lung - RESPIRATRION 136. Phase 1 biotransformation reaction includes the following, EXCEPT? A. Methylation B. Hydroxylation C. Deamination D. Hydrolysis 137. An example of glycine conjugation pathway: A. Phenol to Phenolsulfate B. Benzoic acid to Hippuric acid C. Noradrenaline to Epinephrine D. Antabuse (Disulfiram) to 2 diethylthiocarbamic acid glycine conjugation pathway – MAIN PATHAWAY OF ACIDS TO METABOLIZE 138. The following drugs undergo acetylation reaction upon metabolism, EXCEPT A. Sulfanilamide B. Procainamide C. Ethanol D. Hydralazine HIPS causes LUPUS (SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS) - Structure contains azyl or azole, nitrogen and sulfur triggers 139. (BEQ) An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti- inflammatory activity: A. Acetylsalicylic acid B. Mefenamic acid C. Sulindac D. Acetaminophen E. Indomethacin 140. Which of the following enzymes is involved in the process of sulfonation? A. Sulfatases B. Sulfotransferase C. DT-Diaphorase D. Monoamine Oxidases  141. Which of the following statements best characterize Gamma-amino butyric acid? I. It is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain II. It is biosynthesized from Glutamic Acid III. High levels of GABA may be linked to anxiety or mood disorder IV. GABA is degraded by a Pyridoxal-dependent enzyme, GABA transaminase, producing Butyric acid & Succinic acid semi-aldehyde A. II, III B. III, IV C. I, IV D. I, II 142. In sulfate conjugation, which of the following groups is transferred during conjugation phase of biotransformation of xenobiotics? A. Sulfhydryl B. Sulfonate C. Sulfide D. Sulfate 143. Which of the following is a Monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an Anti-depressant drug? A. Amitriptyline B. Thioridazine C. Tranylcypromine D. Clozapine MAO A – catecholamine MAO B – dopamines  RIMA – Reversible Inhibitor of MAO A TCA – tricyclic antidepressant Phenothiazine – typical antipsychotic Phenothiazine analog – atypical antidepressant 144. The combination Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole is also known as: A. Cotrimoxazole B. Clotrimazole C. Cotrimazine D. Miconazole  145. The combination therapy is the treatment of choice for P. carinii pneumonia (PCP)? A. Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole B. Emetine & Dehydroemetine C. Metronidazole & Iodoquinol D. Pyrimethamine & Sulfadiazine 146. Reactive reduction metabolites of metronidazole believed to be responsible for triggering lethal effect on the microorganism include: I. Nitroxide II. Nitroso III. Hydroxylamine IV. Iodoquinol A. II, III, IV B. I, II, III C. I, III, IV D. I, II, IV 147. Which of the following combination therapy is most effective against Toxoplasmosis? A. Emetine & Dehydroemetine B. Pyrimethamine & Sulfadiazine C. Metronidazole & Iodoquinol D. Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole  148. Which of the following are classified as Amebicides I. Emetine & Dehydroemetine II. Nitroimidazole derivatives such as Metronidazole III. Arsenical compound: Carbarsone IV. Dimercaprol A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV C. I, II, III D. II, III, IV  Other havey metals not contraindicated tro BAL are: arsenic, lead, mercury 149. Which of the following derivatives of Benzimidazole is used as an anthelmintic? A. Mefloquine B. Mebendazole - - starves the worm to death to the point of ginadalukan sng glucose; INHIBIT GLUCOSE UPTAKE C. Primaquine D. Chloroquine 150. (BEQ) What are the risks of the long-term use of Benzodiazepines? I. Developing Tolerance II. Developing acute stress reactions III. Developing dependence IV. Developing serious sleep problems A. I, III B. II, III C. I, II D. III, IV 151. ACEI are associated with high incidence of which of the following adverse reaction? A. Hypokalemia B. Agranulocytosis C. Hepatitis D. Proteinuria 152. Which of the following is the metabolite of the red dye prontosil responsible for antimicrobial activity? A. Sulfamethoxazole B. Sulfanilamide C. Sulfacetamide D. Sulfapyridine 153. Which of the following antineoplastics is NOT considered as antimetabolite? A. Methotrexate B. Thioguanine C. Etoposide D. Cytarabine ANTIMETABOLITE – mimic structure of nitrogenous base/nucleic acid 154. All of the following hormonal drugs possess a steroidal nucleus, EXCEPT: A. Ethinyl Estradiol – has cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene B. Norethindrone C. Liothyronine D. Danazol Ethinyl Estradiol, Norethindrone, cytarabine – has cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene in their structure 155. Which of the following is a progesterone derivative used in the treatment of endometrial cancer? A. Goserelin B. Tamoxifen C. Flutamide D. Depo-Provera GnRH – Gonadotropin receptor SERM – Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator 156. Which of the following substance when present in the urine is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy? A. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) C. Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone (ICSH) D. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) 157. Derivatives of Benzylsulfonylurea are useful as? A. Spasmolytics B. Anti-inflammatory C. Oral Hypoglycemics D. Diuretics  158. (BEQ) Which of the following anesthetics are amino esters? I. Cocaine II. Lidocaine III. Benzocaine IV. Prilocaine A. I, III, IV B. I, III C. II, III D. I, II 159. Which of the following anesthetics is the most prone to hydrolysis: A. Xylocaine B. Lidocaine C. Procaine D. Prilocaine 160. Which of the following metabolite of methoxyflurane is responsible for its nephrotoxicity? A. Fluoride Ion B. Oxalic acid C. Difluoromethoxyacetic acid D. Methane 161. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of _____ which is chemically a _____. A. Meperidine; Phenylpiperidine B. Pethidine; Pyridine C. Methadone; Phenylheptylamine D. Pentazocine; Benzomorphan 162. The Structure of Prochlorperazine is shown. Which of the following medications, because of its chemical relationship to Prochlorperazine, would most likely cause similar side effects? A. Fluphenazine B. Thioridazine C. Alprazolam D. Buspirone 163. Which of the following prostaglandin analogs is used specifically for the treatment of Glaucoma? A. Alprostadil - Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) B. Latanoprost C. Carboprost D. Dinoprostone 164. Which of the following diuretics is most similar in chemical structure to the antihypertensive agent Diazoxide? A. Furosemide B. Spironolactone C. Mannitol D. Chlorothiazide 165. The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is a result of: A. Chelating Action B. Inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin C. Displacement of heparin D. Acid-base interaction 166. All of the following classes of drugs are used to treat hypertension, EXCEPT: A. Aryloxypropanolamines B. Thiazides C. Fibrates D. Dihydropyridines 167. The Structure presented above has the following adverse effects, EXCEPT: A. Hypotension B. Reflex tachycardia C. AV block D. Two of the above  168. Hormones that form lipophilic esters without prior structural modifications include: I. Hydrocortisone II. Testosterone III. Progesterone A. If 1 only is correct B. If 3 only is correct C. If 1 & 2 are correct D. If 2 & 3 are correct E. If 1, 2 & 3 are correct  169. Insulin preparations that contain a modifying protein include: I. Insulin Glargine II. Regular Insulin III. Isophane Insulin A. If 1 only is correct B. If 3 only is correct C. If 1 & 2 are correct D. If 2 & 3 are correct E. If 1, 2 & 3 are correct  170. Conditions that tend to increase the action of an orally administered drug that undergoes Phase Il metabolism include: I. Enterohepatic recirculation II. Enzyme saturation III. First pass effect A. If 1 only is correct B. If 3 only is correct C. If 1 & 2 are correct D. If 2 & 3 are correct E. If 1, 2 & 3 are correct  171. Which of the following statements concerning CYP450 are correct? I. The CYP7, CYP11 & CYP27 subfamilies are involved in Cholesterol metabolism II. A single drug may be metabolized by multiple isoforms of CYP450 III. The majority of Xenobiotics, or drugs, are metabolized by CYP4B & CYP1A subfamilies A. If 1 only is correct B. If 3 only is correct C. If 1 & 2 are correct D. If 2 & 3 are correct E. If 1, 2 & 3 are correct  172. Metabolic reactions likely to be affected by protein-deficient diet include/s: I. Glycine Conjugation II. Hydrolysis III. Glucuronidation A. If 1 only is correct B. If 3 only is correct C. If 1 & 2 are correct D. If 2 & 3 are correct E. If 1, 2 & 3 are correct  173. Structure of Meperidine Functional groups present in Meperidine include: I. Ester II. Tertiary Amine III. Carboxylic Acid A. If 1 only is correct B. If 3 only is correct  C. If 1 & 2 are correct D. If 2 & 3 are correct E. If 1, 2 & 3 are correct 174. Meperidine is classified as: I. Weak Acid II. Salt III. Weak Base A. If 1 only is correct B. If 3 only is correct C. If 1 & 2 are correct D. If 2 & 3 are correct E. If 1, 2 & 3 are correct  175. Assuming that Meperidine is absorbed after oral administration & that a large percentage of the dose is excreted unchanged, the effect of alkalinization of the urine will increase its: I. Duration of Action II. Rate of Excretion III. Ionization in the Glomerular Filtrate A. If 1 only is correct B. If 3 only is correct C. If 1 & 2 are correct D. If 2 & 3 are correct E. If 1, 2 & 3 are correct 176. An anxiolytic drug that does NOT possess either hypnotic or anticonvulsant properties A. Tranylcypromine B. Imipramine C. Buspirone D. Fluoxetine E. Phenelzine 177. A prototype tricyclic antidepressant with antimuscarinic properties that makes it useful in treatment of enuresis A. Tranylcypromine B. Imipramine C. Buspirone D. Fluoxetine E. Phenelzine 178. An antidepressant that inhibits serotonin reuptake & may cause adverse effects such as impaired memory, akathisia & menstrual irregularities A. Tranylcypromine B. Imipramine C. Buspirone D. Fluoxetine E. Phenelzine 179. (BEQ) Organic compounds that are weak acids or weak bases that response to the change in pH A. Analyte B. Indicator C. Titrant D. Primary standard  180. Which of the following indicators can be used in the titration of Quinine? I. Bromophenol Blue pKa = 4.0 II. Methyl Red pKa = 5.1 III. Cresol Red pKa = 8.3 IV. Chlorophenol Blue pKa = 6.0 Use an acid solution/titrant to titrate basic analyte  Ka,  pKa and stronger acid A. I, IV B. II, III C. II, IV D. I, II 181. (BEQ) The color of phenolphthalein in vinegar A. pink B. Yellow C. Colorless D. Orange Acid – colorless Basic - pink 182. (BEQ) Which of the following is NOT a primary standard? A. Potassium biphthalate B. Anhydrous calcium carbonate C. Potassium hydroxide D. Potassium dichromate 183. The following are examples of anionic hydrocolloids, EXCEPT: A. Carboxymethylcellulose (CMC) B. Agar C. Chitosan D. Bentonite 184. (BEQ) Most toxic vitamin A. Vitamin E B. Ascorbic acid C. Folic acid D. Retinol  185. (BEQ) A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is: A. Starch B. Insulin C. Dextrose D. Dextran 186. Which of the listed phytopharmaceuticals are classified as alkaloids? I. Atropine II. Colchicine III. Curcumin IV. Digoxin V. Gingerol VI. Eugenol VII. Hesperidin VIII. Quinine A. I, II, IV, VIII B. I, IV, VII, VIII C. III, IV, V, VIII D. I, III, V, VIII 187. (BEQ) Which of the following will develop a green color which turns slowly to dark green blue coloration, when an aliquot portion of the residue obtained by dissolving the unknown in hot methanol is treated with ferric chloride TS? A. Hesperidin B. Atropine C. Digoxin D. Quinine 188. (BEQ) Which of the following are B-Carboline derivatives isolated from sponges (Subphylum Tunicata)? A. Fucoidan B. Carrageenan C. Alginic Acid D. Eudistamines 189. (BEQ) Which of the following is a sulfated polysaccharide compound extracted from Brown algae Laminaria spp. active against Herpes Simplex Virus? A. Alginic Acid B. Fucoidan C. Eudistamine D. Carrageenan 190. (BEQ) Purified carbohydrate extracted from brown seaweed by treatment of dilute alkali A. Eudistomins B. Carrageenan C. Algin D. Fucoidan 191. (BEQ) Which of the following is a wax obtained from whales used in the preparation of cosmetic creams & fine wax candles? A. Prostaglandins B. Fucoidan C. Spermaceti D. Carrageenan 192. (BEQ) Which of the following is a polysaccharide obtained from Red Seaweeds used in preparation of toothpaste as emulsifying agent? A. Prostaglandins B. Spermaceti C. Carrageenan D. Fucoidan  193. (BEQ) Which of the following are obtained as products of hydrolysis of Carrageenan? I. Galactose II. Glucose III. Arabinose IV. Xylose A. I, II, III B. III, IV C. II, IV D. II, III, IV 194 to 200 Tubocurarine Berberin Hydrastin 194. Which of the Structure/s in Figure 1 is/are said to be derived from the Isoquinoline ring? A. Structures I & II B. Structures III & IV C. Structures V & VI D. Structures I & VI 195. Which of the Structure/s in Figure 1 is/are said to be derived from the Indole ring? A. Structures I & II B. Structures III & IV C. Structures V & VI D. Structures I & VI 196. Which of the Structures is said to be used as a skeletal muscle relaxant to secure muscle relaxation in surgical procedures without deep anesthesia? A. Structure II - TUBOCURARINE B. Structure III C. Structure IV D. Structure V 197. Which of the Structures is said to be an Indole derivative used in the treatment of migraine headaches? A. Structure III B. Structure II C. Structure IV D. Structure V 198. Which of the Structures is said to be an Isoquinoline used as Antiamebic agent? A. Structure I B. Structure II C. Structure III D. Structure IV 199. Which of the Structures is said to be an indole derivative that inhibits polymerization of tubulin? A. Structure I B. Structure II C. Structure III D. Structure IV 200. Which of the Structures is said to be derived from Claviceps spp.? A. Structure I B. Structure II C. Structure III D. Structure IV