mammography mcqs 29 AUGUST 2022(1).pdf

MAMMORAPHY – EXAMINATION MAMOGRAPHY Q&A 2022 MOCK TEST AND OTHER PDF LINK BELOW SIDE 1. The biggest risk factor for breast cancer is (A) a family history of breast cancer (B) a personal history of breast cancer (C) gender (D) not breastfeeding Answer- C Certain factors increase a...

MAMMORAPHY – EXAMINATION MAMOGRAPHY Q&A 2022 MOCK TEST AND OTHER PDF LINK BELOW SIDE 1. The biggest risk factor for breast cancer is (A) a family history of breast cancer (B) a personal history of breast cancer (C) gender (D) not breastfeeding Answer- C Certain factors increase a woman’s risk for breast cancer. These are divided into major and minor risk factors. Major risk factors are those outside of a woman’s control, such as gender and age. Minor factors are linked to cancer-causing factors in the environment or may be related to personal choices, such as using hormone replacement therapy (HRT). 2. One of the minor risk factors for breast cancer could be (A) gender (B) aging (C) genetic risk factors (D) not breastfeeding Answer- (D) A risk factor is anything that increases a person’s chances of getting a disease. Major risk factors cannot be changed. Minor factors are linked to cancer-causing factors in the environment or may be related to personal choices, such as breastfeeding. 3. What is the approximate risk of developing breast cancer for a woman whose sister has the disease? (A) higher than normal risk (B) no significant change in risk (C) lower than normal risk (D) none of the above Answer- (A) Higher-than-normal or major risk factors carry a significantly higher risk for breast cancer compared with minor risk factors. Breast cancer risk is higher among women whose close blood relatives have the disease. Blood relatives can be either from the mother’s side or the father’s side of the family. 4. A woman with the greatest risk of developing breast cancer is (A) age 30 years or below (B) above age 50 years (C) between ages 30 and 40 years (D) above age 20 but below age 30 years Answer- B 5. Symptoms of a possible breast disease that will not be demonstrated on the mammogram may include (A) nipple discharge (B) skin thickening (C) circumscribed tumors (D) stellate lesions Answer- (A) Skin thickening or tumors and lesions will be seen on a mammogram, whereas nipple discharge is not seen on a mammogram. Although a nipple discharge can indicate malignancy, most nipple discharges or secretions are not indicative of cancer. In general, if the secretion appears clear, milky, yellow, or green, cancer is very unlikely. 6. Symptoms of very early DCIS may include (A) skin thickening (B) nipple discharge (C) macrocalcifications (D) none of the above Answer- (D) Unfortunately, breast cancer in its early stages is symptomless. Early ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)can show on the mammogram as clusters of microcalcifications. As the cancer grows, some symptoms may appear. These symptoms can include lumps in the breast, thickening of the breast skin, puckering or dimpling of the breast, inverted nipples, or a discharge from the nipples. 7. Skin thickening can be malignant but could also be caused by nonmalignant factors, such as (A) esophageal metastases (B) bronchial cancer (C) Hodgkin disease (D) sarcoidosis Answer-D 8. Risks factors associated with taking hormone replacement therapy (HRT) include (A) early menopause (B) late menopause (C) increased risks for birth defects (D) increased risks for breast cancer Answer- (D) Minor factors are linked to cancer-causing factors in the environment or may be related to personal choices, such as using HRT. Simply being a woman is the main risk factor for developing breast cancer. Breast cancer can affect men as well, but this disease is much more common among women than among men. 9. It is necessary for the technologist to document which of the following? (A) edema (B) dimpling of the skin (C) pain (D) all of the above Answer- (D) All of the above must be documented. Other signs and symptoms that should be documented include lumps, thickening, nipple discharge, skin changes, nipple and areola changes, and erythema. 10. Pre-examination instructions that can be given to the patient include (A) remove all clothing from the waist down (B) remove deodorant (C) remove panties (D) A and B Answer- (B) The patient should remove all clothing from the waist up, which is the area of interest. Underarm deodorant should be removed to prevent any possibility of misdiagnosis. The remnant of the deodorant can show as microcalcifications on the mammograms. 11. Benefits of communication with your patient include (A) helps identify sensitive breast and the reason for the sensitivity (B) educates the patient (C) reveals fears and misconceptions (D) all of the above Answer- (D) Communication is important during the mammography because a relaxed patient is easier to position. The technologist should strive to develop a rapport with the patient before starting the examination. 12. The two-step method of BSE is to (A) look and feel for changes in the breast (B) examine the breasts and undergo regular mammography (C) check for lumps in the breast and keep a journal of changes in the breast (D) examine the breasts and nipples Answer- (A) For breast self-examination (BSE), the first step is to look for changes in either the standing position or the sitting position. A check should be made for indentations, retracted nipples, dimpling, or prolonged skin conditions, such as eczema. 13. Postmenopausal obesity is associated with (A) a relatively high risk of developing breast cancer (B) overall reduction in breast cancer risks (C) circulating estrogen that is produced in fatty tissue (D) a lower overall estrogen level Answer- (C) Circulating estrogen is mostly produced in fatty tissue; therefore, in postmenopausal women, having more fatty tissue can lead to increased estrogen levels. Weight gain is therefore associated with increased estrogen levels and increased likelihood of developing breast cancer. 14. The age of a woman taking HRT is likely to be: (A) under 40 years (B) 25 to 35 years (C) over 40 years (D) under 20 years Answer- (C) Decline in a woman’s hormone levels as a result of aging or menopause can result in uncomfortable symptoms, such as hot flashes, vaginal dryness, or osteoporosis. HRT uses estrogen and progesterone to treat these common symptoms. A woman using HRT is therefore likely to be over 40 years of age. 15. An informed consent is required before performing which of the following examination? (A) ultrasonography (B) mammography (C) fine-needle biopsy (FNB) (D) MRI Answer-(C) An informed consent is required for any invasive procedure that involves risks. Although the risks are minor, fine- needle biopsy (FNB) is considered an invasive procedure because the skin is penetrated by a needle and cell samples removed. Mammography, ultrasonography, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are not considered invasive. Diagnostic, Interventional, and Treatment Procedures 16. Which of the following biopsy techniques is most accurate? (A) FNB (B) open surgical biopsy (C) core biopsy (D) MRI core biopsy Answer- (B) Open surgical biopsy is the most invasive procedure, but it has the lowest false-negative rate. Open surgical biopsies will need more hospital time, require anesthesia, and leave visible scars on the breast. These factors can all contribute to a higher complication rate with open biopsy compared with the other minimally invasive procedures. 17. In general, the optimal duration of tamoxifen treatment is (A) 2 years (B) 3 years (C) 4 years (D) 5 years Answer- (D) The optimal duration of tamoxifen treatment in postmenopausal women is 5 years, although recent studies have suggested added benefits with longer use. Tamoxifen will react with the estrogen receptor in other areas of the body, such as bone and the lining of the uterus. With the cells in these areas, tamoxifen acts like estrogen to promote growth, leading to increased bone density and a higher risk of uterine cancer. 18. “Lumpectomy” describes the process of (A) removing the entire breast, including the nipple (B) removing the breast cancer tumor and margins of surrounding normal breast tissue (C) making a small incision over or near the site of the breast lesion (D) removing benign lumps from the breast Answer- (B) Lumpectomy is a breast-conserving surgery whereby the breast tumor and surrounding margin of normal tissue is removed. Lumpectomy does not refer to removal of a benign lump. The main advantage of a lumpectomy is that it preserves most of the breast cosmetically. Factors that can affect the choice of lumpectomy over mastectomy include past lumpectomy, tumor size, tumor type, and cancer stage. 19. Chemotherapy comprises a class of drugs that can be used to (A) kill cancer cells in other parts of the body (B) block estrogen from cancer cells (C) reduce estrogen levels in the body (D) kill cancer cells by using high-energy radiation Answer- (A) Chemotherapy is an adjuvant therapy and involves the use of drugs to kill cancer cells and treat cancer that may have spread beyond the breast 20. MRI (A) uses the complex magnetic properties of elements (B) explores the behavior of liquids or solids in metal (C) images the patient in less than 15 minutes (D) is less sensitive than mammography Answer- (A) Breast MRI examinations are extremely sensitive. They are conducted using high magnetic fields and dedicated breast coils. The way the body’s activities respond to magnetic fields and how they relax in the magnetic field are used to analyze and record structures in the breast. Each image compiled by the computer will represent a different area of the breast. The actual examination can take up to 45 minutes 21. Most of the risks of MRI of the breast are associated with (A) the magnetic properties of the patient (B) ferromagnetic metals (C) technologist errors Answer- (B) During the MRI examination, the patient is placed within a powerful magnetic field. Patients are therefore, required to give detailed medical history for any examination because any metal objects inside or on the body can potentially be extremely dangerous inside or around the MRI unit. 22. The technique whereby contrast is injected into the ducts to check for an abnormality is called (A) augmentation (B) ductography (C) biopsy (D) mammoplasty Answer- (B) Ductography is used to evaluate nipple discharge and to detect duct filling irregularities, duct expansions, or duct defects. Contrast medium is introduced into the ductal system via the ducts exiting at the nipple. Breast biopsy is the taking of specimens for cytological or histological analysis. 23. A process by which the breast size is increased using implants is called (A) augmentation mammoplasty (B) ductography (C) needle biopsy (D) needle aspiration Answer- (A) In the process of breast augmentation, silicone- or saline-filled sacs are inserted into the breasts to increase breast size. Needle biopsy takes cell or tissue samples from the breasts for testing. Needle aspiration removes fluid from a cyst for testing. 24. The removal of one to three axillary nodes for testing is included in a/an (A) axillary node dissection (B) sentinel node mapping (C) sentinel node biopsy (D) lumpectomy Answer-(C) Sentinel node mapping is the injection of a radiopharmaceutical into the subareolar lymphatic plexus (or lesion). The tracer travels to the sentinel node—identifying that node for dissection and eliminating the need for extensive lymph node dissection. Sentinel node biopsy is the removal of the sentinel lymph node plus two to three more adjacent nodes for testing. 25. Specimen radiography confirms that (A) a biopsy is not necessary (B) the patient has no malignancy (C) the patient needs a mastectomy (D) the suspected lesion is in the tissue that was removed Answer- (D) A specimen can be removed during core biopsy or open surgical biopsy. Specimens should be imaged after the biopsy to confirm that the lesion was removed or adequately sampled. The specimen can also confirm that the margins are clean if a total excision is being performed. 26. Which of the following are side effects of radiation treatment? 1. loss of appetite 2. fatigue 3. heaviness of the breast (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 Answer- (D) The side effects of radiation are often temporary and can include fatigue, swelling of the breast, heaviness in the breast, sunburn-type appearance of breast skin, loss of appetite, and neutropenia, which is a decrease in white blood cell (WBC) count. Most side effects will disappear after 6 to 12 months. 27. The side effects of chemotherapy include (A) nausea and or vomiting (B) reduced white blood cell (WBC) count (C) none of the above (D) A and B Answer- (D) The side effects of chemotherapy vary, depending on the strength of the drugs used, the dosage, and the duration of treatment. Some patients experience few side effects; others experience many of the common side effects, 28. Which of the following biopsy techniques is the most accurate? (A) FNB (B) core biopsy (C) stereotactic breast biopsy (D) open surgical biopsy Answer- (D) Open surgical biopsy is the most accurate biopsy method but has the most complications. FNB is the fastest and has the least complications but is the least accurate. Stereotactic biopsy and core biopsy remove samples for histological analysis. The result is not as accurate as that of open surgical biopsy, but it is better than that of FNB. 29. Which of the following is the least expensive and least invasive method of breast biopsy? (A) FNB (B) core biopsy (C) open surgical biopsy (D) stereotactic breast biopsy Answer- (A) FNB is the least invasive and the most cost-effective biopsy method. Open surgical biopsy is the most expensive biopsy option. Stereotactic and core biopsies are not as expensive as open surgical biopsy. 30. A technique used to assess and evaluate nipple discharge by checking for defects or wall irregularity is called (A) ductography (B) interventional radiography (C) aspiration biopsy (D) lumpectomy Answer- (A) Ductography can be used to evaluate nipple discharge and to detect duct filling irregularities, duct expansions, and duct defects. Lumpectomy is the removal of the tumor plus the surrounding margins. Aspiration removes the contents of a cyst to relieve pain or to assess the contents. It is often performed under ultrasound guidance. Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathology of the Breast 31. Morgagni tubercles are usually found (A) on the nipple (B) on the lateral border of the breast (C) in the terminal duct lobular unit (TDLU) (D) on the areola Answer- (D) Morgagni tubercles are elevations formed by the opening of the ducts of the Montgomery glands, which are specialized sebaceous-type glands found on the areola, not the nipple. The terminal ductal lobular unit (TDLU), also called the lobule, is located at the very beginning of the ductal system. 32. The normal breast may have (A) 0–5 lobes (B) 15–20 lobes (C) 30–40 lobes (D) 340–350 lobes Answer- (B) On average, a breast has 15 lobes. The number can, however, be as low as 10 or as high as 20. 33. The breast extends vertically from the (A) first through the ninth rib (B) second through the tenth rib (C) second through the sixth rib (D) third through the tenth rib Answer- (C) The breast extends vertically from the clavicle (the second or third rib) to meet the abdominal wall at the level of the sixth or seventh rib and horizontally from the mid-sternum to the mid-axillary line (the latissimus dorsi muscle). 34. The portion of the breast that holds the milk-producing element is the (A) ampulla (B) segmental duct (C) lobule (D) lactiferous sinus Answer- (C) Starting at the TDLU, the collecting ductal system gradually widens in tree-like branches forming segmental ducts. Immediately behind the nipple, it further distends to form an ampulla, also called the lactiferous sinus. This is a pouch-like structure immediately behind the nipple. 35. A benign, self-limiting breast tumor that is the result of new disorganized cell growth is a(n) (A) sarcoma (B) radial scar (C) invasive lobular carcinoma (D) hamartoma Answer- (D) Hamartomas, or fibroadenolipomas, result from an abnormal formation of normal tissue. The cells of the tumor grow in a disorganized mass and are composed of tissue elements normally found at the site. Unlike a cancerous tumor, hamartomas rarely invade or compress surrounding structures. 36. What target–filtration combination in analog imaging provides the best penetration for dense or thick breast? (A) molybdenum target with molybdenum filtration (B) rhodium target with rhodium filtration (C) tungsten target with tungsten filtration (D) molybdenum target with appropriate K-edge filtration Answer- (B) All mammography units are manufactured by using tungsten, molybdenum, or rhodium targets matched with the appropriate K-edge filters 37. Which of the following affects focal spot size? (A) angle of the anode (B) a decrease in the source-to-image receptor distance (SID) (C) decreasing the size of the collimated beam (D) changing the relationship between the OID and the SID Answer- (A) The focal spot size is the area that electrons strike on the target. In the design known as the line-focus principle, the target is angled allowing a larger area for the electrons to strike while maintaining a small, effective focal spot. 38. Which of the following mammography quality control tests is performed as needed? (A) phantom images quality (B) visual checklist (C) repeat analysis (D) Mammography Equipment Evaluation (MEE) Answer- (C) The repeat/reject analysis is performed quarterly. The visual checklist is performed monthly, the phantom image check is often taken weekly (daily on mobile units), and the contrast-to-noise ratio (CNR) can be taken daily, weekly, or even monthly, depending on the manufacturer’s recommendation. 39. The type of x-rays created from displacement of K-shell–binding electrons in the molybdenum atom are called (A) coherent scattering (B) characteristic radiation (C) Compton effect (D) Bremsstrahlung radiation Answer- (B) The molybdenum anode will produce x-ray photons with energies in the range of 17 to 20 keV. The most prominent of these x-ray photons are characteristic and will account for 30% of the total x-rays in the molybdenum beam at 30 kVp 40. Lack of breast compression is most likely to cause (A) geometric un-sharpness (B) plate reader artifact (C) motion un-sharpness (D) printer artifact Answer- (C) Sharpness is the ability to see fine detail on the mammography image, and patient motion is the most common form of unsharp Ness. Motion blurring is common with exposure above 2 seconds and can be prevented by proper communication 41. The maximum compression force applied to the breast should not exceed (A) 111 N (25 lb) (B) 178 N (40 lb) (C) 200 N (45 lb) (D) none of the above Answer-(D) The actual compression applied to the breast will depend on the size and sensitivity of the patient’s breasts. However, too little compression will compromise the image, whereas too much can damage breast tissue. The compression standards, set by the MQSA, are used for testing purposes to ensure that the unit’s compression device is working properly 42. Manual compression in mammography (A) has fixed upper and lower limits (B) depends solely on breast size (C) depends on breast size and the patient’s pain tolerance (D) generally, depends on the patient’s pain tolerance Answer- (C) In general, the amount of compression applied will depend on the patient’s breast size and patient’s tolerance for compression. After the initial automatic compression, most patients will require more manual compression to adequately compress the breast. 43. If any breast tissue is poorly imaged on the MLO projection, it is likely to be (A) medial breast tissue (B) lateral breast tissue (C) inferior breast tissue (D) superior breast tissue Answer- (A) MLO best demonstrates the posterior and upper–outer quadrants of the breast. A good MLO projection must include both the superior and inferior portions of the breast. However, the medial breast is distorted on MLO because it is an oblique projection. The CC projection gives a true representation of the medial breast. 44. In the CC projection of the breast, the detector is positioned (A) at the level of the raised IMF (B) below the level of the raised IMF (C) at the level of the IMF (D) just below the level of the IMF Answer- (A) The detector must be placed at the level of the elevated IMF. If the detector is raised too high, the patient will be unable to lean forward and relax. This results in loss of posteroinferior breast tissue. If the detector is at the IMF or is too low, the breast droops and the superoposterior tissues will be lost. 45. In positioning for MLO, the tube is always angled (A) 90 degrees (B) 60 degrees (C) 50 degrees (D) none of the above Answer-(D) In the MLO projection, the edge of the detector is placed parallel to the oblique line formed by pectoral muscle. This oblique line varies in individuals; tall, thin patients require steeper angulations, about 50 to 60 degrees, average patients require about 40 to 50 degrees, and short, heavy patients require 30 to 40 degrees. Male patients can sometimes require up to 70-degree tube angulation on MLO. The angle is usually the same for both breasts. 46. Which projection is used to best visualize the tail of the breast? (A) lateromedial oblique (LMO) (B) TAN (C) lateromedial (LM) (D) axillary tail (AT) Answer- (D) The axillary tail (AT) projection demonstrates the axillary contents or tail of the breast, also called the tail of Spence. This projection is especially useful in demonstrating swollen lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy). AT cannot replace MLO because it does not image the inferior breast. LMO is the reverse of MLO, with an oblique beam traveling from inferolateral to superomedial. TAN is used to image lesions in the skin, and LM is a 90-degree lateral, which can be used to image the medial breast. 47. The projection used to best demonstrate details of the medial breast structures of the breast is the (A) LM (B) AT (C) ML (D) TAN Answer- (A) With the nipple in profile, both the ML and the LM are lateral projections that will show the breast structures. With the medial breast closest to the detector, the LM projection is best suited to image medially located abnormalities and will give the best image detail; the ML images lateral abnormalities best. The AT images the tail of the breast, and the TAN best images skin lesion and calcifications. PRACTICE TEST CLICK HERE MCQS PDF CLICK HERE Q&A CLICK HERE BEST REGARD’S Official website- www.sarkariresultsfast.com TELEGRAM- @ASCPI EXAM NOTES @RADIOGRAPHERMCQ YOUTUBE- MEDICAL TUBER THANK YOU VISIT AGAIN