Past Papers - Breast Cancer Diagnosis PDF

ehealth 1) What is a key limitation of mammography in patients with dense breast tissue? A) Difficulty in B) Low image C) Overlapping D) High radiation identifying glandular resolution tissue structures exposure tissue 2) Which imaging method is recommended for...

ehealth 1) What is a key limitation of mammography in patients with dense breast tissue? A) Difficulty in B) Low image C) Overlapping D) High radiation identifying glandular resolution tissue structures exposure tissue 2) Which imaging method is recommended for detecting cancer in glandular breast tissue when mammography and ultrasound are ineffective? A) Ultrasound B) MRI C) Doppler Ultrasound D) Colorless 3) When is MRI most commonly used in breast cancer imaging? A) For all patients, B) As a first-line C) When D) In routine regardless of risk. imaging technique mammography annual checkups. for dense breast and ultrasound tissue. results are ambiguous. 4) Why is detecting breast cancer more difficult in patients with dense breast tissue? A) Because dense tissue appears darker in imaging. B) Dense breast tissue can obscure tumors, making them harder to detect in traditional imaging like mammography C) Because dense tissue makes the patient feel more pain during imaging. D) Because dense tissue doesn’t allow the use of contrast agents. 5) What is the sensitivity of mammography in detecting breast cancer in dense breasts? A) 80-90% B) 50-60% C) 60-70% D) 30-40% 6) Which imaging technique is particularly useful for reducing tissue overlap and improving breast cancer detection in dense breasts? A) Tomosynthesis B) Ultrasound C) Mammography D) Elastography  ehealth 7) Which imaging technique is indicated when mammography and ultrasound provide ambiguous results in breast cancer diagnosis? A) Magnetic B) Elastography C) Tomosynthesis D) Contrast- resonance imaging enhanced (MRI) mammography 8) What is the main limitation of mammography in women with dense breasts? A) Mammography is less effective in detecting malignant tumours. B) It cannot detect calcifications. C) Mammography sensitivity is reduced to 30-40%. D) It is not suitable for preoperative staging. 9) Which technique provides a 3D view of the breast? (D) A) Mammography B) Ultrasound C) X-ray D) Tomosynthesis 10) Which advantage does ultrasound provide for breast cancer detection? (C) A) It always provides better results than mammography B) It is useful for less dense tissues C) It is useful for denser tissues D) Ultrasound is not used in breast cancer detection 11)Which if these techniques are used to detect breast cancer? A) Ultrasound B) Mammography C) Tomosynthesis D) All of them 12)What is the objective of breast imaging? A) To determine the patient's body mass index (BMI). B) To detect lesions in the smallest size to lower any health risk for the patient. C) To evaluate the patient's overall cardiovascular health. D) To detect hormonal imbalances related to breast tissue. 13)What imaging method is ideal for imaging when we want to reduce tissue overlap in breast cancer detection? A) 2D B) Tomosynthesis C) Ultrasound D) Contrast mammography Enhanced Mammography  ehealth 14)What is the recommended frequency for breast cancer screening for women aged 50 to 69? A) 6 months B) Every year C) Every 2 years D) Once in a lifetime 15) Which of the following is considered the most common technique for breast cancer diagnosis? A) Ultrasound B) Mammography C) MRI D) Elastography 16) Which of the following statements about MRI for breast cancer diagnosis is false? A) It is useful when the results of a mammography or ultra-sound are not clear B) It can be applied to the two breasts at the same time C) It can detect multiple tumours D) It requires ionizing radiation 17) Which imaging technique is most effective in reducing the issue of overlapping tissue structures in breast imaging? Answer: C A) Traditional 2D B) Ultrasound C) Tomosynthesis D) Contrast- Mammography (3D enhanced Mammography) mammography 18) In which cases is a breast MRI generally recommended according to the seminar? Answer: B A) Routine screenings for all women aged 50 to 69 years B) When clinical and radiological findings are discordant C) For all women regardless of their risk factors D) When breast density is below average 19) Which imaging technique is useful for reducing the overlap of tissues in breast cancer screening? A) Mammography B) Tomosynthesis C) Ultrasound D) Contrast- enhanced ultrasound 20) At what age range is breast cancer screening typically recommended for healthy women? A) 30-45 years B) 20-40 years C) 50-69 years D) 70-85 years  ehealth 21)How does a malignant tumour commonly look like in 2D ultrasound? A) With irregular B) Rounded C) Always has an D) Like a benign borders oval shape tumour 22)Which of these techniques used in breast cancer detection use ionizing radiation? A) Thomosynthesis B) Ultrasound C) Elastography D) MRI 23)A malign tumour: A) Grows fast B) Has soft C) Grows D) A and B are contours slowly correct 24)About the Contrast Enhanced Mammography, which sentence is false? A) Contrast is injected B) It can be performed in any digital mammograph. C) It will not be used in the future D) In the final image the lesion is enhanced. 25) What advantage does tomosynthesis have over 2D mammography? A) It uses lower B) It is faster than C) It provides D) It reduces tissue radiation doses. traditional larger images of overlap in images. mammography. the breast. 26) In what situations is breast MRI indicated as a diagnostic tool? A) For routine screening in all women. B) When ultrasound or mammography results are ambiguous or unclear. C) For every breast cancer patient prior to surgery. D) As the first imaging tool to detect breast cancer.  ehealth 27)What does a density classification of “D” indicate in breast tissue? A) Predominantly B) Very dense C) Moderately D) No breast fatty breast breast dense breast tissue present 28) In a mammogram, why is pressure applied to the breast cancer? A) To make procedure faster B) To increase radiation exposure C) To enhance pain D) To reduce movement and improve image quality 29) What is the primary objective of breast imaging? Correct = A A) To detect B) To monitor C) To examine D) To analyze lesions in the breast tissue post- the overall health breast density smallest size and at surgery of breast tissue changes over time a lower stage for better long-term survival 30) Which view is commonly used in mammography for screening breast cancer? Correct = A A) Craniocaudal (CC) and mediolateral oblique (MLO) B) Anterior-posterior (AP) view C) Full Frontal D) Quasicausal-landscape 31) What is the main goal of breast cancer imaging? A) Detect lesions in B) provide high C) Detect lesions D) Avoid 3D latest stages resolution of all at the smallest size imaging organs for better long- term survival 32) What is the purpose of the BI-RADS system? A) To assess breast cancer patient’s eligibility for surgery B) To classify breast lesions based on imaging findings C) To measure the effectiveness of chemotherapy D) To prioritize patients for MRI over mammography  ehealth 33)What MRI field strength is the minimum requirement for breast imaging? A) 1.5T B) 2 T C) 3 T D) 0.5 T 34)What is the main goal of breast imaging ? A) Detect fat tissue B) Locate pectoral muscle C) Detect lesions at smallest stage D) None 35) Which imaging technique provides 3D images to reduce tissue overlap in breast examinations? A) Ultrasound B) Contrast-enhanced C) Tomosynthesis D) MRI mammography 36) How does breast density affect the sensitivity of mammography in detecting breast cancer? A) Increased breast density improves mammography sensitivity. B) Higher breast density decreases mammography sensitivity C) Breast density has no impact on mammography sensitivity. D) Lower breast density decreases mammography sensitivity. 37)Which of the following imaging techniques is most used for the early detection of breast cancer? A) Breast ultrasound B) Tomosynthesis C) Mammography D) Magnetic resonance imaging 38)Which imaging technique is best suited to assess breast cancer in women with a high genetic risk or dense breasts? A) Mammography B) Ultrasound C) Magnetic resonance imaging D) Computed tomography 39) What view is used in mammography to detect breast lesions? A) Axial view B) Mediolateral oblique C) Transverse D) Sagittal view (MLO) and craniocaudal view (CC) views 40) What is the BI-RADS system used for in breast imaging? A) It classifies lung diseases B) It is a reporting system for breast imaging findings C) It assesses bone density D) It measures blood pressure  ehealth 1) Which structure of the heart is characterized by a thin wall, a trabeculated appendage, and regulates blood flow from the lungs to the left ventricle? A) Pulmonary B) Left atrium C) Right ventricle D) Mitral valve artery 2) Which of the following cardiac imaging techniques is used for assessing atrial thrombi and guiding interventional procedures like patent foramen ovale closure? A) Computed tomography (CT) B) Cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) C) Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) D) Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) 3) In a color Doppler, the flow approaching the transducer is seen.... A) Green B) Yellow C) Red D) Blue 4) Which of the following ECG modalities is completely harmless? A) Transthoracic B) Transesophageal C) Stress D) Contrast 5)Which cardiac structure is commonly studied using echocardiography? A) Left Ventricle B) Right Atrium C) Left Atrium D) Pulmonary Vein 6)Which is one of the main advantages of transthoracic echocardiography? A) Invasiveness B) Fast and portable C) Requires extensive software D) High radiation exposure 7) Which one of the following is not an echocardiography modality? (C) A) Color Doppler B) M-Mode C) Fluoroscopy D) CW Doppler 8) Which one is not a type of echocardiography? (A) A) Radial B) Transthoracic C) Stress D) Transesophagial  ehealth 9)Which cardiac imaging technique do we most commonly perform for the study of the left atrium? A) Cardiac CT B) Cardiac C) Cardiac MR D) Echocardiography Catheterization 10)These are the functions of the left atrium, except. Which one? A) Detoxification B) Neurohormonal C) Regulatory D) Mechanical 11)Which cardiac imaging technique is most commonly performed for the study of the left atrium? A) Cardiac B) C) Cardiac MRI D) Cardiac CT Echocardiography Catheterization 12)Which echocardiographic modality provides the most information and accuracy but requires additional software and hardware? A) 3D Echocardiography B) 2D Echocardiography C) Color Doppler D) M-Mode 13) All but one are non-invasive techniques of cardiac study. A) CT B) SPECT C) CMR D) Coronariography 14) What is Echocardiography? A)The study of the Left Atrium. B)The study of the Right Atrium. C)The study of the Left Ventricle. D)The study of the Right Ventricle. 15) What is the main purpose of echocardiography in the study of the heart? A) To assess liver B) To create an C) To measure D) To analyze lung function image of the heart blood sugar levels capacity using ultrasound 16) Which structure does the left atrium receive blood from? A) Right ventricle B) Aorta C) Pulmonary veins D) Superior vena cava  ehealth 17)Which structures can be seen in an open chest (e.g. open-heart surgery)? A) The left B) The right C) The right D) B and C atrium atrium ventricle 18)Which of the following is a harmless echocardiography technique to study the left atrium? A) Transesophageal B) Transthoracic C) Stress D) Contrast 19)Which of the following is most commonly used to study the severity and mechanism od mistral stenosis? A) Transoesophageal B) Contrast C) Stress Echo D) None Echo Echo 20) Which is the primary purpose of colour Doppler in echocardiography? A) To create 3D images of the heart B) To visualize coronary arteries C) To evaluate blood flow and pressure D) To asses myocardial stress under exercise 21)Why cardiac CT is not recommended to study the heart? A) B) Expensive C) It cannot D) It provides Radiation visualize left limited information Exposure atrium on wall movement 22)Which of the following is not a non-invasive technique for studying the heart? A) Echocardiography B) Cardiac Magnetic Resonance (CMR) C) Coronarography D) Positron Emission Tomography (PET) 23)Which one of these is not a technique used in echocardiography? A) Transoesophageal B) Pulsed Wave C) Speckle D) Continuous Echocardiography (PW) Doppler Tissue Doppler Wave (CW) (TEE) Doppler 24)Which of these techniques are non-invasive? A) Transthoracic Echocardiography (TTE) B) Left Atrium common surgery C) Coronary Angiography D) Cardiac Catheterization  ehealth 25) Which of the following is a key difference of echocardiography in cardiac imaging and other methods? A) It provides B) It requires C) It is portable D) It is an invasive radiation-based extensive and provides quick method. imaging. equipment and diagnostics. time. 26) Which echocardiographic modality is most used for assessing the severity and mechanism of mitral valve regurgitation or stenosis? A) Transthoracic echocardiography B) Cardiac magnetic resonance C) Coronariography D) Transesophageal echocardiography 27)Which of the following is the most used echocardiography technique for cardiac imaging? A) Transthoracic B) Transesophageal C) Stress Echo D) Contrast Echo Echo Echo (correct answer) 28)Which of the following is used in echocardiography? A) X-Ray B) Ultrasound waves (correct answer) C) Radio waves D) Magnetic waves 29) Which imaging modality offers more detailed information for studying progressive and relapsing forms of MS? A) Conventional B) Non- C) CT Scan D) X-ray MRI conventional MRI 30) What is the main benefit of using FLAIR (Fluid-attenuated inversion recovery) MRI in diagnosing MS? A) It helps visualize brainstem lesions more clearly. B) It suppresses the cerebrospinal fluid, making white matter lesions easier to see. C) It shortens the time needed to perform MRI scans. D) It is primarily used to detect spinal cord damage. 31)Which of the following echocardiographic modalities is the most appropriate for the most accurate assessment of mitral valve anatomy and function? A) Doppler echocardiography B) 2D echocardiography C) 3D echocardiography D) Contrast echocardiography  ehealth 32)Which of the following is a key benefit of three-dimensional (3D) echocardiography compared to two-dimensional (2D) echocardiography? A) Lower equipment cost B) Increased temporal resolution C) Improved visualisation of complex structures D) No Doppler is required 33) Which imaging technique is most commonly used for studying the left atrium? A) Cardiac CT B) Cardiac MR C)Echocardiography D) Cardiac Catheterization 34) Which type of echocardiography is frequently used to assess mitral valve regurgitation or stenosis? A) Transthoracic Echocardiography B) Transoesophageal Echocardiography C) Cardiac CT D) Cardiac MR 35)Why is ECG preferred over CT techniques for left atrium studies? A) It is not B) Because it is C) Because there D) Because it is preferred harmless, portable are not CT easier to use over CT and fast techniques available 36)What is the color of a turbulent blood flow in a color doppler approach? A) Green/yellow B) Blue C) white D) black 37) Which of the following echocardiographic techniques is most commonly used for studying the left atrium? A) B) C) D) Transesophageal X-ray PET Scan Mammography Echocardiography 38) The left atrium has three main functions. Which of the following is not one of them? A) Respiration B) Reproduction C) Hemodynamic function D) Cognitive functions  ehealth 39)What is the most common imaging technique used for the study of the left atrium? A) Echocardiography B) Cardiac C) Cardiac D) Catheterization CT MRI 40)Which of the following is a common indication for the use of transesophageal echocardiography in studying the left atrium? A) To calculate left ventricular output B) To evaluate atrial fibrillation and potential thrombus formation C) To measure the size of the pulmonary veins D) To assess calcium in the atrial wall  ehealth 1) What is the HIS (Hospital Information System) used for? A) Storing physical B) Managing C) Providing D) Organizing medical records patients' electronic communication training programs clinical history, between hospitals for healthcare medication, and and insurance workers billing companies 2) Which of the following is considered a significant cybersecurity threat in the hospital? A) Staff shortages B) Inadequate storage capacity C) Phishing and malware attacks D) Obsolete medical equipment 3)What is not consider the important thing of having in-house software development in hospital? A) Adaptability B) Cost Efficiency C) Data privacy D) To make more to Regulatory and security job opportunities requirements to people 4) HCI (Hyper-converged infrastructure) is a software-define IT infrastructure. What is not the benefits of using HCI? A) Helps avoiding single point of failure B) Back up integrated C) Easy access to third party deployment D) Disaster Recovery 5) Which cybersecurity risk is most associated with external emails in hospitals? A) Phishing B) Smishing C) Malware from D) Vishing USB 6) What is the purpose of using PACS in a hospital’s IT system? A) Storing and providing access to medical images from different modalities B) Managing pharmaceutical inventory C) Scheduling surgical operations D) Automating patient billing 7)What technology is used to avoid failures like SAN single point of failure in hospital servers? A) Cloud B) Local C) HIS (Hospital D) HCI (Hyper- computing networks Information converged System) infrastructure)  ehealth 8) What is the purpose of the HL7 standard in the hospital environment? A) To facilitate the integration and exchange of medical information between different software systems in the hospital B) Brings guidelines and security information for patient information and data as medical images C) To manage patient information and medical images archives more efficient D) To give a proper and standardized methodology for medical images storing 9) Which aspect of the hospital's IT system is responsible for managing patient data and administrative processes? A) Hospital B) Cybersecurity C) Server D) None of the Information protocols management above System (HIS) 10) Why is server virtualization important in the IT infrastructure? A) It eliminates the need for cybersecurity measures B) It improves physical security C) Increases the server’s speed D) It reduces the need for physical servers and increases flexibility 11) What is the software that is responsible for the electronic management of imaging diagnostic departments? A) PACS B) HIS C) RIS D) Mirth Integration Engine 12) What is the primary role of the Hospital Information System (HIS), and why is it crucial for hospital operations? A) The HIS is used o for managing medical images, ensuring they are stored and archived securely. B) The HIS functions as an electronic medical record (EMR) system, managing patient data, appointments, and clinical histories, billing and various other data regarding medical records. C) The HIS is responsible for scheduling and execute surgeries. D) The HIS provides real-time updates on hospital inventory and medication distribution 13) which technology virtualizes all elements of hardware defined systems including; computing, storage and networking ? A) Virtualization B) HIS C) RIS D) HCI  ehealth 14) What is the most important software in hospitals? A) PACS B) RIS C) HIS D) HCI 15)Which one of the following is the most important software in the hospital? A) HIS (correct B) Google Drive C) ImageJ D) Microsoft answer) Office 16)Which of the following is not a category of phishing attack on a hospital? A) Email B) Telephone Calls C) SMS D) DDoS (correct answer) 17) Which of the following software in Clinica Girona manages security cameras? A) Looker B) Vigiplus ✔ C) Philips D) Desigo CC 18) Which of the following departmental software in Clinica Girona manages opthalmological history? A) LabSuite B) M4Dsys ✔ C) Endotools D) Gestpath 19) What is the primary purpose of the Hospital Information System (HIS) in a hospital? A) To manage B) To perform C) To provide D) To conduct patient data and surgical procedures entertainment for research studies medical records patients 20) Which of the following is NOT a function of the PACS A) Storing medical images B) Enabling access to diagnostic images C) Managing patient billing D) Facilitating the retrieval of X-ray results 21)What is the primary function of the Hospital Information System (HIS)? A)To manage B)To archive C)To store electronic health D) To patient’s medical images records and facilitate the manage appointments workflow in hospitals finances  ehealth 22)Which system is used for storing and accessing medical images in a hospital? A)HIS B)RIS C)PACS D)ERP 23) What is one of the primary benefits of using hyper-converged architecture (HCI) in a hospital setting? A) Increases B) Mitigates risks C) Reduces the D) Limits the types the number associated with need for medical of software used of users single point of imaging failure 24) What is a key reason for the collaboration between engineers and healthcare professionals in hospital IT systems? A) To reduce the number of software programs used B) To ensure compliance with government regulations C) To develop tools that meet the demands of modern healthcare D) To limit the use of advanced technologies 25) What different measures are used by Clinica Girona for cybersecurity A)Multi Factor B) Upgrading and C)Next generation D)All of the above Authentication patching the system firewall 26) What does the clínica Girona use to avoid SAN single point of faliure. A) Virtualized computing B) Software-defined storage C) Software-defined networking D) Hyper-converged infrastructure 27) Which of the following is one of the key challenges faced by the IT department during the move to the new Clínica Girona building? A) Lack of B) Integration of C) Scaling IT services to D) Establishing a trained IT new software with accommodate the new cybersecurity professionals outdated building’s tripled framework for the infrastructure surface area hospital 28) What is the purpose of the Hospital Information System (HIS) in Clínica Girona? A) To manage the hospital’s cybersecurity framework and monitor external threats. B) To store and manage patients' electronic clinical history, medical orders, and appointments, as well as handle billing, logistics, and pharmacy management. C) To integrate AI-based systems for image analysis and automated triage. D) To monitor and control medical devices like MRI machines and X-ray systems in real-time.  ehealth 29)Which system ensures the protection of hospital data? A) Firewall B) VPN C) Intranet D) Cybersecurity 30) Which software system in Clinica Girona is primarily used to manage and store medical images such as X-rays and MRIs? A) Lab Information System (LIS) B) Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) C) Radiology Information System (RIS) D) Electronic Health Records (EHR) 31)Why do Europeans hospitals tend to have physical servers rather than using cloud storage? A) Data B) Expensive C) Not efficient D) It’s slow protection and EU regulations 32) What is the HCI (Hyper-converged infrastructure) technology used for? A) To avoid single point failure B) To register patient information more effectively C) For cybersecurity D) Automatic cancer diagnosis 33)What does HIS stand for (in the context of this seminar)? A) Hospital B) Health C) Heart Imaging D) Hormonal Information Improvement Suite Intervention System Strategy Scheme (Correct) 34)What is the main cybersecurity threat that healthcare institutions face today? A) Hardware failure B) Cyberattacks such as phishing, malware, and vishing (Correct) C) Lack of network connectivity D) Poor software performance  ehealth 35) Who acts in the hospital theater? A) Doctors B) Patients C) Providers D) All the previous 36) A medical imaging technology which provides economical storage and convenient access to images from multiple modalities A) HIS B) PACS C) HCI D) All the previous 37)What is the primary function of a Hospital Information System (HIS) in a hospital? A) Management of B) Collection and C) Electronic D) Scheduling patient diets archiving of management of patient diagnostic images patient’s clinical appointments and history, doctor availability medication, and logistics 38) Which technology is mentioned in the presentation for managing the integration of electronic receipt and shared clinical history with Catalonia's health system? A) Mirth B) Intersystems Ensemble C) Looker D) PACS 39) What is HIS? A) Hospital Imaging B) Hospital C) Healthcare D) Health Software Information Interactive System Infrastructure System Solution 40) What is a hyperconverged infrastructure? A) A system that integrates multiple devices into one network B) A communication protocol between hospitals C) A system for managing clinical images D) Software-defined IT infrastructure that virtualizes all elements of conventional systems  ehealth 1) What type of cognitive functions does the MS-line project primarily aim to improve? A) Visual B) Motor skills C) Language D) Memory and perception skills executive functions 2) In the context of the MS-line project, what does "single-blind" mean? A) Participants do not know which group they are in B) Researchers do not know which participants are in which group C) Both participants and researchers are unaware of group assignments D) Only the control group is unaware of the intervention 3) What is one of the main advantages of the MS-Line platform for cognitive rehabilitation in Multiple Sclerosis (MS) patients? A) It requires B) It offers a free C) It provides levels D) It is exclusively patients to visit a professional of difficulty, focused on clinic daily license for all users allowing gradual physical progress rehabilitation 4) Which cognitive domain is commonly affected in patients with Multiple Sclerosis (MS), serving as the inspiration for MS-Line, as highlighted in the seminar? A) Visuospatial perception B) Memory and processing speed C) Fluency D) Auditory perception 5) What percentage of patients with Multiple Sclerosis (MS) experience cognitive impairment? A) 43.6 B) 50.5 C) 76.8 D) 34.6 6) Which of the following is NOT part of the materials used in the MS-line! Project? A) Mathematical puzzles B) Crossword puzzles C) Physical therapy exercises D) Computer-based memory games 7) Which does multiple sclerosis affect the most? A) Mobility B) Cognitive C) Fatigue D) Vision Function  ehealth 8) What is EM-Line Memory’s objective? A) To improve physical endurance. B) To enhance visual acuity through interactive activities. C) To assist in cognitive rehabilitation and improve memory retention for individuals with neurological conditions. D) To assess and diagnose neuropsychological disorders through standardized testing. 9)Which of the following is a cure for Multiple Sclerosis: A) There is no B) Lorazepam C) Brain D) Pacemakers cure Neuromodulation 10)Which of the following is true? A) MS Line is consider a medical device. B) MS Line does rehabilitation on nerves with multiple sclerosis C) MS Line substitutes the need of a doctor for Multiple Sclerosis patients. D) MS Line is a free tool for patient with Multiple Sclerosis to slow down the deterioration of patients. 11) What percentage of Multiple Sclerosis (MS) patients experience cognitive impairment? A) 33.3% B) 43.6% C) 50% D) 66.6% 12) How often are MS-line Project participants assessed to monitor their progress? A) Every 3 months B) Every 6 months C) Monthly D) Annually 13) Which of the following capacities can be affected by multiple sclerosis? A) Memory B) Processing C) Executive D) All of them speed function 14) Which of the following is considered the main problem with cognitive rehabilitation? A) There are no problems with cognitive rehabilitation B) There is no treatment C) The adherence to the treatment by the patient D) The high cost of rehabilitation programs  ehealth 15) What percentage of MS patients experience cognitive impairment according to Ruano et al. (2017)? Answer: C A) 70.2% B) 25.3% C) 43.6% D) 60% 16) What is the primary focus of the MS-line project discussed in the seminar? Answer: A A) Addressing cognitive deficits in MS patients B) Physical rehabilitation C) Developing new medications for MS D) Providing financial support for MS patients 17)What percentage of multiple sclerosis patients are unable to work 10 years later from being diagnosed? A)10-30% B) 50-80% C) 40-60% D) 70-90% 18)What is the main difficulty faced in multiple sclerosis rehabilitation? A) Ability of patients to use computers B) Disposing of adequate exercises C) Adherence to treatment D) Teaching the patients how to use the rehabilitation tools 19) Which of the following is NOT a type of material used in the MS-line! Project? A) Mathematical B) Manipulative C) Physical therapy D) Virtual working puzles. hand skill games. exercises. memory romos. 20) Which of the following strategies does the MS-line! Project use to increase patient adherence? A) High-intensity exercises. B) Errorless learning and continuous positive reinforcement. C) Sudden difficulty spikes. D) Manual-only tasks. 21)Who is more affected by MS A) B) Women C) No D) The disease is getting Men difference extinct, it doesn’t matter 22)What is the main objective of the MS-line! Project? A)To create a brain imaging database for MS patients B)To provide a cognitive rehabilitation program for MS patients that is free and home-based C)To develop physical rehabilitation exercises D)To monitor medication adherence in MS patients  ehealth 23)Which cognitive domain is not commonly affected in patients with Multiple Sclerosis? A)Memory B) Executive C) Visual-spatial D) Processing Function processing speed 24)According to the MS-line project, how does the program aim to improve adherence to treatment? A)By offering medication incentives B)By using errorless learning and gradual difficulty increase C)By focusing only on physical exercise D)By providing financial support 25) What is Multiple Sclerosis (MS)? A) A viral infection B) A chronic C) A bacterial D) A genetic affecting the neurological infection that disorder affecting immune system condition affecting targets the liver the lungs the brain and spinal cord 26) What is the goal of the MS-line project? A) To cure Multiple Sclerosis B) To provide physical therapy exercises for MS patients C) To offer interactive cognitive exercises to help slow down cognitive impairment D) To offer dietary advice for MS patients 27)How long does cognitive rehabilitation take for MS patients? A) A) One B) Two C) depends on injury D) Three 28)What is the main goal of MS-Line project? A) Provide cognitive rehabilitation for initial phases of MS B) Cognitive rehabilitation for final phases of MS C) Provide rehabilitation only for physical disabilities D) None 29) What percentage of Multiple Sclerosis patients have cognitive impairment according to 2017 statistical research? A) 33%-34% B) 43%-44% ✔ C) 53%-54% D) 23%-24% 30) How many computer based games are there in the EM line project? A) 23 B) 24 C) 25 D) 26 ✔  ehealth 31)What percentage of patients with MS have cognitive impairment? A)10% B) 3% C) 1% D)43.6% 32) What is the purpose of the MS-line project? A)Physical rehabilitation B)Cognitive rehabilitation C)Financial support D)Medication management 33) What cognitive functions are mainly impaired by MS? A) Memory B) Executive C) Processing D) All of the Functions Speed above 34) What is the biggest challange a neurorehabilitation program like EM-Line face? A) Lack of access to technology for patients. B) Difficulty in diagnosing cognitive impairment in MS patients. C) Adherence to the program. D) High cost of implementing the program. 35) Which of the following is not included in the materials offered by the MS-line project? A)Mathematical B) Computer-based C) Crossword D) Physical therapy problems games puzzles exercises 36) What is one of the key features of the MS-line project for cognitive rehabilitation in MS patients? A) It is only available in hospitals. B) It can be used at home and involves family members. C) It provides rehabilitation materials exclusively for professionals. D) It requires weekly visits to a clinic. 37) What is the main goal of the MS-line project ? A) Provide B) Provide C) Help with MS D) Train healthcare physical cognitive diagnosis professionals for rehabilitation rehabilitation for MS treatment for MS MS patients patients (Correct)  ehealth 38)Which is the most affected function affected in MS patients according to this presentation? A) Executive function (Correct) B) Hearing C) Vision D) Emotion regulation 39) What is the objective of the MS-line? Project for MS patients? A) MS is not B) Offer a home- C) Conduct surgery D) Develop new curable and based cognitive for MS medications for MS treatable so no rehabilitation objective program 40) Which of the following materials is part of the MS line? Project for cognitive rehabilitation? A) Reading books B) Painting exercises C) Cooking recipes D) Mathematical puzzles  ehealth 1) What demographic is primarily affected by Multiple Sclerosis according to the document? A) Elderly B) Children C) Young adults D) Middle-aged individuals men 2) What future direction in MS research is mentioned in the document? A) Development of new imaging techniques B) Increased funding for clinical trials C) Improved public awareness campaigns D) Advancements in personalised medicine and genetic research 3) The phenomenon in MS where a higher lesion load on MRI corresponds to lower disability is called? A) Inflammatory B) Clinical-MRI C) Lesion remission D) Clinical-MRI progression dissociation phenomenon correlation 4) Which environmental factor is linked to the development of MS due to its impact on the immune system’s ability to regulate itself? A) Excessive sugar intake B) Low potassium levels C) High sodium intake D) Vitamin D deficiency 5) What can an MRI scan show in a person with MS? A) Broken bones. B) Brain lesions, C) Changes in D) Only the size of especially inflamed blood pressure. the brain. areas. 6) What is Multiple Sclerosis (MS)? A) A disease that affects the muscles only. B) A disease that affects the heart C) An autoimmune and neurodegenerative disease. D) A type of cancer. 7) Which of the following contributes to the appearance of multiple sclerosis? A)Low vitamin D B)Tobacco C)EBV virus D)All of the above levels  ehealth 8) Which of the following statements about multiple sclerosis is false? A) It is treatable but not curable B) It is both an autoimmune and a degenerative disease C) Treatments focus mainly on the degenerative part of the disease D) In this disease, white blood cells attack neurons in the brain 9) Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of MS? A) Balance issues. B) Vision C) Muscle D) High blood problems. weakness or pressure. spasms. 10) What is one of the main tools used for the diagnosis and prognosis of MS? A) Ultrasound B) MRI C) X-ray D) PET scan 11)Which tool is commonly used for the diagnosis and prognosis of Multiple Sclerosis? A) CT Scan B) X-ray C) MRI D) Ultrasound 12)Which is one of the main challenges in treating Multiple Sclerosis? A) Predictable progression B) Lack of clear prognosis C) Immediate response to treatment D) Uniform treatment for all patients 13) Which tool is mentioned as one of the main methods for diagnosing Multiple Sclerosis? A) MRI B) X-ray C) CT D) Blood Test 14) Which of the following is a potential risk factor that may contribute to the pathogenesis of Multiple Sclerosis? A) High cholesterol B) Obesity C) Vitamin D deficiency D) High blood pressure 15) Which imaging technique is commonly used to monitor MS brain lesions over time? (D) A) CT B) Ultrasound C) X-ray D) MRI  ehealth 16) Which of the following statements is true? (B) A) MS is a bacterial infectious disease B) MS is an autoimmune desease C) MS is only caused by genetics D) There is a cure for MS 17)Which of the following is false for Multiple Sclerosis? A) It does not B) There is no cure C) It is a D) It is affect neurodegenerative autoimmune young disease disease women 18)Which are the main challenges of the Multiple Sclerosis? A) Lack of clear prognosis. B) Needs personalized medicine C) Impact on quality of life D) All of the above 19)Multiple Sclerosis is an autoimmune disease or neurodegenerative disease? A) Autoimmune B) Neurodegenerative C) Both D) disease disease None 20) What are some of the main challenges in MS? Choose the correct answer. A) Chronic and progressive disease affecting young and active people. B) Lack of clear prognosis. C) Requires personalized medicine. D) All the above. 21)What is one of the environmental factors that contributse to Multiple Sclerosis? A) Vitamin D B) High C) High sugar D) Lack of deficiency protein diet intake sleep 22)Which imaging tool is most common to diagnose MS? A) CT B) MRI C) Ultrasound D) X-ray  ehealth 23) Who is more likely to develop Multiple Sclerosis (MS)? A) Men B) Women C) Children D) Elderly people 24) Which diagnostic tool is commonly used to assess Multiple Sclerosis? A) X-ray B) Ultrasound C) MRI D) Blood test 25) The Multiple Sclerosis affects more areas with A) more sunlight B) Less sunlight C) More oxygen D) Less Nitrogen 26) The most used modality to evaluate Multiple Sclerosis is A) MRI B) CT C) Xray D) Ultrasound 27)What type of disease is Multiple Sclerosis? A) An B) An C) Both A and B D) Neither A or B autoimmune inflammatory (Correct) disease disease 28)Which of the following I NOT a risk factor for Multiple Sclerosis? A) Infection by Epstein-Barr Virus B) Low vitamin D C) Smoking D) High vitamin D (Correct) 29)What kind of disease is the MS A) Autoimmune B) C) Both, D) None Neurodegenerative autoimmune and neurodegenerative 30)Why does MS affect more women than men? A) Due to hormonal differences B) Due to lifestyle C) Due to diet D) None  ehealth 31) Which diagnostic tool is primarily used to diagnose Multiple Sclerosis? A) X-ray B) Pet scan C) Ultrasound D) MRI 32) What is one of the key future directions in MS treatment? A) Surgery B) Personalized Medicine C) Radiation therapy D) Gene therapy 33) What type of disease is multiple sclerosis (MS)? A) Infectious B) Autoimmune C) Cardiovascular D) Genetic disorder disease and disease neurodegenerative disease 34) Which tool is commonly used for the diagnosis and prognosis of multiple sclerosis? A) X-rays B) MRI C) Ultrasound D) CT scan 35) Which kind of modalities or methods are usually used for MS diagnosis? A) MRI B) CSF – C) Both of D) None of oligoclonal Them them bands 36) Which factor is not known to contribute to the etiology of MS. A) E. coli B) Amount of Sun C) Smoke D) Genetics  ehealth 37)Which of the following best describes multiple sclerosis (MS)? A) It is a disease that only affects people over the age of 65 B) It is an autoimmune and neurodegenerative disease with a known aetiology C) It is a chronic disease that mainly affects young, active adults D) It is a viral disease that is transmitted from person to person 38) Which technology is considered essential for the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis? A) X-ray B) Computed tomography (CT scan) C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D) Ultrasound 39)What is the main cause of neurological disability in young adults? A)Stroke B) Alzheimer's C)Multiple D)Parkinson's Sclerosis 40) Which of the following is a tool used for diagnosing and managing Multiple Sclerosis? A)ECG B)MRI C)xRay D)US  ehealth 1) According to the PI-RADS v2 classification system, what does a PI-RADS score of 5 indicate? A) Clinically B) Clinically C) Clinically D) Clinically significant prostate significant prostate significant prostate significant cancer is highly cancer is equivocal. cancer is likely to prostate cancer is unlikely to be be present. highly likely to be present. present. 2) What is one of the major challenges with prostate biopsies, particularly when they are guided by ultrasound alone? A) High rates of patient discomfort. B) Low detection rates of clinically significant cancers. C) High detection rates of insignificant cancers. D) Inability to access the central zone of the prostate. 3)What does a Gleason score of 6 usually mean for prostate cancer? A)It indicates an B) It indicates a C) It indicates that D) It indicates that aggressive and low-grade, less the cancer is likely the cancer is high-risk cancer. aggressive form of to spread quickly. benign and does cancer. not need monitoring. 4)What is one of the main advantages of using multiparametric MRI (mpMRI) in prostate cancer diagnosis? A) It reduces the need for invasive biopsies. B) It does not require any imaging expertise to interpret C) It is the new state of the art procedure D) It is less effective than traditional ultrasound 5) In general, prostate cancer is considered… A) A high mortality B) One of the most C) A type of D) All of them cancer common cancers aggressive cancer in men 6) Which of the following statements is true about mpMRI? A) It is used to visualize and diagnose prostate cancer B) It can avoid lots of unnecessary biopsies for prostate cancer diagnosis C) It is a technique which combines T2 + DWI (Diffusion weighted imaging) + DCE (Dynamic contrast enhanced imaging) D) All of them 7) What is the approximate incidence rate of prostate cancer in men? A)2% B)62% C)16% D) 60%  ehealth 8)Which MRI sequence is particularly useful for evaluating the peripheral zone of the prostate? A)DWI B)DCE C)T1WI D)T2WI 9) Which of the following technologies is expected to play a growing role in improving prostate cancer diagnosis, treatment, and follow-up? Answer: A A) Artificial B) Endoscopy C) Computed D) Ultrasound Intelligence (AI) Tomography (CT) 10) Which of the following sequences is most important in identifying prostate cancer in the peripheral zone (PZ) using mpMRI? Answer: B A) T2-weighted imaging B) Diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI) C) Dynamic contrast-enhanced (DCE) imaging D)T1-weighted imaging 11) What is the primary use of multiparametric MRI (mpMRI) in prostate cancer management? A) To treat B) To diagnose, C) To measure D) To cure prostate prostate cancer stage, and monitor blood flow cancer prostate cancer 12) What does a PI-RADS score of 5 indicate? A) Clinically significant cancer is unlikely B) Clinically significant cancer is highly unlikely C) Clinically significant cancer is highly likely D) No cancer is present 13)What is the Gleason score of the least significant prostate cancer? A)1 B) 6 C) 3 D) 2 14)What are the most common MR modalities used to diagnose prostate cancer? A) T1 + Perfusion MRI-DCE B) T2 + DWI/ADC C) T1 + DWI/ADC D) T2 + Perfusion MRI-DCE  ehealth 15)The prostate cancer … A) Is the first B) has low C) It can be D) B and C are mortality mortality aggressive and correct cause in nonaggressive men. 16)The MRI technique… A) Consists of obtaining the signal of the relaxation of the hydrogens after the application of a momentaneous RF pulse. B) ADC provides the velocity of the water molecules. C) Has a b-value related which corresponds to the strength and duration gradients D) All are correct 17) Which of the following imaging techniques is NOT commonly used in multiparametric MRI (mpMRI) for prostate cancer? A) T2-weighted B) Diffusion- C) Dynamic D) Positron imaging (T2WI). weighted imaging contrast enhanced emission (DWI). (DCE-MRI). tomography (PET). 18) What does a PI-RADS score of 4 indicate? A) Clinically significant cancer is unlikely to be present. B) The presence of clinically significant cancer is equivocal. C) Clinically significant cancer is likely to be present. D) Biopsy is not necessary. 19)Which prostate zone is most likely to develop prostate cancer? A) TZ B) CZ C) PZ D) AFMS 20) What information does the DWI sequences provide in a prostate mpMRI? A) The level of tumor vascularity B) The movement of water molecules within tissues C) The appearance of lymph nodes D) The degree of inflammation 21) What is the primary technique used for prostate cancer diagnosis and management in this presentation? Correct = A A) B) CT C) Ultrasound D) X-Ray MRI  ehealth 22) Which scoring system is used to report MRI findings for prostate cancer diagnosis? Correct = A A) PI-RADS B) WHO Cancer Staging C) TMM D) XYZ 23)How does MRI generate an image from the excitation and relaxation of hydrogen atoms? A) B) C) D) By detecting By visualizing By analyzing the By measuring the radiofrequency direct tissue heat generated by electrical signals emitted structure without the hydrogen resistance in during hydrogen the need for atoms in the tissues. nuclei’s relaxation hydrogen magnetic field. in a magnetic field. excitation. 24)What is the purpose of Multiparametric MRI (MpMRI) in prostate cancer detection? A)To measure the amount of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) in the blood. B)To combine various MRI sequences to improve accuracy in detecting prostate cancer. C)To directly remove cancerous tissues using radiation. D)To visualize the prostate without any external imaging technique. 25) Which prostate zone is most commonly affected by prostate cancer? A) Central zone B) Transition zone C) Peripheral zone D) Anterior zone 26) What is a significant advantage of mpMRI in prostate cancer diagnosis compared to standard biopsy? A) It avoids the need for follow-up B) It reduces the number of unnecessary biopsies C) It increases the detection of insignificant cancer D) It has a lower diagnostic accuracy 27)Which MRI sequence or technique is the most preferred for anatomy and structure assessing? A) Diffussion- B) T1-Weighted C) T2-Weighted D) Dynamic Weighted Imaging (T1 WI) Imaging (T2WI) Contrast Imaging Enhancement (DWI) (DCE)  ehealth 28)In Diffusion-Weighted imaging (DWI), what does the factor b-value represents? A) Intensity of the magnetic field used B) Measuring of water diffusion, to identify tumour regions C) Strength of the diffusion gradients D) Tracking of contrast agents’ movement through the tissue 29) What is the procedure if a patient has a high Prostate-Specific Antigen result? A) More blood B) Biopsy C) MRI screening D) none of the tests above 30) What does the PI-RADS assessment categories do in the context of prostate cancer? A) determines the type of cancer B) evaluates the effectiveness of chemotherapy C) it assesses the risk of prostate cancer in 5 categories D) measures the size of prostate tumors 31) What is the primary purpose of using multiparametric MRI (mpMRI) in prostate cancer management? A) Treat the prostate B) Render 3D C) Diagnose and D) Measure cancer directly model for monitor prostate prostate prostate size only cancer 32) Which of the following is true about the Prostate Imaging Reporting and Data System (PI-RADS) in mpMRI for prostate cancer diagnosis? A) PI-RADS is used exclusively for follow-up in treated prostate cancer cases B) PI-RADS scores are based primarily on dynamic contrast-enhanced (DCE) MRI findings C) PI-RADS scoring helps estimate the likelihood of clinically significant prostate cancer based on mpMRI results D) PI-RADS is an outdated system no longer used in prostate cancer diagnosis 33)Which MRI sequences is most commonly used to visualize lesions in transition zone of prostate? A) T1 B) PD C) T2 D) Diffusion  ehealth 34)What system is used to standardize prostate MRI? A) Gleason Score B) PI-RADS C) PSA D) Diffusion 35)In PI-RADS assessment, which is the dominant MRI type for the Peripheral Zone? A) T2W B) DWI (correct C) DCE D) T1W answer) 36)What is the minimum recommended b value for DWI MRI? A) 1200 B) 1400 (Correct answer) C) 1600 D) 1800 37)What is the primary imaging technique used for the diagnosis, staging, and follow-up of prostate cancer? A) Ultrasound B) Computed C) Multiparametric D) X-ray Tomography (CT) MRI (mpMRI) ✔ 38) Which of the following is part of the PI-RADS scoring system for assessing prostate lesions? A) T1-weighted imaging B) DWI (Diffusion Weighted Imaging) ✔ C) PET-CT D) Contrast X-ray 39) Which imaging sequence is most important for assessing the peripheral zone of the prostate in PI-RADS? A) T2-weighted B) Dynamic C) Diffusion- D) T1-weighted imaging (T2WI) contrast-enhanced weighted imaging imaging (T1WI) imaging (DCE) (DWI) 40)What is the recommended PI-RADS score to consider a biopsy? A)1 B)2 C)3 D)4 or 5  ehealth 1) Which of the following imaging techniques uses ionizing radiation? A) Ultrasound (US) B) Magnetic C) Computed D) All of them Resonance Imaging Tomography (CT) (MRI) 2) Which imaging technique is primarily used for functional imaging in nuclear medicine? A) X-ray B) MRI C) SPECT-PET D) Ultrasound 3) Which of the following imaging techniques allows observation of dynamic physiological processes within the internal organs of the body? A) PET and SPET B) Ultrasound C) Fluoroscopy D) CT 4) When the muscle and soft tissues of human body are exposed to X-rays during image acquisition, what color do they appear in the resulting X-ray image? A) White B) Shades of Grey C) Black D) Colorless 5) In an x ray image, which tissue would appear brither? A) Water B) Air C) Fat D) Bone 6) Which image modality was first discovered? A) Ultrasound B) Computed Tomography C) X Rays D) Magnetic resonance Imaging 7) If I adjust higher intensities in a CT a will observe… A) Air B) Bone C) Muscle D) Water  ehealth 8) Which of the following imaging techniques uses non-ionizing radiation? A) Radiograph-contrast B) CT C) Nuclear medicine D) RM 9) Why is it important to have more than one view in radiology? A) To make the B) To avoid C) To save time D) To reduce costs images look better misinterpretation during the process and get a more accurate diagnosis 10) What is the main principle behind MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)? A) Using X-rays to capture images of bones B) Using magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of tissues C) Using sound waves to create images of organs D) Using radioactive substances to track metabolic activity 11) Which anatomical plane is synonymous with the sagittal plane in radiological imaging? A) Axial B) Transversal C) Frontal D) None 12) What is the main purpose of using contrast agent in radiology? A) To reduce radiation dose B) To enhance the visibility of certain tissues or organs C) To improve image resolution D) To create a 3D reconstruction 13) Which Imaging technique is not used to deduce the anatomy of a patient? A) CT B) PET C) Ultrasound D) MRI 14) Which of the following imaging techniques is most appropriate for assessing soft tissue structures, such as the brain or muscles, without exposing the patient to ionizing radiation? A) CT B) PET C) Ultrasound D) MRI  ehealth 15) Which plane divides the body into left and right parts? (C) A) Axial B) Coronal C) Sagittal D) Transversal 16) Which factors are important in radiology when interpreting an image? (D) A) The imaging plane used B) The clinical context C) Having two or more views of the area of interest D) All of the above 17) To locate an object location in the body, how many planes are needed? A) 1 planes B) Minimum 2 C) Always 5 D) Impossible to planes planes locate with medical imaging. 18) What are the names of the 3 anatomical planes? A) Isometric, top, Sagittarius B) Coronal, sagittal ,frontal C)Sagittal, Coronal, Transverse C) Axial, inclined, frontal 19)What is the name of the plane that divides the body into an upper half and a lower half? A) Sagital plane B) Coronal plane C) Axial plane D) Oblique plane 20)Why is it important to remove all metal objects before undergoing an MRI scan? A) Metal can interfere with the MRI, making images unclear. B) Metal can cause injuries because of the strong magnet C) Metal can change colors inside the machine. D) Metal can stop the scan from happening.  ehealth 21) What term describes the imaging view that separates the body into left and right sections? Answer: C - Sagittal A) Axial B) Coronal C) Sagittal D) Lateral 22) How do coronal, sagittal, and axial views contribute to comprehensive preoperative planning in minimally invasive surgeries? Answer: B - They allow surgeons to accurately map out surgical approaches by providing a clear understanding of spatial relationships between structures, improving precision during minimally invasive procedures. A) These views assist surgeons in evaluating the depth of soft tissue lesions, eliminating the need for contrast agents. B) They allow surgeons to accurately map out surgical approaches by providing a clear understanding of spatial relationships between structures, improving precision during minimally invasive procedures. C) By offering real-time guidance during surgery, these views help surgeons visualize functional changes during the operation. D) These views are primarily used to estimate the size of bones, offering limited value in soft tissue evaluation. 23) All the following modalities can be used to view functionality of body structures except A) MRI B) PET C) CT D) SPECT 24) Which of these components will look dark in an X-ray image? A) water B) Bone C) Air D) Metal 25) Which of the following is a non-ionizing medical image technique? A) Computed B) X-Rays C) Ultrasound (US) D) Contrast tomography (CT) radiography  ehealth 26) Which of the following statements about medical images techniques is false? A) The magnetic field used during an MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is strong B) X-Ray is an imaging technique based on the absorption of tissues C) In CT scans dense structures like bones are represented with bright gray tones (white) while less dense structures are represented with darker ones D) MRI is a technique which can´t be applied on patients with metal prosthesis, no matter the conditions of the prosthesis or the patient 27) Which of the following is NOT an example of ionizing radiation used in medical imaging? A) CT B) Nuclear C) RM D) Radiographs Medicine 28) What type of medical imaging is particularly well-suited for visualizing moving structures in the body, like blood flow? A) Plain film X-Ray B) Fluoroscopy C) CT D) MRI 29) Which imaging modality is particularly useful for visualizing soft tissues without using radiation? Answer: A A) MRI B) CT C) PET D) X-Ray 30) Why is it essential for radiologists to differentiate between coronal, sagittal, and axial planes when assessing anatomical changes or abnormalities? Answer: A A) Each view highlights different anatomical structures, and correct interpretation helps identify abnormalities based on their location in three-dimensional space, aiding in accurate diagnosis. B) The choice of view determines whether ionizing or non-ionizing imaging modalities should be used during diagnostic procedures. C) These views ensure that radiation exposure is minimized, improving patient safety by limiting the number of images required. D) Radiologists use these views solely to evaluate the functionality of the contrast agents used in imaging. 31) Which of the following imaging techniques uses ionizing radiation? a) Ultrasound (US)  ehealth b) MRI c) Radiograph (X-ray) d) Functional MRI 32) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a medical digital image? a) Pixel intensity represents grayscale levels. b) It is a spatial representation of tissue properties. c) It is always in color. d) Contrast is related to what is visible in the image. 33)Order the following materials based on the colour showing in X-ray images (from white to black): fat, metal, air, bone, water. A)Metal, bone, B) Water, air, C) Air, fat, D) Air, metal, water, fat, air bone, metal, fat water, bone, metal fat, bone, water 34) Which of these imaging techniques does not use ionizing radiation? A) Radiography B) CT C) MRI D) SPECT 35) Which of the following is an anatomical plane A) Coronal B) Distal C) Axial D) A and C are correct 36) Which one is not a medical image technique? A) MRI B) XRay C) Telescope D) Ultrasound 37) What do Hounsfield Units (HU) represent in CT imaging? A) The resolution B) The brightness C) The density of D) The amount of of the image. of the image based tissues compared radiation used on the exposure to water. during the scan. time.  ehealth 38) How does MRI create images of the body? A) By using ionizing radiation to scan tissues. B) By aligning and disturbing protons in the body with magnetic fields and radio waves. C) By using sound waves to reflect off tissues and create images. D) By combining X-ray data with metabolic activity. 39) Which of the following imaging modalities uses ionizing radiation? A) Ultrasound B) Magnetic C) Computed D) Both A and B (US) Resonance Imaging Tomography (CT) (MRI) 40) What is the primary process by which the MRI images are generated? A) The absorption of X-rays by body tissues B) The alignment of hydrogen atoms in a magnetic field and their subsequent release of energy. C) The detection of radioactive isotopes in the body D) The capturing of sound waves from internal organs