Biology Past Paper PDF

1. At what level of life organization is reproduction carried out on the basis of matrix synthesis? Possible responses: a) subcellular; b) molecular; c) cellular; d) fabric; e) organizational. 2. Nitrogenous bases of the pyrimidine class? Possible responses: a) A + T; b) G + T; c) G + C; d) C + T; e) A + D. 3. Complementary pairs of nucleotides of the double strand of DNAare held together by the following bonds: Possible responses: a) covalent; b) phosphodiester; c) peptides; d) disulfide; e) hydrogen. 4. Nucleotides in the chain of a nucleic acid are connected by bonds: Possible responses: a) phosphodiester; b) hydrogen; c) peptides; d) disulfide; e) there is no correct answer. 5. DNA Functions: Possible responses: a) transports amino acids to the ribosome; b) directly participates in the assembly of polypeptide molecules; c) participates in the formation of the ribosome structure; d) transfers genetic information to the ribosome; e) stores genetic information. 6. T-RNA functions: Possible responses: a) stores genetic information; 1 b) transports amino acids to the ribosome; c) participates in DNA replication; d) participates in the formation of the ribosome structure; e) transfers genetic information to the ribosome. 7. Functions of i-RNA in eukaryotes: Possible responses: a) stores genetic information; b) transports amino acids to the ribosome; c) transfers genetic information to the ribosome; d) participates in DNA replication; e) participates in the formation of the ribosome structure. 8. Functions of r-RNA: Possible responses: a) stores genetic information; b) transports amino acids to the ribosome; c) participates in DNA replication; d) transfers genetic information to the ribosome; e) participates in the formation of the ribosome structure. 9. The DNA is contained in: Possible responses: a) ribosomes and the nucleus; b) the nucleus, hyaloplasm and mitochondria; c) hyaloplasm and chloroplasts; d) the nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts; e) hyaloplasm and the nucleus. 10. r-RNA is found in Possible responses: a) the nucleus, hyaloplasm and golgi complex; b) hyaloplasm and chloroplasts; c) ribosomes and the nucleus; d) the nucleus, mitochondria and lysosomes; e) hyaloplasm and nucleus. 11. What structure is formed by eight molecules of histone proteins and a section of the DNA molecule that makes approximately 1.8 turns around them? Possible responses: a) chromatin fibril; b) nucleosome; c) solenoid; d) chromatid; e) chromosome. 12. A chromosome with arms p and q of the same length is called: 2 Possible responses: a) metacentric; b) acrocetric; c) submetacentric; d) telocentric; e) an autosome. 13. A chromosome in which the p and q arms differ slightly in length is called: Possible answers: a) metacentric; b) acrocentric; c) submetacentric; d) telocentric; e) an autosome. 14. A chromosome in which the p and q arms differ significantly in length is called: Possible responses: a) acrocentric; b) metacentric; c) submetacentric; d) telocentric; e) an autosome. 15. A chromosome with one arm is called: Possible responses: a) metacentric; b) acrocetric; c) telocentric; d) submetacentric; e) autosome. 16. The centromeric index — is... Possible responses: a) the ratio of the length of the arms of the chromosome; b) the ratio of the length of any arm to the length of the entire chromosome; c) the location of the secondary constriction on the chromosome; d) the ratio of the size of the centromere to the length of the entire chromosome; e) the ratio of the length of the short arm to the length of the entire chromosome. 17. During what period of the mitotic cycle does DNA synthesis occur? Possible responses: a) presynthetic; b) premitotic; c) synthetic; d) post-synthetic; 3 e) mitosis proper. 18. What is the name of the period of the mitotic cycle in which the processes of growth, formation of organelles, as well as the synthesis of proteins, RNA, lipids and carbohydrates occur, but DNA is not synthesized? Possible responses: a) synthetic; b) premitotic; c) telophase; d) presynthetic; e) anaphase 19. How many chromosomes does a human somatic cell have in the presynthetic period of the mitotic cycle? Possible responses: a) 46; b) 92; c) 47; d) 45; e) 23. 20. How many DNA molecules does a human somatic cell have in the presynthetic period of the mitotic cycle? Possible responses: a) 92; b) 47 c) 45; d) 46; e) 23. 21. How many chromosomes does a human somatic cell have in the postsynthetic period of the mitotic cycle? Possible responses: a) 92; b) 47; c) 45; d) 23; e) 46. 22. What are the consequences of disrupting the synthesis of the DNA polymerase enzyme during the presynthetic period of the mitotic cycle? Possible responses: a) violation of the formation of the fission spindle; b) violation of cytokinesis; c) disruption of DNA replication; d) reducing the duration of mitosis; 4 e) increasing the duration of mitosis. 23. What consequences can be caused by disruption of the synthesis of the helicase enzyme during the presynthetic period of the mitotic cycle? Possible responses: a) violation of the formation of the fission spindle; b) violation of cytokinesis; c) shortening the duration of mitosis; d) increasing the duration of mitosis; e) disruption of DNA replication. 24. The lymphocyte is affected by an RNA-containing virus. In this case , the direction of information flow in the cell will be: Possible responses: a) RNA → DNA → mRNA → polypeptide; b) DNA → mRNA → polypeptide → DNA; c) DNA → polypeptide → mRNA; d) mRNA → polypeptide → DNA; e) polypeptide → RNA → DNA → mRNA. 25. The genetic material in eukaryotic cells is represented by: Possible responses: a) nucleic acids; b) chromosomes; c) polypeptides; d) a circular DNA molecule; e) a nucleoid. 26. What is the name of a molecule located in the cell nucleus that can reproduce itself and be a carrier of hereditary information? Possible responses: a) rRNA; b) mRNA; c) histone; d) DNA; e) hemoglobin. 27. What is the name of the molecular process that underlies cell division? Possible responses: a) DNA replication; b) gene amplification; c) repair; d) transcription; e) translation. 28. In what type of DNA replication does each of its chains become a template for the synthesis of a new chain? Possible responses: a) similar; b) semi-conservative; c) identical; 5 d) dispersed; e) conservative. 29. During the regeneration of the intestinal epithelium , DNA replication occurred by a semi-conservative mechanism. In this case, the nucleotides of the new DNA strand are complementary to the following nucleotides: Possible responses: a) the RNA polymerase enzyme; b) the DNA polymerase enzyme; c) content codons; d) intron regions of the gene; e) the maternal DNA strand. 30. Which enzyme unwinds the DNA helix and separates it into two strands during replication? Possible responses: a) RNA polymerase; b) helicase; c) ligase; d) restrictase; e) DNA polymerase. 31. DNA damage is eliminated with the help of specific enzymes. This is the ability of DNA to: Possible responses: a) transcriptions; b) mutations; c) reparations; d) reverse transcription; e) replication. 32. What is the name of the ability of cells to repair damage in DNA molecules? Possible responses: a) transcription; b) repair; c) replication; d) transduction; e) transformation. 33. Ultraviolet rays cause the formation of pyrimidine dimers in DNA.. Specify them: Possible responses: a) adenine and thymine; b) guanine and thymine; c) thymine and cytosine; 6 d) guanine and cytosine; e) adenine and guanine. 34. Transcription — is... Possible responses: a) one of the forms of exchange of genetic information; b) the process of reading genetic information from DNA to mRNA; c) the process of protein synthesis from the mRNA matrix performed by ribosomes; d) a mutation in which purine bases are replaced in the DNA chain; e) transport of tRNA amino acids. 35. The matrix for the synthesis of a single mRNA molecule during transcription in bacteria is: Possible responses: a) a section of one of the DNA strands; b) the entire DNA molecule; c) entirely one of the chains of the DNA molecule; d) a chain молекулы of the DNA molecule without introns; e) a chain молекулы of a DNA molecule without exons. 36. What is the structure of pro-mRNA in eukaryotes? Possible responses: a) intron-intron-exon; b) exon-intron-exon; c) exon-exon-intron; d) intron-intron; e) exon-exon. 37. The sequence of amino acids in the insulin hormone molecule is encoded by: Possible responses: a) a sequence of structural genes; b) the number and sequence of nitrogenous bases of DNA; c) the number and sequence of nucleotides in the exonregions of the gene; d) a certain alternation of exon and intron regions; e) the number and sequence of nucleotides in the intronicregions of the gene. 38. What is the name of the process of mRNA synthesis on one of the strandsof a section of the DNA molecule? Possible responses: a) replication; b) elongation; c) translation; d) transcription; e) termination. 39. mRNA synthesis takes place on a DNA template according to the complementarity principle. Which mRNA codons will be complementary to 7 the ATG-CGT DNA triplets? Possible responses: a) AUG-TSU; b) UAC-GCA; c) ATG-TSG; d) UAG-TSU; e) TAG-UGU. 40. Transcription stops after the RNA polymerase, moving along the DNA molecule, reaches a sequence of nucleotides called: Possible responses: a) operator; b) repressor; c) regulator; d) terminator; e) stop codon. 41. The mRNA molecule contains both exon and intron regions due to the absence of: Possible responses: a) processing; b) replication; c) transcription; d) translation; e) prolongations. 42. The set of steps involved in converting an immature mRNA into a mature mRNA is called: Possible responses: a) replication; b) recognition; c) translation; d) termination; e) processing. 43. What is the number of different types of tRNA in a cell? Possible responses: a) the number of triplets encoding amino acids; b) the number of nucleotides; c) the amount of amino acids; d) the number of proteins synthesized in the cell; e) the number of different types of mRNA. 44. One amino acid is encoded by three: Possible responses: a) triplets; b) nucleotides; 8 c) genes; d) codons; e) proteins. 45. Some mRNA triplets (UAA, UAG, UGA) do not encode amino acids, but are able to stop transcription. These tripletsare called: Possible responses: a) operators; b) anticodons; c) stop codons; d) exons; e) introns. 46. The polypeptide consists of 54 amino acids. How many codons did the mRNA that served as a template for this synthesis have? Possible responses: a) 54; b) 27; c) 108; d) 162; e) 44. 47. In eukaryotes, the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide will correspond to the sequence: Possible responses: a) tRNA triplets; b) rRNA triplets; c) mRNA codons; d) pro-rRNA triplets; e) DNA nucleotides. 48. What process ensures the implementation of hereditary information in the polypeptide chain? Possible responses: a) rRNA formation b) translation; c) tRNA formation; d) mRNA formation; e) replication. 49. Which tRNA triplet will be complementary to the initiating mRNA triplet of AUG? Possible responses: a) UAC; b) AUA. c) TUC; d) UUG e) TTC. 50. The mRNA codons UAA, UAG, and UGA not recognized by any tRNA in the process of polypeptide biosynthesis тРНК and therefore are a signal: 9 Possible responses: a) posttranslational modification; b) elongation; c) terminations; d) initiations; e) the beginning of transcription. 51. Translation during the biosynthesis of a viral protein in eukaryotic cell will be carried out: Possible responses: a) in the core. b) in lysosomes; c) on the tubules of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum; d) on ribosomes; e) in the cell center. 52. What is the relationship between amino acid residues in the protein structure during translation? Possible responses: a) hydrogen; b) disulfide; c) hydrophobic; d) ionic; e) peptide. 53. What amino acid substitution is characteristic of sickle cell anemia patient? Possible responses: a) aspartic acid→lysine; b) alanine→serine; c) glutamic acid→valine; d) methionine→histidine; e) glycine→serine. 54. What is the name of abnormal hemoglobin, whichis observed in sickle cell anemia? Possible responses: a) HbA; b) HbF; c) HbA1; d) HbS; e) Bart-Hb. 55. What organisms lack membrane organelles in their cells? Possible responses: a) viruses; b) prokaryotes; c) ascomycetes; 10 d) eukaryotes; e) protozoa. 56. What organisms have a nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane in their cells? Possible responses: a) eukaryotes; b) prokaryotes; c) bacteriophages; d) bacteria; e) viruses. 11 57. Which organelles have their own protein-synthesizing system? Possible responses: a) Golgi apparatus; b) lysosomes; c) vacuoles; d) endoplasmic reticulum; e) mitochondria. 58. Specify an organelle consisting of multiple cells, channels, and cisterns connected to the plasmalemma: Possible responses: a) mitochondria; b) centrosome; c) ribosome; d) the Golgi complex; e) endoplasmic reticulum. 59. What organelle consists of flat cisterns, with extended peripheral areas, from which small vesicles are detached? Possible responses: a) Golgi complex; b) mitochondria; c) the cell center; d) the cytoskeleton; e) the ribosome. 60. The formation of the division spindle involves: Possible responses: a) microtubules; b) Golgi complex; c) lysosomes; d) endoplasmic reticulum; e) ribosomes. 61. What organelles are involved in the synthesis of glycogen and proteins? Possible responses: a) mitochondria; b) granular and agranular EPS; c) peroxisomes; d) cell center; e) lysosomes. 62. Organelles of the cell's anabolic system: Possible responses: a) Ribosomes and the Golgi complex; b) mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum; c) endoplasmic reticulum and lysosomes; d) ribosomes and peroxisomes; e) mitochondria. 12 63. Disruption of the formation of ribosomal subunits in the cell is reflected in: Possible responses: a) carbohydrate biosynthesis; b) biological oxidation; c) ATP synthesis; d) photosynthesis; e) protein biosynthesis. 64. Which organelles are highly active due to the high content of hydrolytic enzymes in the cytoplasm? Possible responses: a) cell center; b) EPS; c) lysosomes; d) mitochondria; e) polysomes. 65. Functions of the rough endoplasmic reticulum: Possible responses: a) protein synthesis; b) DNA synthesis; c) synthesis of fats and carbohydrates; d) intracellular digestion; e) formation of peroxisomes. 66. Organelles of the catabolic system of the cell: Possible responses: a) ribosomes, glyoxysomes and endoplasmic reticulum; b) endoplasmic reticulum and cell center; c) mitochondria, peroxisomes and lysosomes; d) mitochondria and ribosomes; e) комплекс the Golgi and peroxisome complex. 67. What organelles are involved in the destruction of intracellular structures — autolysis? Possible responses: a) endoplasmic reticulum; b) lysosomes; c) Golgi complex; d) microbody; e) mitochondria. 68. What process does the cell center participate in? Possible responses: a) protein synthesis; 13 b)transcription; c) cell division; d) centrifugal; e) trophic. 69. How many biological membranes are included in the nuclear envelope? Possible responses: a) 1; b) 3; c) the number of membranes varies; d) the nuclear envelope has no membranes; e) 2. 14 70. The anaerobic stage of energy metabolism occurs in: Possible responses: a) the cytoplasm of cells; b) the intestine; c) cytoplasm and mitochondria; d) cytoplasm and EPS; e) the Golgi complex and the cell nucleus. 71. If the cell's nucleoli are damaged which organelles in the cytoplasm become problematic to restore? Possible responses: a) endoplasmic reticulum; b) ribosomes; c) lysosomes; d) Golgi complex; e) microtubules. 72. The aerobic stage of energy metabolism occurs in: Possible responses: a) cytoplasm and mitochondria; b) cytoplasm and EPS; c) cytoplasm of cells; d) mitochondria; e) the Golgi complex and the cell nucleus. 73. Heterotrophic organisms are: Possible responses: a) animals, fungi, most protists; b) animals, fungi, algae; c) animals and plants; d) plants and algae; e) algae. 74. What will happen to red blood cells if a drop of blood is added to a test tube containing 0.9% NaCl solution? Possible responses: a) remain unchanged; b) swelling; c) wrinkling; d) biological hemolysis; e) osmotic hemolysis. 75. Without spending energy , substances enter the cell by: Possible responses: a) pinocytosis and osmosis; b) endocytosis; 15 c) against the concentration gradient; d) phagocytosis; e) diffusion. 76. With the expenditure of energy , substances enter the cell by: Possible responses: a) against the concentration gradient; b) osmosis; c) diffusion; d) light diffusion; e) there is no correct answer. 77. The process of removing substances from the cell as a result of the fusion of the membrane structure of vesicles with the cytolemma is called: Possible responses: a) osmosis; b) endocytosis; c) exocytosis; d) pinocytosis; e) diffusion. 78. The process of absorption of solid substances by the cell through the formation of membrane bubbles is called: Possible responses: a) exocytosis; b) osmosis; c) active transport; d) phagocytosis; e) pinocytosis. 79. The process of absorption of liquid substances by the cell through the formation of membrane bubbles is called: Possible responses: a) pinocytosis; b) exocytosis; c) osmosis; d) phagocytosis; e) active transport. 80. What cells in an adult do not experience mitosis during their lifetime? Possible responses: a) endothelial cells; b) neurons; c) muscle (smooth) cells; d) cells of the epidermis; e) hematopoietic cells. 81. As a result of what division can polyploid cells be formed? Possible responses: 16 a) polytenia; b) mitosis; c) amitoses; d) endomitosis; e) meiosis. 82. What type of cell division occurs in a malignant tumor without the formation of a mitotic division apparatus, by the formation of nuclear constriction , and in which the nuclear envelope and nucleolus are preserved? Possible responses: a) amitosis; b) mitosis; c) exomitosis; d) meiosis; e) endomitosis. 83. What phase of mitosis is described: the cell lacks a nuclear membrane and a nucleolus, centrioles are located at the poles of the cell, and chromosomes look like a tangle of filaments freely located in the cytoplasm? Possible responses: a) metaphase; b) anaphase; c) interphase; d) telophase; e) prophase. 84. At what stage of mitosis is the study of human karyotype performed? Possible responses: a) metaphase; b) prophase; c) interphase; d) anaphase; e) telophase. 85. Interphase periods: Possible responses: a) prophase, metaphase and premitotic; b) presynthetic, synthetic and post-synthetic; c) anaphase, telophase and presynthetic; d) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase; e) interphase and prophase. 86. Sequence of meiosis prophase I stages: Possible responses: 17 a) leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis; b) diakinesis, diplotene, pachytene, zygotene, leptotene; c) leptotene, diakinesis, diplotene, pachytene, zygotene; d) leptotene, zygotene, diakinesis, diplotene, pachytene; e) diplotene, pachytene, zygotene, leptotene, diakinesis. 87. In the anaphase of meiosis II , the following occurs: Possible responses: a) chromosome divergence; b) chromosome spiralization; c) chromatid divergence; d) crossing over; e) divergence of centrioles to the poles of the cell. 88. In the anaphase of meiosis I , the following occurs: Possible responses: a) helixing of chromosomes; b) crossing over; c) chromatid divergence; d) chromosome divergence; e) divergence of centrioles to the poles of the cell. 89. Malarial plasmodium has a set of chromosomes n = 12. In human liver cells, it multiplies with schizogonia (a type of mitosis). What is the number of chromosomes in the nucleus of a malarial plasmodium after schizogony: Possible responses: a) 24; b) 32; c) 64; d) 76; e) 12. 90. According to the rule of constancy of the number of chromosomes, somaticcells of living organisms have a strictly defined number of chromosomes. The mechanism that maintains a constant number of chromosomes during sexual reproduction of organisms is: Possible responses: a) schizogonia; b) amitosis; c) meiosis; d) regeneration; e) repair. 91. It was found that in the family, one of the parents is homozygous for the dominant polydactyly gene, and the second is healthy (homozygous for the recessive gene). When inheriting a trait , the following law applies: 18 Possible responses: a) splitting of hybrids; b) uniformity of first-generation hybrids; c) independent inheritance; d) purity of gametes; e) concatenated inheritance. 92. The husband and wife have a wide gap between the incisors (a dominant feature). Both are homozygous. What law of inheritance of traits will manifest in their children? Possible responses: a) splitting of hybrids by phenotype; b) independent inheritance of the trait; c) uniformity of first-generation hybrids; d) uncoupled inheritance; e) concatenated inheritance. 93. The couple is deaf and dumb. A woman's deafness depends on an autosomal recessive gene. Her husband's deafness was formed as a result of taking antibiotics in childhood. Determine the probability of this woman having a deaf child if her husband is homozygous for the normal hearing allele: Possible responses: a) 25 %; b) 50 %; c) 75 %; d) 100 %; e) 0 %. 94. Only one of the healthy spouses is suspected to have a recessive phenylketonuria gene. Determine the probability of having a child with phenylketonuria in this family : Possible responses: a) 0 %; b) 25 %; c) 50 %; d) 75 %; e) 100 %. 95. Healthy parents have two sons with phenylketonuria and one healthy daughter. What is the probability that their fourth child will be born with phenylketonuria: Possible responses: a) 0 %; b) 50 %; 19 c) 25 %; d) 75 %; e) 100 %. 96. What are the genotypes of parents if a blue-eyed father and a browneyed mother have 5 children, including 2 blue-eyed children? Possible responses: a) Aa x aa; b) AA x aa; c) aa x Aa; d) AA x Aa; e) Aa x AA. 97. A 19-year-old boy was diagnosed with Marfan's disease. As a result of the examination , it was found that the young man suffers from a violation of the development of connective tissue, changes in the structure of the lens of the eye, has abnormalities of the cardiovascular system, arachnodactyly. Determine what genetic phenomenon causes the development of symptoms of Marfan's disease? Possible responses: a) pleiotropy; b) incomplete dominance; c) multiple allelism; d) codomination; e) complementarity. 98. A point mutation of one gene causes the development of Hartnep's disease. Symptoms of the disease are impaired absorption of the amino acid tryptophan in the intestine and its reabsorptionin the renal tubules, which leads to simultaneous disorders of the digestive and urinary systems. Determine what genetic phenomenon causes the development of symptoms of Hartnep's disease? Possible responses: a) complementary interaction; b) polymerization; c) codomination; d) pleiotropy; e) incomplete dominance. 99. Interactions of allelic genes include: Possible responses: a) codomination, epistasis; b) complementarity, overdominance; c) polymerization, complementarity; d) epistasis, incomplete dominance; 20 e) dominance, overdomination. 100. Interactions of non -allelic genes include: Possible responses: a) polymerization, complementarity; b) codomination, epistasis; c) complementarity, overdominance; d) dominance, overdominance; e) epistasis, incomplete dominance. 101. A person with the same genotype may have different degrees of development of a hereditary disease. The degree of development of a trait when implementing a genotype in various environmental conditions is called: Possible responses: a) penetrance; b) expressiveness; c) heredity; d) mutation; e) polymerization. 102. The hereditary disease "cystinuria" manifests itself inthe form of the presence of cystine stones in the kidneys in homozygotes and an increased level of cystine in the urine in heterozygotes. Cystinuria is a monogenic disease. Determine the type of interaction between cystinuria genes and normal urinary cystine content: Possible responses: a) complementarity; b) epistasis; c) incomplete dominance; d) complete dominance; e) codomination. 103. Sometimes clinically healthy people in high-altitude settings show signs of anemia. During diagnosis sickle-shaped red blood cells are also found in their blood. Determine their genotype: Possible responses: a) XWithXwith; b) SS; c) IAi; d) Xsxs; e) Ss. 104. A person with blood type IAIB has both antigen A and antigen B in their red blood cells at the same time. What kind of gene interaction is this phenomenon an example of? 21 Possible responses: a) codomination; b) complementarity; c) incomplete dominance; d) polymerization; e) epistasis. 105. One of the variants of tooth enamel colorationу in humans is formed as a result of the interaction of two allelic genes by the type of incomplete dominance. How many genotypes and phenotypes do these genes form and define? Possible responses: a) three genotypes and four phenotypes; b) four genotypes and four phenotypes; c) six genotypes and four phenotypes; d) three genotypes and three phenotypes; e) six genotypes and six phenotypes. 106. One of the variants of tooth enamel coloration in humans is formed as a result of the interaction of alleles by the type of incomplete dominance. How many phenotypes do these genes define? Possible responses: a) three; b) two; c) four; d) five; e) six. 107. Normal hearing in humans depends on the presence of two dominant non -allelic genes in the genotype. Name the form of interaction between these genes. Possible responses: a) complete dominance; b) complementary action; c) polymerization; d) codomination; e) epistasis. 108. The husband and wife are deaf and dumb and have DDee the ddEE and ddEE genotypes.Their children were born with normal hearing. Name the type of interaction between the D and E genes: Possible responses: a) dominance; b) epistasis; c) complementarity; d) polymerization; e) overdomination. 22 109. The degree of pigmentation of the human skin is controlled by several dominant genes. An increase in the number of these genes in the genotype determines more intense pigmentation. Name the type of interaction between these genes: Possible responses: a) pleiotropy; b) epistasis; c) codomination; d) polymerization; e) complementarity. 110. The degree of skin pigmentation in humans is controlled by three pairs of unlinked genes that interact in a polymeric manner. Skin pigmentation in a person with the AABBCC genotype will be: Possible answers: a) black (Negroid); b) white (Caucasian); c) yellow (mongoloid). d) brown (mulatto); e) albino. 111. What genotype can a woman with no milk secretion have if milk secretion is determined by polymeric genes, and the amount of milk increases with the number of dominant alleles of these genes? Possible responses: a) M1m1M2m2; b) m1m1M2m2; c) m1m1m2m2; d) M1M1m2m2; e) M1m1m2m2. 112. Enamel hypoplasia is caused by a dominant gene located on the X chromosome. The woman has normal tooth enamel, and her husband has enamel hypoplasia. How many children will have enamel hypoplasia if the gene for this pathology is dominant and located on the X chromosome? Possible responses: a) only for daughters; b) for all children; c) only for the sons; d) half of the daughters; e) half of the sons. 113. The father is healthy, the mother suffers from vitamin-resistant rickets and is heterozygous. How many children can get this form of rickets if the disease gene is dominant and is located on the X chromosome? Possible responses: 23 a) only daughters; b) only sons; c) all children; d) all children will be healthy; e) half of all daughters and sons. 114. The woman is healthy. Her husband was diagnosed with a disease whose gene is located on the X chromosome and is dominant. Which of the children will develop this disease? Possible responses: a) only for daughters; b) for all children; c) only for the sons; d) half of the sons; e) у half of the daughters. 115. Determine the probability of having a boy with hemophilia-A in a family where the child's mother and her parents did not suffer from this disease, and the child's father has been ill since birth: Possible responses: a) 75 % of boys will be sick; b) equal to 0 %; c) 50 % of boys will be sick; d) 25% of boys will be sick; e) equal to 100 %. 116. The woman's husband suffers from hemophilia-B. There were no cases of hemophilia in the woman's family. Please indicate the risk of having a sick child for the couple: Possible responses: a) missing; b) 50 %; c) 75 %; d) 25 %; e) 100 %. 117. What is the probability of color blindness in children of a man with color blindness if the genotype of his wife does not contain this allele ? Possible responses: a) 25 %; b) 0 %; c) 50 %; d) 75 %; e) 100 %. 24 118. The couple is healthy, but the wife's father is ill with hemophilia-A. The following people may develop hemophilia: Possible responses: a) sons and daughters; b) only daughters; c) half of the daughters; d) all the children; e) half of the sons. 119. Determine the type of inheritance of hypertrichosis of the auricles, if the trait is inherited from father to son and occurs in each generation: Possible responses: a) linked to the Y chromosome; b) autosomal recessive; c) autosomal dominant; d) linked to X-chromosome recessive; e) linked to X-chromosome dominant. 120. The father has hypertrichosis, and the mother is healthy. Determine the probability of having a child with hypertrichosis in this family if hypertrichosis is a Y-linked trait: Possible responses: a) 50 %; b) 25 %; c) 12.5 %; d) 6.25 %; e) 100 %. 121. Very large teeth are a sign linked to the Y chromosome. The mother has normal — sized teeth, while her son — has very large ones. Determine the probability of having very large teeth in the child's father, if very large teeth are a sign linked to the Y chromosome: Possible responses: a) 75 %; b) 50 %; c) 25 %; d) 12.5 %; e) 100 %. 122. The male has fused toes. Four of his sons also have fused fingers, and in three of his daughters have normal fingers. The two proband sisters have normal fingers. Proband's brother and father have fused fingers. What is this attribute? Possible responses: a) dominant; 25 b) holandric; c) recessive; d) X-linked; e) Autosomal. 123. In some regions of Belarus, endemic goiter is often found due to iodine deficiency in food products. What kind of variability can these changes in the body serve as an example of? Possible answers: a) modification; b) mutation; c) combinative; d) ontogenetic; e) correlative. 124. The woman suffered from viral rubella during pregnancy. The child was born with malformations — union of the lip and palate. The child's karyotype is normal. Facial anomalies are a manifestation of: Possible responses: a) combinative variability; b) polyploidy; c) chromosomal mutation; d) aneuploidy; e) modification variability. 125. In a family of healthy parents , a child with phenylketonuria appeared, but thanks to early diagnosis and treatment, including diet therapy, it developed normally. His recovery is associated with the following form of variability: Possible responses: a) modification; b) combinative; c) somatic; d) genotypic; e) all possible answers are correct. 126. In the past 50 years the use of thalidomide by pregnant women caused the birth of several thousand children with the absence or underdevelopment of the skeleton of limbs, face and other defects. What is the name of the factor that caused these deformities? Possible responses: a) teratogenic; b) carcinogenic; c) physical; d) biological; 26 e) polygenic. 127. The doctor found rickets in the child, similar in its manifestation to hereditary D-resistant rickets. What are the names of changes in the phenotype caused by environmental factors, but similar to changes in the genetic nature? Possible responses: a) trisomies; b) monosomies; c) genotypes; d) gene diseases; e) phenocopies. 128. The woman took synthetic hormones during pregnancy. The newborn girl showed signs similar to adrenogenital syndrome. What is the name of such a manifestation of variability? Possible responses: a) mutation; b) recombination; c) phenocopy; d) heterosis; e) replication. 129. Prolonged use of certain medications on the eve of pregnancy increases the risk of having a child with genetic abnormalities. What is the name of the action of drugs? Possible responses: a) ontogenetic; b) mutagenic; c) oncogenic; d) embryotoxic; д) fetotoxic. 130. A type of rickets is inherited by the dominant type.This disease can occur as a result of: Possible responses: a) a gene mutation; b) genomic mutation; c) chromosomal mutation; d) polyploidy; e) aneuploidy. 131. The cause of sickle cell anemia in humans is the replacement of glutamic acid with valine in the hemoglobin protein. Determine the type of mutation: 27 Possible responses: a) genomic; b) aneuploidy; c) deletion; d) genetic information; e) chromosomal. 132. Treatment of viral RNA with nitrous acid resulted in a change in the UAA codon to the UGA codon. What type of mutation occurred? Possible responses: a) a transition; b) deletion of a nucleotide; c) transversion; d) nucleotide insertion; e) inversion. 133. A mutation that is accompanied by a decrease in the number of pairs of nucleotides of a gene is called: Possible responses: a) deletion; b) inversion; c) duplication; d) translocation; e) nonsense-mutation. 134. In part of the structural gene the number of nucleotides changed (instead of 30 pairs of nucleotides , it became 60). This mutation is called: Possible responses: a) inversion; b) deletion; c) translocation; d) transversion; e) duplication. 135. As a result of the induced mutation , a section of the DNA chain rotated 180 °. What is the name of this type of mutation? Possible responses: a) deletion; b) inversion; c) duplication; d) translocation; e) replication. 136. In humans , the color of the iris of the right and left eyes can be different. What is the name of the mutation that caused this form of variability? 28 Possible responses: a) generative; b) heteroploidy; c) somatic; d) polyploidy; e) aneuploidy. 137. After exposure to colchicine 92 chromosomes were found in human lymphocytes. This mutation is called: Possible responses: a) polyploidy; b) aneuploidy; c) polyteny; d) inversion; e) translocation. 138. 138. It found that human cells have one chromosome less than normal. What is this mutation called?: Possible responses: a) polyploidy; b) polytenia; c) inversions. d) translocations; e) aneuploidies. 139. Cytogenetic analysis of aborted embryo cells revealed 44 chromosomes (absence of 1 pair of homologous chromosomes). What is the name of the mutation? Possible responses: a) chromosomal aberration; b) nullisomy; c) gene (point); d) polysomy; e) monosomy. 140. Which of these diseases is inherited monogenously? Possible responses: a) hypertension; b) stomach ulcer; c) poliomyelitis; d) hemophilia; e) hymenolepidosis. 141. When analyzing the pedigree , it was established: patients in each generation, both women and men are ill, sick children are born only to sick parents. What is the type of inheritance for this trait? Possible responses: 29 a) autosomal dominant; b) autosomal recessive; c) polygenic; d) X-linked recessive; e) Y-linked. 142. The boy was found to have achondroplasia (a disproportionate build with a noticeable shortening of the arms and legs due to a violation of the growth of epiphyseal cartilage of long tubular bones). What is the type of inheritance of this disease? Possible responses: a) autosomal recessive; b) polygenic; c) X-linked recessive; d) Y-linked; e) autosomal dominant. 30 143. When analyzing the pedigree , it was found that the disease occurs in male and female individuals, but not in every generation. Sick children are born to both sick and healthy parents. What is the type of inheritance of the disease? Possible responses: a) autosomal recessive; b) autosomal dominant; c) X-linked dominant; d) X-linked recessive; e) Y-linked. 144. What type of cystic fibrosis is inherited, if the disease does not manifest itself in every generation, women and men inherit the trait with the same frequency, and a sick child is born to healthy parents? Possible responses: a) autosomal dominant; b) linked to the X-chromosome; c) linked to the Y-chromosome; d) autosomal recessive; e) mitochondrial. 145. When analyzing the pedigree of a family with a hereditary pathology (violation of enamel formation) , it was found that the diseasemanifests itself in each generation. In women , this anomalyis more common than in men, and sick fathers transmit this trait only to their daughters. What is the type of inheritance of this pathology? Possible responses: a) X-linked dominant; b) autosomal dominant; c) autosomal recessive; d) X-linked recessive; e) Y-linked. 146. A man suffering from a special form of rickets that is resistant to vitamin D treatment has married a healthy woman. They had 5 children (three girls and two boys). All the girls inherited their father's illness. What is the type of inheritance of this trait? Possible responses: a) autosomal recessive; b) autosomal dominant; c) linked to the Y-chromosome; d) recessive, linked to the X-chromosome; e) dominant, linked to the X-chromosome. 31 147. Parents can distinguish colors normally, but their child (a boy)has been diagnosed with color blindness. My maternal grandfather has the same anomaly. What is the type of inheritance for this trait? Possible responses: a) dominant, sex-linked; b) autosomal recessive; c) recessive, sex-linked; d) autosomal dominant; e) incomplete dominance. 148. The pedigree of the family in which large teeth are observed is studied. This trait is found in all generations and only in males; if the father has the trait, then it appears in all his sons. Define the type of inheritance: Possible responses: a) autosomal recessive; b) linked to the Y-chromosome; c) autosomal dominant; d) linked to X-chromosome recessive; e) linked to X-chromosome dominant. 149. The child has a weak pigmentation of the skin, light hair, blue eyes. Parents are dark-haired. Externally , the child looked normal at birth, but over the past three monthsthere has been increased excitability and muscle tone, tremors, convulsive seizures. The reason for this condition may be: Possible responses: a) phenylketonuria; b) galactosemia; c) glycogenosis; d) acute porphyria; e) histidinemia. 150. The newborn has jaundice, vomiting, and diarrhea. During the examination an increase in the liver and spleen was noted, while in the laboratory study galactose and protein in the urine were found. What is the most likely diagnosis? Possible responses: a) tyrosinosis; b) down syndrome; c) phenylketonuria; d) galactosemia; e) cystic fibrosis. 151. A child with fair hair and pale skin has increased muscle tone, seizures, and mental retardation. What method should be used to establish the 32 diagnosis? Possible responses: a) cytogenetic characteristics; b) population and statistical analysis; c) electrophysiological; d) genealogical; e) biochemical. 152. Albinos do not tolerate the effects of the sun well - tans do not form and burns appear. What amino acid metabolism disorder underlies this pathology? Possible responses: a) methionine; b) phenyalanine; c) tryptophan; d) glutamicacid; e) histidine. 153. A forty-year-old man noticed a darkening of the color of his urine in the air. There were pains in the back and joints of the limbs. What is the probable cause of this condition? Possible responses: a) alkaptonuria; b) hemolysis; c) albinism; d) gout; e) phenylketonuria. 154. In an infant vomiting, diarrhea, weight loss, jaundice of the skin, enlargement of the liver and spleen are observed. The doctor prescribed a lactose-free diet, which improved the child's condition. What disease does this child have? Possible responses: a) galactosemia; b) cystic fibrosis; c) phenylketonuria; d) fructosemia; e) homocystinuria. 155. Tay-Sachs disease, which is inherited autosomally recessive, 33 irreversible changes in the central nervous system develop, leading to death in early childhood.What metabolic disorders are associated with this hereditarydefect? Possible responses: a) minerals; b) lipids; c) carbohydrates; d) amino acids; e) nucleic acids. 156. The patient's cells showed accumulation of a significant amount of lipids in lysosomes. What disease can cause such a disorder? Possible responses: a) gout; b) phenylketonuria; c) Tay-Sachs disease; d) Wilson-Konovalov diseases; e) galactosemia. 157. Disruption of the formation of myelin sheaths of nerve fibers leads to progressive mental and motor disorders. This is typical for hereditary and acquired metabolic disorders: Possible responses: a) sphingolipids; b) neutral fats; c) higher fatty acids; d) cholesterol; e) proteins. 158. In Wilson-Konovalov disease , copper transport is disrupted, which leads to the accumulation of this metal in brain and liver cells. What protein synthesis is disrupted? Possible responses: a) hemoglobin; b) ceruloplasmin; c) collagen; d) fibrillin; e) immunoglobulin. 159. Biochemical analysis of the patient's blood revealed a decrease in the content of ceruloplasmin. The concentration of which ions will be increased in the blood? Possible responses: a) calcium; b) phosphorus; c) potassium; 34 d) sodium; e) copper. 160. An increased level of uric acid in the blood was found in an infant with developmental delay, muscle hypertonicity and a tendency to self-harm. In what metabolic disorder is this observed? Possible responses: a) Lesch-Nihan syndrome; b) gout; c) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome; d) Wilson-Konovalov diseases; e) phenylketonuria. 161. A newborn child has a dislocated lens, disproportionately long and thin limbs, long and thin fingers, an aortic aneurysm, and urinary excretion of certain amino acids. These signs are typical for: Possible responses: a) phenylketonuria; b) Marfan syndrome; c) hypophosphatemia; d) fructosuria; e) galactosemia. 162. What genotypes of the mother and father can cause Rhesus conflict during pregnancy? Possible responses: a) mother Rh+(homozygote), father Rh+ (homozygote); b) mother Rh+(homozygote), father Rh+ (heterozygote); c) mother Rh–, father Rh+ (homozygote); d) mother Rh–, father Rh–; e) mother Rh+ (heterozygote), father Rh+ (homozygote). 163. How are mitochondrial pathologies inherited in humans? Possible responses: a) from the father only by daughters; b) from the mother only by sons; c) from both parents by all children; d) from the mother by all children; e) from the father only by sons. 164. What is the most commonly used material for studying sexual chromatin? Possible responses: a) oral epithelium; b) red blood cells; 35 c) the epidermis of the skin; d) nerve cells; e) germ cells. 165. Prenatal diagnosis revealed one Barr body in fetal cells deposited from amniotic fluid. This indicates that: Possible responses: a) the development of a normal male fetus; b) polyploidy; c) the development of a normal female fetus; d) genetic disorders развития of fetal development; e) trisomy on chromosome 21. 166. The "cat 's cry" syndrome is the result of Possible responses:: a) duplication of a portion of the 5th chromosome; b) translocation of the 21st chromosome to the 15th; c) deletions of the short arm of the 21st chromosome; d) inversions of a section of the 21st chromosome; e) deletions of the short arm of the 5th chromosome. 167. At what stage of mitosis is it necessary to study the karyotype of a sick child with cat 's cry syndrome? Possible responses: a) metaphases; b) telophases; c) prometaphases; d) prophases; e) anaphases. 168. A newborn with multiple internal organ defects was given a preliminary diagnosis: Down syndrome. What method can be used to confirm this disease? Possible responses: a) cytogenetic; b) twin; c) population-statistical; d) genealogical; e) biochemical. 169. A newborn child with multiple defects of the skull, limbs and malformations of internal organs was found to have a trisomy of the 13th pair of chromosome. These are: Possible responses: a) Edward's syndrome; 36 b) Klinefelter's syndrome; c) Down's syndrome; d) Patau syndrome; e) Shereshevsky - Turner syndrome. 170. What is the most likely cause of Patau syndrome? Possible responses: a) trisomy of the 18th chromosome; b) trisomy of the 21st chromosome; c) non-divergence of sex chromosomes; d) trisomy of the 13th chromosome; e) partial monosomy. 171. Autosome 18 trisomy is characteristic of the syndrome: Possible responses: a) Edwards; b) Patau; c) Down; d) Klinefelter; e) Shereshevsky - Turner. 172. What is the karyotype of a person with Shereshevsky — Turner syndrome? Possible responses: a) 46, XX; b) 47, XU; c) 45, X0; d) 46, XY; e) 47, trisomy on the 13th pair. 173. The girl was diagnosed with Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome (karyotype, 45, X0). How many autosome pairs are there in the somatic cells of a given patient? Possible responses: a) 23; b) 44; c) 22; d) 45; e) 24. 174. Determine how many Barr bodies can be found in most interphase nuclei of people with the following karyotypes:46, XX? Possible responses: a) 3; b) 2; c) 4; 37 d) 0; e) 1. 175. Determine how many Barr bodies can be found in most interphase nuclei of people with the following karyotypes:46, XY? Possible responses: a) 0; b) 3; c) 2; d) 4; e) 1. 176. When examining a patient with impaired reproductive function normal karyotype 46, XY was found in some cells , but in most cells — karyotype of Klinefelter syndrome-47, XY. What is the name of this phenomenon? Possible responses: a) inversion; b) transposition; c) duplication; d) monomorphism; e) mosaicism. 177. Klinefelter syndrome occurs in: Possible responses: a) only for men; b) only у for women; c) more often in men than in women; d) more often in women than in men; e) у in 50 % of men and 50 % of women. 38 178. Hereditary human diseases: Possible responses: a) sore throat, flu and sickle cell anemia; b) tuberculosis, anemia and hemophilia; c) acquired human immunodeficiency syndrome and phenylketonuria; d) anemia, albinism, tuberculosis; e) Down, Klinefelter, Shereshevsky — Turner syndromes and color blindness. 179. Examples of genomic mutations у in humans: Possible responses: a) cat 's cry, Klinefelter 's and albinism syndromes; b) Down, Klinefelter and Shereshevsky — Turner syndromes; c) albinism, phenylketonuria and hemophilia; d) Klinefelter, Down and acquired human immunodeficiency syndromes; e) albinism, Down's syndromes, angina, tuberculosis. 180. Examples of human chromosomal mutations : Possible responses: a) Down's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome, diabetes mellitus; b) Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome and albinism; c) phenylketonuria and hemophilia; d) "cat 's cry" syndrome; e) acquired human immunodeficiency syndrome and Down syndrome. 181. The main tasks of medical and genetic counseling are: Possible responses: a) advising families and patients with hereditary pathology and determining the degree of genetic risk of having a sick child in the family under investigation; b) advising families and patients with infectious diseases; c) determining the probability of developing a chronic non-communicable disease; d) performing surgical correction of malformations; e) advising on the possible consequences of vaccinations. 182. Main indications for referring a family to a medical and genetic consultation: 1) the heterozygosity of both parents for one pair of alleles, 2) the young age of the parents, 3)the mother's carrier of the X-linked recessive disease gene, 4) the presence of a chronic infectious disease in the parents, 5) the mother 's age is over 40 years, 6) a pregnant woman from an area with a high radiation background: Possible responses: a) 2,3,5,6; b) 1,3,4,5; c) 1,3,5,6; d) 1,2,5,6; 39 e) 2,4,5,6. 183. The method of anthropogenetics based on tracinga trait in a series of generations is called: Possible responses: a) genealogical; b) biochemical; c) cytological; d) twin; e) population-statistical analysis. 184. Genetic consultation is mandatory for marriage : Possible responses: a) working in production with harmful working conditions; b) relatives; c) all answers are correct. d) the presence of a well -established hereditary disease in the family; e) persons older than 30-40 years. 185. Pairs of twins in which the inherited trait appears only in one of the pairs are called: Possible responses: a) discordant; b) competitive; c) concordant; d) uncomfortable; e) antagonistic. 186. The method of studying the skin relief on the fingers, palms,and plantar surfaces of the feet is called: Possible responses: a) twin; b) cytological; c) genealogical; d) dermatoglyphic; e) population-statistical analysis. 187. The method of anthropogenetics used to studythe karyotype is called: Possible responses: a) biochemical; b) cytological; c) genealogical; d) twin; e) population-statistical analysis. 188. The detection of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid and blood serum of a pregnant woman helps to diagnose some serious fetal 40 malformations. A low level of AFP is observed when: Possible responses: a) albinism; b) myopia; c) Down syndrome; d) anencephaly; e) there is no correct answer. 189. The detection of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid and blood serum of a pregnant woman helps to diagnose some serious fetal malformations. An increased level of AFP is observed when: Possible responses: a) albinism; b) myopia; c) Down syndrome; d) anencephaly; e) there is no correct answer. 190. Chorion biopsy is performed on: Possible responses: a) 4-5 weeks of pregnancy; b) 8-12 weeks of pregnancy; c) 5-9 weeks of pregnancy; d) 13-17 weeks of pregnancy; e) 2-3 weeks of pregnancy. 191. A newborn child was found to have congenital malformations of the digestive system, which is associated with smoking and drinking alcohol by his mother during pregnancy. Which germ cell was affected by these teratogens? Possible responses: a) endoderm; b) ectoderm; c) mesoderm; d) all germ layers; e) endoderm and mesoderm. 192. Periods when the embryo is most sensitive to damage by various factors (chitin, alcohol, viruses (rubella), ionizing radiation) that disrupt normal development are called: Possible responses: a) dangerous periods; b) questionable periods; c) critical periods; d) teratogenic periods; e) bad periods. 193. What is the primary hematopoietic organ of the embryo? Possible responses: a) the placenta; 41 b) the amnion. c) serous membrane; d) allantois; e) yolk sac. 194. What is the name of alcohol exposure that led to the birthof a child with a delay in physical and mental development? Possible responses: a) teratogenic; b) mutagenic; c) alcoholic; d) carcinogenic; e) mechanical. 195. The process of implanting a fertilized egg into the uterine mucosa is called: Possible responses:a) transplantation; b) ovulation; c) menstruation; d) imitation; e) implantation. 196. The placenta is formed from: Possible responses: a) overgrown villi of the fetal membrane, modified uterine mucosa with blood vessels; b) a modified uterine mucosa with blood vessels; c) the walls of the ovary; d) overgrown villi of the embryo shell; e) all answers are correct. 197. From what week of pregnancy is a human embryo calleda fetus? Possible responses: a) 9; b) 5; c) 7; d) 11; e) 14. 198. The outer germ shell, which is formed in the early stages of human development, is called: 42 Possible responses: a) allantois; b) alveoli; c) chorion; d) the amnion; e) the placenta. 199. Difficulties in studying human genetics: Possible responses: a) a large number of chromosomes, slow puberty and the inability to experiment; b) a large number of chromosomes and descendants and the possibility of experimentation; c) a small number of chromosomes, slow generation changes , and the inability to experiment; d) rapid change of generations and the impossibility of creating the same living conditions; e) high economic costs. 200. Indirect development — is... Possible responses: a) the type of development of organisms whose larvae are similar to the adult organism; b) the type of development in which the born organism has all the organs characteristic of an adult organism; c) the type of development of organisms whose larvae do not resemble an adult organism; d) the type of development that is characterized by binary division; e) all answers are correct. 201 Choose the functions of the Wolf canal in males and the Müller canal in females of higher vertebrates? A. Wolf canal in the seminal tract* B. The Müller canal acts as an egg passage* C. Müller Canal – Seed Passage D. Wolf canal – seminal tract, Müller canal atrophies 202. How do unicellular and multicellular organisms reproduce? A. Unicellular organisms - asexual and sexual* C. Multicellular organisms - asexual and sexual-with and without fertilization * C. unicellular organisms are only asexual. D. Multicellular organisms - sexual only 43 203. Critical moments in the development of the organism and their timing A. Implantation (6-7 weeks) C. Implantation (6-7 days)* C. Placenta formation (begins at the end of 2 weeks)* D. Placentation (starts 2-weeks) 204. The mesoderm contains the following somites: A. sclerotoma, dermatome* B. splanchnate, chordosodermate C. chordomesodermate D. miotom* 205. Histogenesis and organogenesis occurs: A. complex interactions between cells and embryonic sheets.* B. as a result of totipotency. C. Complex movements of embryonic cells* D. Intensive cell divisions and destructions. 206. What is formed from the nephrotome and splanchnatome A. Excretory system* B. Whole and Kidney C. Outer integumentary sheets of internal organs* D. Excretory system and internal organs. 207. Positively assortative marriage is...? A. Marriage between persons with similar characteristics * B. Marriage between relatives C. Intimate marriage D. deaf and dumb with deaf and dumb, short with short and tall with tall* 208. Negative assortative marriage? A. Marriage between persons with distinct characteristics * B. Marriage between persons with similar characteristics C. Marriage between relatives D. deaf and dumb with normal, short with tall, normal with freckles* 209. What are totipotent cells? A. Cells with certain properties formed during the period of embryogenesis* C. cells that do not differ from each other in the form of blastomeres* 44 C. group of differentiated blastomeres D. Cells formed at a certain stage of embryogenesis 210. What are the characteristics of reparative regeneration? A. Repair of tissues and organs after injury* C. Restoration of molecules and structures that have worn out during the life of the organism C. non-simultaneous renewal of the various structures of the organism D. Restoration of molecules and structures after damage* 211. Tryponosomiasis is a disease... A. having a natural focus of infestation.* C. transmissible*. C. facultative. D. Not Naturally Focal 212.What are the periods of the life cycle of cutaneous leishmaniasis? A. flagellated period in the human body* C. flagellated period in carrier insects C. flagellated period - in insect hosts* D. flagellated period - in the human body of vegetative form and spores 213. What are the symptoms of trichinosis in a person? A. swelling of the eyelids, face* B. Muscle pain* C. abdominal pain D. Headaches 214. What is the excretory system made of, and what functions does it perform? A. develops from mesoderm* B. serves to remove dissimilation products in the body* C. develops from the endoderm D. develops from the ectoderm 215. Where are steroid hormones synthesized: androgen, estrogen and progesterone? A. androgen is synthesized in the testes* B. Estrogen and progesterone are synthesized in the ovaries* C. Androgen is synthesized in the ovaries D. Estrogen and progesterone are synthesized in the testes 216. From what sources does the nervous system develop, and what is its primary 45 form? A. The nervous system develops from the ectoderm* B. The primary nervous system has a tubular structure* C. The nervous system develops from the mesoderm D. The nervous system develops from the endoderm 217. What are the nervous tissues made of, and what substances are distinguished in them? A. Nerve tissues are made up of neurons* B. Neurons are made up of white matter and gray matter* C. Nerve tissues are made up of myofibrils D. Nerve tissues are made up of tonofibrils 218. What kind of helminth is guinea worm and its life cycle? A. soil-transmitted helminth B. biohelminth* C. The definitive host is man and animals, the intermediate host is the cyclops* D. The Definitive and Intermediate Host of Man 219. Identify the characteristics and features of viruses. A. Very small creatures that pass through any filters* B. coated with adpercapsids on the outside, composed of proteins and peptides* C. very small creatures that pass through any filters, as part of which are DNA and RNA. D. the structure of viruses can only be seen under an electron microscope, 220. Specify prokaryotic organisms. A. mycoplasmas, blue-green algae, bacteria* B. mycoplasma, cyanobacteria* C. unicellular algae, cyanobacteria, bacteria D. Green algae, bacteria, mycoplasmas. 221. Specify organelles of general importance A. mitochondria, ribosomes* B. Golgi apparatus, centrosomes * C. neurofibrils, myofibrils, mitochondria, ribosomes D. ribosomes, lysosomes, neurofibrils, cilia, mitochondria. 222. Determine the correct rule for chromosomes. A. Rules for the constancy of the number of chromosomes* B. The Rule of Individuality, Chromosome Pairing* C. Rule of Chromosome Uniformity D. Chromosome Pairing Rule 46 223. Indicate the phases observed in the mitotic cycle A. interphase* B. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase* C. presynthetic, synthetic, post-synthetic D. leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene 224. Specify the processes that are observed in prophase. A. nucleoli disappear, nuclear envelope dissolves* B. achromatin filaments are formed, chromosome shortens and thickens* C. Chromosomes are located along the equator D. Nuclear envelope is formed, cytokinesis occurs. 25. Identify the processes observed in the synthetic period. A. Protein synthesis, RNA* B. DNA synthesis* C. Formation of nucleoli, end of tubulin protein synthesis D. ATP synthesis 226. What is determined by the ovohelminth method? A. the helminth itself or parts thereof B. helminth egg C. Helminth Egg* D. helminth larvae* 227. What are the widely used microscopic methods of ovohelminthoscopy? A. caprologic B. serological C. Preparation of the native swab* D. Ascent Method and Deposition* 228. Medical significance of mosquitoes of the genera Anopheles, Aedes and Culex A. mosquitoes of the genera Anopheles are mechanical carriers of helminth eggs B. Mosquitoes of the genus Aedes are specific vectors of Japanese encephalitis, tularemia and anthrax* C. Anopheles mosquitoes are carriers of malaria pathogens* D. Mosquitoes of the genus Aedes cause myiasis diseases 229. Specify the functions of the plasmalemma A. separation of the cell from the environment * B. conductivity of ions, necessary substances and water through itself* 47 C. participation in synthetic processes D. protein synthesis 230. By what methods can DNA increase 2 times? A. conservative* B. copulative S. semiconservative* D. cumulative 231. Indicate the genes involved in protein synthesis. A. structural* B. regulatory* C. conductor D. repressor 232. Indicate with the help of which enzymes the DNA molecule (genes) obtained from different organisms is broken down: A. endonuclease* B. transversase C. ligase D. exonuclease * 233 Specify genomic mutations? A. hemophilia B. albinism C. monogamy* D. polyploidy * 234. During what periods do antimutagens have an effect: A. when a mutagen passes through the cell membrane* B. only during telophase C, cell membrane formation D. during the formation of radicals * 235. Indicate the type of mutations found on one chromosome. A. recentric inversion * B. paracentric inversion * C. asymmetric translocation D. symmetric translocation 236. Signs of Morphan syndrome? A. hypertrichosis B. thin and long fingers* S. sparse hair 48 D. disturbance in the structure of the heart* 237. Characteristic signs of phenylketonuria? A. dementia* B. lack of melanin in the skin* C. large amount of melanin in the skin D. presence of phenylalanine hydroxide in the blood 238. Specify genetic diseases arising due to disturbances in amino acid metabolism A. albinism* B. gangliosidosis C. galactosemia D. phenylketonuria* 239. Specify diseases of carbohydrate metabolism disorders A. leukodystrophy B. galactosemia* C. hemophilia D. pentosuria * 240 What are the symptoms of alcaptonuria? A. darkening of urine * B. yellow nasal cartilages C. darkening of the cartilage of the auricle* D. lack of melanin in the skin 241 Specify diseases of purine and pyrimidine metabolism disorders. A. deficiency of the enzymes hypoxanthine phosphorylbosyl transferase (HPRT) * B. increase in the amount of uric acid * C. change in hair color D. tooth loss 242. Diseases associated with changes in the number of sex chromosomes? A. Klinefeltr's syndrome * V. Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome * C. hemophilia D. color blindness 243. Diseases associated with change in the number of autosomes? A. Down syndrome * B. Patau syndrome * C. Klinefeltre's syndrome D. trisomy X syndrome 49 244. Specify laboratory diagnostic methods for toxoplasmosis. A. a blood smear and puncture samples are taken from the lymph nodes and checked on a microscope* B. the analysis of a thick drop is studied and the blood smear taken during C) immunological and allergic methods* D) immunological and caprological methods 245. Specify the main groups of poisonous animals. A. primary poisonous* B. secondary poisonous* C. tertiary poisonous D. primary and tertiary poisonous 246. What is the excretory system made of and what functions does it perform? A. develops from mesoderm* B. serves to remove dissimilation products in the body* C. develops from the endoderm D. develops from ectoderm 247. What channels is the evolution of male and female gonads associated with? A. in men is associated with the secondary mesonephrotic – Wolff canal* B. in women is associated with primary pronephrotic – Müller canal* C. in women is associated with the primary pronephrotic – Wolff canal D. in men is associated with the primary pronephrotic – Müller canal 248. Select factors influencing growth processes A. environmental factors: food quality, oxygen, temperature and sanctity* B. endocrine gland hormones* C) physiological reactions D) national and racial migrations 249. Systematic status of Leishmania: type, class, family, genus A. type protozoa, class flagellates* B. family Trypanasomaceae, genus Leishmania* C) phylum protozoa, class Flagellates, family Sarcodaceae, genus Leishmania D) phylum protozoa, class Flagellates, family tropical Leishmania, genus Leishmania 250. Morphology of Giardia A. has a pear shape* B. has 8 flagella and an adhesive disk* C) has an oval shape D) has 6 flagella and an adhesive disk 50 251.state the characteristics of Toxoplasma? A. natural focal diseases of humans and animals* B. anthropozoonosis* C) unnatural focal diseases of people and animals D) antroponosis 252 what processes of plasmodium occurs in the body of mosquito. A. schizogony B. sexual process* C. sporogony* D. gamtogonia 253. What conditions are necessary for the maturation of the gamete in the mosquito’s stomach and what stage of the malaria parasite is invasive for the Anopheles mosquito? A. microgametocytes* B. macrogametocytes* C. for the maturation of gametes, conditions are necessary (above 15◦) D. oocytes 254. What is malaria and how does a person become infected with it? A. typical anthropogenic disease* B. vector-borne route of infection* C. typical zoonotic disease D. contact path 255. Where does Balantidium parasitize humans? A. in the cavity of the colon* B. sometimes on the wall* C. in the duodenum D. in the final part of the small intestine 256. what is the morphology of cat fluke. A. 3-5 cm long, unbranched intestine B. length 0.5-1cm, branched intestine* C. rounded ovary, paired testis and located on the posterior part of the body* D. branched: testis and ovary 257. Laboratory diagnosis of schistosomiasis disease? A. The patient’s sputum and feces are checked B. the patient’s stool is checked* C. determined by parasite eggs* D. the vegetative form of the parasite is determined in the patient’s feces 51 258 Select groups of biocenosis from a medical and biological point of view? A. artificial biocenosis* B. agricultural biocenosis* C. aquatic biocenosis D. plant biocenosis 259 Select the types of interspecific and intraspecific relationships that arise as a result of biotic environmental factors? A. food chains* B. antibiosis* C. photoperiodism D. suspended animation 260. What is the initial structure and from what source does the nervous system of vertebrates develop? A. the nervous system develops from the ectoderm* B. the nervous system develops from the mesoderm*; C. the nervous system develops from the endoderm; D. the primary form of the nervous system had a diffuse structure; 261 Choose the functions of the Wolf canal in males and the Müller canal in females of higher vertebrates? A. Wolf canal in the seminal tract* B. The Müller canal acts as an egg passage* C. Müller Canal – Seed Passage D. Wolf canal – seminal tract, Müller canal atrophies 262. How do unicellular and multicellular organisms reproduce? A. Unicellular organisms - asexual and sexual* C. Multicellular organisms - asexual and sexual-with and without fertilization * C. unicellular organisms are only asexual. D. Multicellular organisms - sexual only 263. Critical moments in the development of the organism and their timing A. Implantation (6-7 weeks) C. Implantation (6-7 days)* C. Placenta formation (begins at the end of 2 weeks)* D. Placentation (starts 2-weeks) 52 264. The mesoderm contains the following somites: A. sclerotoma, dermatome* B. splanchnate, chordosodermate C. chordomesodermate D. miotom* 265. Histogenesis and organogenesis occurs: A. complex interactions between cells and embryonic sheets.* B. as a result of totipotency. C. Complex movements of embryonic cells* D. Intensive cell divisions and destructions. 266. What is formed from the nephrotome and splanchnatome A. Excretory system* B. Whole and Kidney C. Outer integumentary sheets of internal organs* D. Excretory system and internal organs. 267. Positively assortative marriage is...? A. Marriage between persons with similar characteristics * B. Marriage between relatives C. Intimate marriage D. deaf and dumb with deaf and dumb, short with short and tall with tall* 268. Negative assortative marriage? A. Marriage between persons with distinct characteristics * B. Marriage between persons with similar characteristics C. Marriage between relatives D. deaf and dumb with normal, short with tall, normal with freckles* 269. What are totipotent cells? A. Cells with certain properties formed during the period of embryogenesis* C. cells that do not differ from each other in the form of blastomeres* C. group of differentiated blastomeres D. Cells formed at a certain stage of embryogenesis 270. What are the characteristics of reparative regeneration? A. Repair of tissues and organs after injury* C. Restoration of molecules and structures that have worn out during the life of the organism C. non-simultaneous renewal of the various structures of the organism 53 D. Restoration of molecules and structures after damage* 271. Tryponosomiasis is a disease... A. having a natural focus of infestation.* C. transmissible*. C. facultative. D. Not Naturally Focal 272.What are the periods of the life cycle of cutaneous leishmaniasis? A. flagellated period in the human body* C. flagellated period in carrier insects C. flagellated period - in insect hosts* D. flagellated period - in the human body of vegetative form and spores 273. What are the symptoms of trichinosis in a person? A. swelling of the eyelids, face* B. Muscle pain* C. abdominal pain D. Headaches 274. What is the excretory system made of, and what functions does it perform? A. develops from mesoderm* B. serves to remove dissimilation products in the body* C. develops from the endoderm D. develops from the ectoderm 275. Where are steroid hormones synthesized: androgen, estrogen and progesterone? A. androgen is synthesized in the testes* B. Estrogen and progesterone are synthesized in the ovaries* C. Androgen is synthesized in the ovaries D. Estrogen and progesterone are synthesized in the testes 276. From what sources does the nervous system develop, and what is its primary form? A. The nervous system develops from the ectoderm* B. The primary nervous system has a tubular structure* C. The nervous system develops from the mesoderm D. The nervous system develops from the endoderm 277. What are the nervous tissues made of, and what substances are distinguished in them? 54 A. Nerve tissues are made up of neurons* B. Neurons are made up of white matter and gray matter* C. Nerve tissues are made up of myofibrils D. Nerve tissues are made up of tonofibrils 278. What kind of helminth is guinea worm and its life cycle? A. soil-transmitted helminth B. biohelminth* C. The definitive host is man and animals, the intermediate host is the cyclops* D. The Definitive and Intermediate Host of Man 279. Identify the characteristics and features of viruses. A. Very small creatures that pass through any filters* B. coated with adpercapsids on the outside, composed of proteins and peptides* C. very small creatures that pass through any filters, as part of which are DNA and RNA. D. the structure of viruses can only be seen under an electron microscope, 280. Specify prokaryotic organisms. A. mycoplasmas, blue-green algae, bacteria* B. mycoplasma, cyanobacteria* C. unicellular algae, cyanobacteria, bacteria D. Green algae, bacteria, mycoplasmas. 281. Specify organelles of general importance A. mitochondria, ribosomes* B. Golgi apparatus, centrosomes * C. neurofibrils, myofibrils, mitochondria, ribosomes D. ribosomes, lysosomes, neurofibrils, cilia, mitochondria. 282. Determine the correct rule for chromosomes. A. Rules for the constancy of the number of chromosomes* B. The Rule of Individuality, Chromosome Pairing* C. Rule of Chromosome Uniformity D. Chromosome Pairing Rule 283. Indicate the phases observed in the mitotic cycle A. interphase* B. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase* C. presynthetic, synthetic, post-synthetic D. leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene 55 284. Specify the processes that are observed in prophase. A. nucleoli disappear, nuclear envelope dissolves* B. achromatin filaments are formed, chromosome shortens and thickens* C. Chromosomes are located along the equator D. Nuclear envelope is formed, cytokinesis occurs. 285. Identify the processes observed in the synthetic period. A. Protein synthesis, RNA* B. DNA synthesis* C. Formation of nucleoli, end of tubulin protein synthesis D. ATP synthesis 286. What is determined by the ovohelminth method? A. the helminth itself or parts thereof B. helminth egg C. Helminth Egg* D. helminth larvae* 27. What are the widely used microscopic methods of ovohelminthoscopy? A. caprologic B. serological C. Preparation of the native swab* D. Ascent Method and Deposition* 287. Medical significance of mosquitoes of the genera Anopheles, Aedes and Culex A. mosquitoes of the genera Anopheles are mechanical carriers of helminth eggs B. Mosquitoes of the genus Aedes are specific vectors of Japanese encephalitis, tularemia and anthrax* C. Anopheles mosquitoes are carriers of malaria pathogens* D. Mosquitoes of the genus Aedes cause myiasis diseases 288. Specify the functions of the plasmalemma A. separation of the cell from the environment * B. conductivity of ions, necessary substances and water through itself* C. participation in synthetic processes D. protein synthesis 289. By what methods can DNA increase 2 times? A. conservative* B. copulative S. semiconservative* D. cumulative 56 290. Indicate the genes involved in protein synthesis. A. structural* B. regulatory* C. conductor D. repressor 291. Indicate with the help of which enzymes the DNA molecule (genes) obtained from different organisms is broken down: A. endonuclease* B. transversase C. ligase D. exonuclease * 292 Specify genomic mutations? A. hemophilia B. albinism C. monogamy* D. polyploidy * 293. During what periods do antimutagens have an effect: A. when a mutagen passes through the cell membrane* B. only during telophase C, cell membrane formation D. during the formation of radicals * 294. Indicate the type of mutations found on one chromosome. A. recentric inversion * B. paracentric inversion * C. asymmetric translocation D. symmetric translocation 295. Signs of Morphan syndrome? A. hypertrichosis B. thin and long fingers* S. sparse hair D. disturbance in the structure of the heart* 296. Characteristic signs of phenylketonuria? A. dementia* B. lack of melanin in the skin* C. large amount of melanin in the skin D. presence of phenylalanine hydroxide in the blood 57 297. Specify genetic diseases arising due to disturbances in amino acid metabolism A. albinism* B. gangliosidosis C. galactosemia D. phenylketonuria* 298. Specify diseases of carbohydrate metabolism disorders A. leukodystrophy B. galactosemia* C. hemophilia D. pentosuria * 299 What are the symptoms of alcaptonuria? A. darkening of urine * B. yellow nasal cartilages C. darkening of the cartilage of the auricle* D. lack of melanin in the skin 300 Specify diseases of purine and pyrimidine metabolism disorders. A. deficiency of the enzymes hypoxanthine phosphorylbosyl transferase (HPRT) * B. increase in the amount of uric acid * C. change in hair color D. tooth loss 301. Diseases associated with changes in the number of sex chromosomes? A. Klinefeltr's syndrome * V. Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome * C. hemophilia D. color blindness 302. Diseases associated with change in the number of autosomes? A. Down syndrome * B. Patau syndrome * C. Klinefeltre's syndrome D. trisomy X syndrome 303. Specify laboratory diagnostic methods for toxoplasmosis. A. a blood smear and puncture samples are taken from the lymph nodes and checked on a microscope* B. the analysis of a thick drop is studied and the blood smear taken during C) immunological and allergic methods* D) immunological and caprological methods 58 304. Specify the main groups of poisonous animals. A. primary poisonous* B. secondary poisonous* C. tertiary poisonous D. primary and tertiary poisonous 305. What is the excretory system made of and what functions does it perform? A. develops from mesoderm* B. serves to remove dissimilation products in the body* C. develops from the endoderm D. develops from ectoderm 306. What channels is the evolution of male and female gonads associated with? A. in men is associated with the secondary mesonephrotic – Wolff canal* B. in women is associated with primary pronephrotic – Müller canal* C. in women is associated with the primary pronephrotic – Wolff canal D. in men is associated with the primary pronephrotic – Müller canal 307. Select factors influencing growth processes A. environmental factors: food quality, oxygen, temperature and sanctity* B. endocrine gland hormones* C) physiological reactions D) national and racial migrations 308. Systematic status of Leishmania: type, class, family, genus A. type protozoa, class flagellates* B. family Trypanasomaceae, genus Leishmania* C) phylum protozoa, class Flagellates, family Sarcodaceae, genus Leishmania D) phylum protozoa, class Flagellates, family tropical Leishmania, genus Leishmania 309. Morphology of Giardia A. has a pear shape* B. has 8 flagella and an adhesive disk* C) has an oval shape D) has 6 flagella and an adhesive disk 310. Germ cells, i.e. egg and sperm, are... A. Formed and matured cells* B. non-dividing cells* C. Cells dividing by mitosis D. cells dividing by meiosis E. Cells formed during the reproductive period of an organism's life* F. Cells formed throughout the life of an organism 311. An egg is... 59 A. rounded, motile cell B. elongated, immobile cell C. rounded, immovable cell* D. contains yolk - digestive material* E. a cell of different sizes, depending on the type of organism* F. in large animals of enormous size, in small individuals of very small size 312. What are the polarities of the egg and their significance? A. Animate polarity, forms a creature B. vegetative - a field with a yolk, forms a creature C. Animal - a field with a yolk, forms a creature D. Animate and Vegetative Polarities* E. Animal - a field with a slight yolk, forms a creature* F. vegetative - field in the yolk, provides nourishment to the developing organism* 313. Human sperm... A. Length 52-70 μm* B. Due to the negative charge of the outer surface, the spermatozoa have a crumbly arrangement* C. Due to the positive charge of the outer surface, the spermatozoa have a crumbly arrangement D.Length B.0 - B.25 mm E. 1 ml of semen contains 250-350 million spermatozoa* F. 1 ml of semen contains 20-60 million sperm 314..As a result of spermatogenesis... A. Each stermatogonium forms four diploid spermatids B. Each spermatogon forms 4 cells with a haploid set of chromosomes* C. sperm contains only "X" chromosomes D. spermatozoa with a "Y" chromosome are formed E. of the 4 newly developed spermatozoa contain an "X" chromosome, the other 2 "Y" chromosomes* F. Each of the four sperm can fertilize an egg* 315. Identify the processes observed in embryogenesis A. formation of a complex of axial organs * Spermatogenesis C.Fertilization * D. ovogenesis E. crushing and blastula formation* F. progenesis 316. Fertilization.. A. Distinguish between internal and external fertilization* B. occurs only in the uterus 60 C. occurs in the upper oviduct* D. Sperm velocity 20-40 mm per minute* E. Sperm velocity 2 - 4 mm per minute F. The number of sperm in the semen does not determine the possibility of fertilization 317. What are the characteristics of crushing? A. zygote share meiosis B. zygote divide by mitosis* C. Germ cells grow after crushing D. the further the cells divide, the further they decrease in size* E. blastomeres are usually snug together* F. blastomeres usually form distinct groups 318. What kind of cleavage occurs depending on the amount of yolk in the egg? A. holoblastic* B. meroblastic* C. discoidal* D. holoblastic and centolecital E. primary, secondary, isolecital F. telolecital, discoidal, meroblastic, holoblastic 319. Indicate the correct sequence of the steps observed in prophase-I of meiosis, as well as the processes observed in these stages? A. leptonema. Zygonema. Pachynema. Diplonema. Diakinesis.* B. Homologous chromosomes exchange sections* C. Chromosomes spiralize, shorter* D. leptonema. Zygonema. Diplonema. Pachynema. Diakinesis E. chromosomes despiralize, shorten, and thicken F. non-homologous parcels exchange parcels 320. Indicate the periods of development of the malaria parasite in the mosquito's body. A. oocyst * B. sporocysta S. meroeoite D. schizogony E. ookineta* F. sporozoites* 321. List all stages of development of the pulmonary fluke. A. marita - egg - miracidium * B. sporocyst — redia — Cercaria* C. metacercaria* D. Sporocyst of the First Order - Sporocyst of the Second Order 61 E. cercariae-"collection of cysts"-metacercariae F. marita-egg-coracidium 322. In which human organs does echinococcus parasitize, what are the symptoms of the disease and diagnosis? A. liver and lung* B. spleen C. Brain* D. obstruction of the functioning of infected organs* E. a caprologic study is being carried out F. Small intestine 323. Identify the primary and intermediate host of the broad ribbon and the periods of their development ? A. Primary host - humans and carnivores (piscivores) B. coracidium. Procercoid. Plerocercoid* C. Intermediate host - Cyclops, fishes* D. The main host is humans and cattle E. Egg – Coracidium * F. sporocyst-redia 324. What are the characteristics of flatworms? A. Embryonic development consists of three layers* B. sexually dioecious C. In sexual relation hermaphrodite* D. Bilateral symmetry* E. radially symmetrical F. Presence of a body cavity 325. In which helminthiases is autoinvasion and autoreinvasion observed? A. autoinvasion - in hymenolepidosis* B. auto-invasion - in enterobiosis* C. Autoinvasion - in taeniasis* D. autoinvasion - in trichocephalosis E. autoreinvasion - in opisthorchiasis F. autoreinvasive - in hookworm 326. What are the morphophysiological properties of scabies itch? A. Female tick body size approx. 0.4 mm* B. The body size of the female tick is approximately 4 mm C. Male tick body size approx. 0.3 mm* D. The body size of the male tick is approximately 3 mm E. feeds on tissues, drills holes in the skin* F. feeds on blood 62 327. What are the characteristic signs of a dog tick? A. vector of brucellosis B. Vector of tularemia* C. can spread spring-summer encephalitis* D. has 3 hosts, feeds on the blood of different animals* E. vector of taiga encephalitis F. is a natural guardian of tick-borne encephalitis virus 328. Among the listed arthropods, choose those belonging to the ixodidae family? A. ixodes ricinus* B. ixodes persulcatus* C. dermacentor marginatus* D. Pulex irritans E. sarcoptes scabiei F. ornithadorus papillipes 329. Choose tick families that are important in medicine? A. ixodidae* B. Argasaceae* C. Gamaziaceae* D. anopheles E. parasitoforms F. саркоптиформ 330. Choose a group of ticks that have 3 hosts? A. dog tick* B. taiga tick* C. dermasentor* D. scabies mite E. Village Tick F. bird mite 331. Identify secondary wingless insects? A. lice* B. cockroaches and bedbugs C. flea* D. wshi and pliers E. bedbugs* F. louse and ants 332. What diseases are carried by fleas? A. plague* B. rickettsiae* C. tularemia* D. miasma 63 E. typhus and relapsing fever F. scabies 333. Choose a characteristic of body louse? A. Relapsing fever pathogen (spirochete)* B. Typhus pathogen (rickettsiae)* C. Duration of adults 17-26 days D. Egg-to-egg life cycle lasts 16 days* E. does not spread infectious pathogens F. settles in areas of the body covered with hair 334. What are the characteristics of pubic lice? A. inhabits areas of the body covered with hair* B. The causative agent of typhus (rickettsiae) C. Lifespan of pubic lice17 - 26 days* D. Egg-to-egg life cycle lasts 16 days E. does not spread infectious pathogens* F. infection occurs by rubbing into abrasions and scratches of feces and hemolymph of crushed lice 335. Which generation of mosquitoes are widespread in nature? A. anopheles* B. aedes only C. aedes* D. culex only E. culex* F. anopheles and aedes 336. Determine the toxicones of the malaria pathogen? A. anopheles flebotomuz B. anopheles* C. insecta* D. anoplura E. aphesah F. anopheles maculopennis* 337. Define genera and subfamilies included in the order Diptera? A. subgenus Shortwhiskers* B. subgenus Longwhiskers* C. Mosquito family* D. Hymenoptera family E. klopov family F. subgenus Midwhiskers 64 338. Identify the following characteristics of mosquitoes of the genus Culex? A. eggs are laid on the surface of the water scattered B. eggs are laid on the surface of the water in heaps and in the form of a boat* C. Eggs have air chambers that float to the surface of the water D. Eggs do not have air chambers* E. larvae are located on the surface of the water in parallel, there is no respiratory siphon F. larvae are located on the surface of the water at an angle, there is a respiratory siphon* 339.To determine which of the following characteristics belong to mosquitoes of the genus anopheles? A. Eggs are laid on the surface of the water absently* B. eggs are laid on the surface of the water in heaps and in the form of a boat C. Eggs have air chambers that float to the surface of the water* D. Eggs do not have air chambers E. Larvae are located on the surface of the water in parallel, there is no respiratory siphon * F. larvae are located on the surface of the water at an angle, there is a respiratory siphon 340. What are the characteristics of adults – the sexually mature period of mosquitoes? A. by body color B. by the color of the wings* C. by type of mouth apparatus D. length of tentacles and proboscises* E. By Motion and By Flight F. on landing* 341. Which of the following characteristics apply to sexually mature forms of malarial mosquitoes? A. the tentacles of the lower jaw of the female are equated to the proboscis* B. the tentacles of the lower jaw of the female are short, occupying 1/3 of the proboscis C. the tentacles of the mandible of the male are equated to the proboscis, the last segment is dilated* D. the tentacles of the lower jaw of the male are equated to the proboscis, the last segment is not dilated E. legs twice as long as the body* F. legs one and a half times as long as the body 342. Which of the following characteristics apply to the sexually mature forms of common mosquitoes? A. The tentacles of the female's lower jaw are equated to the proboscis 65 B. tentacles of the lower jaw of the female are short, occupying 1/3 of the proboscis* C. the tentacles of the lower jaw of the male are equated to the proboscis, the last segment is dilated D. the tentacles of the lower jaw of the male are equated to the proboscis, the last segment is not dilated* E. legs twice as long as the body F. legs one and a half times longer than the body* 343. Morphophysiological features of mosquitoes? A. long-whiskered tiny dipteran insects* B. short-whiskered tiny dipteran insects C. 1.3 - 2.5 mm long, yellow* D. 1.3 - 2.5 cm long, yellowish, grey or brown E. females feed on human and animal blood* F. insect feeding on plant nectar 344. 3 Methods of Phylogenetic Variability in Phyloembryogenesis According to A.N. Severtsov ? A. Anabolism* B. Deviation* C. arhalaxis* D. cenogenesis E. idioadaptation F. ontogenesis 345. What are 3 common signs of homologous organs? A. have a common structure* B. have similarities in location in the body* C. develop from a single species of germ layer* D. perform only the same function E. Miscellaneous Origins F. develop from different types of germ layer 346. Choose 3 consecutive stages of vertebral development? A. vertebrae develop from sclerotoma* B. cartilage stage* C. Ossification period* D. During the sheath period, the vertebrae develop from the nephrotome E. period of development from connective tissue F. Chord Formation 347. What are the 3 directions of evolutionary progress of the digestive system? A. Intestinal tendon formation* B. Development of glands in the digestive tract* 66 C. Tooth formation* D. Appearance of spinal segments E. Appearance of spinal curves F. Complete Skeletal Formation 348. What are the 3 directions in the evolution of the mammalian circulatory system? A. Appearance of the heart and increase in the number of chambers* B. Division of the circulatory system into small and large circulations* C. Division of the heart into left arterial and right venous parts* D. Formation of the cardiac sac E. No Mixed Blood F. Division of the heart into right arterial and left venous parts 349. Choose 3 types of skin epithelium from a phylogenetic point of view? A. single-layer-multi-row, ciliated* B. multi-layer* C. Single-layer cuticular* D. Single-layer non-keratinized E. consists of the hypodermis F. develops from the mesoderm 350. What are the 3 directions of evolution of the integumentary tissue characteristic of the vertebrae? A. formation of dermis and hypodermis in the skin* B. Transition from a single-layered epidermis to a multi-layered epidermis* C. Formation of skin derivatives* D. ichthyosis E. Formation of cutaneous outgrowths F. melanism 351. Identify the germ layers of skin development and its derivatives? A. from ectoderm - epidermis* B. from mesoderm – dermis and hypodermis* C. endoderm D. from ecto – and mesoderm – skin and its derivatives* E. from endoderm and mesoderm F. from ecto and endoderm 352. Choose skin abnormalities? A. Hair abnormalities* B. Skin pigmentation disorders* C. Skin keratinization disorder* D. vitiligo 67 E. monodactyly F. tracheamegaly 353. Choose vertebrates that have a mesonephrosis kidney? A. Fish* B. amphibians* C. Fish and amphibians* D. reptiles E. Birds F. Mammals 354. determine how many tubules are present in the kidneys during human embryogenesis? A. in pronephros- 10* B. in mesonephros- 100 * C. in metanephros- 1000000* D. in Pronephros- 6-12 E. in mesonefros-1000000 F. in metanephros- 100 355. Specify the types of mutations that occur due to genotype changes: A. gene mutation* B. plasma mutation C. genomic * D. chromosomal mutation* E. allelomorphic F. Modification 356. Indicate the pathways of transgenesis into a cell or into an organism of a DNA vector with the desired gene ? A. transformation and Transduction.* B. Initiation and Elongation C. Hybridization of higher organisms or conjugation in prosthetic organisms and bacteria.* D. transgression is the reunion of a virus that enters a cell and its manifestation genes in the phenotype* E. induction and Recognicia F. Termination and conjugation 357. Which genes are distinguished in terms of functionality and determine their properties? A. Structural Genes and Regulatory Genes* 68 B. Structural Genes, Control Genes, Resulting Genes C. Structural genes are located side by side and form a single unit called Opreon * D. Structural genes ensure the synthesis of special proteins E. The operon consists of a promoter and an operator * F. The regulatory gene consists of a promoter and an operator 358. What are the ideas put forward in the mutation theory? A. Mutations occur suddenly* B. Mutations occur only in germ cells C. Mutations can only be obtained experimentally D. Mutations occur only in nature E. similar mutations can occur repeatedly* F. the traits resulting from the mutation are persistent* 359. Specify genomic mutations A. hemophilia B. Albinism C. Monogamy* D. Polyploidy* E. trisomy * F. indactilia 360. Specify gene mutations A. Color blindness* B. hemophilia* C. Otosclerosis * D. recognition E. Elongation F. Synegrism 361. Identify the main difficulties in the study of human heredity A. the impossibility of obtaining an artificial mutation * B. Difference in nationality C. Not a single weight D. Not a lone phenotype E. Small number of descendants * F. Late Sexual Vision* 362. Indicate the traits that occur in dizygotic twins and have a concordance of less than 10%. A. measles B. Rheumatism* C. Epilepsy* 69 D. Blood type E. Eye Color F. strabismus* 363. Identify Human Genetic Methods A. biotechnology B. Twin* C. cytogenetic* D. dermatoglyphic* E. Biophysical F. hybridological 364. Which human chromosomes belong to group "C" A. 5 B. 6 and 11* C. 14 D. 12* E. 13 F. sex X chromosome* 365. Which human chromosomes are metacentric? A. 1 and 3 * B. 3 and 5 C. 19* D. 20* E. 21 F. 22 366. Which human karyotype chromosomes are acrocentric? A. 13, 14 and 15* B. 19 C. 20 D. 22* E. 21* F. 1, 2, 3 367. Which human karyotype chromosomes are submetacentric? A. 8* B. 3 P. 6 and 7* D. 22 E. 4 goes 5* F. 5 va 15 368. Indicate the chromosomes of the human karyotype that have satellites 70 A. 21 and 22* B. 13 and 14* C. 3 and 13 D. 4 and 21 E. 15* F. 4 and 5 369. Specify the parts of chromosomes A. Satellite* B. Double Belt C. centromere* D. receptor E. Secondary constriction* F. centrosphere 370. Specify non-hereditary traits A. characteristic * B. Weight * C. Profession * D. Blood type E. number of chromosomes F. six-fingered 371. Indicate the pairs of human chromosomes that have a secondary constriction A. 1 and 16* B. 6 and 8* C. 9 D. 11* And. 10 F. 3 372. Specify the sections of dermatoglyphics A. Palmoscopy* B. Morphoscopy C. plantoscopy* D. Morphometry E. Fingerprinting* F. Epiloscopy 373. What dermatoglyphic indicators can be seen on the palmar surface of the hand? A. Receptors B. Blood vessels C. Pleats* D. Hair 71 E. Lines * F. pads* 374. What types of lines are found on the pads of the fingers? A.stellate B. circular* C. Crescentae D. loop-shaped* E. radiant F. arcuate* 375. Identify the chromosomes that are involved in the manifestation of the line on the pads and Fingers A. 16 B. 17 and 18* C. 11 D. 21* E. 13* F. 12 376. Dermatoglyphic signs observed in Klinefelter syndrome ? A. is characterized by an increase in the specific gravity of whorls and arches* B. Main triradius on the distal side of the palm C. Reduction of the total ridge count D. The number of patterns on the fingers is increased E. the total number of patterns on the fingers is less than normal* F. Main triradius on the proximal side of the palm* 377. What are the symptoms of Down syndrome? A. Tall height B. Sparse hair* C. Normal fingers D. Underdeveloped musculature* E. Long and slender fingers F.Dry skin* 378. Diseases associated with autosomes ? A. Edwards syndrome* Syndrome "Cat's cry"* C. Color blindness D. Klinefelter syndrome E down syndrome * F. Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome 379. What are the symptoms of Klinefelter's disease? 72 A. Narrow shoulders* B. Most of the finger patterns are arcuate* C. Underdevelopment of the vas deferens* D. Short legs, height E. narrow pelvis F. well-developed muscles 380. What are the symptoms of Shereshevsky-Turner disease? A. 47 chromosomes B. 45 chromosomes* C. More likely to be normal D. Short limbs* E. short neck* F. circulatory system disorders 381. What are the signs of Cat Cry Syndrome? A. Vocal cord changes* B. Division of the sixth chromosome C. Mental and physical weakness* D. 43 autosomes E. Small Skull * F. Mutation of the fourth chromosome 382. What are the signs of Patau syndrome? A. extra chromosome 18 in the karyotype B. Low height and weight* C. Life expectancy at least 50 years D. cleft lip and palate* E. no changes in the gonads are observed F. Main triradius 180* 383. What are the characteristics of chromosomal diseases? A. karyotype unchanged B. Early death* C. Sex chromosomes unchanged D. are not inherited * E. arise anew * F. occur only as a result of changes in autosomes 384. What are the signs of phenylketonuria? A. Disruption of the normal breakdown of phenylalanine* B. Reduction of melanin in the skin* C. Dementia* D. Absence of baby teeth E. Obesity 73 F. flatmelt 385. Specify the gene diseases that arise as a result of impaired amino acid metabolism. A. Albinism* B. galoctosemia C mucopolysacharidoses D. phenylketonuria* E. gangliosidosis F. alcoptonuria* 386. Specify the diseases of carbohydrate metabolism disorders. A. leukodystrophy* B. fructosuria* C. mucopolysacharidoses * D. phenylketonuria E. Albinism F. hemophilia 387. Specify the diseases of lipid metabolism disorders. A. alcaptanuria B mucopolysacharidoses C sphyhomyelicosis* D. galactosemia E. leukodystrophy* F. glucofebrosidosis* 388. What are the signs of alkaptonuria? A. darkening of the urine* B. yellow nasal cartilage C. Yellow articular cartilage* D. Absence of black pigment in the joints E. darkening of the cartilage of the auricle * F. yellow urine 389. What are the signs of hemoglobinopathy? A. trombosis * B. Albinism C. hypertrichosis D. hexa-fingered E. small-tailoring * F. Circulatory disorders* 390. Indicate the diseases of purine and pyrimidine metabolism disorders. A. Lack of hypoxanthine-phosphorylbosyl-transferase (HFRT) enzymes* 74 B. Increase in uric acid* C. Acceleration of the frequency of muscle contraction* D. Hair Color Change E. Tooth loss F. flatness 391. What are the signs of gangliosidosis ? A. sindactilia B. leukocytosis C. Reduction of melanin D. Receptivity to sounds* E. Visual impairment* F. Weakening of limb movement* 392. What are the symptoms of galoctosemia ? A. Blood clotting B. the body does not absorb haloctose* C. Otosclerosis D. Violation functions baked* E hypertrichosis F. Impaired renal function* 393. What are the symptoms of albinism? A. Lack of adrenaline B. Tyrosine-free* C. Blurred vision* D. No iris pigment* E. Eye color: black or blue F. Short stature 394. What are the characteristics of liver fluke eggs? A. Color 26-32μm, width 11-15μm* B. Color pale gelatinous, sheath thin* C. The shape is oval, one side is wide, the other is thin, the cap is visible* D length 68-71 μm, width 45 μm E. grey or dark brown F. oval in shape, with a cap at one pole and an arched protrusion at the other, several blastomeres visible inside 395. What are the characteristics of the eggs of the broad tapeworm? A. Length 68-71 μm, width 45 μm* B. grey or dark brown * C. oval in shape, with a cap at one pole and an arched projection at the other, several blastomeres visible inside* 75 D. Color 26-32 μm, width 11-15 μm E. Color pale gelatous, sheath thin F. The shape is oval, one side is wide, the other is thin, the cap is visible 396. What are the characteristics of human roundworm eggs? A. Length 50-75 μm, width 40-50 μm* B. Dark grey * C. oval shape, surrounded by 3 layers of shell, covered with protein membrane on the outside, rough, shiny in the middle, tufted on the inside* D. Length 50-60 μm, width 20-30 μm E. Colorless F. oval forié, outer shell smooth, larva visible inside 397. What are the characteristics of whipworm eggs? A. Length 50-54 μm, width 22-33 μm* B. yellow* C. barrel-shaped, surrounded by a dense shell* D. length 50-75 μm, width 40-50 μm E. Dark Grey F. oval shaped, surrounded by 3 layers of shell 398. Identify the animals that are part of the VERMES group A. Annelides* B. Kinothelminthes C. Nemathelminthes* D. Ctenothelminthes E. Cestolides F. Plathelminthes* 399. what is the concept of devastation, deworming and by whom it was introduced into science? A. deworming – measures aimed at the complete eradication of the species V. N. Pavlovskii C. Extinction-– measures aimed at the complete eradication of the species * D. Evastation – measures aimed at cleansing the host organism and destroying the eggs and larvae of the parasite E. deworming – measures aimed at cleansing the host body and destroying the eggs and larvae of the parasite* F. Scriabin * 400. What parasites have been completely eradicated in Uzbekistan , and the primary task has been set to exterminate another species. Identify these parasites A. Drakunkulez – the task of total destruction has been set B. Teniarinxoz – the task of total destruction has been set * C. ankilostomidoz – devastation performed 76 D. teniarinxoz and Ankilostomidoz are completely extinct as a species E. Ankilostomidoz - the task of total destruction has been set * F. Drakunkulez – utterly destroyed* 401. Specify the orders of arachnids? A. phalanx, clasp* B. karakurts C. scorpions* D. bedbugs E. Spiders* F. ixodes 402. What are the types of mouthparts of ticks? A. Piercing-sucking* B. Licking C. sucking* D. Piercing gnawing E. gnawing* F. piercing-licking 403. How does the approach of the organisms of the larvae and nymphs of ixoded ticks feel? A. Soil vibrations* B. Fever* C. Increase in the concentration of CO2 in the air* D. From Sound E. From the Shadow F. Odor 404. What are the diseases that are anthropozoonoses? A. taiga encephalitis* B. leishmaniasis* C. trichomanadosis D. Plague* E. amoebiasis F. Avian malaria 405. What disease does whipworm cause, where does it parasitize, and its morphological features? A. trichocephalosis* B. in the upper part of the large intestine, the cecum, sometimes in the cecum* C. Female length 3-5 cm., anterior end in the form of a hair, posteri

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