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BASIC ELECTRICITY 8. What is the purpose of the ground symbol used in 1. Which of the following logic gates will provide an electrical circuit diagrams? active high out only when all inputs are different a. To show that there is common bus for conne...

BASIC ELECTRICITY 8. What is the purpose of the ground symbol used in 1. Which of the following logic gates will provide an electrical circuit diagrams? active high out only when all inputs are different a. To show that there is common bus for connection of a. XNOR. the source of electrical energy to the load. b. NAND. b. To show the source of electrical energy for the load. c. XOR. c. To show that there is a return path for the 2.Through which material will magnetic lines of force current between the source of electrical energy pass the most readily? and the load. a. Copper 9. The working voltage of a capacitor in an ac circuit b. Iron should be c. Aluminum a. equal to the highest applied voltage. 3. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a b. at least 20 percent greater than the highest applied long period of time will show a low liquid level voltage. because. c. at least 50 percent greater than the highest a. Electrolyte evaporates through the vents applied voltage. b. of current leakage from individual cells. 10.The TCO relay will operate if 24-volts dc is applied c. electrolyte becomes absorbed into the plates. to the bus and the fuel tank selector is in the 4. How much power is being furnished to the circuit? a. 575 watts a. a right-hand tank position. b. 2875 watts b. crossfeed position. c. 2645 watts c. left-hand tank position. 5. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a 11. When inductors are connected in series in a circuit? circuit, the total inductance is (where the magnetic a. Inductance and frequency fields of each inductor do not affect the others) b. Resistance and voltage. (Note: L(T) L(1) + L(2) + L(3)...) c. Resistance and capacitive reactance. a. less than the inductance of the lowest rated 6. What is the operating resistance of a 30-watt light inductor. bulb designed for a 28-volt system? b. equal to the inductance of the highest rated a. 1.07 ohms inductor. b. 26 ohms c. equal to the sum of the individual inductances. c. 0.93 ohms 12. 7. A 1-horsepower, 24-volt dc electric motor that is 80 The voltage drop in a circuit of known resistance is percent efficient requires 932.5 watts. How much dependent on power will a 1-horsepower, 12-volt dc electric motor a. the voltage of the circuit. that is 75 percent efficient require? (Note: 1 b. only the resistance of the conductor and does not horsepower = 746 watts) change with a change in either voltage or amperage. a. 932.5 watts c. the amperage of the circuit. b. 1305.5 watts c. 994.6 watts 13. If three resistors of 3 ohms, 5 ohms, and 22 ohms 17. The total resistance of the circuit is are connected in series in a 28-volt circuit, how much current will flow through the 3-ohm resistor? a. 9.3 amperes. b. 1.05 amperes. c. 0.93 ampere. 14. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is a. in series with a unit. a. 25 ohms. b. between the source voltage and the load. b. 35 ohms. c. in parallel with a unit. c. 17 ohms. 15. (Refer to Figure 8.) With an ohmmeter connected 18. Which statement is correct when made in into the circuit as shown, what will the ohmmeter reference to a parallel circuit? read? a. The current is equal in all portions of the circuit. b. The total current is equal to the sum of the currents through the individual branches of the circuit. c. The current in amperes can be found by dividing the EMF in volts by the sum of the resistors in ohms. 19. The electrolyte of a nickel cadmium battery is highest when the battery is a. 20 ohms. a. in a fully charged condition. b. Infinite resistance. b. in a discharged condition. c. 10 ohms. c. under a no-load condition. 16. Energize the circuit with the fuel tank selector 20. Forward biasing of a solid state device will cause switch selected to the left-hand position. Using the the device to schematic, identify the switches that will change a. conduct via zener breakdown. position. b. conduct. c. turn off. 21. If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed? a. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse. b. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water. c. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse. 22. A 12-volt electric motor has 1,000 watts input and 1 horsepower output. Maintaining the same efficiency, how much input power will a 24-volt, 1-horsepower a. 5, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15. electric motor require? (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 b. 3, 5, 6, 7, 11, 13. watts) c. 5, 6, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16. a. 1,000 watts. b. 2,000 watts. c. 500 watts. 23. (Refer to Figure 15.) With the landing gear 26. (Refer to Figure 15.) The No. 7 wire is used to retracted, the red indicator light will not come on if an open occurs in wire a. close the PUSH-TO-TEST circuit b. open the UP indicator light circuit when the landing gear is retracted. No. 19. c. close the UP indicator light circuit when the landing No. 7. gear is retracted. No. 17. 27. Unless otherwise specified, any values given for 24. The basis for transformer operation in the use of current or voltage in an ac circuit are assumed to be alternating current is mutual a. instantaneous values. a. inductance. b. effective values. b. capacitance. c. maximum values. c. reactance. 28. Transfer of electric energy from one circuit to 25. (Refer to Figure 19.) Under which condition will a another without the aid of electrical connections ground be provided for the warning horn through both a. is called induction. gear switches when the throttles are closed? b. is called capacitance. c. can cause excessive arcing and heat, and as a result is practical for use only with low voltages/amperages. 29. Which of the following best describes the contributing factors to thermal runaway in a nickel- cadmium battery installed in an aircraft? a. High internal resistance intensified by high cell temperatures and a high current discharge/charge rate in a constant potential (voltage) charging system. b. Low internal resistance intensified by high cell a. Right gear up and left gear down. temperatures and a high voltage discharge/charge b. Both gears up and the control valve out of neutral. rate in a constant current charging system. c. Left gear up and right gear down. c. Low internal resistance intensified by high cell temperatures and a high current discharge/charge rate in a constant potential (voltage) charging system. 30.Capacitors are sometimes used in dc circuits to a. counteract inductive reactance at specific locations. b. smooth out slight pulsations in current/voltage. c. assist in stepping voltage and current up and/or down. 31. The purpose of providing a space underneath the 35. (Refer to Figure 21.) Which symbol represents a plates in a lead acid battery's cell container is to variable resistor? a. prevent sediment buildup from contacting the plates and causing a short circuit. b. allow for convection flow of the electrolyte in order to provide for cooling of the plates. c. ensure that the electrolyte quantity ratio to the number of plates and plate area is adequate. 32. Which of the following statements is/are generally a. 2 true regarding the charging of several aircraft b. 1 batteries together? c. 3 1. Batteries of different voltages (but similar 36. In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell capacities) can be connected in series with each temperature other across the charger, and charged using the a. causes an increase in internal resistance. constant current method. b. causes a decrease in internal resistance. 2. Batteries of different ampere-hour capacity and c. increases cell voltage. same voltage can be connected in parallel with each 37. Which of the following best describes the other across the charger, and charged using the operating principal in a nickel-cadmium battery constant voltage method. installed in an aircraft? 3. Batteries of the same voltage and same a. At full charge, the electrolyte will be at its lowest ampere-hour capacity must be connected in series level and should be filled. with each other across the charger, and charged b. To completely charge a nickel-cadmium battery, using the constant current method. some gassing must take place; thus, some water a. 3 will be used. b. 2 and 3. c. When positive plates slowly give up oxygen, which c. 1 and 2. is regained by the negative plates, the battery is 33.(Refer to Figure 11.) Find the total current flowing charging. in the wire between points C and D. 38. Which term means.001 ampere? a. Microampere. b. Kiloampere. c. Milliampere. 39. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged? a. Excessive electrolyte dilution. b. Excessive spewing is likely to occur during the charging cycle. a. 6.0 amperes. c. No adverse effects since water may be added b. 2.4 amperes. anytime. c. 3.0 amperes. 40. Which statement regarding the hydrometer 34. A 48-volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is a parallel circuit consisting of three resistors of equal true? value. What is the value of each resistor? a. The hydrometer reading does not require a a. 36 ohms. temperature correction if the electrolyte b. 4 ohms. temperature is 80°F. c. 12 ohms. b. A specific gravity correction should be added to the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is below 59°F. c. The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte temperature. 41. (Refer to Figure 22.) Which illustration is correct 48. A thermal switch, or thermal protector, as used in concerning bias application and current (positive an electric motor, is designed to charge) flow? a. close the integral fan circuit to allow cooling of the motor. b. open the circuit in order to allow cooling of the motor. c. reroute the circuit to ground. 49. The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an ac circuit is a. resistance. b. reactance. c. impedance. 50. Which effect does not apply to the movement of a. 1 electrons flowing in a conductor? b. 2 a. Magnetic energy. c. 3 b. Thermal energy. 42. A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to c. Static energy. a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors of equal 51. Which requires the most electrical power during value. What is the voltage drop across each resistor? operation? (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts) a. 12 volts. a. A 12-volt motor requiring 8 amperes. b. 6 volts. b. Four 30-watt lamps in a 12-volt parallel circuit. c. 24 volts. c. Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24-volt 43. In a parallel circuit with four 6-ohm resistors parallel system. across a 24-volt battery, what is the total voltage 52. Convert farads to picofarads by: across resistor-three (VR3) in the circuit? a. multiplying farads by 10 to the power of 12. a. 6 volts. b. multiplying microfarads by 10 to the power of -12. b. 18 volts. c. multiplying picofarads by 10 to the power of 12. c. 24 volts. 53. When calculating power in reactive or inductive ac 44. A circuit has an applied voltage of 30 volts and a circuit, the true power is load consisting of a 10-ohm resistor in series with a a. more than the apparent power. 20-ohm resistor. What is the voltage drop across the b. less than the apparent power in a reactive circuit 10-ohm resistor? and more than the apparent power in an inductive a. 10 volts. circuit. b. 20 volts. c. less than the apparent power. c. 30 volts. 54. When a charging current is applied to a nickel 45. Which is correct concerning a parallel circuit? cadmium battery, the cells emit gas a. Total resistance will be smaller than the a. toward the end of the charging cycle. smallest resistor. b. throughout the charging cycle. b. Total resistance will decrease when one of the c. especially if the electrolyte level is high. resistances is removed. 55. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in c. Total voltage drop is the same as the total series (no-load voltage 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 resistance. amperes to a load of 2-ohms resistance. The internal 46. Diodes are used in electrical power supply circuits resistance of the battery in this instance is primarily as a. 0.52 ohm. a. switches. b. 2.52 ohms. b. rectifiers. c. 5.0 ohms. c. relays. 47..002KV equals a. 20 volts. b. 2.0 volts. c. 0.2 volt. 56. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the total capacitance 59. Which requires the most electrical power? of a circuit containing three capacitors in parallel with (Note: 1 horsepower 746 watts) capacitances of.02 microfarad,.05 microfarad, and a. A 1/5-horsepower, 24-volt motor which is 75.10 microfarad, respectively? percent efficient. b. Four 30-watt lamps arranged in a 12-volt parallel circuit. c. A 24-volt anticollision light circuit consisting of two light assemblies which require 3 amperes each during operation. 60. Convert farads to microfarads by a. multiplying farads by 10 to the power of 6 b. multiplying picofarads by 10 to the power of 6 c. multiplying microfarads by 10 to the power of 6 a..170 uF. 61. What unit is used to express electrical power? b. 0.125 PF. a. Volt. c..0125 UF. b. Watt. 57. (Refer to Figure 18.) When the landing gears are c. Ampere. up and the throttles are retarded, the warning horn will 62. (Refer to Figure 17.) The electrical symbol not sound if an open occurs in wire represented at number 5 is a variable a. No. 4. a. inductor. b. No. 2. b. resistor. c. No. 9. c. capacitor. 58. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the total capacitance 63. In a P-N-P transistor application, the solid state of a circuit containing three capacitors with device is turned on when the capacitances of.02 microfarad,.05 microfarad, and a. base is negative with respect to the emitter..10 microfarad, respectively? b. base is positive with respect to the emitter. c. emitter is negative with respect to the base. 64. How much power must a 24-volt generator furnish to a system which contains the following loads? UNIT RATING One motor (75 percent efficient) 1/5 hp Three position lights 20 watts each One heating element 5 amp One anticollision light 3 amp a..170 uF. (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts) b. 0.125 PF. a. 402 watts. c..0125 UF. b. 385 watts. c. 450 watts. 65. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source? a. The total plate area of the battery. b. The state-of-charge of the battery. c. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery. 66. In an ac circuit, the effective voltage is 71. Which of these will cause the resistance of a a. equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage. conductor to decrease? b. greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage. a. Decrease the length or the cross-sectional area. c. less than the maximum instantaneous voltage. b. Decrease the length or increase the 67. What will a voltmeter read if properly connected cross-sectional area. across a closed switch in a circuit with electrical c. Increase the length or decrease the cross-sectional power on? area. a. Voltage drop in the component(s) the switch is 72. (Refer to Figure 20.) Troubleshooting an open connected to. circuit with a voltmeter as shown in this circuit will b. System voltage. c. Zero voltage. 68. Which condition is an indication of improperly torqued cell link connections of a nickel-cadmium battery? a. Light spewing at the cell caps. b. Toxic and corrosive deposits of potassium carbonate crystals. c. Heat or burn marks on the hardware. 69. a. permit current to flow and illuminate the lamp. (Refer to Figure 16.) With power to the bus and the b. create a low resistance path and the current flow fuel selector switched to the right-hand tank, how will be greater than normal. many relays in the system are operating? c. permit the battery voltage to appear on the voltmeter. 73. What is the total capacitance of a certain circuit containing three capacitors with capacitances of.25 microfarad,.03 microfarad, and.12 microfarad, respectively? (Note: C(T) = C(1) + C(2) + C(3)) a..4 UF. b..04 PF. c..04 UF. 74. A cabin entry light of 10 watts and a dome light of 20 watts are connected in parallel to a 30- volt source. If the voltage across the 10-watt light is measured, it will be a. equal to the voltage across the 20-watt light. b. half the voltage across the 20-watt light. a. Three. c. one-third of the input voltage. b. Two. 75. Typical application for zener diodes is as c. Four. a. full-wave rectifiers. 70.(Refer to Figure 19.) When the landing gears are b. half-wave rectifiers. up and the throttles are retarded, the warning horn will c. voltage regulators. not sound if an open occurs in wire 76. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is a. being charged. b. in a discharged condition. c. under a heavy load condition. a. No. 5. b. No. 7. c. No. 6. 77. When different rated capacitors are connected in 83. (Refer to Figure 16.) What will be the effect if the parallel in a circuit, the total capacitance is (Note: PCO relay fails to operate when the left- hand tank is C(T) = C(1) + C(2) + C(3)...) selected? a. less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor. b. equal to the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor. c. equal to the sum of all the capacitances. 78. What is the basic unit of electrical quantity? a. Electromotive Force. b. Ampere. c. Coulomb. 79. The end-of-charge voltage of a 19-cell nickel-cadmium battery, measured while still on charge, a. must be 1.2 to 1.3 volts per cell. b. must be 1.4 volts per cell. a. The fuel pressure crossfeed valve will not open. c. depends upon its temperature and the method b. The fuel tank crossfeed valve open light will used for charging. illuminate. 80.(Refer to Figure 12.) Find the total resistance of c. The fuel pressure crossfeed valve open light the circuit. will not illuminate. 84. (Refer to Figure 23.) If R(2) sticks in the up position, the light will a. 16 ohms. b. 2.6 ohms. c. 21.2 ohms. 81. (Refer to Figure 23.) If an open occurs at R(1), the a. be on full bright. light b. be very dim. c. not illuminate. 85. (Refer to Figure 15.) When the landing gear is down, the green light will not come on if an open occurs in wire a. cannot be turned on. b. will not be affected. c. cannot be turned off. 82. A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of two resistors of equal value. What is the value of each resistor? (Note: R(t) = E^2/P) a. 24 ohms. b. 12 ohms. a. No. 7. c. 6 ohms. b. No. 6. c. No. 17. 86. (Refer to Figure 19.) When the throttles are 92. The presence of any small amount of potassium retarded with only the right gear down, the warning carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium horn will not sound if an open occurs in wire battery cells in service is an indication of a. normal operation. b. excessive gassing. c. plate sulfation. 93. The potential difference between two conductors which are insulated from each other is measured in a. volts. b. amperes. c. coulombs. 94. When referring to an electrical circuit diagram, what point is considered to be at zero voltage? a. The circuit breaker. a. No. 5. b. The switch. b. No. 13. c. The ground reference. c. No. 6. 95. (Refer to Figure 17.) Which of the components is 87. Electrostatic fields are also known as a potentiometer? a. Dielectric fields. b. Electrostatic fields. c. Static fields. 88. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes a. constant current and constant voltage. b. constant current and varying voltage. a. 5 c. constant voltage and varying current. b. 3 89. What is the likely result of servicing and charging c. 11 nickel-cadmium and lead acid batteries together in the 96. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze same service area? until extremely low temperatures are reached a. Lowered amp-hour capacities, for both types of because batteries. a. the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the b. Reduced battery service life for both types of specific gravity of the solution. batteries. b. most of the acid is in the solution. c. Contamination of both types of batteries. c. increased internal resistance generates sufficient 90. What is the opposition to the flow of AC produced heat to prevent freezing. by a magnetic field with generated back voltage 97.(Refer to Figure 5.) What is the impedance of an (EMF) called? ac-series circuit consisting of an inductor with a a. Inductive reactance. reactance of 10 ohms, a capacitor with a reactance of b. Capacitive reactance. 4 ohms, and a resistor with a resistance of 8 ohms? c. Mutual inductance. 91. How many amperes will a 28-volt generator be required to supply to a circuit containing five lamps in parallel, three of which have a resistance of 6 ohms each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms each? a. 1.11 amperes. b. 1 ampere. c. 25.23 amperes. a. 22 ohms. b. 5.29 ohms. c. 10 ohms. 98.(Refer to Figure 13.) Determine the total current 101. (Refer to Figure 6.) If resistor R(5) is flow in the circuit. disconnected at the junction of R(4) and R(3) as shown, what will the ohmmeter read? a. 2.76 ohms. b. 3 ohms. a. 0.2 ampere. c. 12 ohms. b. 1.4 amperes. 102. A 14-ohm resistor is to be installed in a series c. 0.8 ampere. circuit carrying.05 ampere. How much power will the 99. (Refer to Figure 11.) Find the voltage across the resistor be required to dissipate? 8-ohm resistor. a. At least.70 milliwatt. b. At least 35 milliwatts. c. Less than.035 watt. 103. Which of the following are commonly used as rectifiers in electrical circuits? 1. Anodes. 2. Cathodes. 3. Diodes a. 3, 1. b. 3,2. c. 3. 104. Which is correct in reference to electrical resistance? a. 8 volts. a. Two electrical devices will have the same combined b. 20.4 volts. resistance if they are connected in series as they will c. 24 volts. have if connected in parallel. 100. (Refer to Figure 10.) What is the measured b. If one of three bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit voltage of the series-parallel circuit between terminals is removed, the total resistance of the circuit will A and B? become greater. c. An electrical device that has a high resistance will use more power than one with a low resistance with the same applied voltage. 105. (Refer to Figure 25.) In a functional and operating circuit, the depicted logic gate's output will be 0 a. 1.5 volts. b. 3.0 volts. c. 4.5 volts. a. only when all inputs are 0. b. when all inputs are 1. c. when one or more inputs are 0. 106. Refer to Figure 9.) How many instruments 110. In an N-P-N transistor application, the solid state (voltmeters and ammeters) are installed correctly? device is turned on when the a. emitter is positive with respect to the base. b. base is negative with respect to the emitter. c. base is positive with respect to the emitter. 111. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to the a. distance between the plates and inversely proportional to the plate area. a. Three. b. plate area and is not affected by the distance b. One. between the plates. c. Two. c. plate area and inversely proportional to the 107. In a parallel circuit with three 6-ohms resistors distance between the plates. across a 12-volt battery, what is the total current (It) 112. What happens to the current in a voltage step-up value in the circuit? transformer with a ratio of 1 to 4? a. 2 amps. a. The current is stepped down by a 1 to 4 ratio. b. 6 amps. b. The current is stepped up by a 1 to 4 ratio. c. 12 amps. c. The current does not change. 108. (Refer to Figure 26.) Which of the logic gate 113. (Refer to Figure 7.) If resistor R(3) is output conditions is correct with respect to the given disconnected at terminal D, what will the ohmmeter inputs? read? a. Infinite resistance. b. 10 ohms. a. 1 c. 20 ohms. b. 2 114. (Refer to Figure 1.) When different rated c. 3 capacitors are connected in series in a circuit, the 109. (Refer to Figure 16.) When electrical power is total capacitance is applied to the bus, which relays are energized? a. less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor. b. greater than the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor. c. equal to the sum of all the capacitances. a. PCC and TCC. b. TCC and TCO. c. PCO and PCC. 115. (Refer to Figure 3.) When more than two 119. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium inductors of different inductances are connected in battery be determined? parallel in a circuit, the total inductance is a. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte. b. By a measured discharge. c. By the level of the electrolyte. COMM NAV 1. (Refer to Figure 29.) What kind of antenna is this?\ a. less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor. b. equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor. c. equal to the sum of the individual inductances. 116. (Refer to Figure 18.) The control valve switch must be placed in the neutral position when the landing gears are down to a. A glide slope antenna. b. A VOR and localizer antenna. c. A radar beacon transponder antenna. 2. Doublers are used when antennas are installed to a. eliminate antenna vibration. b. prevent oil canning of the skin. c. reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin. 3. In an autopilot, which signal nullifies the input signal to the ailerons? a. Displacement signal. a. permit the test circuit to operate. b. Course signal. b. prevent the warning horn from sounding when c. Followup signal. the throttles are closed. 4.(Refer to Figure 33.) What kind of antenna is this? c. remove the ground from the green light. 117. (Refer to Figure 24.) Which statement concerning the depicted logic gate is true? a. A VOR/glide slope antenna. b. A marker beacon receiver antenna. c. A radar beacon transponder antenna. 5. Dutch roll, a combination yawing and rolling oscillation that affects many sweptwing aircraft, is a. Any input being 1 will produce a 0 output. counteracted with b. Any input being 1 will produce a 1 output. a. a flight director system. c. All inputs must be 1 to produce a 1 output. b. an aileron damper system. 118.The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of c. a yaw damper system. alternating current is called (disregard resistance) 6. A fully integrated autopilot controls the aircraft a. impedance. around how many axes? b. reluctance. a. Two. c. inductive reactance. b. Three. c. Four. 7. What is the main purpose of servo in an autopilot 16.When must the radio station license be displayed system? in an aircraft equipped with a two-way radio? a. Correct for displacement of the aircraft about its a. When the aircraft is operated outside the U.S. axis. b. When the aircraft is returned to service. b. Change mechanical energy to electrical energy. c. When the aircraft is certified for IFR flight. c. Move the control surface as commanded. 17. When would a U.S. resident NOT be required to 8. Part of the ADF system used on aircraft includes hold a Federal Communications Commission (FCC) a. RMI indicator antenna. Restricted Radio Telephone Operator Permit to b. marker beacon antenna. operate two-way aircraft VHF radio equipment? c. sense and loop antennas. a. When flying to or communicating with destinations 9. Which channel of an autopilot detects changes in outside the United States. pitch attitude of an aircraft? b. When flying or communicating within the a. Elevator. United States. b. Aileron. c. When the radio equipment is operated in aircraft c. Rudder. certified for VFR flight only. 10. An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery 18.How much clearance from the seat bottom is must be capable of furnishing power for signal required when installing radio equipment under a transmission for at least seat? a. 36 hours. a. 3 inches with the seat unoccupied. b. 48 hours. b. No set minimum as long as the equipment receives c. 72 hours. adequate cooling and damage protection. 11. What characteristics of the installation of a rigid c. 1 inch with the seat occupied and subjected to antenna on a vertical stabilizer should be evaluated? maximum downward seat spring deflection. a. Polarization and impedance. 19. An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is b. Impedance and interference. normally activated by an inertial switch or equivalent c. Flutter and vibration. mechanism if subjected to a force of a prescribed 12. In general, the purpose of an aircraft transponder intensity and duration. It must activate when the force is to is applied a. continually transmit heading, speed, and rate of a. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. climb/decent etc. information to ATC. b. parallel to the vertical axis of the aircraft. b. monitor aircraft speed, heading, altitude, and c. in any direction relative to the aircraft axes. attitude whenever the autopilot system is engaged. 20. How may the operation of an installed emergency c. receive an interrogation signal from a ground locator transmitter (ELT) be verified during aircraft station and automatically send a reply back. inspection? 13. (Refer to Figure 31.) What kind of antenna is this? a. By moving the deactivating switch from the DISARM position to the ARM position while monitoring the civil emergency frequency with a communications receiver at five minutes after the hour. b. By activating the 5 g switch and turning the unit on at five minutes after the hour. c. By tuning a communications receiver to the a. A lightning detector system antenna. civil emergency frequency and activating the ELT b. A marker beacon receiver antenna. momentarily within five minutes after the hour. c. A satellite weather antenna. 21. (Refer to Figure 30.) What kind of antenna is this? 14. The addition of avionics and associated antenna systems forward of the CG limit will affect a. empty weight and useful load. b. CG limits and useful load. c. useful load and maximum gross weight. 15. When installing a DME antenna, it should be aligned with the a. null position. a. A lightning detector system antenna. b. angle of incidence. b. A VOR and localizer antenna. c. centerline on the airplane. c. A satellite weather antenna. 22. In which control element of an autopilot system is 28. (Refer to Figure 23.) What is this antenna used an attitude indicator? for? a. Command. b. Sensing. c. Input. 23.When bending coaxial cable, the bend radius should be at least a. 10 times the diameter of the cable. b. 15 times the diameter of the cable. a. This is an altitude encoder used with c. 20 times the diameter of the cable. transponders. 24. What component of an autopilot system applies b. This is a TCAS receiver used with monitoring and torque to the control surfaces of an aircraft? alerting systems. a. Servo. c. This is an aircraft radar beacon transponder used b. Controller. for location identification. c. Gyro. 29. What will occur if an aircraft attitude is changed by 25. (Refer to Figure 16.) Which of the antennas its autopilot system in order to correct for an error and shown is a typical DME antenna? the involved control surfaces are returned to streamline by the time the aircraft has reached its correct position? a. Overshoot and oscillation. b. Undershoot and oscillation. c. Normal operation. 30. (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the approximate drag load on an antenna with a frontal area of.137 square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of 275 MPH? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 26. When must the emergency locator transmitter 3.387 pounds. (ELT) battery be replaced (other than reading the 3.741 pounds. replacement date)? 3.592 pounds. a. When the transmitter has been in use for more 31. Installed radio equipment is protected from than one cumulative hour. damage due to jolts and vibration by b. Must be replaced annually or if the five G switch a. shock mounts. has been activated. b. spring and/or viscous damper mounted racks. c. When the transmitter has been tested more than c. rubber or foam cushioning material between circuit ten times. chassis and case. 27. What is the operating principle of the sensing 32. (Refer to Figure 16.) Which of the antennas device used in an autopilot system? shown is a typical glideslope antenna? a. The reaction of the force 90° away from the applied force in the direction of gyro rotation. b. The relative motion between a gyro and its supporting system. c. The rate of change of motion between the gyro gimbal rings and the aircraft. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 33. (1) Use solder to attach bonding jumpers on radio 40. What component is the sensing device in an equipment. electromechanical autopilot system? (2) Radio equipment is bonded to the aircraft in order a. Servo. to provide a low-impedance ground and to minimize b. Gyro. radio interference from static electrical charges. c. Controller. Regarding the above statements, 41. A DME antenna should be located in a position on a. only No. 1 is true. the aircraft that will b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. a. not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is c. only No. 2 is true. banked. 34. In the landing configuration GPWS typically b. permit interruptions in DME operation. monitors the radio (radar) altimeter; air data c. eliminate the possibility of the DME locking on a computer; instrument landing system; and station. a. aileron, rudder, and elevator positions. 42. (Refer to Figure 26.) Where is the strongest signal b. landing gear and flap positions. for this antenna? c. spoiler, slat, and stabilizer positions. 35. On modern large aircraft, what electronic device typically monitors flight parameters and performs autopilot functions? a. Flight management computer. b. Transponder. c. Control/display unit. 36. How may the battery replacement date be verified for an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)? a. Below the antenna. a. By removing the batteries and testing them under a b. Above the antenna. measured load to determine if 50 percent of the useful c. Ahead of the antenna. life remains. 43. (Refer to Figure 27.) What kind of antenna is this? b. By observing the battery replacement date marked on the outside of the transmitter. c. By activating the transmitter and measuring the signal strength. 37. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at a. low current levels. b. high voltage level. c. high current levels. 38. What is the primary purpose of an autopilot? a. To relieve the pilot of control of the aircraft a. A glide slope antenna. during long periods of flight. b. A VOR and localizer antenna. b. To fly a more precise course for the pilot. c. A radar beacon transponder antenna. c. To obtain the navigational aid necessary for 44. (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the approximate extended overwater flights. drag load on an antenna with a frontal area of.125 39. (Refer to Figure 34.) What kind of antenna is this? square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of 225 MPH? a. 2.069 pounds. b. 2.073 pounds. a. A VOR/glide slope antenna. c. 2.080 pounds. b. A marker beacon receiver antenna. c. A radar beacon transponder antenna. 45. When an antenna is installed, it should be 53. The elevator channel of an autopilot controls the fastened aircraft about which axis of rotation? a. to the primary structure at the approximate a. Roll. intersection of the three aircraft axes. b. Longitudinal. b. with a reinforcing doubler on each side of the c. Lateral. aircraft skin. 54. An aircraft antenna installation must be grounded c. so that loads imposed are transmitted to the a. to the airframe. aircraft structure. b. to the engine. 46. The purpose of a glideslope system is to c. to the radio rack. a. provide for automatic altitude reporting to air traffic 55. A gasket or sealant is used between the antenna control. mast and fuselage skin b. indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of a. to prevent the entry of moisture. the runway. b. for aircraft pressurization only. c. assist the pilot in making a correct angle of c. to prevent abrasion between the antenna mast and descent to the runway. fuselage skin. 47. (Refer to Figure 28.) What kind of antenna is this? 56. When installing coaxial cable, it should be a. An ELT antenna. secured firmly along its entire length b. OA DME antenna. a. at 1-foot intervals. c. A VHF communications antenna. b. wherever the cable sags. 48. (Refer to Figure 22.) What kind of antenna is this? c. at 2-foot intervals. 57. The purpose of a localizer is to a. set the airplane on the proper approach angle to the runway. b. indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of the runway. c. align the airplane with the center of the runway. 58. (Refer to Figure 32.) What kind of antenna is this? a. This is a glide slope antenna. b. This is a DME or a radar beacon transponder. c. This is a loop and sense antenna. 49. The preferred location of an ELT is a. where it is readily accessible to the pilot or a a. A lightning detector system antenna. member of the flightcrew while the aircraft is in flight. b. A marker beacon receiver antenna. b. as far aft as possible. c. A radar beacon transponder antenna. c. as far aft as possible, but forward of the vertical 59. (Refer to Figure 24.) What kind of antenna is this? fin. a. A dipole antenna. 50. VHF radio signals are commonly used in b. A Marconi antenna. a. ATC communications. c. A loop antenna. b. VOR navigation. 60. One antenna can be used for the radio range and c. both VOR navigation and ATC communications. standard broadcast bands in light aircraft because the 51. After an automatic direction finding antenna has a. two ranges are close together. been installed, the b. antenna is omnidirectional. a. antenna must be grounded. c. antenna length may be electronically adjusted. b. loop must be calibrated. 61. (Refer to Figure 25.) What kind of antenna is this? c. transceiver must be compensated. a. A dipole antenna. 52. When operationally checking an autopilot system b. A canted antenna. on the ground, after the aircraft's main power has c. A Marconi antenna. been switched on, the autopilot should be engaged a. only after the gyros come up to speed and the amplifier warms up. b. whenever the operator desires. c. for only a few minutes at a time. 62. The preferred location of a VOR antenna on light 7.Cases for electrically operated instruments are aircraft is on made of a. the bottom of the fuselage and as far forward as a. Aluminum or composite cases. possible. b. Iron or steel cases. b. top of the cabin with the apex of the V pointing c. Bakelite or plastic cases. forward. 8. The operation of an angle-of-attack indicating c. top of the vertical stabilizer. system is based on detection of differential pressure 63. Which of the following provides manual at a point where the airstream flows in a direction maneuverability of the aircraft while the autopilot is a. not parallel to the true angle of attack of the engaged? aircraft. a. Servo-amplifier. b. parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft. b. Directional gyro indicator. c. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. c. Flight controller. 9. A turn coordinator instrument indicates a. the longitudinal attitude of the aircraft during climb AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS SYSTEM and descent. b. the need for corrections in pitch and bank. 1. Aircraft instrument value should be marked and c. both roll and yaw. graduated in accordance with 10.How would an airspeed indicator be marked to a. the instrument manufacturer's specifications. show the best rate-of-climb speed (one engine b. both the aircraft and engine manufacturers' inoperative)? specifications. a. A red radial line. c. the specific aircraft maintenance or flight b. A blue radial line. manual. c. A green arc. 2.Which of the following causes of aircraft magnetic 11. The maximum deviation (during level flight) compass inaccuracies may be compensated for by permitted in a compensated magnetic direction mechanics? indicator installed on an aircraft certificated under a. Deviation. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23 is b. Magnetic compass current. a. 6°. c. Variation. b. 8°. 3.When performing the static system leakage check c. 10°. required by Section 91.411, the technician utilizes 12. Instrument static system leakage can be detected a. static pressure. by observing the rate of change in indication of the b. positive pressure. a. airspeed indicator after suction has been applied to c. negative pressure. the static system to cause a prescribed equivalent 4. A synchro transmitter is connected to a synchro airspeed to be indicated. receiver b. altimeter after pressure has been applied to the a. mechanically through linkage. static system to cause a prescribed equivalent altitude b. electromagnetically without wires. to be indicated. c. electrically with wires. c. altimeter after suction has been applied to the 5.What will be the result if the instrument static static system to cause a prescribed equivalent pressure line becomes disconnected inside a altitude to be indicated. pressurized cabin during cruising flight? 13. generally shock-mounted to absorb a. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both Aircraft instrument panels are read low. a. all vibration. b. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read b. low-frequency, high-amplitude shocks. high. c. high-frequency, high-amplitude shocks. c. The altimeter will read low and the airspeed 14. The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to indicator will read high. a. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system 6. What marking color is used to indicate if a cover configuration for the current flight situation. glass has slipped? b. display alphanumeric data and representations a. Red. of aircraft instruments. b. White. c. receive and process input signals from aircraft and c. Yellow. engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate display. 15.A radar altimeter indicates 22.Which of the following instrument discrepancies a. flight level (pressure) altitude. could be corrected by an aviation mechanic? 1. Red line missing. b. altitude above sea level. 2. Case leaking. c. altitude above ground level. 3. Glass cracked. 16. A barometric altimeter indicates pressure altitude 4. Mounting screws loose. when the barometric scale is set at 5. Case paint chipped. a. 29.92" Hg. 6. Leaking at line B nut. 7. Will not adjust. 8. Fogged. b. 14.7" Hg. a. 1,4, 6. c. field elevation. b. 3, 4, 5, 6. 17. Which instruments are connected to an aircraft's c. 1, 4, 5, 6. static pressure system only? 1. Vertical speed 23.What must be done to an instrument panel that is indicator. supported by shock mounts? 2. Cabin altimeter. a. Bonding straps must be installed across the 3. Altimeter. instrument mounts as a current path. 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. b. The instrument mounts must be grounded to the 5. Airspeed indicator. aircraft structure as a current path. a. 1 and 3. c. The instrument mounts must be tightened to the b. 2, 4, and 5. specified torque required by the maintenance manual. c. 2 and 4. 24. Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are 18. When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are measured by using displayed on an HSI, the indication is a. iron/constantan thermocouples. a. that function is inoperative. b. chromel/alumel thermocouples. b. that function is operating. c. ratiometer electrical resistance thermometers. c. to call attention to deviation from the desired 25. What does a reciprocating engine manifold setting, or flight path, or heading, etc. pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not 19. The red radial lines on the face of an engine oil operating? pressure gauge indicates a. Zero pressure. a. minimum engine safe RPM operating range. b. The differential between the manifold pressure and b. minimum precautionary safe operating range. the atmospheric pressure. c. minimum and/or maximum safe operating c. The existing atmospheric pressure. limits. 26. Aircraft temperature thermocouple leads may 20. An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date a. not be altered and are designed for a specific the compass correction card when installation. a. an annual inspection is accomplished on the b. be installed with either lead to either post of the aircraft. indicator. b. the compass is serviced. c. be repaired using solderless connectors. c. equipment is added that could effect compass 27. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to deviation. indicate 1. pressure. 21. Resistance- type temperature indicators using 2. temperature. Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuits may be used 3. position. to indicate the temperatures of which of the following? a. 1 and 2. 1. Free air. b. 1 2. Exhaust gas temperature. c. 2 and 3. 3. Carburetor air. 28. The maximum altitude loss permitted during an 4. Coolant (engine). unpressurized aircraft instrument static pressure 5. Oil temperature. system integrity check is 6. Cylinder head temperature. a. 50 feet in 1 minute. a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. b. 200 feet in 1 minute. b. 1, 3, 4, and 5. c. 100 feet in 1 minute. c. 1, 2, 3, and 6. 29. Where may a person look for the information 36. (1) Aircraft instruments are color-coded to direct necessary to determine the required markings on an attention to operational ranges and limitations. engine instrument? (2) Aircraft instruments range markings are not 1. Engine manufacturer's specifications. specified by Title 14 of the Code of Federal 2. Aircraft flight manual. Regulations but are standardized by aircraft 3. Instrument manufacturer's specifications. manufacturers. 4. Aircraft maintenance manual. Regarding the above statements, a. 2 or 4. a. only No. 1 is true. b. 1 or 4. b. only No. 2 is true. c. 2 or 3. c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 30. A certificated mechanic may perform 37. The requirements for testing and inspection of a. minor repairs to instruments. instrument static systems required by Section 91.411 b. 100-hour inspections of instruments. are contained in c. instrument overhaul. a. Type Certificate Data Sheets. 31. Which instrument condition is acceptable and b. AC 43.13-1A. would not require correction? c. Part 43, appendix E. 1. Red line missing. 38. The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to 2. Case leaking. a. represent the nose of the aircraft. 3. Glass cracked. b. align the instrument glass in the case. 4. Mounting screws loose. c. represent the wings of the aircraft. 5. Case paint chipped. 39. Which statement regarding an aircraft instrument 6. Leaking at line B nut. vacuum system is true? 7. Will not zero out. a. Dry-type vacuum pumps with carbon vanes are 8. Fogged. very susceptible to damage from solid airborne a. 1 particles and must take in only filtered air. b. 5 b. Vacuum systems are generally more effective at c. None. high altitudes than positive pressure systems. 32.Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to c. If the air inlet to each vacuum instrument is a. retard precession of the float. connected to a common atmospheric pressure b. reduce deviation errors. manifold, the system generally will be equipped with c. dampen the oscillation of the float. individual instrument filters only. 33. Who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument? 40. Which condition would be most likely to cause 1. A certified mechanic with an airframe rating. excessive vacuum in a vacuum system? 2. A certificated repairman with an airframe rating. a. Vacuum pump overspeed. 3. A certificated repair station approved for that class b. Vacuum relief valve improperly adjusted. instrument. 4. A certificated airframe repair station. c. Vacuum relief valve spring weak. a. 1, 2, 3, and 4. 41. Which of the following instrument discrepancies b. 3 and 4. would require replacement of the instrument? 1. Red c. 3 line missing. 34. The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge 2. Case leaking. indicates 3. Glass cracked. a. the instrument is not calibrated. 4. Mounting screws loose. b. the desirable temperature range. 5. Case paint chipped. c. a low, unsafe temperature range. 6. Leaking at line B nut. 35. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in 7. Will not zero out. 8. Fogged. their respective panels depends on the a. 2,3,7,8. a. instrument manufacturer. b. 1, 4, 6, 7. b. design of the instrument case. c. 1, 3, 5, 8. c. design of the instrument panel. 42. Data transmitted between components in an EFIS are converted into a. digital signals. b. analog signals. c. carrier wave signals. 43. Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit 51. When swinging a magnetic compass, the data compensators are adjusted to correct for a. mechanically. a. magnetic influence deviation. b. electrically. b. compass card oscillations. c. utilizing fluid power. c. magnetic variations. 44. How is a flangeless instrument case mounted in 52. If a static pressure system check reveals an instrument panel? excessive leakage, the leak(s) may be located by a. By four machine screws which extend through the a. pressurizing the system and adding leak detection instrument panel. dye. b. By an expanding-type clamp secured to the b. isolating portions of the line and testing each back of the panel and tightened by a screw from portion systematically starting at the instrument the front of the instrument panel. connections. c. By a metal shelf separate from and located behind c. removing and visually inspecting the line segments. the instrument panel. 53. Which procedure should you use if you find a 45. How many of the following are controlled by vacuum-operated instrument glass loose? gyroscopes? 1. Attitude indicator. a. Mark the case and glass with a slippage mark. 2. Heading indicator. b. Replace the glass. 3. Turn needle of the turn-and-slip indicator. c. Install another instrument. a. Three. 54. A radar altimeter determines altitude by b. Two. a. transmitting a signal and receiving back a c. One. reflected signal. 46. Instrument panel shock mounts absorb b. receiving signals transmitted from ground radar a. high energy impact shocks caused by hard stations. landings. c. means of transponder interrogation. b. low frequency, high-amplitude shocks. 55. The function of a display controller in an EFIS is to c. high G shock loads imposed by turbulent air. a. display alphanumeric data and representations of 47. When an aircraft altimeter is set at 29.92" Hg on aircraft instruments. the ground, the altimeter will read b. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system a. pressure altitude. configuration for the current flight situation. b. density altitude. c. receive and process input signals from aircraft and c. field elevation. engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate 48. The operating mechanism of most hydraulic display. pressure gauges is 56. When an unpressurized aircraft's static pressure a. a Bourdon tube. system is leak checked to comply with the b. an airtight diaphragm. requirements of Section 91.411, what aircraft c. an evacuated bellows filled with an inert gas to instrument may be used in lieu of a pitot-static system which suitable arms, levers, and gears are attached. tester? 49. An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded 1. Vertical speed indicator. to the aircraft structure to 2. Cabin altimeter. a. act as a restraint strap. 3. Altimeter. b. provide current return paths. 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. c. aid in the panel installation. 5. Airspeed indicator. 50. The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an a. 1 or 5. EFIS is to b. 2 or 4. a. display alphanumeric data and representations of c. 3 aircraft instruments. 57. Which instruments are connected to an aircraft's b. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system pitot-static system? 1. Vertical speed indicator. configuration for the current flight situation. 2. Cabin altimeter. c. receive and process input signals from aircraft 3. Altimeter. and engine sensors and send the data to the 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. appropriate display. 5. Airspeed indicator. a. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. b. 1, 2, and 4. c. 1, 3, and 5. 58. Which of the following instruments will normally have range markings? a. Altimeter. b. Cylinder head temperature gauge, airspeed indicator. c. Altimeter, airspeed indicator. 59. A certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings may a. perform minor repairs to aircraft instruments. b. perform minor repairs and minor alterations to aircraft instruments. c. not perform repairs to aircraft instruments. 60. What is the fixed line mark attached to the compass bowl of a magnetic compass called? a. Reeder line. b. Lubber line. c. Reference line. 61. When installing an instrument in an aircraft, who is responsible for making sure it is properly marked? a. The aircraft owner. b. The instrument installer. c. The instrument manufacturer.