Communications Quiz - Merged QB PDF

1.The abbreviation for the call sign CHEROKEE XY-ABC would be: A. XY- BC B. CHEROKEE XY-BC C. CHEROKEE BC D. ABC ANSWER: C 2.The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: A. QDR B. QFE C. QUJ D. QTE ANSWER: D 3.The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: A. there is concern f...

1.The abbreviation for the call sign CHEROKEE XY-ABC would be: A. XY- BC B. CHEROKEE XY-BC C. CHEROKEE BC D. ABC ANSWER: C 2.The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: A. QDR B. QFE C. QUJ D. QTE ANSWER: D 3.The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: A. there is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle, but there is no need for immediate assistance B. the aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance C. the aircraft has crashed D. the aircraft is being hijacked ANSWER: B 4.The words preceding an URGENCY message should be: A. Urgency Urgency Urgency B. Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan C. Pan Pan Pan D. Mayday Mayday Mayday ANSWER: B 5.The Q code on which height is based on: A. QNH B. QFF C. QFE D. QUJ ANSWER: C 6.The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: A. discrete VHF or VOR frequency B. discrete VHF only C. VOR frequency only D. any ATC frequency ANSWER: A 7.The call from an aircraft for a missed approach is: A. OVERSHOOTING B. TOUCH AND GO C. GOING AROUND D. ABORTING ANSWER: C 8.When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say: A. WORDS TWICE B. REPEAT MESSAGE C. SPEAK SLOWER D. SAY AGAIN ANSWER: D 9.When reporting a frequency, the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: A. when there is no likelihood of confusion B. after the initial call C. never D. by the ground station only ANSWER: C 10.The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: A. loss of communications B. distress C. urgency D. hijacking ANSWER: A 11.Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to “RESET SQUAWK” is to: A. set the numbers to 7000 B. reselect the numbers on the control unit C. switch to STANDBY and back to ON D. press the IDENT button ANSWER: B 12.If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: A. try another appropriate frequency B. start transmitting blind C. land at the nearest suitable aerodrome D. transmit words twice ANSWER: A 13.The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: A. 118.7 B. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD C. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD D. 118.7 X-CD ANSWER: D 14.The best signals for VHF communications are obtained when the position of the aircraft is at: A. high altitude at long range B. high altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome C. low altitude and short range D. low level and long range ANSWER: B 15.The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: A. QDM B. QDR C. QTE D. QNH ANSWER: B 16.The abbreviation for a control zone is: A. CTR B. CTZ C. ATZ D. CTA ANSWER: A 17.The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is: A. Mayday B. Distress C. Pan Pan D. Urgency ANSWER: B 18.The call sign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: A. TOWER B. CLEARANCE C. GROUND D. APRON ANSWER: C 19.The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: A. carry out a go-around B. continue with 360 degree turns C. carry out one 360 degree turn only D. reverse the direction of the turn ANSWER: B 20.The time given in aeronautical communications is: A. local mean time B. in minutes only C. UTC D. daylight saving time ANSWER: C 21.In order to make a message effective you should: A. use words twice B. speak slower C. repeat the message D. speak at a constant volume ANSWER: D 22.When making a blind transmission you should: A. transmit the message twice B. transmit each word twice C. repeat the message on 121.5 MHz D. wait for visual signals ANSWER: A 23.The abbreviation AFIS stands for: A. aerodrome flight information service B. automatic flight information service C. aircraft fire indication system D. automatic flight instrument system ANSWER: A 24.The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is: A. 3 to 30 MHz B. 88 to 108 MHz C. 108.0 to 139.95 MHz D. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz ANSWER: D 25.The message “READABILITY 3” means: A. readable now and then B. unreadable C. readable D. readable but with difficulty ANSWER: D 26.The phrase to use when you want to say “yes” is: A. AFFIRMATIVE B. ROGER C. WILCO D. AFFIRM ANSWER: D 27.The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: A. consider the transmission as not sent B. proceed with your message C. wait and I will call you D. hold your present position ANSWER: C 28.The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is: A. 123.725 B. 123.7 C. 12372 D. 123.72 ANSWER: A 29.The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is: A. WILCO B. ROGER C. HOLDING SHORT D. UNDERSTOOD ANSWER: C 30.The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: A. greater than “REQUEST QDM” B. less than “CLEAR TO LAND” C. same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” D. same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY” ANSWER: C 31.Clearance limit is defined as: A. the flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance B. the time at which the ATC clearance expires C. the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance D. the height below which you will hit the first obstacle ANSWER: C 32.The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take-off includes the phrase: A. CANCEL TAKE-OFF B. STOP IMMEDIATELY C. ABORT ABORT D. YOU WON’T LIKE THIS ANSWER: B 33.The term “DISREGARD” means: A. ignore B. cancel the last clearance C. you have not been cleared D. pay no attention to what I say ANSWER: A 34.The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: A. confirm that you received and understood the last message B. pass the required information to ATC C. stay where you are D. examine a system or procedure ANSWER: D 35.The call sign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: A. CLEARANCE B. GROUND C. DELIVERY D. PRESTO ANSWER: C 36.The term “CORRECTION” is used when: A. the readback of a message is incorrect B. the readback of a message is correct C. the message has to be deleted D. an error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is... ANSWER: D 37.The state of urgency is defined as a condition: A. of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance B. concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board, but does not require immediate assistance C. where an aircraft requires an immediate take-off D. where the aircraft needs to land immediately because the crew are running out of duty time ANSWER: B 38.The response to a general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: A. respond in alphabetical order B. respond in numerical order C. give no response D. request a repeat of the message ANSWER: C 39.If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: A. has to cancel the flight B. may proceed with the flight with ATC permission C. has to fly low level only D. should fly for another company ANSWER: B 40.Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: A. within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA B. within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA C. EAT or ETA D. before it runs out of fuel ANSWER: C 41.The call “PAN PAN MEDICAL” indicates that: A. the flight is concerning a protected medical transport pursuant to the 1949 Geneva Convention B. there is concern about the safety of the aircraft or other vehicle or a person on board, but does not require immediate assistance C. one of the flight crew has been taken ill D. the crew require medical aid on the pan ANSWER: A 42.An urgency message should include the following information: A. name of station addressed, aircraft call sign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading B. call sign, position, route, destination, endurance C. name of station addressed, call sign, present position, level, ETA destination D. captain’s number, rank and name ANSWER: A 43.Readability 2 means that your transmission is: A. readable but with difficulty B. readable C. readable now and then D. established with two way communication ANSWER: C 44.How does ATC report RVR? A. In kilometres along the final approach B. In metres at touchdown, midpoint and stop end of runway C. In nautical miles along the runway D. In feet and inches ANSWER: B 45.An aircraft departing on an IFR flight under radar vectors has a communication failure. What action should be taken in addition to squawking 7600? A. Maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for 3 minutes, then return to the flight path according to the flight plan B. Return to the current flight plan route in the most direct manner C. Maintain present heading for 1 minute then return to the flight plan route D. Return by the shortest way to the flight plan route, regardless of any limitation issued by ATC ANSWER: B 46.An altitude of 13 500 ft would be spoken as: A. THIRTEEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET B. ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE ZERO ZERO FEET C. ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET D. ANGELS THIRTEEN POINT FIVE ANSWER: C 47.What cannot be left out from a position report? A. Call sign, Flight level and Time B. Call sign, Position and Time C. Position, Time, Flight level, Next position and ETA D. Your signature ANSWER: B 48.The call sign suffix for an airfield without radar would be: A. APPROACH B. CENTRE C. INFORMATION D. RADIO ANSWER: A 49.The definition of the instruction “MONITOR …” is: A. listen out on frequency B. establish communications on frequency C. watch out for visual signals on frequency D. you are being watched ANSWER: A 50.The phrase “BRAKING COEFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is: A. poor B. medium to poor C. medium D. slippery ANSWER: A 51.Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: A. VFR / IFR B. SMOOTH / TURBULENT C. NOT BAD / SO SO D. VMC / IMC ANSWER: D 52.A waypoint is: A. a designated reporting point B. a geographical point at which a change of level takes place C. a geographical location relating to area navigation (RNAV) D. a visual sign pointing the way ANSWER: C 53.If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: A. WORDS TWICE B. I REPEAT C. I SAY AGAIN D. DITTO ANSWER: C 54.The condition that describes the state of an aircraft in serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance is: A. urgency B. flight safety C. hopeless D. distress ANSWER: D 55.If you make a mistake in transmission you should use the phrase: A. CORRECTION B. CORRECT C. I SAY AGAIN D. SORRY ANSWER: A 56.An example of a general call is: A. STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDIATELY B. BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE C. ALL STATIONS D. GOOD DAY ANSWER: C 57.The frequency 121.5 MHz is the: A. international flight safety frequency B. one way air to ground emergency frequency C. international emergency frequency D. air to air chat frequency ANSWER: C 58.The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: A. all aircraft are to end their transmissions B. all aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency C. normal ATC is resumed after an emergency D. ATC is shutting shop ANSWER: C 59.The phrase used to separate portions of a message is: A. BREAK BREAK B. I SAY AGAIN C. BREAK D. UMM ANSWER: C 60.The term “RECLEARED” means that: A. your last clearance is confirmed B. your last clearance has been cancelled C. you may proceed as you please D. a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance ANSWER: D 61.What does a clearance for "immediate take-off' mean? A. Line up immediately after the landing aircraft. B. Have all the appropriate checks complete before entering the runway. C. The subsequent taxi and take-off shall be completed in one continuous movement. D. Enter the runway, apply the brakes, set full power, release the brakes and take-off without further clearance. ANSWER: C 62.What does "FRICTION COEFFICIENT 45" in a runway report mean? A. Braking action not measurable. B. Braking action medium. C. Braking action poor. D. Braking action good. ANSWER: D 63.On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 4" mean? A. Readable. B. Perfectly readable. C. Readable now and then. D. Readable but with difficulty. ANSWER: A 64.What does the phrase "GO AHEAD" mean? A. Taxi on. B. Proceed with your message. C. Pass me the following information. D. Yes. ANSWER: B 65.What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean? A. Runway Visibility Report. B. Runway Visual Range. C. Radar VeCtors Required. D. Re-cleared Via Route... ANSWER: B 66.What is the Q-code for magnetic heading to the station (no wind)? A. QDM B. QDR C. QNE D. QTE ANSWER: A 67.Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction? A. CHANGING TO ARRIVAL FASTAIR 345. B. CHANGING OVER FASTAIR 345. C. 118.0 FASTAIR 345. D. STEPHENVILLE ARRIVAL FASTAIR 345. ANSWER: C 68.The clearance "CLEARED FOR IMMEDIATE TAKEOFF RUNWAY 03" is A. a flight safety message. B. an urgency message. C. an unauthorized message. D. a flight regularity message. ANSWER: A 69.When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS, STEPHENVILLE RADAR, DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED" it is requested: A. to acknowledge receipt of this message. B. to impose silence to other stations in its vicinity. C. to discontinue communication with Stephenville RADAR. D. to resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR. ANSWER: D 70.Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly? A. THAT IS RIGHT B. CORRECT. C. AFFIRM. D. THAT IS AFFIRMATIVE. ANSWER: B 71.An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk: A. 7500 B. 7600 C. 7700 D. 7777 ANSWER: C 72.A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words "MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY" means: A. the aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure. B. the aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or vehicle. C. the aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flight. D. imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required. ANSWER: D 73.An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet. TOWER requests the pilot to report heading and level. What is the correct response? A. 045 and 2500. B. Heading north-east at level 025. C. Heading 45 at 2500 feet. D. Heading 045 at 2500 feet. ANSWER: D 74.What is the correct call sign of "FAST AIR 345" in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of 136 tons? A. FAST AIR 345. B. HEAVY FAST AIR 345. C. FAST AIR 345 HEAVY. D. FAST AIR 345 WIDEBODY. ANSWER: C 75.What is the maximum distance at which you may expect strong VHF reception over flat terrain at FL140? A. About 40 NM. B. About 140 NM. C. About 240 NM. D. About 300 NM. ANSWER: B 76.Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call? A. The regional guard frequency. B. Any frequency at pilot's discretion. C. The international emergency frequency. D. The air-ground frequency in use at the time. ANSWER: D 77.Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency? A. 122.500 MHz B. 121.500 MHz C. 121.050 MHz D. 121.005 MHz ANSWER: B 78.Select the air traffic service in charge of control of local traffic, take-offs and landings at an airport: A. RADAR B. TOWER C. CONTROL D. AIR TRAFFIC CENTRE ANSWER: B 79.Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back? A. No, if the communication channel is overloaded. B. No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument Departure Route/SID). C. Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concerned. D. No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise. ANSWER: C 80.On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 4" mean? A. Readable now and then. B. Readable. C. Perfectly readable. D. Readable but with difficulty. ANSWER: B 81.What does QTE mean? A. Magnetic heading to the station. B. Magnetic bearing from the station. C. True heading to the station (no wind). D. True bearing from the station. ANSWER: D 82.An aircraft in urgency shall send the following signal by radiotelephony: A. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY B. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN C. URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY D. DETRESFA, DETRESFA,DETRESFA ANSWER: B 83.A radiotelephony call to an aeronautical station followed by the suffix "ARRIVAL" after its callsign is a transmission to: A. approach control. B. clearance delivery. C. the aerodrome tower. D. approach control radar arrivals. ANSWER: D 84.What does the term "BLIND TRANSMISSION" mean? A. A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station. B. A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations. C. A transmission of messages relating to en route weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations. D. A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission. ANSWER: D 85.Which Q-code is used to report height? A. QNH B. QFE C. QFF D. QNJ ANSWER: B 86.Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600? A. In case of radio communication failure. B. When entering bad weather areas. C. When approaching a prohibited area. D. When flying over desert areas. ANSWER: A 87.What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area? A. GROUND B. APPROACH C. TOWER D. CONTROL ANSWER: A 88.Clearances relating to the runway in use shall be read back only if the aircraft is to: A. enter, land on, take-off from, cross and backtrack. B. enter, cross and backtrack. C. land on and take-off from. D. enter, land on, take-off from and backtrack. ANSWER: B 89.How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off? A. READY TOGO. B. READY FOR TAKE-OFF. C. READY TO LINE-UP. D. READY FOR DEPARTURE or READY. ANSWER: D 90.How will an ATS unit instruct Fastair 345 to contact Stephenville RADAR on frequency 132.0083 (8.33 KHz frequency spacing)? A. Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR channel 132.0083 B. Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR channel 132.010. C. Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR frequency 132.010. D. Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR on 132.010. ANSWER: D 91.Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band? A. 75 kHz B. 50 kHz C. 25 kHz D. 250 kHz ANSWER: C 92.In the event that a pilot is required to make a "BLIND" transmission, this should be made: A. only once on the designated frequency. B. twice on the designated frequency. C. on the emergency frequency only. D. during VFR flights only. ANSWER: B 93.What does the abbreviation "RNAV" mean? A. Area Navigation. B. Route Navigation. C. Radar Aided Navigation. D. Radio Navigation. ANSWER: A 94.An example of a CONDITIONAL clearance is: A. FLY HEADING 060, CLIMB TO FL100. B. TAXI TO HOLDING POINT BRAVO AND STANDBY ON TOWER 118.1. C. BEHIND THE LANDING A320 LINE UP AND WAIT RUNWAY 09 BEHIND. D. CONTINUE PAST INTERSECTION CHARLIE, THEN VACATE FIRST TO THE RIGHT. ANSWER: C 95.The runway surface condition for which braking action would be unreliable is: A. ice. B. grass. C. dry snow. D. wet snow and slush. ANSWER: D 96.Test transmissions should include the word(s): A. TEST B. RADIO CHECK C. TEST TRANSMISSION D. TESTING, TESTING ANSWER: B 97.What is the maximum distance at which you may expect strong VHF reception over flat terrain at FL140? A. About 40 NM. B. About 140 NM. C. About 240 NM. D. About 300 NM. ANSWER: B 98.The radar controller is transmitting: "CONFIRM SQUAWK". What does this mean? A. The controller wants you to transmit your bearing. B. The controller requests the registration of the aircraft. C. The controller wants to know which code is set on the transponder. D. The controller wants you to repeat your last transmission once again ANSWER: C 99.Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions? A. APPROVED. B. GO AHEAD. C. CLEARED. D. I SAY AGAIN PROCEED. ANSWER: C 100.During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of an aircraft XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360°. The correct read back of this instruction is: A. There is no need to respond as you have been identified as XY-ABC. B. Heading north, X-BC. C. Heading three hundred and sixty, X-BC. D. Heading three six zero, X-BC. ANSWER: D 42. A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is: A. a flight security message. B. an urgency message. C. a flight safety message. D. a flight regularity message ANSWER: D 43. The abbreviation "HX" in operating hours of an aerodrome means: A. open on request. B. opening hours are not specified. C. open between sunrise and sunset. D. open between sunset and sunrise. ANSWER: B 44. Immediately following the MAYDAY prefix, an aircraft in distress should transmit: A. the aircraft call sign twice. B. the nature of the emergency. C. the call sign of the station addressed, when it is known and the circumstances permit. D. its last known position. ANSWER: C 45. What does the word "NEGATIVE" mean? A. Permission not granted. B. Proposed action granted. C. Disregard last instruction. D. Consider last transmission as not sent. ANSWER: A 46. The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is referred to as: A. urgency. B. distress. C. MAYDAY. D. PAN PAN. ANSWER: B 47. What does QDM mean? A. True bearing from the station. B. Magnetic bearing from the station. C. True heading to the station (no wind). D. Magnetic heading to the station (no wind). ANSWER: D 48. What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message? A. Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie B. Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo C. Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie D. Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie ANSWER: C 49. Which Q-code is used to report altitude? A. QNH B. QFE C. QFF D. QNJ ANSWER: A 50. What does the term "BROADCAST" mean? A. A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station. B. A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight. C. A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations. D. A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations. ANSWER: C 51. On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall: A. acknowledge the message immediately. B. impose radio silence on the frequency in use. C. monitor the frequency to ensure assistance if required. D. change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use. ANSWER: C 52. HF frequency bands used for aviation are between: A. 2 850 to 22 000 kHz B. 2 850 to 25 000 MHz C. 258 to 2 500 MHz D. 2 580 to 22 000 kHz ANSWER: B 53. What does "SQUAWK IDENT" mean? A. Select the SSR transponder code to 7000. B. Select the SSR transponder mode to "ALT". C. Operate the SSR transponder "special position identification" feature. D. State the aircraft call sign three times. ANSWER: c 54. An example of the content of a FLIGHT REGULARITY message is: A. en-route weather conditions. B. messages concerning the aircraft servicing. C. individual requirements of passengers or crew members. D. individual dietary requirements of a passenger or crew member. ANSWER: B 55. The pilot of an aircraft may abbreviate the aircraft radio call sign only: A. when there is no likelihood of confusion with another aircraft. B. if it has first been abbreviated by the ground station and there is no likelihood of confusion. C. on second and subsequent calls to an aeronautical ground station. D. when the call sign has been specifically approved by ICAO. ANSWER: B 56. Fastair 345 is instructed to contact Stephenville RADAR on channel1 32.01 0 MHz. How would Fastair 345 advise RADAR that it is not 8.33 KHz equipped? A. Negative eight point three three. B. Negative channel 132.0083 C. Negative frequency 132.010. D. Negative on 132.010. ANSWER: A 57. The three main categories of aeronautical communications service are: A. IFR, VFR, SVFR B. Air-Ground, Flight Information Service, ATC C. Ground, Approach, Tower D. Ground/Tower, Approach/Departure, Area Radar ANSWER: B 58. An urgency call shall consist of the following elements / details: A. PAN PAN (2 times), aircraft identification, the intention of the person in command, heading, height, position. B. MAYDAY (3 times) on the frequency in use, heading, position, level, aircraft identification, the intention of the person in command. C. PAN PAN (3 times) on the frequency 121.5 MHz, present position, heading, aircraft identification, the intention of the person in command, the identification of the station being called. D. PAN PAN (3 times) on the frequency in use, name of the station addressed, aircraft identification, the nature of the urgency condition, the intention of the person in command. ANSWER: D 59. To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong? A. Medium Frequency. B. Very Low Frequency. C. Low Frequency. D. Very High Frequency. ANSWER: D 60. When the ATC asks the pilot "ARE YOU ABLE TO MAINTAIN FL80?" the correct reply is: A. ROGER B. WILCO C. AFFIRM or NEGATIVE D. ABLE or UNABLE ANSWER: C 61. The time is 9:20AM. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour? A. Two zero. B. Twenty. C. Two zero this hour. D. Nine twenty AM. ANSWER: A 62. What does the word "MONITOR" mean? A. Examine a system or procedure. B. Wait and I will call you. C. Establish radio contact with... D. Listen out on (frequency). ANSWER: D 63. From your cruising altitude at FL240 you want to descend to flight Ievel 100. Your transmission to the radar controller will be: A. request flight level one-hundred. B. request to descend one-hundred. C. request descent to flight level one-zero-zero. D. we would like to start descent to flight level one-zero-zero. ANSWER: C 64. What is the correct way of spelling out HB-FRO in a radio message? A. Hotel Bravo Foxy Romeo Oscar B. Hector Brasil Foxtrot Romeo Oscar C. Hotel Bravo Foxtrot Romeo Oscar D. Hotel Bravo Fox Rom a Oscar ANSWER: C 65. The message to an aeronautical ground station "PLEASE CALL A TAXI-CAB FOR US. WE WILL ARRIVE AT 1045 AS SCHEDULED" is A. an unauthorized message. B. a flight regularity message. C. a flight safety messages. D. an urgency message. ANSWER: A 66. What does the word "NEGATIVE" mean? A. I say again. B. Consider that transmission as not sent. C. Annul the previously transmitted clearance. D. That is not correct. ANSWER: D 67. What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference is likely? A. 3 MHz B. 30 MHz C. 300 MHz D. 3 GHz ANSWER: B 68. What does the abbreviation "HX" mean? A. Continuous day and night service. B. Sunrise to Sunset C. Sunset to Sunrise. D. No specific working hours. ANSWER: D 69. Before transmitting the pilot should: A. make sure that the aircraft is levelled off. B. listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur. C. always write the message and read it during the transmission. D. make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time. ANSWER: B 70. What does the word "REPORT" mean? A. Listen out on (frequency). B. Proceed With your message. C. Pass me the following information. D. Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received. ANSWER: C 71. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency? A. One one eight decimal one. B. One eighteen one. C. One one eight one. D. One one eight point one. ANSWER: A 72. An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that: A. the aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable. B. the aircraft is being hijacked. C. the aircraft is in distress. D. there is a sick passenger on board. ANSWER: C 73. What does the term "EXPECTED APPROACH TIME" mean? A. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing. B. The holding time over the radio facility from which the instruments approach procedure for a landing will be initiated. C. The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome. D. The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing. ANSWER: A 74. What does the term "AIR-GROUND COMMUNICATION" mean? A. One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the Earth. B. One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the Earth. C. Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the Earth. D. Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN). ANSWER: C 75. What does the word "RECLEARED" mean? A. Consider that transmission as not sent. B. Permission for proposed action granted. C. An error has been made in my last transmission. D. A change has been made to your last clearance. ANSWER: D 76. A "BLIND" transmission shall be made: A. on the designated frequency (frequency in use). B. to all available aeronautical stations. C. on regional guard frequencies only. D. during IFR flights only. ANSWER: B 77. Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc? A. CONFIRM. B. CORRECT. C. ACKNOWLEDGE. D. VERIFY. ANSWER: A 78. The priority of the instruction "TAXI TO RUNWAY 05" is A. same as "LINE-UP RUNWAY 07 AND WAIT". B. greater than "TRANSMIT FOR QDM" C. greater than "CAUTION, CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF TAXIWAY". D. less than "CLEARED TO LAND". ANSWER: A 79. What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 kHz)? A. One two zero decimal three seven. B. One twenty decimal three seven. C. One two zero decimal three seven five. D. One two zero three seven. ANSWER: C 80. If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase: A. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN. B. TRANSMITTING BLIND. C. READ YOU ONE, READ YOU ONE. D. HOW DO YOU READ? ANSWER: B 81. When the term "OVERCAST" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: A. 50% or more. B. 100%. C. Less than 50%. D. No clouds but poor ground visibility. ANSWER: B 82. What is the correct way of expressing visibility? A. Visibility 1.2 kilometres. B. Visibility 1 200 feet. C. Visibility 1.2 nautical miles. D. Visibility 1 200 metres. ANSWER: B 83. The phrase "FRICTION COEFFICIENT 35" from ATC means that the braking action is: A. poor B. medium C. good D. unmeasurable ANSWER: B 84. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures? A. RADAR B. CONTROL C. DEPARTURE D. APPROACH ANSWER: C 85. When the term "BROKEN" is used in aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: A. 5 to 7 oktas. B. 1 to 4 oktas. C. 8 oktas below 10 000 feet. D. No clouds below 5000 feet. ANSWER: A 86. What does the abbreviation "H24" mean? A. Continuous day and night service. B. Sunrise to Sunset. C. No specific working hours. D. Aircraft handling available 24 hours a day. ANSWER: A 87. Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service? A. 108.000 - 117.975 MHz B. 118.000 - 136.975 MHz C. 1810 - 2850 kHz D. 11 650 - 13 200 kHz ANSWER: B 88. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to: A. land at the destination aerodrome. B. return to the aerodrome of departure. C. land at the alternate aerodrome. D. land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. ANSWER: D 89. Unless a significant change occurs the weather information contained in the ATIS is usually updated every: A. 30 minutes B. 20 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 50 minutes ANSWER: A 90. Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600? A. When flying over desert areas. B. When entering bad weather areas. C. When approaching a prohibited area. D. In case of radio communication failure. ANSWER: D 91. How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain language? A. in nautical miles only. B. in feet and nautical miles. C. up to 1 500 m in metres, above in kilometres. D. up to 5 000 m in metres, above in kilometres. ANSWER: D 92. You are making a long straight in approach to land, at what range would you make the call "LONG FINAL"? A. 2 NM B. 4 NM C. between 8 and 4 NM D. 3 NM ANSWER: C 93. The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress should be on: A. the FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned. B. the emergency frequency in any case. C. the regional guard frequency. D. the air-ground frequency in use at the time ANSWER: D 94. Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at FL100? A. About 120 NM. B. About 300 NM. C. About 30 NM. D. About 12 NM. ANSWER: A 95. What is the correct way of spelling out FRI VOR in a radio message? A. Fox Romeo India - VOR B. Fox Romeo Yankee - VOR C. Foxtrot Rome India - VOR D. Foxtrot Romeo India - VOR ANSWER: D 96. What is the correct suffix to be used when establishing radio contact with an Area Control Centre? A. RADIO B. CENTRE C. CONTROL D. CONTROL CENTRE ANSWER: C 97. What is the Q-code for Magnetic bearing from the station? A. QTE B. QDR C. QDM D. QFE ANSWER: B 98. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3 500 when indicating an altitude or a height? A. Three five double zero. B. Three five zero zero. C. Three five hundred. D. Three thousand five hundred. ANSWER: D 99. When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch for instructions passed by visual signals? A. When entering a FIR during a VFR flight. B. When flying VFR above clouds. C. When the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport. D. When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome. ANSWER: D 100. Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XV-ABC is correct? A. XY-BC B. X-BC C. ABC D. BC ANSWER: B 101. In a METAR, cloud reported as "SCATIERED" means: A. no significant cloud. B. 1 - 2 oktas C. 3 - 4 oktas D. 5 - 7 oktas ANSWER: C 102. What does the abbreviation "ACARS" stand for? A. Aircraft Alert Report System B. Aircraft Communication Alerting System C. Alert Communications Addressing & Reporting System D. Aircraft Communications Addressing & Reporting System ANSWER: D 103. To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong? A. Medium Frequency. B. Very Low Frequency. C. Low Frequency. D. Very High Frequency. ANSWER: D 104. An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates: A. It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome. B. It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure. C. It is requesting immediate level change. D. It is about to make a forced landing. ANSWER: B 105. The term "FLIGHT LEVEL" can be defined as: A. a height above 3 000 ft. B. a surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to a datum of 1013 hPa. C. a surface of varying atmospheric pressure related to a datum of 1013 hPa. D. an altitude of constant height related to 1013 hPa. ANSWER: B 106. Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER frequency 118.2 MHz? A. Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station. B. Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station. C. Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill. D. Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill. ANSWER: B 107. Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of: A. distress traffic. B. technical difficulties. C. urgency communication. D. overload of the frequency. ANSWER: A 108. VHF communications sometimes experience extended ranges as a result of: A. ionospheric ducting. B. reflections from aircraft. C. surface wave propagation. D. super refraction. ANSWER: D 109. How aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports are obtained by aircraft in flight? A. SIGMET B. ATIS C. AFIS D. VOLMET ANSWER: D 110. RADAR informs aircraft X-BC "X-BC IDENTIFIED". What does this mean? A. Radar identification has been achieved. B. X-BC is not visible on the radar screen. C. X-BC should perform an identification turn. D. X-BC should operate the I DENT-button. ANSWER: A 111. What does the instruction "GO AROUND" mean? A. Overtake the aircraft ahead. B. Carry out a missed approach. C. Make a 360° turn. D. Proceed with your message. ANSWER: B 112. Setting a transponder code 7700 indicates that the aircraft: A. is in emergency. B. is not receiving a radar service. C. is experiencing a communication failure. D. is entering a controlled airspace without previous clearance ANSWER: A 113. What does the abbreviation "MLS" mean? A. Microwave landing System. B. Minimum Safe level. C. Mean Sea level. D. Minimum Sector level. ANSWER: A 114. In order to avoid a CB the pilot wants to turn right to a magnetic heading of 100 degrees. The correct way to ask the ATC unit for permission is: A. request right turn to heading one-point-zero-zero.Communication B. request right turn to heading one-hundred degrees. C. request right turn to heading one-double-0. D. request right turn, heading one-zero-zero. ANSWER: D 115. If you are requested to "REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS", what does that mean? A. Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibilicy, temperature. B. Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC. C. Indicate if visibilicy is sufficient for landing D. Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR. ANSWER: B 116. A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is: A. a flight security message. B. an urgency message. C. a flight safety message. D. a flight regularity message. ANSWER: D 117. An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony: A. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN B. DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA C. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY D. URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY ANSWER: C 118. An urgency call should include the following information: A. Call sign, position, route, destination, endurance. B. Name of the pilot in command, number of persons on board. C. Call sign of the station addressed, aircraft callsign, present position, level, ETA destination. D. Call sign of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of the person in command, position, level, heading ANSWER: D 119. The time is now 11:23. Radar Control requests your estimate for next reporting point, which is AAL VOR/DME. You look at your operational flight plan (OFP) and estimate 12 minutes (36 NM) to go to the reporting point. Your transmission is: A. estimate AAL at three-five. B. estimate AAL at eleven-thirty-five. C. we have one-two minutes to go to AAL. D. estimate AAL VOR in one-two minutes. ANSWER: A 120. When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include? A. CANCEL DISTRESS. B. MAYDAY CANCELLED. C. DISTRESS CONDITION TERMINATED. D. MAYDAY, RESUMING NORMAL OPERATIONS. ANSWER: A 121. On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 3" mean? A. Readable. B. Readable now and then. C. Perfectly readable. D. Readable but with difficulty. ANSWER: D 122. What does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean? A. Air Traffic Information Service. B. Airport Terminal Information Service. C. Aircraft Terminal Information Service. D. Automatic Terminal Information Service. ANSWER: D 123. RADAR instruas aircraft X-BC "X-BC SQUAWK STANDBY". What does this mean? A. X-BC is requested to standby on the frequency. B. X-BC is requested to switch the transponder to standby position. C. X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectors. D. X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy. ANSWER: B 124. What does the instruction "ORBIT RIGHT" mean? A. Make 360° turns to the right. B. Turn right to avoid other traffic. C. Right-hand circuits are in use. D. Leave the runway to the right. ANSWER: B 125. The wavelength of a radio aid is 6.97 cm. The corresponding frequency and frequency band are: A. 4304 MHz SHF B. 43 MHz VHF C. 4304 MHz UHF D. 43 GHz EHF ANSWER: B 126. If an aircraft experiences a radio failure, the transponder should be set to: A. 7700 B. 2000 C. 7600 D. 7500 ANSWER: C 127. "DISTRESS" is defined as: A. a condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach. B. a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance. C. a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance. D. a condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance. ANSWER: C 128. If you are requested to report your height. To which Q-code setting would you refer? A. QBI B. QNH C. QDM D. QFE ANSWER: D 129. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals? A. ARRIVAL B. APPROACH C. RADAR D. DIRECTOR ANSWER: B 130. What does the phrase "ROGER" mean? A. A direct answer in the affirmative. B. I have received all of your last transmission. C. A direct answer in the negative. D. Cleared for take-off or cleared to land. ANSWER: B 131. Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of: A. technical difficulties. B. urgency communication. C. overload of the frequency. D. distress traffic. ANSWER: D 132. An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that: A. the aircraft is in distress. B. the aircraft is being hijacked. C. there is a sick passenger on board. D. the aircraft's t ransceiver is unserviceable. ANSWER: A 133. The priority of the pilot's message "REQUEST QDM" is: A. same as "LATEST QNH 1 018". B. greater than "TURN LEFT HEADING 090". C. less than "DESCEND TO FLIGHT LEVEL 100". D. less than "REQUEST CLIMB TO FLIGHT LEVEL 150". ANSWER: B 134. What does the abbreviation "AIS" mean? A. Airport Information System. B. Aerodrome Identification Signal area. C. Aeronautical Information Service. D. Aerodrome Information Service. ANSWER: C 135. The phrase that is used to identify an urgency call is: A. PAN PAN PAN B. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY C. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN D. URGENCY URGENCY URGENCY ANSWER: C 136. What does the word "CORRECT" mean? A. That is correct. B. An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is... C. Permission for proposed action not granted. D. Negative, the correct version is... ANSWER: A 137. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say "I WOULD LIKE TO KNOW" or "I WISH TO OBTAIN"? A. CONFIRM. B. REPORT. C. ACKNOWLEDGE. D. REQUEST ANSWER: D 138. When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch for instructions passed by visual signals? A. When flying VFR above clouds. B. When entering a FIR during an IFR flight. C. When the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport. D. When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome. ANSWER: D 139. The priority of the instruction 'TAXI TO RUNWAY 05" is A. same as "LINE-UP RUNWAY 07 AND WAIT". B. greater than "TRANSMIT FOR QDM". C. greater than "CAUTION, CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF TAXIWAY". D. less than "CLEARED TO LAND". ANSWER: A 140. The pilot is calling an aeronautical station. When can he omit the ground stations call sign suffix or name? A. Never. B. Provided that the aircraft is in visual contact with the aerodrome. C. Only after the abbreviated call sign form is first used by the ground station. D. Once satisfactory communications have been established and it is assured there will be no confusion. ANSWER: D 141. What is the Q-code for Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)? A. QDM B. QDR C. QNE D. QTE ANSWER: B 142. The frequency to be used for the first transmission of a distress condition (MAYDAY) call shall be: A. the distress frequency 121.5 kHz. B. frequency of the nearest radar station. C. the air-ground frequency currently in use. D. frequency of the nearest Area Control Centre. ANSWER: C 143. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service? A. APRON B. CONTROL C. AERODROME D. TOWER ANSWER: D 144. Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service? A. Meteorological messages. B. Radio teletype messages. C. Flight safety messages. D. Urgency messages. ANSWER: B 145. Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or message? A. SORRY B. CORRECT C. I SAY AGAIN D. CORRECTION ANSWER: D 146. What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched on)? A. The frequency can not be used by others. B. None. C. Other stations will have to use the WORD TWICE technique. D. Readability will improve for all stations. ANSWER: B ---> A 147. How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC clearance? A. With his own aircraft call sign. B. With the word "WILCO". C. With the ATC ground station call sign. D. With the word "ROGER". ANSWER: B 148. When shall an aircraft in the heavy wake turbulence category include the word HEAVY immediately after its call sign e.g. FASTAIR 345 HEAVY? A. in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit. B. never. C. in all calls. D. in all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit. ANSWER: A 149. The priority of the pilot's message "REQUEST QDM" is: A. less than "DESCEND TO FLIGHT LEVEL... " B. same as "LATEST QNH 1018". C. greater than "TURN LEFT HEADING... " D. less than "REQUEST CLIMB TO FLIGHT LEVEL.. " ANSWER: C 150. A message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITIING BLIND DUE RECEIVER FAILURE" shall be transmitted: A. on the regional guard frequency. B. on the frequency presently in use. C. on the international emergency frequency. D. on all available aeronautical stations. ANSWER: B 151. The pressure at the aerodrome reduced to sea level with regard to international standard atmosphere conditions is: A. QFE B. QFF C. QRM D. QNH ANSWER: D 152. What does QDR mean? A. True heading to the station. B. Magnetic heading to the station (no wind). C. True bearing from the station. D. Magnetic bearing from the station. ANSWER: D 153. VHF communications sometimes experience extended ranges as a result of: A. ionospheric ducting. B. reflections from aircraft. C. surface wave propagation. D. super refraction. ANSWER: D 154. A PAN message is defined as follows: A. PAN is no longer used in aircraft radiotelephony. B. medical assistance only is required immediately after the aircraft lands. C. a condition of being threatened by a serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance. D. a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but does not require immediate assistance ANSWER: D 155. The phrase "TAKE OFF" shall only be used when: A. an aircraft is cleared for take-off or, when cancelling a take-off clearance. B. the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway. C. an aircraft is cleared to line-up only. D. clearance delivery authorizes its use. ANSWER: A 156. RADAR informs aircraft X-BC "X-BC IDENTIFIED". What does this mean? A. Radar identification has been achieved. B. X-BC is not visible on the radar screen. C. X-BC should perform an identification turn. D. X-BC should operate the IDENT-button. ANSWER: B 157. Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service? A. 108.000 - 117.975 MHz B. 118.000 - 136.975 MHZ C. 1 810 - 2 850 kHz D. 11 650 - 13 200 kHz ANSWER: B 158. Aeronautical messages are given an order of priority. Which of the following statements reflects the correct order of priority? A. Meteorological messages take precedence over direction finding messages. B. Flight safety messages will be handled before urgency messages. C. Messages relating to direction finding takes precedence over flight regularity messages. D. Flight safety messages take precedence over direction finding messages. ANSWER: C 159. What does the abbreviation "SAR" mean? A. Surveillance Airport Radar. B. Search and Rescue. C. Standard Arrival Route. D. Secondary Altimeter Responder. ANSWER: B 160. How shall a pilot ask for a QFE? A. request Quebec Fox Echo B. request Queen Fox Easy C. request Quebec Foxtrot Echo D. request Quebec Fox Easy ANSWER: C 161. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say "PASS ME THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION"? A. SAY AGAIN. B. REQUEST C. REPORT. D. CHECK ANSWER: C 162. You are making a long straight in approach to land, at what range would you make the call "LONG FINAL"? A. 2 NM B. 3 NM C. 4 NM D. between 4 and 8 NM ANSWER: D 163. SELCAL is an equipment that: A. is coupled with TCAS II and is to do with TA warning systems. B. automatically transmits data signals. C. automatically receives incoming signals. D. functions as a frequency modulator. ANSWER: C 164. The expression "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE" implies that no answer is expected. It shall be used by: A. an aircraft station being aware of receiver failure. B. an aircraft station doing blind transmissions at a "non-towered" airfield. C. a radar controller performing a PAR or SRE final approach. D. a ground station broadcasting information to all listening stations. ANSWER: A 165. The priority of the message "LINE UP AND WAIT" is A. Less than "CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF". B. Greater than "REQUEST QDM" C. Same as "TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 09". D. Same as "CAUTION, WORK IN PROGRESS ON THE TAXIWAY". ANSWER: C 166. What shall the pilot's read back be for "CLIMB FL280"? A. Climbing flight level two eighty. B. Climbing flight level two eight zero. C. Climbing two eight zero. D. Climbing two eighty. ANSWER: B 167. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE" during an en route flight, the aircraft station shall also: A. land at the nearest airfield/airport. B. join base leg when approaching the airfield for landing. C. advise the time of its next intended transmission. D. return to the airport of departure. ANSWER: C 168. QNH is the Q-code to indicate: A. the atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP). B. the atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold). C. the alt imeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground. D. the atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome. ANSWER: C 169. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say "COMMUNICATION IS DIFFICULT PLEASE SEND EVERY WORD OR GROUP OF WORD TWICE"? A. WORDS TWICE. B. SAY AGAIN, SAY AGAIN. C. REPEAT TWICE. D. MESSAGE SECOND TIME. ANSWER: A 170. What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 kHz)? A. One two zero decimal three seven. B. One twenty decimal three seven. C. One two zero decimal three seven five. D. One two zero three seven. ANSWER: C 171. Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at FL50? A. About 8 NM. B. About 85 NM. C. About 15 NM. D. About 150 NM. ANSWER: B 172. An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk: A. 7600 B. 7700 C. 7500 D. 7200 ANSWER: B 173. Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and: A. climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan. B. maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 7 minutes and then climb in accordance with the flight plan. C. land at the departure aerodrome in any case. D. maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 20 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight plan. ANSWER: B 174. The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details: A. aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilots intention, present position, level and heading. B. aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport. C. aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, posit ion and level. D. aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required. ANSWER: B 175. What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station? A. Squawk mode A code 7500. B. Divert to the alternate airport. C. Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight. D. Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautica l stations. ANSWER: D 176. Attenuation of radio waves means: A. the weakening of the radiated waves. B. the atmospheric bending of the waves. C. only the scattering of the waves by the tropopause. D. only the absorption of radio energy by the sea. ANSWER: B 177. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery? A. CLEARANCE DELIVERY B. CLEARANCE C. DELIVERY D. RADIO ANSWER: C 178. Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be "UNRELIABLE"? A. Runway covered with dry snow. B. Runway covered with ice. C. Runway covered with wet snow and slush. D. Runway conditions normal. ANSWER: C 179. What does the word "WILCO" mean? A. I read you fine. B. I have received all of your last transmission. C. I understand your message and will comply with it. D. As communication is difficult, I will call you later. ANSWER: C 180. Aircraft XV-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission? A. Stephenville TOWER XV-ABC signal check. B. Stephenville TOWER XV-ABC preflight check. C. Stephenville TOWER XV-ABC radio check 118.7. D. Stephenville TOWER XV-ABC frequency check. ANSWER: C 181. The expression "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE" implies that no answer is expected. It shall be used by: A. an aircraft station being aware of receiver farlure. B. a radar controller performing a PAR or SRE final approach. C. a ground station broadcasting informatron to all listening stations. D. an aircraft station doing blind transmissions at a "non-towered" airfield. ANSWER: A 182. A request "WORDS TWICE" means: A. communication is difficult, please send every word or group of words twice. B. communication is difficult, reduce your rate of speech to twice the time. C. readback of transmissions Is no longer to be used. D. communication is difficult, please send all transmissions twice. ANSWER: B 183. What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message? A. Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie B. Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo C. Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie D. Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie ANSWER: C 184. When an aircraft lands with QNH set in the sub-scale of the altimeter it will read: A. zero. B. pressure altitude. C. airfield elevation. D. QFE and is the same as QNH. ANSWER: C 185. Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission? A. Level of aircraft and terrain elevations. B. The ionosphere. C. Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms. D. Day and night effect. ANSWER: A 186. When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include? A. MAYDAY, RESUMING NORMAL OPERATIONS. B. CANCEL DISTRESS. C. MAYDAY CANCELLED. D. DISTRESS CONDITION TERMINATED. ANSWER: B 187. What shall the pilot read back for ATC instruction "CLIMB ALTITUDE 2500 FEET"? A. Climbing to two point five. B. Up to two thousand five hundred. C. Climbing altitude two thousand five hundred feet. D. Climbing to two thousand five hundred. ANSWER: C 188. The ATC message "FASTAIR 345, PREVIOUS DEPARTING AIRCRAFT REPORTED SEVERE TURBULENCE UP TO FL100" is a: A. light regularity message. B. meteorological message. C. flight safety message. D. urgency message. ANSWER: C 189. CAVOK may be used in place of visibility, weather and cloud, provided that visibility is _or more; there is no cloud below_ or MSA whichever is the _ and no significant weather phenomena. A. 10 km; 5000 ft AAL; lower B. 10 NM; 5000 ft AAL; higher C. 10 NM; 5000 ft AGL; lower D. 1 0 km; 5 000 ft AAL; higher ANSWER: D 190. The band for frequencies between 118.0 to 136.975 MHz is referred to as the: A. HF band. B. UHF band. C. VHF band. D. SHF band. ANSWER: C 191. Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700? A. When following a SID. B. When flying within controlled airspace. C. When passing the transition level. D. In distress. ANSWER: D 192. What does "FRICTION COEFFICIENT 20" in a runway report mean? A. Braking action medium. B. Braking action poor. C. Braking action good. D. Braking action unreliable. ANSWER: B 193. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing clearance delivery? A. CENTER B. GROUND C. DELIVERY D. CLEARANCE ANSWER: C 194. What does the phrase "SQUAWK 1234" mean? A. Give a short count for DF (direction finder). B. Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder. C. Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz. D. Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz ANSWER: B 195. What does the word "DISREGARD" mean? A. Consider that transmission as not sent. B. An error has been made in this transmission. C. Annul the previously transmitted clearance. D. Wait and I will call you. ANSWER: B 196. Radar information relating to conflicting traffic should be given whenever possible in the following from: A. Relative bearing in degrees left or right; heading; speed; height. B. Relative bearing in degrees Magnetic; speed; height and heading. C. Relative bearing in degrees True; speed; height and heading of conflicting traffic. D. Relative bearing in clock term; distance from; direction of flight of conflicting traffic and level, type and relative speed (slow or fast). Relative movement should be described as crossing; parallel or opposite direction. ANSWER: D 197. A pilot may file a flight plan with an ATSU during flight. Which air traffic service should normally be used for this purpose? A. FIS B. RADAR C. APPROACH D. TOWER ANSWER: A 198. An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal: A. ALERFA, spoken three times. B. URGENCY, spoken three times. C. MAYDAY, spoken three times. D. PAN PAN, spoken three times. ANSWER: D 199. The pilot has been instructed by ATC to listen on ATIS frequency 123.45, on which information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that he will follow this instruction? A. WILCO B. ROGER C. CHANGING TO ATIS D. MONITORING 123.45 ANSWER: D 200. What is the correct way of t ransmitting 1001 as a QNH? A. QNH one double 0 one. B. QNH one zero zero one. C. QNH one thousand and one D. QNH one double zero one. ANSWER: B 201. Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out? A. UNABLE TO COMPLY. B. NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION. C. UNABLE TO FOLLOW. D. DISREGARD. ANSWER: A 202. In VHF communications the following words or phrases are not normally used: A. OUT and OVER B. OUT and ROGER C. STANDBY and VERIFY D. GO AHEAD and I SAY AGAIN ANSWER: A 203. On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 3" mean? A. Readable but with difficulty. B. No problem to understand. C. Loud and clear. D. Unreadable. ANSWER: B 204. The aircraft has started a descent. Select the correct radiotelephony transmission. A. LEAVING FL200, DESCENDING TO FL120. B. STARTING DESCENT. C. LEAVING FL200. D. LEAVING LEVEL 200 FOR LEVEL 120. ANSWER: A 205. After the TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) response maneuver is completed and a return to the ATC clearance or instruction is initiated, pilots should use the following phraseology: A. "Roger RA". B. "Clear of conflict". C. "Clear of RA, returning to (assigned clearance)". D. "Clear of conflict, returning to (assigned clearance)". ANSWER: D 206. The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is referred to as: A. urgency. B. distress. C. MAYDAY. D. PAN PAN. ANSWER: B 207. What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station? A. Squawk mode A code 7500. B. Divert to the alternate airport. C. Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations. D. Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight. ANSWER: C 208. Flight safety messages are: A. operation messages concerning non-routine landings. B. air traffic control messages. C. messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person. D. messages relating to direction finding. ANSWER: B 209. When acknowledging the transponder mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall: A. read back the mode and code to be set. B. read back the code to be set and SQUAK IDENT. C. use only the word WILCO. D. use only the word ROGER. ANSWER: A 210. When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase: A. RVR runway 16 touchdown... metres, mid-point... metres, stop end... metres. B. The values of the transmissometer are:... metres and... metres. C. RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is... metres. D. RVR runway 16... metres diagonal... metres diagonal... metres. ANSWER: A 211. Which abbreviation is used for the term "CONTROL ZONE"? A. CTA B. CZ C. CTZ D. CTR ANSWER: D 212. Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "STANDBY"? A. Wait and I will call you. B. Continue on present heading and listen out. C. Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder. D. Permission granted for action proposed. ANSWER: A 213. The message to an aeronautical ground station "PLEASE CALL A TAXI-CAB FOR US. WE WILL ARRIVE AT 1045 AS SCHEDULED" is A. an unauthorized message. B. a flight regularity message. C. a flight safety messages. D. an urgency message. ANSWER: A 214. QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate: A. the atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height. B. the altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum. C. the atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold). D. the atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome. ANSWER: C 215. On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 5" mean? A. Unreadable. B. Perfectly readable. C. Problem to understand. D. Readable but with difficulty. ANSWER: B 216. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say "YES"? A. ROGER B. YES C. AFFIRM D. AFFIRMATIVE ANSWER: C 217. What does the word "WILCO" mean? A. I read you five. B. I have received all of your last transmission. C. I will call you later - communication is difficult. D. I understand your message and will comply with it. ANSWER: D 218. My message will be more effective and understandable if I: A. maintain the speaking volume at a constant level. B. use the words twice method. C. stress the end of message. D. stress every beginning of message. ANSWER: A 219. When flying on a south-westerly heading at 3500 ft you would report your heading and level as: A. heading zero-four-five at three thousand five hundred feet B. heading two-two-five at three thousand five hundred feet C. heading south-west at three five zero zero feet D. heading two-two-five at thirty five hundred feet ANSWER: B 220. What is the initial message for an aircraft in a protected medical transportation flight? A. PAN PAN MEDICAL B. MEDICAL TRANSPORT C. TRANSPORTATION MEDICAL D. MEDICAL PAN PAN ANSWER: A 221. What does the term "AIR-GROUND COMMUNICATION" mean? A. One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the Earth. B. One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the Earth. C. Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the Earth. D. Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN). ANSWER: C 222. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3 500 when indicating an altitude or a height? A. Three five double zero. B. Three five zero zero. C. Three five hundred. D. Three thousand five hundred. ANSWER: D 223. What is meant by good microphone technique? A. Keep the microphone far away since it improves the readability. B. Speak very loudly into the microphone. C. Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctly. D. Make large use of hesitation sounds as ER. ANSWER: C 224. What does the instruction "FAST AIR 345 STANDBY 118.9 FOR TOWER" mean? A. Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency. B. Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being broadcast. C. Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9. D. Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate further communications. ANSWER: D 225. What is the correct way of spelling out HB-FRO in a radio message? A. Hotel Bravo Fox Rom a Oscar B. Hotel Bravo Foxy Romeo Oscar C. Hotel Bravo Foxtrot Romeo Oscar D. Hector Brasil Foxtrot Romeo Oscar ANSWER: C 226. The time of "1400 UTC" is transmitted as: A. one thousand four hundred. B. one four zero zero. C. fourteen hundred UTC. D. one four zero zero uniform tango charlie. ANSWER: B 227. On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 2" mean? A. Readable. B. Unreadable. C. Readable now and then. D. Readable but with difficulty. ANSWER: C 228. What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean? A. No specific working hours. B. Sunset to Sunrise. C. Sunrise to Sunset D. Continuous day and night service. ANSWER: C 229. What does QTE mean? A. Magnetic heading to the station. B. Magnetic bearing from the station. C. True heading to the station (no wind). D. True bearing from the station. ANSWER: D 230. What is the transponder code for radio communication failure? A. 7200 B. 7600 C. 7500 D. 7700 ANSWER: B 231. Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis? A. I SAY AGAIN. B. CONFIRM. C. READ BACK. D. VERIFY. ANSWER: A 232. What is the Q-code for magnetic bearing from the station? A. QTE B. QDR C. QDM D. QFE ANSWER: B 233. What does the term "WAYPOINT" mean? A. A general term meaning the taxiway and the runway system of an international airport. B. A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system. C. A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use. D. A specified geographical posit ion used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation. ANSWER: D 234. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13 500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height? A. one three five hundred. B. one three thousand five hundred. C. one three five zero zero. D. thirteen thousand five hundred. ANSWER: B 235. Among the following. select the ATC unit in charge of controlling the traffic: A. AIS B. ATIS C. AFIS D. DEPARTURE ANSWER: D 236. The correct phraseology to instruct an aircraft to cease the MODE C SSR reply because of incorrect indications is: A. SQUAWK STANDBY B. STOP SQUAWK CHARLIE C. STRANGLE THE PARROT D. SELECT MODE ALPHA ANSWER: B 237. When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign? A. In dense traffic. B. Provided no confusion is likely to result. C. Only after satisfactory communication has been established. D. After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station. ANSWER: D 238. When the aircraft registration marking is used as a call-sign, your first contact with a station shall be in the following form: A. All characters of the aircraft registration marking. B. The first three characters of the aircraft registration marking. C. The last three characters of the aircraft registration marking. D. The first letter and the last two characters of the aircraft registration marking. ANSWER: A 239. The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details: A. aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport. B. aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required. C. aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level. D. aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilots intention, present position, level and heading. ANSWER: D 240. Which of the following sequences shows the correct elements of a position report in the correct order? 1) call sign 2) reported position 3) heading (°M) 4) level or altitude 5) next position 6) ETA of the next position 7) aircraft type 8) time of reported position A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B. 1, 7, 2, 6, 4 C. 1, 2, 8, 4, 5, 6 D. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 ANSWER: C 241. An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate It will follow this instruction? A. WILCO. B. HOLDING SHORT. C. WILL STOP BEFORE. D. ROGER. ANSWER: B 242. When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS, STEPHENVILLE RADAR, STOP TRANSMITIING, MAYDAY" it is requested: A. to leave the frequency in use. B. not to interfere with the distress communication. C. to continue normal communication on the frequency in use. D. to assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic. ANSWER: B 243. What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts? A. DME voice channel. B. Voice channel of an ILS. C. NDB frequencies. D. Discrete VHF frequency or/and VOR. ANSWER: D 244. A time of "11 :20" hours is transmitted as: A. one one two zero or two zero. B. eleven twenty hours. C. eleven twenty. D. twenty past eleven. ANSWER: A 245. When an aircraft station is unable to establish communication due to receiver failure, the following procedure should be undertaken: A. land at the nearest uncontrolled airfield. B. change to frequency 121.5 MHZ and squawk 7700. C. transmit at regular times or positions, the phrase "TRANSMITIING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE". D. transmit reports at scheduled times or positions, preceded by the phrase ''TRANSMITIING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE". ANSWER: D 246. You have been calling a station without getting an answer. How long time it is recommended to wait at least before making a second call? A. 3 sec. B. 10 sec. C. 30 sec. D. Wait until the station calls you. ANSWER: B 247. Which of the following statements relating to message categories is correct? A. The lowest priority message category is meteorological. B. Urgency has greatest priority over everything except distress C. Flight safety messages have a higher priority than direction finding messages. D. Flight safety messages have a higher priority than medical urgency messages. ANSWER: B 248. My message will be more effective and understandable if I: A. maintain the speaking volume at a constant level. B. use the words twice method. C. stress the end of message. D. stress every beginning of message. ANSWER: A 249. A Flight Safety message is one that: A. concerns direction finding and aircraft navigation. B. is of immediate concern to an aircraft in flight or preparing to depart. C. concerns the operation and maintenance of the facilities at an aerodrome. D. concerns the safety of an aircraft but does not require immediate assistance. ANSWER: B 250. A radio direction finding station will use the following Q-code to pass a true heading (no wind) to an aircraft to head for that station: A. QUJ B. QTF C. QGE D. QDM ANSWER: A 251. What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean? A. Standard Snow Report. B. Search and Surveillance Radar. C. Surface Strength of Runway. D. Secondary Surveillance Radar. ANSWER: D 252. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to: A. continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival. B. leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace. C. squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome. D. continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case. ANSWER: A 253. What is the Q-code for True bearing from the station? A. QFE B. QDR C. QDM D. QTE ANSWER: D 254. How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder? A. NO SSR.Communication B. NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER. C. TRANSPONDER NOT AVAILABLE. D. NEGATIVE SQUAWK ANSWER: B 255. What is the minimum frequency separation between consecutive frequencies used in the VHF band? A. 8.33 kHz B. 50 kHz C. 25 kHz D. 75 kHz ANSWER: A 256. To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the ATC controller: A. RUNWAY VACATED. B. RUNWAY CLEARED. C. RUNWAY FREE. D. CLEAR OF RUNWAY. ANSWER: A 257. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13 500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height? A. one three five hundred. B. one three five zero zero. C. thirteen thousand five hundred. D. one three thousand five hundred. ANSWER: D 258. What is the difference between VHF and HF communication? A. VHF communication has higher frequency, lower range and higher readability than HF communications. B. VHF communication has lower frequency, lower range and lower readability than HF communications. C. VHF communication has higher frequency, higher range and higher readability than HF communications. D. VHF communication has lower frequency, higher range and higher readability than HF communications. ANSWER: A 259. The phrase that is used to identify an urgency call is: A. PAN PAN PAN B. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY C. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN D. URGENCY URGENCY URGENCY ANSWER: C 260. The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is: A. distress message, urgency message and direction finding message. B. direction finding message, distress message and urgency message C. distress message, flight safety message and urgency message. D. meteorological message, direction finding message and flight regularity message. ANSWER: A 261. What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean? A. Sunset to Sunrise. B. Continuous day and night service. C. Sunrise to Sunset. D. No specific working hours. ANSWER: C 262. The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is: A. flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message. B. meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message. C. flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message. D. flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message. ANSWER: C 263. Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction "X-BC CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD UNTIL 2 500 FEET BEFORE TURNING RIGHT, WIND 270 DEGREES 6 KNOTS, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF". What is the correct read back? A. Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take-off, X-BC. B. Wilco, cleared for take-off, X-BC. C. Right turn after 2 500, roger, X-BC. D. Straight ahead, at 2 500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BC. ANSWER: D 264. The phrase used by the ATC to instruct you to listen out on a frequency is: A. MONITOR B. LISTEN C. REPORT D. CONTACT ANSWER: A 265. A message preceded by the phrase ''TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE RECEIVER FAILURE" shall be transmitted: A. on the regional guard frequency. B. on the frequency presently in use. C. on the international emergency frequency. D. on all available aeronautical stations. ANSWER: B 266. Which phrase shall be used if you want to obtain some information or approval for an action? A. REPORT B. CONFIRM C. REQUEST D. PASS ME THE... ANSWER: C 267. When cleared for an immediate take-off from the holding pomt you should: A. taxi onto the runway and take-off as soon as possible, completing only mandatory power checks. B. taxi onto the runway and commence your take-off run within 30 seconds of clearance. C. taxi onto the runway to be airborne within 30 seconds of clearance. D. taxi onto the runway for an immediate rolling take-off. ANSWER: D 268. What is the meaning of the phrase "RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED"? A. ATC wants you to continue VFR. B. ATC wants you to reset transponder. C. You are now leaving the Terminal Area. D. You will no longer be provided with radar controL ANSWER: D 269. What is the Q-code for True bearing from the station? A. QFE B. QDR C. QDM D. QTE ANSWER: D 270. The clearance "CLEARED FOR IMMEDIATE TAKEOFF RUNWAY 03" is A. a flight safety message. B. an urgency message. C. an unauthorized message. D. a flight regularity message ANSWER: A 271. In addition to aircraft identification, routine position reporting on HF or VHF must contain: A. position, time and height. B. position, time, next reporting point and ETA C. time, level, next reporting point and ETA. D. position, time, level, next position and ETA. ANSWER: D 272. If you are requested to report your height. To which Q-code setting would you refer? A. QBI B. QNH C. QDM D. QFE ANSWER: D 273. In a METAR, cloud reported as "BROKEN" means: A. 3 - 4 oktas B. 2 - 3 oktas C. 5 - 7 oktas D. 4 - 6 oktas ANSWER: C 274. An altitude of 2 600 feet is transmitted as: A. two thousand six hundred feet. B. two six hundred feet. C. two six thousand feet. D. two six zero zero feet. ANSWER: A 275. With the SSR transponder selected ON and "ALT'' (Mode C) selected, an ATC requests: "FAST AIR 345, VERIFY YOUR LEVEL". This is to A. identify the aircraft position. B. check your altimeter setting. C. calibrate the radar equipment. D. verify the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the controller. ANSWER: D 276. On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 5" mean? A. Perfectly readable. B. Unreadable. C. Problem to understand. D. Readable but with difficulty. ANSWER: A 277. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight information service? A. CONTROL B. RADIO C. FLIGHT CENTRE D. FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE ANSWER: B 278. A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called: A. flight safety message. B. distress message. C. urgency message. D. class B message. ANSWER: B 279. What is a "VOLMET''? A. Volume control meter. B. Meteorological station. C. A device used for measuring cloud base. D. Meteorological information for aircraft in flight. ANSWER: D 280. What does the phrase "PAN PAN MEDICAL" indicate? A. One of the flight crew members is incapacitated. B. The crew will require medical assistance after landing. C. The flight is concerning a protected medical transport pursuant to 1949 Geneva Convention. D. There is a concern about the safety of the aircraft or a person on board but does no ANSWER: C 281. Which of the following statements reflects the correct order of priority given to messages in the aeronautical mobile service? A. Meteorological messages take precedence over direction finding messages. B. Flight safety messages will be handled before urgency messages. C. Messages relating to direction finding take precedence over flight regularity messages. D. Flight safety messages take precedence over direction finding messages. ANSWER: C