Aya Hadd Past Paper PDF

1. Difference between N.meningitis and N.gonorreha? - N meningitis has a capsule. 2. Patient with HIV aged 32 years presented to hospital with a diarrhea for 1 week, which one is not the cause? - psittacosis / 3. Patient admitted to ER with Fever chills, and he has a history of Traveling to us,...

1. Difference between N.meningitis and N.gonorreha? - N meningitis has a capsule. 2. Patient with HIV aged 32 years presented to hospital with a diarrhea for 1 week, which one is not the cause? - psittacosis / 3. Patient admitted to ER with Fever chills, and he has a history of Traveling to us, He eat rabbit meat containing francisella. what is most probably disease? - Tularemia Note: What is tularemia? known as “rabbit fever,” is a disease caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis. Tularemia has been reported in all U.S. 4. What the Dilution would be if we dilute 1 part of 9g bleach solution in 9 part of D.W for disinfect? - 1+9 = 10/100 = 0.1% Note: 1:10 dilution (1 part bleach: 9 parts water). 1+9=10 if they ask for percentage 10/100=0.1. 5. Best instrument using for VWF deficiency assay? - PFA 100 Note: for von Willebrand's disease and platelet dysfunction. 6. Patient has history of significant alloantibody, what is type of x-matching used in This case? - AHG 7. In which phase That gram positive bacteria show susceptibility to penicillin? - Exponential phase (called log phase not lag) 8. Patient has total bilirubin 20mg/dl, Direct Bilirubin 0.2 mg/dl, This finding is consistent with? - Criglar Nijar Syndrom. If Total bilirubin 4.1, direct bilirubin 1.8, black liver? Dubin johnsen 1 9. Sodium bicarbonate solution made by dissolving 5mg in 50 mL D.w what is concentration? - 10% Note: Molarity = number of mole/volume of solution (L) 10. Electrophoresis pattern? Photo if The A pattern is Normal pattern what is B, C? - Sickle cell disease , Thalassemia trait 11. child with Brain abscess Coming to hospital Which one of There anaerobic oral flora be Considered? - Actinomyces 12. 17 years old boy has a delayed puberty Testosterone low, FSH low LH low , what the cause of this case? - hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism (second type) 13. Patient with convulsion, fatigue, Na+ Level 170 mmol osmolality 800 This finding consistent with? - hypovolemia, hypernatremia Note: Normal osmolality range from 275 to 295 mOsm/kg (275 to 295 mmol/kg). more will cause loses of fluid which will cause hypovolemia, Na+ level between 135 and 145 milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L). 14. Diabetes insipidus is caused by - antidiuretic hormone (ADH) deficiency 15. polio vaccine - live attenuated 16. Verification of Calculated results by LIS must be done - annually 2 17. Which of The following is Zoonatic disease? - Rabies 18. Which of the following can be identified by Gram stains? - Clostridium and Bacillus 19. chloroquine is used to treat all of the following except: - p.falciparum 20. which one of the following is cause permanent deferral of blood doner. - history of unknown jaundice cause , and HIV, and Hepatitis B 21. in splenectomized patients, Reticulocyte mature in? - liver 22. Gram positive bacteria characterized by? - Teichoic acids 23. In order to avoid adultered urine in case of drug abuse screening in urine sample, The Technologist must check? - PH & Specific gravity & Creatinine. Note: creatinine , nitrate, glutaraldehyde, bleach, & pyidinium chlorochromate. 24. Haemophilus Bacteria for optimum growth needs? - factor x, v Note: Hemophilus influenzae requires hemin (factor X) and NAD+ (factor V) for growth 25. we use morning urine sample for analysis because of? - more concentrated and possibility to find analyte is higher 3 26. Female patient, plt: 170 x 10 9 after taking unfractioned heparin therapy plt: 30 x104 what will be the cause - heparin induced thrombocytopenia type 2 Note: if plt was 200 and decreased to 175 the answer will be (type 1) aya exam. NOTE: Type I HIT is much more common than type II and can occur as early as day 1 of therapy. Type II HIT is an immune, antibody-mediated reaction. Because it takes time for the antibodies to form, this reaction usually occurs after 5 to 14 days of receiving heparin. Will depend on the full question. 27. Mycobacteria Can't grow on Lab: - M. Leprae 28. all of These are incorrect regarding lymphocyte except: - T-cells mature in the thymus gland 29. Parasites can be seen in Blood smear? - Trypanosoma Note: blood parasites include Haemoproteus spp., Leucocytozoon spp., Trypanosoma spp., Plasmodium spp. (malaria) and microfilaria. 30. In performing forward and reverse Blood group which of the following is correct? - donor plasma incubated with A1 cell, B cell, Blood cell of donor incubated with anti A, B / testing anti A and B in recipient serum against A and B in donor cells, if the question about cross match. 31. patient after 30 min of transfusion has urticaria, Oliguria, shock, fever, fatigue and Renal failure, This probably due to? - Bacterial contamination 32. Figure: pituitary gland—-x—-thyroid gland , what is x ? - Thyroid stimulation 4 33. Ordering of process in Lab system? 1- reception of sample 2- measurements of Q C 3- analysis of sample 4- verification of result 5- print result 34. in order to identify warm antibodies after Ag-Ab reaction This process called? - adsorption In aya exam it was written elution of antibody in the question. 35. Role of C-reactive protein is to stimulant? - Opsonization 36. patient has HIV for 3 years CD4: 68 This finding indicates The patient has? - AIDS 37. Best instrument used to measure CD4? - Flow cytometry 38. absence of Rhesus Antigen? - Rhnull 39. Role of glycoprotein receptor in platelets? - adhesion & aggregation 40. patient has a level of ACTH increased, low cortisol, This finding is consistent with? - adrenal insufficiency Note: Low ACTH and high cortisol levels: This may mean Cushing's syndrome or a tumor of the adrenal gland. High ACTH and low cortisol levels: This may mean Addison disease & adrenal insufficiency. 5 41. In order to estimate Relative centrifugal force we use equation RCF = 1.12 x 10-5 x r x rpm² the (r) represents? - Radius ROTOR 42. percentage of population with the disease that test positive is called? - Sensitivity Note: Sensitivity: the ability of a test to correctly identify patients with a disease. Specificity: the ability of a test to correctly identify people without the disease. 43. Structure of this sugar CH2OH? (Photo) - D-glucose 44. Testing of Blood donors must include? - syphilis Note: blood screening for HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and syphilis should be mandatory. 45. 32 years old, Hb Level: 9.5 g/dL, Plt: 680 x103 , Mcv: 60 FL, patient probably has ? - Iron deficiency anemia due to excessive bleeding 46. All of The following cases has elevated alpha-fetoprotein except? - Trisomy ( down syndrome) Note: in Trisomy AFP and unconjugated estriol are lower than normal / high in twins & pregnancy 47. If The refractometer give reading of 1.040 and patient urine glucase was 1 gram what is corrected specific gravity would be? - 1.044 Note: If you find 1 g glucose increases SG by 0.004 and if you find protein increases the SG by 0.003. 6 48. GGT increase in all the following diseases except? - Osteomyelitis Note: Liver conditions that can cause elevated GGT levels include Hepatitis (liver inflammation), especially viral hepatitis and alcoholic hepatitis. Cirrhosis (scarring of the liver). Cholestasis (blocked liver bile duct), pancreatitis. 49. which one of the following has more risk for coronary artery disease? - patient with history of CHD in his family, has hypertension, LDL: 168 mg/dL , HDL: 41 mg/dL , TG: 170 mg/dL Note: always chose the highest number of LDL & TG and lowest number of HDL 50. Which one of the following reflects the erythropoiesis in the bone marrow? - E ratio / it is E:M ration 51. False positive urine strips, which one of the following is most cause of discrepancy? - formalin contaminated containers. In Aya’s exam# False positive leukocyte esterase in urine strips, all cause discrepancy except: Vitamin C Note: vitamin C causes false negative. 52. Direct AHG test used to detect? - alloantibodies, detect antibody coated rbc autoantibody maternal antibody alloantibody 53. Patient admitted to hospital with diarrhea after eating contaminated food, which of the following suspected to be the cause of this? - clostridium perfringens Note: clostridium difficile cause diarrhea from antibiotics. In aya exam the patient’s take antibiotic for 5 days. C. Difficle. 7 54. Patient peripheral blood picture shows spherocytosis all of the following should be the cause except? - iron deficiency anemia 55. Figure of ELISA - sandwich 56. Bacteria isolated from blood culture that gram positive cocci, positive catalase, positive coagulase? - staphylococcus aureus 57. Total wbc 1600, HB 5.6 , plt 25,000 this patient suspected to has all of the following except? - Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) 58. Child patient with pink eye, after culturing sample in microbiology lab, no bacteria isolated, suspected cause is ? - chlamydia trachomatis 59. Patient with hepatitis B infection, which blood test that indicate infections state? - HBe Ag/ HBs Ag 60. The reason of increased CK activity in male more than female because? - increase of muscle mass in males 61. No cell wall mycobacterium? - Mycoplasma, Urea plasma 62. peptidoglycan layer? - gram positive bacteria 8 63. Copper in urine? - Wilson disease Note: (normal 20 mg/dL to 40 mg/dL). Urinary copper levels will be raised more than 100 mcg/dL. 64. HB : 5.2 , plt: 25 x 109 , WBC 5.1 , what is the cause? - Chemotherapy In aya exam hemoglubin 9.8 platelets 25000810^9 wbc 2.1. the same answer. 65. All about multiple myeloma except? - myeloid 66. immunosuppressant given before transplant? - cyclosporine 67. Patient Boy 28 years, bleeding time 11min (normal bleeding time is 2-9mins): - thrombocytopenia Note: Other causes of thrombocytopenia: DIC-Aspirin 68. urine sample after 2 hrs which will increase? - PH , Turbidity , Nitrite 69. Type of PSA in prostate cancer? - free PSA 70. semen count on hemocytometer? - Left and upper 71. Centrifuge RPM? - low speed 300 high speed 1500 9 72. Half life is 6 hrs , dose given every 6 hrs , how many hrs? - 24 to 42 73. RBC destruction? - 120 days Extravascular. 74. 1 PH increase? - 10 folds 75. Arrange sensitivity, ESR, CRP, blood - CRP, BLOOD VISCOSITY, ESR 76. T G A C C T A -ACTGGAT Note : T match A & C match G , just switch 77. Which of these bacteria cause neonatal conjunctivitis ( new born) - Chlamydia trachomatis, & Neisseria gonorreha 78. basophilic stippling & aminolaevulinic acid cause? - lead poisoning 79. Action of Aspirin on plt - Inhibit the cyclooxyrgenase , Reduce prostaglandin formation Note: Aspirin inhibits the COX activity of prostaglandin (PG) G/H synthase (PGHS), by acetylating a single serine residue at position 529 in COX-1. 10 80. Leukocyte number according to age - the more age the lowest WBCs 81. Immunodeficient patient experience severe diarrhea, fever, abdominal pain, and weight loss? - Cryptosporidium parvum 82. Which in dipstick affect by infection , we need more details, but in general leukocyte esterase, wbc , nitrite, will be positive in infection. 83. Which stain is not romansky stain? - birliant and crystal 84. Protein with high affinity ? - Albumin 85. PH 7 ratio is ? we need more details, if the question is ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid at PH 7.4 it will be 20:1 86. Cell with high HBF stain color is? - pink 87. Patient with p.vivax and has fy (a-,b-) all cause infection expect? - p.kowlesi 88. Patient with pleocytosis, low glucose, high protein? - bacterial infection / it will depend on most increased cells, if the lymphocytes increased it is fungal, if bacterial the neutrophils will increase. 89. Patient result - protein...- Glucose... - Hyaluronic acid Which specimen is for this test? - synovial fluid 11 90. Hyaluronic acid in protein indicate? - synovial fluid 91. Wrong in Zn stain procedure - crystal vilote 92. Gram stain for klebsiella, technologist skip decolorize step by mistake? - gram positive 93. IL10 work, function - suppression Th Note: Suppresses the development of T-cell subpopulations (TH) by inhibition of macrophage IL-12 production, limiting host immune response to pathogen, prevent damage to host, maintain normal tissue hemolysis 94. Receptor for p. Falc in rbc? - Glycophorin B 95. Arrange blood group according to most common? -O, A, B, AB 96. Arrange antibodies According to quantity: Gamde According to concentration: Gamed 97. equivalent volume of Hydrochloric acid in 1000ml? - 10 N 12 98. In strip for urine protein what is false positive and false negative? - Positive (blood, ph, high alkaline and X-ray media) Negative (high salt, other protein & urobilin ) 99. Heinz body? - g6pdz 100. polyspecific reagent used in DAT direct antiglobulin test should have specificity for? - IgG, and complement C3 101. Calculate LDL, total cholesterol 240, hdl 48, triglycerides 240 - 144 102. Found in nodules under skin? - Onchocerca volvulus 103. Leukocyte reduced RBC, best component to use?. - Febrile, HLA immuno, EBV, CMV, avoid FNH 104. respiratory acidosis mechanisms a compensatory increase in? - HCO3 105. Sugar in semen specimens? - fructose 106. Hazard symbols , blue and red indicate? - blue health red fire 107. Reliability - sensitivity 13 108. patient suffer muscle pain, CK high, troponin high 3 times? -MI 109. which one affect in multiple myeloma? - decrease in sodium levels and the anion gap and thus a true hyponatremia 110. proficiency test - to ensure accuracy, quality assurance, relationships b/w the laboratories 111. drug abuse test look for ? - bacteria and leukocyte / not sure 112. Gastric and duodenal ulcers , produce large amount of urease Microaerophilic - Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) Note : Campylobacter species are Gram-negative, microaerophilic, non-fermenting, motile rods with a single polar flagellum; they are oxidase-positive and grow optimally at 37° or 42°C. 113. erythrocyte maturation? * Proerythroblast. * Erythroblast. ( basophilic) * Normoblast. * Reticulocyte. * Erythrocyte (fully mature red blood cell). 114. Urine for detecting low volume blood? - check creatinine more > than 1 g 115. Arrange urine cast? 14 - cellular, coarse granular, fine granular, waxy 116. All cause red urine except? - bilirubin 117. natural killer cells - lymphocyte Note: NK cells or large granular lymphocytes (LGL), are a type of cytotoxic lymphocyte critical to the innate immune system 118. penicillin resistant due to? Example N. gonorrhea - beta lactamase 119. renal glucose threshold? - 160-180mg/Dl 120. Patient with food poising, motile, gram positive, beta hemolytic? -B.cereus Note : Note e coli cause food poisoning but it is gram negative bacteria 121. Alpha phetoprotein rise in case of? - pregnancy & twins 122. Hemoglobins type in adult? - Hb A, A2, F 123. Unlabeled sample - rejected 15 124. Lewis group insignificance why? - IgM & dose not cross the placenta/ IgM not fully mature after birth 125. Gap anion equation? - (Na+ + K+) - (CL- + HCO3-) 126. Autoclave tem? - 121 c 15lbs 15 min 127. Thrompoitoin increase? - Platelets and thrombocytopenia 128. serum ferritin elevated in! - thalassemia/ rheumatoid factor 129. serum Transferrin elevated in! - iron deficiency anemia 130. Anion gap increase in - lactic acidosis Note: renal failure, organic acidosis, ketoacidosis, and certain poisonings Note: A reduction in the anion gap is most commonly due to decreased albumin concentration. 131. All for factor ix except - PT 132. Diabetes patient take insulin injection & the physician order K+ test, what the tube must be used? - heparinized tube 16 131. Distinguish between stapl and strep? -catalase test (hydrogen peroxide) 132. Minimum bacteria cause infection? - 100,000 colony forming units (CFU)/milliliter 133. Pellicle structure in csf - WBCs and Fibrinogen 134. Irradiated rbc, transfusions from whom in - Maternal coated antigen of fetus/ from mother to fetus. 135. First class of immune stimulatory molecules produced by bacteria and virus - super antigen/ question not clear 136. Measurement of plasma glucose, which enzyme is missing - Peroxide 137. Maximum time of transfusion of female pregnancy past 3 months - 3 days 138. Flow cytometry labeled cell depending on? Physical characteristics of flowcytometry? - scattering light emitting fluorescence / characteristics measured include a particle's relative size, granularity or internal complexity and relative fluorescence intensity, Count & shape 139. lower ph in blood called? - acidosis 17 140. Patient has iga deficiency and he need blood transfusion - washed rbcs 141. increase MCHC? - hereditary spherocytosis 142. All cell found in AML except? - plasma cell 143. Feto-maternal Hemorrhage case? 1. What is the screeing test? We do rosette test for screening first, if it is positive we do Kleihauer Betke acid elution test to quantitate fetal maternal bleeding. The fetus cells resist the acid and appear pink while adult will not resist and appear ghost. 2. Color of maternal (ghost cell) ? Ghost cell color (pale pink to nonstained) with high Hb F stain 3. Color of fetus blood ? (red or pink) 4. Equation: fetus% / 30 5. Normal adult cell? Ghost cell 144. HCO3: H2CO3 ratio at PH 7.4 - 20:1 , twenty parts of bicarbonate to one part of carbonic acid 145. Metabolic Acidosis compensatory ? - low P CO2 Note: Compensation for metabloic acidosis consists of hyperventilation and enhanced renal excretion of H+, chiefly as ammonium. 146. All can cause larvae penetrate skin except? - D. L (Diphyllobothrium latum) and ascaris 18 147. urine sample became turbid in? - protein 148. TB culture in without growing? - lowenstein jensen (LJ) 149. glucose oxidase reaction - Oxidase 150. Plt Mcv 600 RBC2.6 what the case/ question not clear 151. The protein that has the highest dye- binding capacity is: - albumin 152. Sample of urine more than 2 hrs , what will decrease ? - Glucose, ketones, bilirubin, cells, urobilinogen Note : increase in ph, nitrate, turbidity 153. Testing for the diagnosis of lead poisoning should include? - Whole blood lead 154. The extent to which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity being measured is? - accuracy - Note: accuracy menas the number is close to correct answer. 155. Bacteria Cause food poisoning ? - B.cereus 156. sample within reference range but NOT close? - bad precision, good accuracy 19 157. sputum Sample Haemophilus ? - coccobacillary 158. Metabolism of benzyl drug? - coco benzoin 159. Metabolic alkalosis elevated? - the serum bicarbonate HCO3 160. Schistocyte seen in - Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) 161. which analyte indicated when present of pleocytosis? - wbc 162. the laboratories don’t use RIA more than ELISA ? - Cost & Radiation hazard 163. lactic acidosis type of? -A&B 164. Patient admitted to emergency with food poisoning Possible Bacterial agents! Note :gram stain Show G+ rode bacteria? - Bacillus cereus. Note: Gram-positive sporeforming rods are known to cause bacterial food poisoning: Clostridium perfringens (welchii), C. botulinum, and Bacillus cereus. 165. Enzyme that elevated in cardiac attack? 20 - CK, LDH 166. Cocaine Metabolites? - benzoylecgonine 167. Male 42 years Smoker, has high cholesterol ,triglycerides what of these are not consider as risk factor of CHD? - age 168. Patient compline of Abdominal cramps, Shortness of breath, fatigue, lab test elevated BUN level, mild anemia with tarry bloody stool ? what the causes. - upper GI bleeding 169. Mass of fungi? Mass of interwoven filamentous hyphae that forms the vegetative portion of fungs? - mycelium 170. Patient with HIV came to hospital with sever diarrhea, fever, abdominal pain, samples sent to microbiology lab, result acid fast bacteria , what is the bacterial agent? And what this hiv affect? - (CMV) Cryptosporidium parvum, Immune system. Note : Cryptosporidiosis in HIV-positive patients that immune systems weaken. It is caused by a parasite invades the intestinal tract, cause watery diarrhea, stomach cramps, upset stomach, fever. 171. Sputum Sample tested with gram Stain. Show gram negative coccobacilli - Haemophilus influenzae 172. CD marker of B cell? - CD 19/10/20 , or 19/20/22 , 19/21/22 173. Antibodies screening test included which steps? - Immediate spin, 37 C incubation and coombs phase AHG 21 174. which blood component prepared by thawing FFP at refrigerator tem and removing the fluid portion - Cryoprecipitate AHF 175. Patient Complain of dizziness, fatigue CBC Show microcytic hypochromic anemia. Low Hb, Low MCV & high transferrin? - Iron deficiency anemia 176. women admitted to emergency after She returned from trip in helium balloon, with fatigue, shortness of breath, lab findings including ↓ O₂, Normal Hb, HCT, TIBC what is diagnosis, test, genotype of the disease? - Sickle cell trait, Hb electrophoresis, Hb As, 177. Elevated ESR form which Phenomen? - Roulex formation 178. other cause that cause Sickling? - Hypoxia or low Temperature. 179. Decrease level indicates intravascular hemolysis? - serum haptoglobin concentrations. 180. Girl decided go for starving diet after week come to hospital with fatigue and Continue vomiting for 3 days, what could be seen in urine test result? - ketones Note: Not eating enough food can also sometimes trigger diabetic ketoacidosis. The symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis include: high blood glucose levels. rising levels of ketones in the urine. 181. Patient admitted to hospital with left Shoulder pain, Smoker, at first troponin was normal, then one hours later increased, what is the diagnosis? - myocardial infarction 22 182. increased in pancreatitis - amylase and lipase / both true and specifically lipase 183. why we use EDTA in DAT?! - avoid complement 184. How Can cancer cell escape immune System? - inhibit immune system and modulation 185. Clinical condition in which bacteria replace lactobacilli in Vagina is called? - Bacterial vaginosis (BV) 186. Minimum Hemoglobin concentration in fingerstick from male blood Donor is? - 12.5 g/dL 187. Patient admitted to Hospital with sever Fever, Shortness of breath muscles and joints pain, coughs culture media / Gram Stain Done. Results include G- diplococcus Oxidase positive, additional test done DNA (+) what is possible infection? - Moraxella Note: Corynebacterium Diphtheriae (Chinese letter) / clostridium tetani (drumstick) 188. Parasite that does not invade Muscles - trichuris trichiura 189. All are epithelial cells except? In urinary - ciliated 190. AST primary present in? - liver 23 - Note: AST is found in liver, heart, skeletal muscle, kidney, brain , and rbcs. 191. In AMI we found? - CK MB Enzyme 192. ALP slightly high, ALT high, AST high, GGT high - chronic hepatitis 193. plasminogen activation include: - increased conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, the latter an enzyme that breakdowns the fibrinogen in blood clots. 194. Prolonged PT, PTT, deficiency factor II, VII, & IX? - vitamin K deficiency 195. ALP elevated in pregnancy 3rd trimester of pregnancy? - normal in pregnancy 196. Athletes hb 13, age 59, hct 38, pulse 42 donor? - accept athlete have normal low pulse Note : normal pulse 60-100beats per minute 197. Cryoprecipitate given before surgery? - Bovine albumin 198. Reproducibility - random error 199. Which affect in erythrocyte count? - NRBCs 24 200. female patient with UTI , gram positive cocci in blood agar, coagulase negative, oxidase negative, catheter specimen, suspected bacteria is ? - Staphylococcus epidermis/ S. epidermis 201. Normal plt , prolonged PT, APTT, normal TT - oral anticoagulant 202. Technique for pre warm we used to? Detect warm antibody, maximized reactivity of alloantibody, detecting and identifying clinically significant antibodies that bind to red blood cells and complement at 37°C and for avoiding antibodies that bind at temperatures less than 37°C) 203. bacteria that grown slowly and not proceedssed in vitro - Mycobacterium avium 204. Mg affect by hemolysis sample - high Mg / Reject Sample that contain hemolysis. 205. Clot in the platelets, what should be the next step? - Stain, culture 206. Antibiotics zone - diffusion and diffraction 207. Electrophoresis at 8.6 ph, the protein will move - From negative cathode to positive anode 208. Bacteria cause food contamination - E coli 209. motile parasite found in urine? 25 - Trichomonas vaginalis 210. Antibiotics for UTI only without use in other infection? - Nitrofurantoin 211. Myoglobin elevation in which? - Muscle injury Note : in exercise also 212. specific gravity 1.010 - Isosthenuria 213. Insulin function - Regulate glucose by allowing it to enter the cells 214. MCV & hb low, what is the cause? - Iron deficiency anemia 215. RBC in urine? - Hematuria Note: Myoglobin, hemoglobin , hematourea, porphyrin, rbc, uroerythrin 216. Factor VIII concentration relative to volume? - Cryoprecipitate AHF 217. Direct immuno fluorescence photo Note: Direct immunofluorescent: Ab-Ag conjugated/ indirect: 2 Ab-Ag, unconjugated. 218. Lead poisoning what is the RBC inclusion? 26 - Basophilic stippling & clover leaf 219. Erythrocytes difference from the beginning in bone marrow? - M: E RATIO 220. The result measurement that gives the same value? - precision Note: precision means the number is close to other data, close to each other. 221. Case: UTI, gram negative bacillus, motile, oxidase negative, pink color colonies on MacConkey (lactose fermentation)? - E coli 222. Case: fasting glucose blood sugar 154, random 200, after 2 hrs postprandial blood 242, high RBCs? - diabetes mellitus Note: fasting blood glucose sugar normal under 100, random under 140 and after meal under 200. 223. All true about insulin except? - glycogenolysis 224. Physician requested that electrolytes on multiple myeloma patient sample run by direct ISE not by indirect ISE? Because? - Na is falsely decreased by indirect so direct assay will reduce this error. 225. Case: Patient with myeloproliferative, the serum K+ should be confirmed by? - heparinized plasma 226. Which apheresis platelets product should we use? - direct donations given by mother to son 227. After receiving a 24-hour urine for quantitative total protein analysis, the technician must first? 27 - measure the total volume 228. Which of the following organisms must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery of the organism? - Campylobacter fetus Note: chose Campylobacter jejuni if the fetus not in the multiple choices , other types : h pylori , vibrio, & Neisseria 229. Respiratory alkalosis compensated? -decrease the HC03 230. which one causes metabolic acidosis? - Lactic acid 231. Why Na+ decreased by indirect ISE? - High lipid level / hyperlipidemia and/or hyperproteinemia due to the electrolyte exclusion his phenomenon is called pseudohyponatremia 232. Anti IgG +ve / Anti C3 +ve - Autoimmune/ hemolytic anemia 233. Flow cytometery steps - Sample Preparation - blocking - Ab incubation - Data analysis 234. Patient has a Mass in the lung and Gram Stain negative, what is the test that release the result on the same day? - ZN stain and LJ media / Zn more accurate because Tb will take weeks to grow on LJ media 28 235. Case: Abnormal APTT & VIII and normal PT, type of hemophilia? - hemophilia A 236. If father haemophilic % and the mother is normal what is the percentage of son? - 0% 237. Survey program é many labs. beneficty of this Study/ question not clear 238. Centrifuges are calibrated every - 6 month 239. After treatment of iron deficiency anemia we found? - normal indices 240. for Centrifuge to work efficiently we should? - cover it - Balance 241. Plasma converted to plasminogen activation include all except? - Staphylokinase 242. Lymphogranuloma, sexually transmitted by Chlamydia except? - L4 Note: Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by specific strains (serovars L1, L2, and L3) of the bacteria Chlamydia trachomatis. 243. Same on peripheral blood smear and total RBC count? - Pregnancy 29 244. CEA increase after colon removal - metastasis / or recurrence - Note: high level of CEA can be sign of cancers such as colon, rectum, prostate, ovary, lung, & thyroid. 245. DAT? - warm Coombs IgG 246. Revers grouping are not done on neonatal - not developed anti A or B on plasma. 247. Hb 9.8, MCV 60, platelets 632 - iron deficiency anemia due to excessive bleeding 248. Chronic hepatitis test check? Not clear but in general AST, ALT, ALP,GGT is slightly increased in chronic. 249. Pre warm at 37 c best give! - cold agglutination / Prewarm technique can be used to prevent cold-reactive alloantibodies or autoantibodies from reacting in the IAT phase. Specifically, prewarm technique prevents cold antibodies from binding complement at RT (as opposed to 37 o C) and subsequently being detected by anti-C3 in the IAT by polyspecific AHG serum. 250. Western blot detect? - protein 251. Mechanism of penicillin in killing bacteria - Binding beta lactam ring to DD-transpeptidase, inhibiting its cross-linking activity and preventing new cell wall formation 30 252. Creatinine——- creatinine kinase—— creatine —— x —— ADP? X! - Creatine phosphate 253. High eosinophils disease? - hypereosinophilic syndrome, and idiopathic eosinophilia 254. Hb 5.2, platelets 25x10^4 , wbc 5.1.. - all / I think it was chemotherapy (can’t remember the choices) 255. ABO forwarder and reverses - True statement / The reverse blood type uses the patient's plasma or serum,with reagent group A and group B red blood cells while forward uses patient RBC with reagent Anti A or B. we should understand. 256. Test if significant antibody - sensitivity. 257. Significant of cross match before transfusion - to detect the presence of antibodies in the recipient against the red blood cells of the donor 258. All true to prevent cold agglutination except - precooling 259. HDL consist of - 20 triglyceride, 30 lipid, 50 protein 260. For calibration refractometer the distilled water should be? -1 31 261. Reason for adding AUG - start coding 262. Papin - break down sialic acid and decrease zeta potential second phase - proteolytic enzyme to enhance or destroy the activity of Ab Note: elution of Ab or antibodies adsorption to the cell 263. Low ionic strength solution (LISS) - increases the rate of antibody uptake during sensitisation. First phase. - enhance the reaction between Ag-Ab shortness incubation time, create zeta potential 264. Case: female have UTI what test we do? - nitrite, leukocyte esterase positive. 265. Case: toxoplasma with Chlamydia what is the common effect on human - Blindness 266. All found in Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) except ? - Auer rods Note: Auer rods are a hallmark of acute myeloid leukemia AML 267. Which of these results are abnormal? - female, 24, ca+2 (0.6) 268. High glucose? - hyperglycaemia 269. low level of ammonia? 32 - high blood pressure Note: high ammonia levels in your blood, including liver disease, kidney failure and certain congenital conditions. 270. Patient with HIV, cough which bacteria - mycobacterium 271. Patient has iron deficiency anemia and smear show macrocytes why? - recently take folate supplements 272. Which of the following mycobacterium species is associated with infection in HIV positive patient? - M. avium intracellular complex 273. What would u see in blood smear of patient with no spleen! - howell jolly bodies 274. The physician asked for direct ISE not indirect why? - Indirect will cause low sodium (repeated question) and low sodium because of high lipids or protein. 275. Which is not diagnosis for CML? - Increase plasma cell in serum 276. Myoglobin not elevated in - Endocarditis 277. IgG & CD3 are both positive reactions? - warm antibody hemolytic anemia 278. Bacteria cause abscess & green discoloration production - Pseudomonas aeruginosa 33 279. perl prussian blue effect on Howell-Jolly bodies - his iron stains Note: Howell-Jolly bodies would not stain blue, indicating the absence of iron. 280. using tourniquet in lactic test - increase falsely result Note: It is recommended to draw lactic acid without a tourniquet or immediately after applying the tourniquet because tourniquet increase lactic acid level 281. Tuberculin-type hypersensitivity, in patients with tuberculosis (TB) is type ? - Type IV or Delayed-Type Hypersensitivity. 282. Thrombocytosis is a common finding in which of the following diseases: - sickel cell anemia 283. Adsorption - stick to surface 284. Case: patient has inflammation in the proximal muscle? - polymyositis 285. Color of hazard symbols ( white and yellow)? - white ( specific) yellow ( instability) 286. All of the following are samples used in the biochemistry lab except: - bone marrow 287. Step missing in zn stain? - decolonize by alcohol 34 Note steps: apply primary stain of carbol fuchsin for 30 sec, wash, heat fix, declorize with acid alcohol for 15 sec, apply counterstain of methylene blue for 30 sec, wash. Note: ZN pink positive/ blue negative. 288. Not true about malaria - Sudan black stain used for thick smear Note: for thick smear we used giemsa 289. What is the difference between Howell Jolly and Pappenheimer? - Howell jolly not stain blue, Pappenheimer stain blue 290. DAT in Frazer cause - false negative 291. For neonate we don’t check hiv antibodies? - neonate antibodies are below detectable range 292. Patient with symptoms of heart attack which common? - creatinine kinase (CK) and Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) enzymes 293. Case Hb electro shows no A, present A2, high Hb F ? - Beta thalassemia major 294. bacteria causes septicemia - staphylococcus aureus and epidermidis, e coli , Streptococcus pneumoniae 295. Patient pleocytosis, high lymphocytes in CSF, glucose low and protein high in CSF? - Fungal meningitis because of high lymphocytes, in bacterial neutrophils is predominant. 35 296. Type of cell does not need Costimulatory - CD45 +, and not contain - cytotoxic T cell Note: Naive CD8+ T cells do not require costimulation for proliferation and differentiation into cytotoxic effector cells · 297. Something to share all these treponema pallidum & Chlamydia trachomatis & cholera? - not grow on culture Note: treponema pallidum & Chlamydia trachomatis are sexual transmitted 298. HIV diameter 8-10 acid fast? - Cyclospora cayetanensis Note: Cyclospora cayetanensis is spherical and measure 8 -10 in diameter 299. Alloantibodies detection after 2 months HTR is best detected by? - Auto adsorption / Allo but not sure. 300. case: women have Swollen thyroid gland? - Hashimoto’s 301. Reiter’s disease - Chlamydia trachomatis or Salmonella 302. lead poisoning elevated! - Zinc protoporphyrin and in general also elevated urinary coproporphyrin and delta aminolaevulinic acid and basophilic stippling. 303. Lamb in flowcytometry? - laser 304. Specific test for iron deficiency anemia? 36 - serum ferritin 305. Increase neutrophil? - bacterial infection 306. blood group have negative antibody? - AB have no antibodies 307. blood group have negative antigen - O have no A or B antigens 308. Chediak–Higashi syndrome (CHS)? Neutropenia Note: is a rare, autosomal recessive disorder characterized by partial oculocutaneous albinism, increased susceptibility to infections, deficient natural killer cell (NK) activity and abnormal giant primary granules in neutrophils. 309. hodgkin lymphoma (what is the question) 310. MCH class 2 for (question not clear). - Bacteria (Neutrophils). Note: MCH class 2 in bacteria (Neutrophils) / MCH class 1: Viral (lymphocyte). 311. Case: patient suffer muscle pain, CK high, HDL 48, cholesterol 240, Triglyceride 160, what other test should be done? (what is the choices) 312. Fibrinogen Increase In? - injury, acute stress, infection, or inflammation. Higher levels of fibrinogen can also occur for other reasons including Pregnancy. Aging. 37 313. Complement Induced RBCs Lysis and abnormal sugar water test? - PNH (Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria) and blood collected in heparinized tube. 314. Case: patient Complain short breathing, abdominal pain, low pH - Respiratory Acidosis: hypoventilation 315. Antibody Identification used to detect? (Question not complete) - cold AB / – PCH, Antibody Identification panel used to identify unexpected antibodies, help in identifying most appropriate blood unit that lacks the corresponding antigen and prevent alloimmunization 316. in myeloproliferative disorder what you will find? - RBC and HB and WBC and platelets are high 317. irreversible stage of platelet aggregation? - Formation of “fibrin plug” 318. Case: Patient admitted to ER he was in high attitude area his lab finding? Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and TWBCS all are normal? What is the diagnosis?What other investigation to help diagnose? what is the phenotype? - Sickle cell trait because hgb is normal, Hgb electrophoresis, Hb AS sickle trait 319. Antibody elution? High antibody concentration & elution in antibody identification is use to increase? - Ag-Ab specificity Note: Antibody elution is an important step in processing a sample with a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) result or direct Coombs. By freeing antibody bound to RBCs, the antibody's antigen specificity is identified. 38 320. Low MCV, MCH, RBC? - Iron deficiency anemia 321. Normal calcium in male? - 8.7 - 10 322. IgG positive with cold agglutination cause hemolysis? - PCH Note: Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is cold-induced autoimmune hemolytic anemia associated with an IgG antibody binds to RBC at low tem and thus cause complement lysis. AIHA & Landsteiner test 323. In autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)? - Majority is warm Antibody - involved: IgG at 37 C - DAT: always positive - Elution studies needed - Second common: cold - Antibody: IgM - Harmless or cause disease (cold agglutination disease) Note: DAT is used most commonly to investigate possible hemolytic transfusion reactions, Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN), autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and drug-induced immune hemolysis. IgG antibodies and C3d complement are detected by the DAT; however, IgM and particularly IgA antibodies may not be detected by the polyclonal antihuman-globulin serum. 324. Electrophoresis pattern Hb F & Hb S - thalassemia major, sickle cell disease 325. Patient has allergy and old transfer blood and he need transfusion what test you will do? 39 - Syphilis 326. The lupus anticoagulant syndrome? - Spontaneous Clotting. 327. which level of creatinine out of control? - 0.7 old man Note: normal creatinine level is 0.7 to 1.3 mg/dL for men and 0.6 to 1.1 for women 328. bacteria can growth in 40% bile agar? - Enterococcus faecalis Note: Members of the genus Enterococcus are capable of growing in the presence of 40% bile (oxgall) and hydrolyzing esculin to glucose and esculetin 329. 1.2 mg/dl calcium is? - Hypocalcemia Note: normal amount of calcium between 8.6 to 10.3 mg/dL 330. Yersinia pestis transmissions by? - Fleas (bites of infected fleas) 331. The severity of HDN can measure by? - Amniotic fluid at 420 nm 332. Neonate have vomiting with increased level of ammonia? - Urea cycle's enzyme deficiency 333. Diagnostic markers of PNH disease - CD 55, CD 59 40 334. intrinsic factor? (Reflects APTT) - IX, XI, XII 335. Donor blood rejected, weight 55, BP: 120/80, pulse 73, Temp 38 °c why rejected? - Temperature 38 C Note: Palpitations are perceived abnormalities of the heartbeat 336. the most bacteria cause contamination of blood products? - S. aureus, also S.epidermis, salmonella and Streptococcus pneumonia. 337. Most blood group except RH can cause HDN - Anti Kell 338. indicative of hyper eosinophilic syndrome - eosinophils more than 1.5 after 180 days - Note: Hypereosinophilic syndrome is traditionally defined as peripheral blood eosinophilia > 1500/mcL (> 1.5 × 109/L) persisting ≥ 6 months. 339. not embloyed in DAT? - Freezing & Thawing 340. HSV and Histoplasma they stimulated cell mediated immunity and they share in? - Produce toxin 341. High ApTT? - Factor deficiency VIII/IX/XI/XII/HMWK/ PK /Fibrinogen deficiency prekalikan + lupus anticoagulant. 342. Mutation in gene F VIII? 41 - Hemophilia A 343. Hemophilia A, B, Vwd? - ApTT Prolong 344. HIV patient, bacteria causing diarrhea? - Shigella flexneri, Salmonella enteritidis, and Campylobacter jejuni. 345. Chloroquine is the best treatment for? - P. Vivax 346. Sexually transmitted disease? - HIV, chlamydia, genital herpes, genital warts, gonorrhea, syphilis, hepatitis A and B, trichomoniasis. Hepatitis A is not STD but can be transmitted sexually. 347. Acid production from utilization of maltose and glucose differentiate between? - N. gonorrhea- N.meningitis (meningitis ferments maltose) also we can differentiate by oxidase positive 348. Campylobacter jejuni? - Microaerophilic 37-42 c 349. bacterial meningitis causes food contamination? - L. monocytogenes L=listeria Note: L. monocytogenes is gram positive cocci & spore forming 350. germ tube test for? - Candida albicans & Candida dubliniensis 351. Anti-nuclear antibodies in SLE disease against except? 42 - ANA 352. Tests done on patient in MI? - CK-MB & HDL 353. Deionization of water? - Exchange of protein and electron 354. ALP normal, calcium 18, AST normal, phosphate 4? - Repeat the test 355. Short period of fasting and long period called? - Glycogenolysis for short & gluconeogenesis for long. 356. Difference between plasma and serum is that the plasma contains? - Fibrinogen Note: plasma is liquid, serum is fluid 357. Which mechanism contains both catabolism and anabolism? - Gluconeogenesis 358. prepare working solution from stock? - Volumetric pipette/ or flask 359. Hormone release fatty acid from adipose tissue? - epinephrine, norepinephrine, ACTH, and other hormones 360. CSF due to bacterial infection? - PMNS and glucose reduce 43 361. How much increasing in platelet of donor by one whole blood drived platelet donation unite - 10,000 to 50,000 362. Resistance of B.Lactamse antibiotics by? - DECREASE PENICILIN BINDING PROTIEN 363. Case: HIV paitent have cough? - Pnemocyctic pneumoniae, & TB 364. Mycobacteria have more niacin? - Mycobacterium tuberculosis 365. Action of cancer cell to invade human cells - Decrease immunity or Ag modulation ( not sure) 366. HDN? - Mother Ab vs neonatal Ag 367. Pulmonary infection, gram negative, diplococci , oxidase positive? - N. Meningitis 368. Bacitracin, gram positive, spore forming, diarrhea? - Bacillus Anthracis 369. Check previous hepatitis? - anti-HBc 44 370. HBs Ag, anti-HBe? - acute hepatitis infection 371. variation in cell size? - Anisocytosis 372. Myocardial enzyme? - CK-LDH 373. E. Coli serotype? - 0157:H7 374. ACTH more than 200? - 7 am to 9 am 375. myeloid to erythroid ratio? - 4:1 376. Peptidoglycan? - Murein 377. Causes of swollen neck? - Hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease) & hypothyroidism (Hashimoto's). 378. Paul-Bunnell test is positive in: - Infectious mononucleosis 379. Which of the following is seen in hemophilia A? - Decreased factor VIII 45 380. blood sample stored overnight before being sent to the laboratory may show a falsely high level of? - Potassium 381. Which of the following is motile gram-negative rod? - Pseudomonas aeruginosa 382. Spectrophotometry is based on the following principle? - The amount of the light absorbed is proportional to the amount of the substance that is present 383. The cocci bacteria that cause abscesses, pustules, pimples and boils are: - Staphylococci 384. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best cultivated on: - Lowenstein Jensen acid medium 385. Colors produced on reacting 2 chemical substances can be measured by the use of? - Spectrophotometers 386. Another term for adaptive immunity is? - Acquired immunity 387. Which of the following organism is catalase negative and sensitive to optochin? - S. pneumoniae 388. To differentiate between Hemophilia A and b we do? - Factor assay 389. The best anticoagulant used for determination of erythrocytes sedimentation rate? - Black tube that contains sodium citrate 46 390. A Hemolyzed sample will cause falsely increased level of each of the following EXCEPT? - Sodium 391. When parasite eggs are few in number in feces, which of the following techniques are recommended? - Formal ether quantitative technique 392. Which of the following statements is true regarding the ABO blood system? - People who have the A antigen normally would not produce the anti-A antibody 393. The number of light chains in each antibody is? - Two light chains - Note: Each immunoglobulin molecule is made up of two heavy chains (green) and two light chains (yellow) joined by disulfide bonds so that each heavy chain is (more...) Two types of light chain, termed lambda (λ) and kappa (κ), are found in antibodies. 394. The most critical distinction between Staph. aureus and the other Staph. Species is? - Coagulase production 395. What lab study is done initially in the evaluation of bleeding disorders? - Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), PT, CBC 396. Chinese letters appearance on gram staining is a character of? - Cornybacterium diphtheria 397. Which of the following requires an intrinsic factor to bind and be absorbed? - Vitamin B12 398. Neonatal physiological Jaundice is? 47 - Transient 399. Mother - fetus incompatibility problem result from: - The mother's antibodies agglutinating the fetus Rh-positive red blood cell Note: Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother's blood type is Rh negative and her fetus' blood type is Rh positive. Antibodies from an Rh negative mother may enter the blood stream of her unborn Rh positive infant, damaging the red blood cells (RBCs). 400. In a diagnostic of acute leukemia? - T cell receptor gene rearrangement is rarely found More than 20 % blasts are in B.M. 401. Which of the following are NOT eukaryotic microorganisms? - Bacteria and archaea 402. All the following are types of the labeled immunoassay EXCEPT? - Immunoprecipitation 403. A carbon dioxide enriched atmosphere is required for the culture of? - Hemophilus influenzas 404. Forward grouping is defined as? - Unknown red cells that are tested against known anti sera 405. When cross-matching blood types, what test is used to determine when cell are coating? - Indirect Coombs test 406. All the following are classified as streptococci except? - S. Aureus 407. Heamocytometer cannot be used for the counting which of the following: 48 - Lymphocytes 408. Artificial or biologic barriers can be eusd in an agglutination reaction include: - Latex particles, Colloidal charcoal, Erythrocytes coated with antigen in a constant amount. (Answer: all) 409. disease marked by inflammation of the liver is? - Hepatitis 410. The most used methods for quantitative analysis for electrolytes is? - Flame emission photometry and ion-selective electrode (ISE) 411. Schistosoma haematobium infestation can be diagnosed by? - Finding characteristic eggs in the urine with terminal spine 412. Flourometry use —- as a source of light? - Tungsten lamp 413. The serum antibodies that can be found in individuals O group are? - Anti-A & B 414. The total leukocytic count < 4,000/cu.mm is found in? - Malignancies 415. Which of the following glands secretes the parathyroid hormone? - Parathyroid Gland 416. In Glanzmann's thromobasthenia, the defect in? - Aggregation 49 417. Bacteria that can cause pharyngitis include all the following EXCEPT: - S. aureus 418. The majority of the causative organism of urinary tract infection can be acquired from? - Normal bowel flora 419. The antibody which four domains in its heavy chains is? 420. B cell mutation occurs in the? - Bone marrow 421. Sensitive of a test relates to the ability of the test to? - Detect low concentration of an analyte 422. Which of the following acids is essential in heredity? - Nucleic 423. Which of the following blood types would be considered a universal recipient does not contain any antibodies against blood types? - AB+ 424. Measure progesterone in blood, hormone made by women ovaries? P4 425. Patient has hiv for three years, CD4 : 68? Diagnosis? Effect? Test? AIDS , immune system, CD4 flowcytometr 426. Platelets mechanism? Adhesion - Activation - aggregation 50 427. Treatment of hemophilia A & vWD & hemophilia B? Cryo (hemophilia A & vWD) / FFP (hemophilia a and hemophilia B) 428. An increased level of myoglobin may be due to? Heart attack. Malignant hyperthermia (very rare) Disorder that causes muscle weakness and loss of muscle tissue (muscular dystrophy) 429. FFP consistent in below except ? Platelets 430. Blood in body weight 5-10% 431. Anisocytosis? RDW Note: Anisocytosis is diagnosed using a measurement called red blood cell distribution width (RDW). 432. Blood sample turbid due to? Cholesterols & protein 433. epinephrine and norepinephrine Metabolism? vanillylmandelic acid (VMA). Note: NE and epinephrine are metabolized by catechol-O-methytransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO). The final product of these pathways is vanillylmandelic acid (VMA). 434. Five prevention PASS? Five control RACE? PULL , AIM , SQUEEZE , SWEEP/ Remove, Alarm, Confine and Extinguish or Evacuate 51 435. use of 10% bleach? Decontamination 436. parasile cause amebic dysentery? Entamoeba histolytica 437. hemolytic uremic syndrome? E.Coli O157:H7 infection 438. Rice watery diarrhea? Vibrio cholerae /watery diarrhea ? Shigal 439. Hyposegmentation of the neutrophil nucleus and chromatin clumping. Pseudo-Pelger-Huet Anomaly or Pelgeroid change ( PPHA) 440. Crystal like coffin Lid? Triple phosphate crystals and consist of magnesium, ammonium and phosphate. 441. FVIII high in? pregnancy 442. How to diff basophilic and pappenheimer under microscope? Negative reaction (basophilic) positive reaction (pappenheimer) 443. what substance help bacteria for adherence? glycoproteins/ lipoprotein 444. High Na+, low K Diabetes/ Crohn disease 445. Case: pulmonary infection, and Nodules and Budding? 52 Blastomycosis is a pulmonary disease caused by inhaling spores of the dimorphic fungus Blastomyces dermatitidis 446. Bone marrow to erythrocytes ratio? 3:1 447. CD4/CD8 ratio? If your ratio is higher than 1, it means your immune system is strong and you may not have HIV. If your ratio is less than 1, you may have: HIV. Note: A normal CD4/CD8 ratio is greater than 1.0. 448. rickettsia and proteus same in? Antigen coating 449. blood sample after 2 hrs what will increase ? Nitrate , o2 500. Which candida cause itch and pain mouth? Candida albicans 501. Thrombocytosis common found in which? IDA 502. which of the following is the most sensitive lest for the diagnosis of herpes simplex meningitis in a newborn ? - HSV PCR 503. A case conjunctivitis has been suspected to be trachoma. which of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the causative agent: - Chlamydia 504. Assess the disease state of the patient with the following results: 53 HBs Ag positive , HBe Ag positive , Anti HBc positive , Anti HBe negative, Anti HBs Ag negative ? - Highly infectious stage of Hepatitis B infection 505. cause respiratory acidosis? DKA, diabetic ketoacidosis Note: People with metabolic acidosis often have nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and fatigue and may breathe faster and deeper than normal. People with respiratory acidosis often have headache and confusion, and breathing may appear shallow, slow, or both. 506. bacteria that like other members of class mollicutes? -Mycoplasma. 507. motile parasite in urine? -Trichomonas vaginalis or Schistosoma haematobium 54