AMGOV Final Exam Study Guide Fall 2024 PDF

CHAPTER 12 1) Individual citizens influence Congress and its acts through A) civil disobedience. B) congressional elections. C) organized peaceful protests. D) All of these answers are correct. E) letters and emails to congressional staff members. 2) Which of the fol...

CHAPTER 12 1) Individual citizens influence Congress and its acts through A) civil disobedience. B) congressional elections. C) organized peaceful protests. D) All of these answers are correct. E) letters and emails to congressional staff members. 2) Which of the following statements is true? A) House members serve for two years, and Senate members serve for four years. B) House members serve for two years, and Senate members serve for six years. C) House members serve four years, and Senate members serve eight years. D) Both House and Senate members serve for four years. E) None of these answers are correct. 3) To address the issue of racial imbalance in the House of Representatives, state legislatures A) constructed a kind of gerrymandering called a minority-majority district. B) constructed a kind of gerrymandering called a majority-minority district. C) created a practice known as “packing” districts to exert influence in electing representatives of color in majority districts. D) created a practice known as “cracking” districts to break up majority-white congressional districts. E) None of these answers are correct. 4) The practice of redrawing electoral boundaries for political advantage is known as A) majority-minority district formation. B) gerrymandering. C) reapportionment. D) redistricting. E) casework. 5) Historically, what percentage of incumbent members of the House of Representatives running for reelection win? A) 84 percent B) 60 percent C) 90 percent D) 96 percent E) 33 percent Version 1 1  6) Which of these powers is/are granted to Congress by the Constitution? A) to borrow money and regulate currency B) taxation, spending, and establishment of tariffs C) administration of post offices D) punishing illegal acts on the high seas E) All of these answers are correct. 7) Because of the necessary and proper clause, Congress exercises a________ scope of authority. A) broad B) reasonable C) limited D) restricted E) tenuous 8) Within the instructed delegate model, elected representatives act A) according to their conscience at all times. B) mostly according to their conscience and occasionally in line with constituents. C) equally according to conscience and in line with constituents. D) in line with constituents, unless constituents' views contradict representatives' personal views. E) in line with constituents, even if those views contradict representatives' personal views. 9) When a member of Congress advocates on behalf of a constituent who has an issue with a bureaucratic agency, they are playing the role of A) legislator. B) caseworker. C) ombudsperson. D) trustee. E) instructed delegate. Version 1 2  10) Identify the correct chronological order of a legislative bill's passage. A) introduction, committee review, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, presidential approval B) introduction, conference committee reconciliation, committee review, House and Senate approval, presidential approval C) introduction, committee review, House and Senate approval, conference committee reconciliation, presidential approval D) committee review, introduction, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, presidential approval E) introduction, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, committee review, presidential approval 11) The wooden box into which House members insert proposed bills is known as the A) matchbox. B) hopper. C) earmark. D) jumper. E) casket. 12) Permanent committees with a defined legislative jurisdiction are known as A) lead committees. B) subcommittees. C) select committees. D) standing committees. E) joint committees. 13) A procedural move that attempts to halt the passage of a bill is called a A) billabuster. B) filibuster. C) nuclear option. D) vote of cloture. E) veto. Version 1 3 CHAPTER 13 STUDY GUIDE 14) How many electors must a presidential candidate secure in the Electoral College to be elected president? A) 270 B) 288 C) 435 D) 438 E) 538 15) The formal process of certifying a presidential election. A) takes place on the Monday following the second Wednesday of December. B) takes place on Wednesday, the day after the presidential election. C) takes place when the slate of electors chosen in each state meet in a joint session to cast their electoral votes. D) begins with the announcement in a joint session of Congress on January 20th. E) takes place within two weeks of the election. 16) Executive agreements are considered to be in force for how long? A) forever—they are the same as treaties B) for 100 years C) for as long as that political party retains presidential power D) for 8 years E) for the term of the administration that negotiates them 17) Which of the following is NOT a power vested in the president by the Constitution? A) serve as supreme military commander of the armed forces B) the power to declare war C) deciding when to send troops into battle D) control over military strategy E) act as supreme military commander of the Coast Guard 18) Many vice presidents have served a largely________ role, performing tasks such as visiting foreign nations. A) political B) ideological C) ceremonial D) informal E) bureaucratic Version 1 4  19) How many departments serve under the cabinet, the group of experts chosen as advisers by the president? A) 10 B) 12 C) 15 D) 24 E) 28 20) Which president began the practice of using a cabinet to assist in executive governance? A) George Washington B) James Madison C) Thomas Jefferson D) John Adams E) Andrew Jackson 21) Who was the first black secretary of state? A) Condoleeza Rice B) Thurgood Marshall C) Colin Powell D) Eric Holder E) Lisa Jackson 22) Which of these offices acts as the launch pad for the implementation of presidential policy? A) Executive Office of the President (EOP) B) Council of Economic Advisors C) National Security Council D) Office of Management and Budget E) White House counsel 23) Which office within the Executive Office of the President is responsible for the creation of the president's annual budget? A) Bureau of the Budget B) Office of Management and Budget C) Department of the Treasury D) Office of the Chief of Staff E) Federal Reserve Version 1 5  24) The illness of which president led to his wife assuming some of his responsibilities and decision making? A) John F. Kennedy B) Lyndon Johnson C) Bill Clinton D) George H. W. Bush E) Woodrow Wilson 25) During the Civil War, President Lincoln suspended the civil liberties of alleged agitators and drafted state militias into national service. He did this using what set of powers that are used during times of national crisis? A) emergency powers B) statutory powers C) inherent powers D) executive privilege E) executive orders CHAPTER 14 STUDY GUIDE 26) Senior executives of the national bureaucracy, known as Senior Executive Service (SES) bureaucrats A) are non-career and temporary appointees hired without open, competitive procedures. B) make up the majority of the national bureaucracy. C) All of these answers are correct. D) are political appointees that can be hired and fired by the president for any reason. E) ensure that the executive management of the Government of the United States is responsive to the needs, policies, and goals of the Nation and otherwise is of the highest quality. 27) According to Max Weber, bureaucracies possess which of the following features? A) division of labor and specialization of job tasks B) hiring systems based on worker competency C) hierarchy with a vertical chain of command D) standard operating procedures E) All of these answers are correct. Version 1 6  28) Senior executive service (SES) positions are A) political appointments. B) civil service positions. C) congressionally appointed. D) hybrids of political appointments and civil service positions. E) congressionally appointed civil service positions. 29) Which title of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination in personnel practices based on race, color, ethnicity, age, and disabilities that can be reasonably accommodated? A) Title I B) Title III C) Title V D) Title VI E) Title VII 30) Which title of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits federally funded institutions from discriminating in educational opportunities on the basis of race, color, ethnicity, age, and disabilities that can be reasonably accommodated? A) Title I B) Title III C) Title V D) Title VI E) Title VII 31) Federal civil servants can be fired for poor work quality, or A) belligerence. B) recalcitrance. C) misfeasance. D) malfeasance. E) nonfeasance. 32) Which president proposed the civil service reforms that led to passage of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978? A) Lyndon Johnson B) Richard Nixon C) Gerald Ford D) Jimmy Carter E) Ronald Reagan Version 1 7  33) According to political scientists, how many stages are there in the public policy cycle? A) three B) four C) five D) six E) seven 34) Which of the following is a part of the federal bureaucracy that primarily serves the legislative branch? A) Government Accountability Office B) Office of Management and Budget C) Council of Economic Advisors D) Office of Government Ethics E) General Services Administration 35) Which of the following open up government functions and documents to the public, ensuring transparency and public access to decision making? A) authorization laws B) executive orders C) appropriations laws D) sunshine laws E)sunset clauses CHAPTER 15: THE COURTS. STUDY GUIDE 36) In the federal judicial system, the main court(s) of original jurisdiction for most cases is/are the A) trial courts. B) trial courts and appeals courts. C) appeals courts and the Supreme Court. D) trial courts and the Supreme Court. E) Supreme Court. 37) Which early landmark case granted the Supreme Court its most significant power? A) Marbury v. Madison B) Dred Scott v. Sandford C) Lochner v. Ellison D) McCulloch v. Maryland E) Bowers v. Hardwick Version 1 8  38) The authority of the Supreme Court to determine the constitutionality of governmental action is known as A) jurisdiction. B) judicial review. C) precedent. D) common law. E) stare decisis. 39) The principle of stare decisis, a Latin phrase that means "let the decision stand," is the basis of the modern legal concept of A) jury trials. B) precedent. C) code law. D) judicial statute. E) the primacy of common law. 40) Which of these special court's processes drew study by the Justice Department’s independent inspector after its involvement in the FBI's Russia investigation? A) Court of International Trade B) U.S. Court of Military Appeals C) U.S. Tax Court D) FISA (Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act) Court E) U.S. Court of Veterans' Appeals 41) How many federal district courts are there in the U.S. court system? A) 13 B) 39 C) 56 D) 76 E) 94 42) How many justices are there on the Supreme Court? A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 11 E) 13 Version 1 9  43) Senatorial courtesy, used today in the selection of________, gives a senator the right to veto an appointment to when the senator and nominee are from the same home state. A) state high court judges B) district court and courts of appeals judges C) state courts of appeals judges D) Senate Judiciary Committee members E) Supreme Court justices 44) A request to the Supreme Court that it review a case that was already decided is made via a(n) A) discuss list. B) writ of certiorari. C) certiorari petition. D) amicus curiae. E) brief. 45) For the Supreme Court to hear a case, how many of the nine justices must want to hear it? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 9 46) A Supreme Court justice who agrees with the majority in a case, but disagrees in whole or in part with the majority opinion, has the option to write a________ opinion. A) minority B) dissenting C) concurring D) supporting E) congruent 47) Judicial policy making includes defending and creating individual rights through A) judicial activism. B) upholding the Bill of Rights. C) the interpretation of laws by the courts. D) upholding legal precedents set by previous courts. E) discretion in applying the legal principle of stare decisis. Version 1 10  48) The concept of a living constitution is most related to which of the following? A) originalism B) the rule of law C) stare decisis D) judicial restraint E) judicial activism CHAPTER 16 STUDY GUIDE 49) Economists cite all of these factors as evidence of a healthy economy EXCEPT A) low unemployment. B) low inflation rate. C) increasing domestic product. D) GDP growth of 2% or higher. E) a decrease in the national tax base. 50) What type of economy is the U.S. economy? A) pure capitalist B) regulated capitalist C) limited capitalist D) limited mercantilist E) regulated socialist 51) Who wrote Wealth of Nations, which argued in favor of a laissez-faire (hands-off) economic system? A) Adam Smith B) Benjamin Franklin C) Thomas Hobbes D) Jean-Jacques Rousseau E) John Locke 52) According to Keynesian economics, what should the government do during an economic boom? A) decrease government spending and possibly increase taxes B) increase taxes and government spending C) decrease taxes and possibly government spending D) increase government spending and decrease taxes E) increase government spending despite decreased revenues Version 1 11  53) Fiscal policy is a combination of________ policy and________ policy. A) tax; currency B) tax; economic C) tax; spending D) economic; currency E) budget; spending 54) Which of the following statements about monetarism is true? A) It argues for the deregulation of the money supply. B) It believes that too much money in circulation leads to high inflation. C) It believes that too much money in circulation creates deflationary pressures on the economy. D) It is based on the belief that discretionary spending by the government is necessary for a healthy economy. E) It advocates cutting taxes and deregulating business to stimulate the economy. 55) Which economist developed the theory of monetarism? A) John Maynard Keynes B) Adam Smith C) David Ricardo D) Milton Friedman E) Walt Rostow 56) Which of the following is/are among the criteria used by the United Nations to comparatively assess global living standards in the Human Development Index (HDI)? A) a long and healthy life, educational opportunities, and decent standard of living B) access to food, clothing, and shelter C) living, fuel, and transportation costs D) physical health, income levels, and educational access E) access to adequate medical care, food, and shelter 57) Payroll taxes fund A) emergency funds like the COVID-19 relief package. B) transportation and infrastructure projects. C) Social Security and Medicare. D) homeowner's credits and low-income tax credits. E) poverty programs and government loans to small businesses. Version 1 12  58) What date signals the beginning of the national government's fiscal year (FY)? A) January 1 B) April 1 C) July 1 D) August 1 E) October 1 59) What type of tax takes a larger percentage of wealthier taxpayers' income and a smaller percentage of the income of those who earn less? A) progressive tax B) proportional tax C) regressive tax D) direct tax E) indirect tax CHAPTER 17 STUDY GUIDE 60) The complexity and breadth of the federal government's domestic responsibilities have grown due to A) the plurality of citizens' policy priorities. B) the diversity of needs and expectations. C) politicians' hesitancy to eliminate programs. D) politicians' refusal to decrease program costs. E) All of these answers are correct. 61) Safety net programs A) are generally supported by those with a conservative ideology. B) deal exclusively with the economic well-being of citizens. C) are a group of policies that concern public safety and national security issues. D) are programs that seek to ensure that the physiological needs of citizens are met. E) are rarely supported by those that are liberal in inclination, like Democrats. 62) All of the following are considered cash transfers EXCEPT. A) in-kind assistance. B) Social Security checks. C) the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program. D) Medicaid services. E) tax breaks. Version 1 13  63) Government benefits guaranteed to all who meet the eligibility requirements are best known as________ programs. A) entitlement B) contributory C) social insurance D) noncontributory E) limited-access 64) Which of the following events served as a catalyst for the development of a U.S. energy policy? A) election of Ronald Reagan B) explosion of toxic waste site in Elizabeth, New Jersey C) construction of the Keystone XL pipeline D) oil spill from the Exxon Valdez E) OPEC oil embargo 65) What was the first U.S. climate change policy, enacted in 2015? A) Kyoto Protocol B) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act C) Clean Power Plan D) American First Energy Plan E) Strategic Petroleum Reserve 66) Which of the following is true of the way TANF is designed and administered? A) TANF has helped more low-income women stay at home to raise young children, a core goal of the program. B) The money comes from the federal government, but states determine eligibility, benefits, and programs. C) A family can receive TANF benefits indefinitely, but only if a minimum of part-time employment is proven. D) Education and training programs do not qualify a potential beneficiary to receive payments. E) TANF is generally more successful during times of economic downturn or poor health for the U.S. economy. Version 1 14  67) Under the 1996 Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (PRWORA), Temporary Assistance to Needy Families (TANF) replaced the AFDC program. TANF is different from AFDC because it A) deals with both single family and two-family households. B) is not an entitlement program. C) takes all flexibility away from the states and replaces it with strict federal regulations. D) does not have work requirements. E) is not concerned with children's parentage. 68) Which president's "Great Society" plan created government programs such as Medicare and Medicaid? A) Dwight Eisenhower B) John F. Kennedy C) Lyndon B. Johnson D) Richard Nixon E) Jimmy Carter 69) How does the Affordable Care Act affect Medicaid? A) It reduces Medicaid benefits and provides the smaller benefits through the Affordable Care Act. B) It ended all Medicaid benefits. C) It requires that Medicaid services be merged with Medicare. D) It allows states to expand Medicaid for low-income people. E) It made Medicaid the centerpiece of health care in the United States. CHAPTER 18. STUDY GUIDE 70) Which of the following executive departments have the largest roles in shaping United States foreign policy? A) State and Homeland Security B) State and Defense C) State and the Treasury D) Treasury and Defense E) Defense and Homeland Security Version 1 15  71) Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the formulation of foreign policy? A) The State Department and the National Security Council focus on long-term objectives, while the president tends to focus on short-term goals. B) The State Department tends to take a long-term view of world affairs, while the National Security Council focuses on short-term objectives. C) The State Department, the National Security Council, and the president all maintain the same foreign policy objectives and are careful not to have competing viewpoints. D) The president focuses on long-term objectives, while the State Department and the National Security Council tend to focus on short-term goals. E) The National Security Council tends to take a long-term view of world affairs, while the State Department focuses on short-term objectives. 72) Which president first warned of the rising influence of the military-industrial complex? A) Franklin D. Roosevelt B) Harry S. Truman C) Dwight D. Eisenhower D) John F. Kennedy E) Lyndon B. Johnson 73) Generally, public opinion plays a________ role in shaping and influencing foreign policy in comparison to the role it plays in domestic issues. A) nonexistent B) small C) very similar D) more influential E) dramatically greater 74) What term is used for the influence of domestic interests on foreign policy? A) intermestics B) inter-foreign relations C) isolationism D) interventionism E) pre-emption Version 1 16  75) Which president introduced the notion of the United States as an "international police power"? A) William McKinley B) Theodore Roosevelt C) William Howard Taft D) Woodrow Wilson E) Herbert Hoover 76) The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is an example of which of the following? A) international financial organization B) brinksmanship C) détente D) regional security alliance E) mutually assured destruction 77) What was the Soviet Union's response to the creation of NATO? A) enactment of the policy of détente B) refusal to sit on the United Nations Security Council C) institution of the use of containment D) formation of the Warsaw Pact E) refusal to contribute to the Marshall Plan 78) The "Iron Curtain" described the dominance of communism in which region? A) Northern Europe B) Western Europe C) Southern Europe D) Eastern Europe E) Europe as a whole 79) The concept of limited war was first applied in which of the following conflicts? A) World War I B) World War II C) Korean War D) Vietnam War E) First Gulf War Version 1 17  80) Which of the following events is the best example of brinkmanship? A) the Korean War B) the Cold War C) the Cuban Missile Crisis D) President Nixon's visit to China E) the Vietnam War 81) Which presidential doctrine emphasized the responsibility of U.S. allies to provide for their own national defense and sought to improve relations with the Soviet Union and China, the two communist world powers? A) the Truman Doctrine B) the Eisenhower Doctrine C) the Nixon Doctrine D) the Carter Doctrine E) the Reagan Doctrine 82) Détente is most associated with which president? A) Harry Truman B) Dwight Eisenhower C) Lyndon Johnson D) Richard Nixon E) Ronald Reagan 83) Samuel Huntington's clash of civilizations thesis holds that the greatest source of conflict now and in the future will be A) between communism and capitalism. B) between Asia and the West. C) over differences in how to deal with climate change. D) over differences in cultural and religious identity. E) over differences in how to structure the global economy. Version 1 18 GEORGIA POLITICS The Current constitution of the state of Georgia, adopted in 1983, is the a. first constitution b. 4th constitution c. 5th constitution d. 10th constitution Answer: d 2. How old a candidate must be to run for a senate seat in the Georgia General Assembly? a. at least 21 years old b. at least 35 years old c. at least 30 years old d. at least 25 years old Answer: d 3. The Georgia General Assembly has a. 535 voting members b. 236 voting members c. 56 voting members d. 180 voting members e. 100 Senators Answer =b 4. One major difference between the US constitution and the constitution of the state of Georgia is that a. the US constitution is longer than the constitution of the state of Georgia b. the two constitutions are virtually the same c. the constitution of the state of Georgia includes clauses about local governments; the US constitution does not include clauses about local government d. the US constitution includes the Bill of Rights; the constitution of the state of Georgia does not include the Bill of Rights. Answer = c 5. The executive power of the governor of Georgia is plural executive. This means a. that the governor has an unchecked appointment power b. that the governor has a very limited appointment power c. that no officials in the executive departments in Georgia are elected d. that all the officials in the executive departments in Georgia are elected Answer= a 6. What does Home rule means? a. It means that local governments cannot rule themselves in any matter Version 1 19  b. It means that local governments can practice self-government in specific areas determined by the state government. c. It means that the Dillon rule has not affect whatsoever. d. It means that the state of Georgia has no power over the local government Answer = b 7. Unlike the US Congress legislative calendar, the Georgia General Assembly has 40 legislative days. a. True b. False Answer = a 8. Unlike the president of the United States, the governor of Georgia can pick and choose parts of legislation he/she agrees with and rejects parts he/she disagrees with (line-item veto) a. True b. False Answer = a 9. Unlike Federal judges who are appointed, the state judges in Georgia are usually elected a. True b. False Answer = a 10. Dillon’s Rule limits local government’s power to what has been specifically allocated to them by the state government in local matters. a. True b. False Answer = a Version 1 20 1) Version 1 21