Exam One - Psychology Past Paper PDF

EXAM ONE: 1. **Which of the following brain divisions is primarily responsible for regulating essential functions like heart rate and breathing?** - **A) Cerebrum:** Involved in higher brain functions such as thought and action. - **B) Cerebellum:** Coordinates voluntary...

EXAM ONE: 1. **Which of the following brain divisions is primarily responsible for regulating essential functions like heart rate and breathing?** - **A) Cerebrum:** Involved in higher brain functions such as thought and action. - **B) Cerebellum:** Coordinates voluntary movements and balance. - **C) Brainstem: Controls basic life functions like heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure.** - **D) Limbic system:** Involved in emotions, memory, and behavior. 2. **Neurotransmitters are primarily involved in:** - **A) Protecting neurons from damage:** This is more the role of glial cells. - **B) Facilitating communication between neurons: Neurotransmitters transmit signals across synapses between neurons.** - **C) Producing hormones:** Hormones are produced by glands in the endocrine system. - **D) Absorbing oxygen in the brain:** Oxygen absorption occurs in the bloodstream, not neurons. 3. **The diathesis-stress model suggests that:** - **A) Genetic predispositions always lead to psychological disorders:** Not all genetic predispositions result in disorders; stress plays a role. - **B) Psychological disorders are caused by either genetics or environment:** The model suggests a combination of both, not either-or. - **C) A genetic predisposition for a disorder combined with stress increases the likelihood of developing the disorder:** Stress triggers the onset in those with a predisposition. A genetic predisposition for a disorder combined with stress increases the likelihood of developing the disorder - **D) Only stress from external factors can lead to psychological disorders:** Internal factors also play a role. 4. **Which treatment involves the application of electrical currents to the brain?** - **A) Psychotherapy:** Involves talk therapy. - **B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT): A biomedical treatment that uses electrical currents to treat severe depression and other conditions.** - **C) Drug therapy:** Involves medication to manage mental disorders. - **D) Psychosurgery:** Involves surgical procedures to treat mental illness. **Psychodynamic Perspective** 5. **The part of the mind that operates based on the pleasure principle is known as:** - **A) Id: Seeks immediate gratification of basic drives and operates on the pleasure principle.** - **B) Ego:** Operates on the reality principle, managing desires and societal rules. - **C) Superego:** Represents internalized moral standards. - **D) Unconscious:** Refers to thoughts and desires not within conscious awareness. 6. **Which psychodynamic technique involves the patient saying whatever comes to mind, regardless of how trivial or embarrassing it might be?** - **A) Dream analysis:** Interpreting dreams to access unconscious desires. - **B) Transference:** Redirecting feelings toward the therapist. - **C) Free association: The process of saying whatever comes to mind to uncover unconscious thoughts.** - **D) Resistance:** When a patient unconsciously blocks repressed material. 7. **One critique of Freud\'s psychosexual stages of development is that:** - **A) They overemphasize cognitive development:** Freud\'s theory focuses on unconscious drives, not cognition. - **B) They are difficult to empirically test: Freud\'s concepts, like the Oedipus complex, are abstract and difficult to measure scientifically. They are difficult to empirically test** - **C) They focus too much on adulthood:** They primarily focus on early childhood development. - **D) They undervalue unconscious processes:** Freud\'s theory is largely centered on the unconscious. **Humanistic Perspective** 8. **According to Carl Rogers, when an individual\'s self-concept is aligned with their experience, this is called:** - **A) Self-actualization:** The process of realizing one\'s full potential. - **B) Incongruence:** A mismatch between self-concept and experience. - **C) Congruence: Harmony between self-concept and experience.** - **D) Unconditional positive regard:** Acceptance and support regardless of behavior. 9. **Client-centered therapy emphasizes:** - **A) Direct interpretation of unconscious thoughts:** This is more aligned with psychodynamic therapy. - **B) Unconditional positive regard and empathy: Core principles of Carl Rogers\' client-centered therapy.** - **C) Applying behavioral techniques:** A focus of behavioral therapy, not client-centered therapy. - **D) Cognitive restructuring:** A goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). 10. **In classical conditioning, the stimulus that naturally triggers a response is called the:** - **A) Conditioned stimulus:** A previously neutral stimulus that elicits a learned response. - **B) Unconditioned stimulus: A stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response.** - **C) Neutral stimulus:** A stimulus that initially does not trigger any response. - **D) Conditioned response:** The learned response to a conditioned stimulus. 11. **Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?** - **A) A student receives a trophy for good performance:** This is positive reinforcement. - **B) A teacher removes a difficult assignment after students behave well: This is negative reinforcement, as removing something unpleasant strengthens the behavior.** - **C) A dog is given a treat for sitting:** This is positive reinforcement. - **D) A child is grounded for misbehavior:** This is punishment, not reinforcement. - 13. **Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) primarily aims to:** - **A) Uncover unconscious motives:** This is a goal of psychodynamic therapy. - **B) Change irrational or dysfunctional thoughts: CBT focuses on identifying and changing distorted thinking patterns.** - **C) Create congruence between self-concept and experience:** A goal of humanistic therapy. - **D) Strengthen the pleasure principle:** This relates to the id in psychodynamic theory. 14. **Which of the following best describes how sociocultural factors influence abnormal behavior?** - **A) They suggest that all behavior is learned from one\'s environment:** This is more characteristic of behavioral approaches. - **B) They argue that genetics play no role in psychological disorders:** Sociocultural approaches acknowledge genetics but emphasize environmental influences. - **C) They emphasize the role of family, culture, and societal expectations in shaping behavior: Sociocultural perspectives focus on how social and cultural contexts impact behavior.** - **D) They focus on unconscious processes:** More characteristic of psychodynamic theories. 1. **Which of the following is true about reliability in psychological assessment?** - **A) It measures how well a test predicts future behavior:** This describes predictive validity, not reliability. - **B) It refers to the consistency of the assessment results:** Reliability ensures that a test gives consistent results over time or across raters. - **C) It ensures the test measures what it is supposed to measure:** This describes validity. - **D) It means the test is culturally sensitive:** This is unrelated to reliability. 2. **Validity in psychological testing refers to:** - **A) The consistency of the test scores:** This describes reliability. - **B) The ability of the test to measure what it claims to measure: Validity refers to the accuracy of a test in measuring the intended construct.** - **C) The process of standardizing test results:** Standardization relates to establishing norms, not validity. - **D) The use of normative data for comparison:** This pertains to standardization, not validity. 3. **One advantage of structured interviews over unstructured interviews is that structured interviews:** - **A) Allow for more flexibility and personalization:** Unstructured interviews provide more flexibility. - **B) Are more consistent and reliable across different interviewers: Structured interviews follow a set format, ensuring consistency.** - **C) Encourage open-ended, exploratory responses:** This is characteristic of unstructured interviews. - **D) Take less time to administer:** Structured interviews can be time-consuming. 4. **Which of the following is a potential downside of self-report inventories?** - **A) They require direct observation by a clinician:** Self-report inventories rely on the respondent, not direct observation. - **B) They may be influenced by the respondent\'s desire to present themselves in a favorable light: Social desirability bias can affect self-report accuracy.** - **C) They are too expensive to administer in most clinical settings:** Self-report inventories are generally affordable. - **D) They do not assess any symptoms of mental health disorders:** They are often used to assess symptoms. 5. **Which type of assessment focuses on assessing cognitive functions such as memory, attention, and problem-solving abilities?** - **A) Symptom checklists:** These track symptoms, not cognitive functions. - **B) Neuropsychological assessments: Neuropsychological** **tests assess brain function and related cognitive abilities.** - **C) Personality measures:** These focus on traits, not cognitive functions. - **D) Intelligence tests:** These assess intellectual abilities, not a broad range of cognitive functions. 6. **A mental status exam typically assesses all of the following EXCEPT:** - **A) Mood and affect:** Assessed to understand emotional state. - **B) Memory and orientation:** Assessed to evaluate cognitive functioning. - **C) Current life stressors: Not typically part of a mental status exam, which focuses on present mental functioning.** - **D) Thought processes:** Assessed to gauge clarity and coherence of thinking. **DSM-5 and Diagnosis** 9. **One major criticism of the DSM-5 is:** - **A) It is too culturally sensitive:** Some argue it is not sensitive enough to cultural differences. - **B) It uses a categorical approach that may not account for the complexity of symptoms: The DSM-5\'s categorical system may oversimplify mental disorders.** - **C) It completely ignores biological factors in mental disorders:** The DSM-5 considers multiple factors, including biological. **Which of the following describes a symptom checklist?** - **A) A test that measures cognitive functioning and IQ:** Symptom checklists focus on tracking symptoms, not cognitive abilities. - **B) A self-report measure in which individuals rate the severity of specific symptoms they are experiencing:Symptom checklists allow individuals to rate the severity of their mental health symptoms.** - **C) A test designed to assess personality traits:** Personality inventories focus on traits, not symptoms. - **D) A method for evaluating brain abnormalities:** This would require neuroimaging or neuropsychological testing. **Pros/Cons of Assessment Methods** 13. **A potential disadvantage of unstructured interviews is that:** - **A) They tend to be more reliable than structured interviews:** Unstructured interviews are typically less reliable due to their flexibility. - **B) They lack consistency, which may lead to variability in diagnosis: Unstructured interviews can result in inconsistent findings between clinicians.** - **C) They allow for less flexibility in the clinician\'s approach:** Unstructured interviews offer more flexibility. **Which of the following is a common limitation of personality measures like the MMPI?** - **A) They are too short to capture a comprehensive view of an individual's personality:** Personality measures like the MMPI are quite extensive. - **B) They are vulnerable to social desirability bias, where respondents may answer in ways they think are socially acceptable: Respondents may try to present themselves in a favorable light, skewing results.** - **C) They are not standardized:** The MMPI and similar tests are standardized. - **D) They only measure intelligence:** Personality measures assess traits, not intelligence. 1. **Which part of the nervous system is primarily responsible for initiating the \"fight or flight\" response during stress?** - **A) Parasympathetic nervous system:** This is involved in \"rest and digest\" activities. - **B) Somatic nervous system:** Controls voluntary muscle movements. - **C) Sympathetic nervous system:** **This activates the body\'s \"fight or flight\" response in stressful situations.** - **D) Central nervous system:** Consists of the brain and spinal cord but is not directly responsible for the \"fight or flight\" response. 2. **The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is involved in:** - **A) Regulating cognitive functions:** This is primarily managed by other brain regions. - **B) Coordinating the body\'s response to stress: The HPA axis helps** **the body respond to stress by releasing stress hormones like cortisol.** - **C) Enhancing immune system function during stress:** Prolonged stress can actually suppress the immune system. - **D) Controlling voluntary muscle movement:** This is regulated by the somatic nervous system. 3. **A traumatic event is defined as:** - **A) An event that causes short-term stress but no long-term effects:** Traumatic events can have long-lasting impacts. - **B) An event in which a person experiences, witnesses, or is confronted with actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence: This is the clinical definition of a traumatic event.** - **C) A minor life change that leads to temporary anxiety:** Traumatic events are more severe and significant than minor life changes. - **D) Any event that results in a depressive disorder:** Not all traumatic events lead to depression. **PTSD** 5. **Which of the following is NOT a symptom of PTSD?** - **A) Recurrent, involuntary, and distressing memories of the traumatic event:** This is a hallmark symptom of PTSD. - **B) Persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma:** Avoidance behavior is a key symptom. - **C) A heightened state of arousal or hypervigilance:** Hyperarousal is a common symptom. - **D) A lack of concern or indifference about the traumatic event: Indifference is not characteristic of PTSD; distress and strong emotional reactions are more common.\ ** 6. **The diagnostic criteria for PTSD require that symptoms persist for at least:** - **A) 3 days:** Too short for a PTSD diagnosis. - **B) 1 week:** Not long enough. - **C) 1 month: PTSD diagnosis requires symptoms to last at least one month.** - **D) 6 months:** Symptoms may last longer, but diagnosis can occur after one month. 7. **Which of the following is a risk factor for developing PTSD?** - **A) Experiencing social support from family and friends:** Social support is a protective factor. - **B) Exposure to a traumatic event without prior mental health concerns:** Prior trauma and lack of support increase the risk. - **C) A history of previous trauma and lack of social support: Both are significant risk factors for PTSD.** - **D) Being male:** Women are more likely to develop PTSD. 8. **Cultural differences in PTSD show that:** - **A) PTSD symptoms are universally the same across cultures:** Symptoms can vary depending on cultural context. - **B) Cultural background influences how trauma is experienced and expressed: Cultural factors can shape the manifestation and coping strategies related to trauma.** - **C) Gender differences do not play a role in the development of PTSD:** Gender does play a role, with women being more prone to PTSD. - **D) Individuals from collectivist cultures are less likely to experience PTSD:** This is not necessarily true. 9. **One of the primary treatments for PTSD is:** - **A) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT):** ECT is used for severe depression but not typically for PTSD. - **B) Exposure therapy, where patients are gradually exposed to trauma-related stimuli: Exposure therapy helps patients reduce fear and avoidance related to traumatic memories.** - **C) Psychodynamic therapy focused on childhood events:** This is not the main treatment for PTSD. - **D) Long-term use of antipsychotic medications:** Medications may help but are not the primary treatment. **Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)** 10. **Which of the following distinguishes Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) from PTSD?** - **A) ASD occurs only in women, whereas PTSD affects both men and women:** ASD affects both genders. - **B) ASD symptoms typically resolve within 3 days to 1 month after the traumatic event, while PTSD symptoms last for more than a month: ASD symptoms are short-term, whereas PTSD symptoms persist beyond a month**. - **C) ASD involves fewer dissociative symptoms than PTSD:** Dissociation is common in ASD. - **D) PTSD develops immediately after a traumatic event, while ASD develops later:** PTSD may develop immediately or after a delay. 11. **A key symptom of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) is:** - **A) Memory loss unrelated to the traumatic event:** This is not a primary symptom. - **B) Intense and prolonged flashbacks of the traumatic event:** Flashbacks are more characteristic of PTSD. - **C) Dissociation, such as feeling detached from oneself or reality: Dissociation is a defining feature of ASD.** - **D) Chronic irritability and anger:** While emotional distress can occur, dissociation is more specific to ASD. 1. **What is a key distinction between general anxiety and anxiety experienced as part of an anxiety disorder?** - A\) General anxiety is always irrational, while anxiety disorders are always rational. **B) General anxiety is temporary and situation-specific, while anxiety disorders are persistent and interfere with daily functioning.** General anxiety is usually linked to temporary and specific situations, while anxiety disorders persist over time and disrupt daily life. - C\) General anxiety affects more people than anxiety disorders. - D\) Anxiety disorders are always caused by external stressors, while general anxiety has no cause 2. **Which of the following best defines a panic attack?** - A\) A gradual increase in fear over a long period. - B**) An intense and sudden surge of fear or discomfort that peaks within minutes.** - C\) A mild feeling of unease lasting for several hours. - D\) A consistent feeling of nervousness throughout the day. **B** - A panic attack is a sudden, intense surge of fear or discomfort that peaks within minutes. - **A**: Panic attacks happen quickly, not gradually. - **C**: Panic attacks are short but intense, not mild or lasting hours. - **D**: Panic attacks are not consistent throughout the day. 3. **Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of Social Anxiety Disorder?** - A\) Fear of embarrassment in social situations. - B\) Avoiding social interactions due to fear of judgment. - C**) Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks in public places.** - D\) Intense fear of public speaking or performing. **C** - Social Anxiety Disorder typically involves fear and avoidance in social situations, not unexpected panic attacks. - **A, B, D**: All describe common symptoms of Social Anxiety Disorder, like fear of judgment and avoidance of social settings. 4. **Which of the following disorders is characterized by the fear of leaving home or entering open spaces?** - A\) Generalized Anxiety Disorder - B\) Panic Disorder - **C) Agoraphobia** - D\) Social Anxiety Disorder **Answer:** C **C** - Agoraphobia is the fear of leaving home or entering open spaces. - **A, B, D**: These involve anxiety or panic but not fear of open spaces. 5. **Systematic desensitization is primarily used to treat:** - A\) Panic Disorder - **B) Phobias** - C\) Generalized Anxiety Disorder - D\) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder **B** - Systematic desensitization is used to treat phobias by gradually exposing patients to their fears. - **A, C, D**: These disorders are treated with different approaches. 6. **Barlow's Panic Control Therapy (PCT) aims to:** - A**) Help patients understand and control their panic sensations.** - B\) Gradually expose individuals to feared stimuli in a controlled setting. - C\) Train patients to avoid situations that trigger panic. - D\) Help individuals eliminate all anxiety symptoms permanently. **A** - Panic Control Therapy helps patients understand and manage their panic sensations. - **B**: Exposure therapy is for phobias, not specifically panic. - **C, D**: Avoiding triggers or eliminating anxiety completely is not the goal of PCT. **Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders** 7. **Which of the following is a key symptom of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?** - A\) Recurrent thoughts or impulses that are ignored easily. - **B) Persistent urges or behaviors aimed at reducing distress but are excessive or unrealistic.** - C\) An intense fear of being watched by others in social settings. - D\) Avoiding certain public places due to fear of panic attacks. **B** - OCD is characterized by excessive behaviors meant to reduce distress, like compulsive hand-washing. - **A**: OCD thoughts are persistent and not easily ignored. - **C, D**: These symptoms are more related to social anxiety or panic disorders. 8. **Body Dysmorphic Disorder is characterized by:** - A\) **Preoccupation with a perceived flaw in physical appearance.** - B\) Anxiety around unfamiliar social environments. - C\) Intense fear of physical harm or injury. - D\) Recurrent panic attacks triggered by body movement. **A** - Body Dysmorphic Disorder involves an obsessive preoccupation with a perceived flaw in appearance. - **B, C, D**: These describe different types of anxiety or panic, unrelated to physical appearance 9. **Which of the following is true about Trichotillomania?** - A\) It involves compulsive skin-picking behavior. - B\) **It involves repetitive hair-pulling, leading to noticeable hair loss.** - C\) It is a fear of hair loss. - D\) It involves compulsive hand-washing. **B** - Trichotillomania involves compulsive hair-pulling, leading to hair loss. - **A**: Skin-picking is associated with Excoriation Disorder, not Trichotillomania. - **C, D**: These describe unrelated behaviors. 10. **Excoriation Disorder is characterized by:** - A\) Repeated pulling out of one\'s own hair. - **B) Recurrent skin-picking that results in skin lesions.** - C\) Preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance. - D\) Obsessive hoarding of items.  **B** - Excoriation Disorder involves skin-picking that leads to skin lesions. 11. **Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is primarily used to treat:** - A\) Social Anxiety Disorder - B\) Generalized Anxiety Disorder - **C) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder** - D\) Agoraphobia **C** - ERP is mainly used to treat OCD by exposing patients to their fears and preventing compulsive responses. 12. **Medications commonly used to treat Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders include:** - A\) Beta-blockers - B\) Benzodiazepines - **C) Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)** - D\) Antipsychotics **C** - SSRIs are commonly used to treat OCD and related disorders. - **A, B, D**: These medications are used for different conditions. 1. **The \"4 Ds\" of abnormality include all of the following EXCEPT:** - **A) Deviance:** Behavior that deviates from societal norms. - **B) Dysfunction:** Interference with daily functioning. - **C) Distress:** Suffering or discomfort. - **D) Dependency: Not one of the 4 Ds.\ Answer:** D **Prevalence vs. Incidence** 6. **Which of the following best defines the term prevalence as it is used in abnormal psychology?** - **A) The number of new cases of a disorder in a specific time period:** This defines incidence, not prevalence. - **B) The total number of individuals diagnosed with a disorder at any given time: Prevalence refers to the total number of existing cases (new and old) at a specific time.** - **C) The frequency of different types of therapy used for mental disorders:** This does not define prevalence. - **D) The probability of an individual developing a disorder over their lifetime:** This is related to risk, not prevalence.\ **Answer:** B 7. **Incidence refers to:** - **A) The total number of individuals affected by a disorder in the general population:** This refers to prevalence. - **B) The rate of new cases of a disorder occurring within a specific time frame: Incidence measures the number of new cases over a set period of time.** - **C) The likelihood of a disorder recurring after treatment:** This refers to recurrence. - **D) The study of the progression and outcome of mental disorders over time:** This relates to prognosis, not incidence.\ **Answer:** B 8. **In a population of 10,000 people, 500 are currently diagnosed with depression. This statistic refers to the:** - **A) Incidence of depression:** This would be the number of new cases over a time period. - **B) Prevalence of depression: Prevalence counts all cases, both new and old, at a specific point in time.** - **C) Severity of depression:** Refers to the intensity of symptoms, not the number of cases. - **D) Risk factor for depression:** Risk factors are conditions that increase the likelihood of developing depression.\ **Answer:** B