K101 Final Exam Study Guide SP21 PDF

K101 Final Exam Study Guide, SP21. 208 Questions, you supply the answers! Your Final Exam (140 points) will consist of 90 questions directly as written from this study guide (ie: This IS your final). 50 questions are 2 points each; 40 questions are 1 point each = 140 points. Feel free to work in tea...

K101 Final Exam Study Guide, SP21. 208 Questions, you supply the answers! Your Final Exam (140 points) will consist of 90 questions directly as written from this study guide (ie: This IS your final). 50 questions are 2 points each; 40 questions are 1 point each = 140 points. Feel free to work in teams to determine the correct answers; don’t trust answers from unknown sources! Unit 1: The Chemistry of Life —> Ch. 4 – Organic Molecules 1. In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by a. polar covalent bonds. b. ionic bonds. c. hydrogen bonds. d. nonpolar covalent bonds. 2. Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments demonstrated conclusively that a. life arose on Earth from simple organic molecules, with energy from lightning and volcanoes. b. the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the origin of life. c. life arose on Earth 3.8 billion years ago from simple inorganic molecules. d. organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early Earth. e. the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the abiotic synthesis of organic molecules. 3. What do the four ‘elements of life’ -carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen-have in common? a. They are equal in electronegativity b. They are elements produced only by living cells c. They all have the same number of valence electrons d. Each element exists in only one isotopic form e. They all have unpaired electrons in their valence shells. 4. Using the functional group diagram at right answer A – E which of the following is incorrectly matched?: a. A = amino group b. B = thiol group c. C = carbonyl (aldehyde) d. D= organic phosphate e. E= carboxyl group 5. Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because a. the oxygen atom in a water molecule has a weak positive charge. b. each of the hydrogen atoms in a water molecule is weakly negative in charge. c. oxygen has a valence of 2. d. the water molecule is shaped like a tetrahedron. e. the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent bonds. 6. Which functional group shown at right is: i) is an acidic functional group that can release H+ into a solution? ii) a basic functional group that can accept H+? iii) can exist as a ketone or aldehyde configuration? iv) a characteristic of alcohols? v) helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules? Ch. 5 – Macromolecules 7. Which modifications of fatty acids will best keep triglycerides solid at warmer temperatures? a. adding hydrogens and trans double bonds to the fatty acids b. adding cis double bonds and trans double bonds to the fatty acids c. creating cis double bonds to the fatty acids d. adding hydrogens to the fatty acids e. creating trans double bonds to the fatty acids 1 8. A comparison of saturated and naturally occurring unsaturated fats reveals that the unsaturated fats are __________ at room temperature and have _______: a. Solids; cis double bonds b. Liquids; trans double bonds c. Liquids; single bonds d. Liquids; cis double bonds e. Solids; single bonds 9. A molecule with four joined rings that is the precursor of vertebrate sex hormones (See Box 4.in figure below) and is also found in the vertebrate phospholipid bilayer is: a. estrogen b. testosterone c. glycerol d. cholesterol e. a phospholipid 10. A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a __, where one with the formula C6H12O6 is probably a ___ a. carbohydrate and fatty acid, respectively b. fatty acid and monosaccharide, respectively c. protein and monosaccharide, respectively. d. nucleic acid and fatty acid, respectively. e. fatty acid and nucleotide, respectively 11. Match the molecules shown below and to the right a. cholesterol. b. dipeptide. c. saturated fatty acid. d. polyunsaturated fatty acid. e. glucose. 1. 3. 2. 4. 5. 12. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding chemical reaction (5) illustrated above? a. It is a hydrolysis reaction. b. It results in a peptide bond. c. It joins two fatty acids together. d. It is a hydrolysis reaction and it results in a peptide bond. e. It is a hydrolysis reaction, it results in a peptide bond, and it joins two fatty acids together. 13. A bond that forms by joining monomers (such as nucleotides or amino acids) into polymers (such as DNA or insulin) is a(n): a. Hydrogen bond b. Ionic bond c. Peptide bond d. Covalent bond 2 14. Polysaccharides, triacylglycerides, and proteins are similar in that they a. are synthesized from monomers by the process of hydrolysis. b. are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions. c. all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks. d. are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions. e. are synthesized as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers. Unit 2: The Cell —> Chapters 6-10, Cells through Photosynthesis Ch. 6 – 7 Cells & Membranes 15. Match the following parts of the cell to its function i) Nucleus a. Sorting of proteins targeted for extracellular secretion ii) Mitochondria b. Site of cell-cell adhesion and cell recognition iii) Nucleolis c. Site of transcription of mRNA and tRNA for protein synthesis iv) Rough ER d. Synthesis of the steroid hormone testosterone v) Golgi apparatus e. Synthesis of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation vi) Lysosome f. Site of rRNA for protein synthesis vii) Smooth ER g. Intercellular digestion viii) Extracellular Matrix h. Synthesis of the insulin receptor, a transmembrane glycoprotein 16. Proteins that are manufactured for secretion (export from the cell): a. are made in the cytosol and transported across the ER membrane b. are threaded through special pores in the plasma membrane c. are made in the smooth ER and packaged in transport vesicles d. have carbohydrates covalently added when the proteins are in transport vesicles e. are made in the rough ER and packaged in transport vesicles 17. Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15 M NaCl. Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45 M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater? a. The blood cells will take up water, swell, and eventually burst. b. NaCl will passively diffuse into the red blood cells. c. Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse. d. NaCl will be exported from the red blood cells by facilitated diffusion. e. The blood cells will expend ATP for active B C transport of NaCl into the cytoplasm. 18. All of the following are functions of integral A membrane proteins except a. Synthesis of hormones. b. Active transport of ions. c. Cell – cell adhesion. d. Reception of hormone signals like epinephrine. E e. Attachment to the extracellular membrane. D 19. Match the components of the plasma membrane with the letters in the figure at right. F a. Cholesterol - b. Glycolipid - c. Integral Membrane Protein - d. Peripheral Membrane Protein - e. Glycoprotein – 3 Ch. 8 - ATP & ENERGY 20. Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell? a. anabolic reactions b. hydrolysis c. respiration d. digestion e. catabolic reactions 21. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism? a. Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions. b. It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions. c. Its terminal phosphate group has unusually strong covalent bonds that generate free energy. 22. Increasing the substrate concentration in a reaction could overcome which of the following? a. denaturation of the enzyme b. allosteric inhibition c. competitive inhibition d. saturation of the enzyme activity e. insufficient cofactors 23. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: The primary way that cells do work is called energy coupling, using ATP. Which statements below statements accurately defines energy coupling? a. Anabolic reactions drive catabolic reactions. b. Exergonic reactions drive endergonic reactions. c. Endergonic reactions drive exergonic reactions. d. ATP hydrolysis releases free energy that can be coupled to an endergonic reaction via the formation of a phosphorylated intermediate. e. Endergonic and exergonic reactions occur independently of each other. 24. The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is a. phosphorylase. b. phosphatase. c. protein kinase. d. ATPase. e. protease. Ch. 9 & 10 – Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis 25. In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about five times the area of the outer mitochondrial membranes. What purpose must this serve? a. It allows for an increased rate of glycolysis. b. It allows for an increased rate of the citric acid cycle. c. It increases the surface area for oxidative phosphorylation. d. It increases the surface for substrate-level phosphorylation. e. It allows the liver cell to have fewer mitochondria. 26. Why is the Calvin cycle said to be dependent on the light reactions? a. The light reactions generate the molecular oxygen needed for the production of sugars in the Calvin cycle. b. G3P produced in the light reactions is oxidized in the Calvin cycle. c. The light reactions produce the ATP energy and NADPH for sugar production in the Calvin cycle. d. RuBP produced in the light reactions facilitates CO2 fixation in the Calvin cycle. e. Photons of light that are byproducts of the light reactions provide the energy for the Calvin cycle. 27. One function of alcohol and lactic acid fermentation is to a. reduce NAD+ to NADH. b. reduce FAD+ to FADH2. c. oxidize NADH to NAD+. d. reduce FADH2 to FAD+. 4 28. When skeletal muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is now known to be caused by a. buildup of pyruvate. b. buildup of lactate. c. increase in sodium ions. d. increase in potassium ions. e. increase in ethanol. 29. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the 4 kinase enzymes in glycolysis might be the enzyme shown below? a. Hexokinase b. Pyruvate Kinase (PK) c. Phosphofructokinase (PFK) d. Phosphoglycerokinase (PGK) 30. Photosynthesis and respiration: Match with the correct location in the cell a. Krebs cycle i) Thylakoid membrane b. Calvin cycle ii) Thylakoid lumen c. Light reactions iii) Mitochondrial inner membrane space d. Proton Gradient in aerobic respiration iv) Chloroplast stroma e. Proton Gradient in light reactions v) Mitochondrial matrix 31. Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis? a. 0% b. 2% c. 10% d. 38% e. 100% 32. A C4 plant initially fixes CO2 into ____ where a C3 plant fixes CO2 into _______ a. Oxaloacetic acid using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubisco. b. G3P using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubisco c. Malic acid using Rubisco, PGA using PEP carboxylase. d. RuBP using Rubisco, Oxaloacetic acid using PEP carboxylase e. ATP using PEP carboxylase, PGA using Rubisco. 33. Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction? 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 a. C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced. b. O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced. c. CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized. d. CO2 is reduced and H2O is oxidized. e. O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized. 34. The oxygen consumed during aerobic cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event? a. glycolysis b. accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain c. the citric acid cycle d. the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA e. the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP 35. Which of the following is NOT true about Rubisco? a. It is a carboxylase b. It is an oxygenase c. It is a kinase d. It is the most abundant protein in the world e. It fixes carbon dioxide into an organic form 5 Unit 3: Genetics —> Chapters 11-15, Cell signaling through Genetics (18 questions) Ch. 11 – Cell Communication 36. Up to 60% of all medicines used today influence what structures in the cell membrane? a. Receptor tyrosine-kinases b. Epinephrine receptors c. Growth factors d. G-protein linked receptors e. Steroid hormone receptors 37. How does adenylyl cyclase help transmit signals within a cell? a. Adenylyl cyclase converts cAMP to phosphodiesterase, which then amplifies the signal throughout the cell. b. Adenylyl cyclase activates a G protein after binding to an extracellular ligand. c. Adenylyl cyclase activates phospholipase C, releasing IP3and DAG from membrane lipids. d. Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP to cAMP, which then amplifies the signal throughout the cell. e. Adenylyl cyclase is responsible for the initial dimerization of R-TK proteins. 38. MATCHING: Match the following components related to cell signaling a. Epinephrine 1. Adenylyl cyclase b. Intergral membrane protein receptor 2. G-Protein c. Intergral membrane protein enzyme 3. GPCR d. Peripheral membrane protein that binds GTP 4. cAMP e. Second messenger generated from ATP 5. Ligand 39. Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) are found at high levels on various cancer cells. A protein, Herceptin, has been found to bind to an RTK known as HER2 if which of the following is true? a. If Herceptin is found in the breast lymph nodes of the patient. b. If HER2, administered by injection, is in sufficient concentration. c. If the patient's breast cancer cells have detectable HER2. d. If the patient's genome codes for the HER2 receptor. e. If the patient's genome codes for the manufacture of Herceptin. 40. MATCHING: Enzyme Roundup: Cell Signalling 1. Phosphodiesterase a. Converts ATP to cAMP after G-protein signalling 2. Phospholipase C b. Converts cAMP to AMP; inhibited by caffeine 3. Receptor Tyrosine Kinase c. Converts membrane lipids to IP3 and DAG 4. Adenylyl Cyclase d. Phosphorylates relay molecules after activation and dimerization 41. The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases (R-TKs) is always characterized by a. Dimerization and auto-phosphorylation. b. Activation of adenylyl cyclase c. A phosphorylation cascade. d. GTP hydrolysis. e. Phosphorylation of Protein Kinase A. Ch12 & 13 - Mitosis & Meiosis 42. If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be a. 0.25x. b. 0.5x. c. x. d. 2x. e. 4x. 6 43. If the cell whose nuclear material is shown at right continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next? a. cell membrane synthesis b. spindle fiber formation c. nuclear envelope breakdown d. formation of telophase nuclei e. synthesis of chromatids 44. Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells _____ a. have altered plasma membranes and cytoskeletal proteins b. have mutations or deletions in tumor suppressors like p53 c. have the ability to stimulate new blood vessel formation d. do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition of growth e. all of the above 45. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following occurs in meiosis, but not mitosis? a. The cells formed have the same combination of genes as found in the initial cell. b. Homologous chromosomes separate. c. The nuclear envelope disappears. d. Sister chromatids undergo disjunction. e. A spindle apparatus forms. 46. In a plant with a diploid chromosome number of 2n = 46, how many pairs of homologous chromosomes are present in a cell that has just entered Meiosis II? (We want everyone correct!) a. 0 b. 2 c. 23 d. 46 47. Using a microscope to examine the skin cells from a female, it is apparent that each nucleus has two Barr bodies. From this karyotype, it can be concluded that the woman’s chromosomal condition is a. 47, XXX b. 46, XX c. 45, XX d. 45, XO e. 47, XXY 48. At what stage of meiosis do cells become haploid? a. Prophase I b. Prophase II c. Telophase I d. Telophase II 49. After Telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is a. diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. b. diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. c. haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. d. haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. e. tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. 50. Homologous chromosomes synapse or pair during: a. anaphase I. b. prophase I. c. anaphase II. d. telophase II. e. prophase II. 7 Ch14 and 15- Genetics 51. Mendel's law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis? a. synapsis of homologous chromosomes b. crossing over in prophase c. alignment of tetrads at the equator in metaphase d. separation of homologs at anaphase e. separation of cells at telophase 52. In a population with two alleles for cystic fibrosis, C and c, the frequency the recessive allele is 0.6. What percent of the population would be heterozygous carriers for cystic fibrosis if the population is in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium? a. 16% b. 36% c. 40% d. 48% e. 64% 53. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails? a. 1/16 b. 3/16 c. 3/8 d. 1/2 e. 9/16 54. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Blood Type: What are the probabilities for blood types in the offspring of individuals who both have type AB blood? a. Type A = 25% b. Type B = 25% c. Type AB = 25% d. Type AB = 50% e. Type O = 25% 55. Epistasis: A black Labrador retriever (BbEe) is crossed with a chocolate Lab (bbEe). In a litter of 16 F1 puppies, what are the likely proportions of black, chocolate or yellow Labs? a. 9 Black, 3 Chocolate, 4 Yellow b. 8 Black, 4 Chocolate, 4 Yellow c. 6 Black, 2 Chocolate, 8 Yellow d. 6 Black, 6 Chocolate, 4 Yellow e. 8 Black, 6 Chocolate, 2 Yellow 56. Sex linkage: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Hemophilia is an X-linked, recessive trait. If a male has hemophilia (XfY), and his spouse is heterozygous for blood clotting factors (XFXf), a. There is a 50% chance that their sons will have hemophilia b. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will have hemophilia c. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will be carriers for hemophilia d. All of their daughters will have hemophilia e. All of their sons will have hemophilia 57. Match the following human genetics disorders with their inheritance patterns? Answers (a-e) may be used more than once i) Marfan’s a) Autosomal recessive condition ii) Tay Sachs b) Autosomal dominant condition iii) Cystic Fibrosis c) X-linked condition iv) Hemophilia d) Multifactorial condition v) Achondroplasia vi) Schizophrenia vii) Polydactyly 8 58. Maize (corn) plants are tall if they have the genotype HH or Hh, and they are short if they have genotype hh. If a tall plant is mated with a short plant as a Test Cross, which outcome would indicate that the tall parent corn plant was heterozygous? a. The ratio of tall offspring to short offspring is 1:1. (50%:50%) b. All of the offspring are short. (100%) c. All of the offspring are tall. (100%) d. The ratio of tall offspring to short offspring is 3:1 (75%:25%). 59. The trait found in the individuals is represented by the shaded symbols. Which of the following patterns of transmission for this gene is/are consistent with this pedigree? a. autosomal recessive b. autosomal dominant c. X-linked recessive 60. Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in a range of symptoms. Which of the following terms best describes this? a. incomplete dominance b. multiple alleles c. pleiotropy d. epistasis e. codominance 61. The pedigree at right shows a family with a disease pattern indicated by shaded symbols. Which of the following patterns of transmission for this gene are consistent with this pedigree? a. autosomal recessive b. autosomal dominant c. X-linked recessive Unit 4: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance —> Chapters 16-19, DNA replication through Viruses Ch. 16 & 17 – DNA Replication, Transcription & Translation 62. A scientist removed the AAC nucleotides at the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine. Which of the following describes the most likely result? a. tRNA will not form a cloverleaf. b. The nearby stem end will pair improperly. c. The amino acid methionine will not be able to bind to the tRNA. d. The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon. e. The aminoacylsynthetase will not be formed. 63. In the figure to the right, mRNA transcription process initiates at the area labeled _______, The messenger RNA transcript in the figure is labeled_____, and the template strand is labeled ______: fill up in the blank a. E; D; C b. E G, D c. A; D; C d. A; C; D e. A; E C 64. The component labeled B in the figure at right is: a. DNase. b. RNA primase. c. Reverse transcriptase. d. DNA polymerase. e. RNA polymerase. 9 65. The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in a. a base-pair substitution. b. a nucleotide mismatch. c. a frameshift mutation. d. a polypeptide missing an amino acid. e. a nonsense mutation. 66. A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA). The dipeptide that will form will be a. cysteine-alanine. b. proline-threonine. c. glycine-cysteine. d. alanine-alanine. e. threonine-glycine. 67. The anticodon loop of a tRNA that will complement this mRNA: 5' CCG 3' is a. 3' GGC 5' b. 5' GGC 3' c. 5' ACG 3' d. 5' UGC 3' e. 3' UGC 5' 68. When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are brought to the ER membrane by a. a specific characteristic that identifies it as a “bound” ribosome itself. b. a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane. c. moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus. d. a chemical given off by the ER. e. a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message. Codon chart NOTE: Several questions on the final refer to the codon chart, similar to those below, but using different sequences. As long as you know how to use the Codon Chart, you will be able to answer the questions 69. What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3' a. met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg b. met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu c. met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser d. met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu e. met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu 70. RNA molecules with enzymatic functions (such as peptidyltransferase) are called __________. a. RNA polymerases b. transfer RNAs c. polysomes d. ribozymes e. aminoacyl-RNA synthetases 71. Using the Codon Chart, match the designation with the following 3 mutations a. GAA à GUA (Sickle Cell Anemia) x. Silent Mutation b. UGC à UGA (Phenylketoneuria, or PKU) y. Missense Mutation c. AAU à AAC (Single Nucleotide Polymorphism, or SNP) z. Nonsense Mutation 10 72. The 5’ end of a DNA strand always has a free ______ group while the 3’ end always has a free _______ group. a. phosphate; hydroxyl b. hydroxyl; phosphate c. phosphate; amine d. amine; phosphate e. phosphate; acidic 73. Match the following aspects of DNA replication (A-F) to their correct descriptions i) Site of action of DNA Ligase ii) Leading Strand iii) Okasaki Fragments iv) Lagging Strand v) RNA primers vi) DNA Template Strand Ch. 18 – Gene Regulation 74. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: The human Crystalline gene is contained in the genome of every cell of a human, but is only expressed (made into protein) in the lens of the eye. This is because a. The crystalline gene is spliced out of the genome early in development in all cells in the body except lens cells b. Activator proteins (transcription factors) that bind to regulatory regions of the crystalline gene are only found in the lens cells c. The crystalline gene has specific promoter and enhancer control elements that bind to only lens-specific activators 75. Which of the following is the attachment site for RNA polymerase? a. the small subunit of the ribosome b. the TATAAA box c. the enhancer d. the Upstream Promoter Elements e. the AUG codon 76. Upstream (proximal) promoter elements in eukaryotes are: a. nucleotide sequences that act as binding sites for RNA polymerase. b. nucleotide sequences that regulate the efficiency of transcription initiation. c. nucleotide sequences that contain the TATA box. d. proteins that are required for RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter. e. proteins that inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter. 77. Which of the following is most likely to be ubiquitinated (ie: tagged with ubiquitin)? a. a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2 b. a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER c. an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated d. a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached e. an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization 78. Alternative RNA splicing a. is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription. b. can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA. c. can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs. d. increases the rate of transcription. 79. In eukaryotes, histone methylation ________, while histone acetylation __________. a. marks genes for destruction, promotes transcription b. promotes transcription, represses transcription c. imprints genes; inactivates genes d. inactivates genes; reduces the size of the genome e. represses transcription, promotes transcription 11 80. In human females, one X chromosome per cell is randomly inactivated during early embryonic development, forming a Barr Body. Much of the DNA in this chromosome is then in the form of a. Introns b. Chromosome puffs c. Heterochromatin d. Euchromatin e. Tetrads 81. MicroRNAs (miRNAs) and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) both function to "silence" genes, by, a. Causing chromatin de-acetylation and tight winding of the DNA b. Acting as a release factor to cause ribosome disassembly c. Activating the Dicer enzyme to rapidly degrade the mRNA d. Binding to complementary RNA sequences to prevent translation e. Binding to complementary DNA sequences to prevent transcription 82. Which of the following occurs in eukaryotic, but not prokaryotic, gene expression? a. mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed. b. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter. c. A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end. d. Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little. e. RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule. 83. Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they: a. Express different genes. b. Contain different genes. c. Use tissue-specific tRNAs to create different amino acid sequences from the same gene d. Have unique ribosomes. e. Have different chromosomes. 84. The functioning of enhancers is an example of: a. Transcriptional control of gene expression. b. A post-transcriptional mechanism to regulate mRNA. c. The stimulation of translation by initiation factors. d. Post-translational control that activates certain proteins. e. How efficiently the mRNA can bind to the ribosome. Ch. 19 Viruses and Prions 85. Viruses that attack bacteria are called: a. phages. b. bacteroids c. prions. d. virons. e. viroids. 86. In the bacteriophage shown above, the functions of the structures labeled 2 and 3 are a. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= locomotion. b. 2= mate recognition, 3= attachment to a host cell c. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= replication. d. 2= to take over host cell mechanisms, 3= attachment to a host cell. e. 2= protection of the genetic material, 3= attachment to a host cell 87. Retroviruses like the HIV virus differ from other viruses by: a. Using the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy their RNA into DNA. b. the shape of their capsid. c. the way they infect their host cells. d. the sugar coating on their capsids. e. lytically destroying their hosts. 12 88. All of the following are DNA viruses except: a. The Herpes virus that causes cold sores b. The Influenza virus that causes the ‘flu. c. The Pox-viruses that cause chicken pox d. The Human Papilloma virus that causes cervical cancer e. The Parvoviruses that cause the common cold 89. During the lytic life cycle of phages, which of the following occurs? a. The phage capsid fuses with the host cell, allowing the viral genome to be inserted into the host nucleus. b. The host cell often dies, releasing many newly assembled copies of the virus. c. The host cell usually lives and secretes the copies of the virus. d. The phage enters the host cell intact during infection. e. The host cell lives, with the viral genome becoming incorporated into the host cell’s own genome 90. MATCHING Match the RNA viruses with the diseases they cause a. Polio and Hepatitis A w. Filovirus b. West Nileand Hepatitis C x. Picornaviruses c. Measles and Mumps y. Flavivirus d. Ebola and other hemorrhagic fevers z. Paramyxoviruses 91. The Prion Hypothesis (Dr. Stanley Pruissner) states that a. Mad cow disease is caused by eating beef tainted with abnormally folded prion proteins. b. Cooking beef or lamb infected with prion proteins will destroy the prions, making the meat safe to eat. c. Kuru, a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy in humans, can be caused by the religious practice of ritual cannibalism. d. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies result from the conversion of normal PrP-c to an abnormally folded PrP-sc state e. Prion particles infect cells of the brain and redirect the cell’s protein synthesis machinery to replicate new prion particles in the neurons responsible for memory 92. Prion diseases of humans include: a. Kuru. b. Scrapie. c. Mad Cow Disease. d. Variant Creutfeld-Jacob disease (vCJD). e. A and D 93. Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to bacteria, viruses and prions? a. Proteins b. Cell division c. Nucleic acids d. Ribosomes e. Metabolism Unit 5: The Evolutionary History of Biological Diversity Ch 20 Biotech through Ch 27-Ch 31 Plants Ch 20 BIOTECHNOLOGY FinalCh20_DrugsScientistsCloning 94. Which of the recombinant DNA drugs is incorrectly matched with its indication (the disease it is prescribed to treat)? a. Humulin (Lilly): Diabetes (Insulin) b. Epogen (Amgen): Anemia (Erythropoetin) c. Neupogen (Amgen): Multiple sclerosis (interferon) d. Activase/TNKase (Genentech): AMI - Acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) e. Regranex (Novartis): Diabetic foot ulcers (PDGF) 13 95. Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology i) Ian Wilmut a. First Human Gene Therapy ii) Jennifer Doudna b. Dideoxy DNA Sequencing iii) W. French Anderson c. Isolation of Bacterial Plasmids iv) Shinya Yamanaka d. Cloning of Dolly the Sheep v) Stanley Cohen e. Derivation of Human Embryonic Stem Cells vi) Kary Mullis f. Whole Genome Shotgun Sequencing vii) Herb Boyer g. CRISPR Cas9 viii) James Thompson h. Isolation of Restriction Enzymes, Founder of Genentech ix) Fred Sanger i. Polymerase Chain Reaction x) Craig Venter j. Induced Pleuripotent Stem Cells 96. In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique, a heating phase and a cooling phase alternate in cycles. An original sample of DNA would have to pass through how many total cycles to amplify the DNA ~1 billion times? (What about 2 billion times? What about 1 trillion times?) a. 20 b. 21 c. 30 d. 31 e. 40 97. This figure shows the steps in cloning the human insulin gene. What process or enzyme was used for Step 1? a. ligase b. transcriptase c. a restriction enzyme d. RNA polymerase e. DNA polymerase 98. Gene Therapy treatments with new drugs like Kymriah and Yescarta (select all that apply) a. Provide a safer bone marrow transplant procedure using matched donors b. Are the first FDA-approved drugs for personalized immunotherapy to treat specific leukemias c. Involve the use of a genetically engineered Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell to recognize proteins like CD19 on cancer cells d. Require the formation of a blastocyst that is then used for gene editing e. Can cure autoimmune disorders like diabetes and multiple sclerosis 99. Match the mAb (monoclonal Antibody) drug with the disease it is intended to treat a. Herceptin (1) RSV (Respiratory syncytial Virus b. Rituxin (2) Cancer (anti-VEGF, anti angiogenesis) c. Enbrel (3) HER-2+ breast cancer d. Synagis (4) CD20+ Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma e. Avastin (5) T-cell autoimmune diseases like Rheumatoid arthritis and Psoriasis 100. In the pGLO lab, how could you confirm that a transformed cell was expressing the bla gene? a. It would fluoresce green b. It would grow on Amp plates c. It would not grow on ‘LB only’ plates d. It would only grow on ‘LB only’ plates 14 101. After transformation of HB101 by pGLO, why are the cells grown in LB broth for 20 minutes before plating on Amp plates? a. The Green Fluorescent Protein takes 20 minutes to be transcribed and translated b. The pGLO plasmid does not fully enter the HB101 cells until 20 minutes after the heat shock c. The Arabinose promoter needs at least 20 minutes before RNA polymerase can bind to the promoter d. There is a phenotypic lag of ~20 minutes before the b-lactamase gene for Amp resistance can be expressed e. The HB101 bacteria are weak after the heat shock treatment, and need 20 minutes to recover 102. E. coli can absorb the sugar Arabinose from its surroundings. When Arabinose is present, a. It binds to a repressor protein at the promoter of the Arabinose Operon b. It changes the conformation of the repressor protein such that RNA polymerase can begin transcribing the Ara operon. c. It binds to DNA and functions as an enhancer to turn on the Green Fluorescent Protein d. a and b 103. Match the following components of the CRISPR Cas9 Gene Editing system to their function a. PAM (1) An endonuclease that can create double strand breaks in DNA b. Cas9 (2) An RNA molecule engineered to be complementary to the target to be edited c. sgRNA (3) A 3-6 nucleotide DNA sequence immediately downstream of the target site in the genomic DNA to be edited. Chapter 20 - Cloning Stem Cells 104. Which of these statements is NOT TRUE regarding the procedure for making cloned animals by somatic cell nuclear transfer? a. The recipient egg is e-nucleated before the procedure b. The donor nucleus can be either from a male or a female cell c. The donor nucleus is from a haploid, quiescent cell d. A brief electric shock is used to simulate fertilization e. A surrogate mother is used to carry the pregnancy to term 105. Match the cloned animal with their ‘claim to fame’: i) Idaho Gem a. First cloned housecat (female calico) ii) Dolly b. First cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin iii) Prometia c. First cloned mule iv) Zhong Zhong d. First cloned piglet engineered for human organ transplants v) Cc e. First cloned macaque for neuroscience research vi) Joy e. First cloned mammal (1996) 106. Human embryonic stem cells (hES cells) and Human Induced Pleuripotent Stem Cells (hiPS)may be useful in transplantation medicine because the cells a. Are pleuripotent and can form virtually any cell type in the body with appropriate hormones and growth factors b. Make the enzyme telomerase, allowing them to replicate indefinitely in tissue culture c. Have the same genetic karyotype as a normal human cell d. Can be prepared to provide an exact tissue match to a patient e. All of the above 107. In 2007, it was reported that adult, differentiated human skin cells can be made to behave as pluripotent stem cells by the introduction of a few genes: Oct 4, Sox2, Kfl4 and c-myc. What concern has limited the potential of human Induced Pleuripotent Stem Cells as human therapeutics? a. The gene c-myc is an oncogene that causes a cancer phenotype in about 25% of the cell cultures. b. There are ethical concerns about destroying a blastocyst to obtain the initial cells. c. The cells in culture can only generate new skin cells, limiting their potential to treat diseases. d. Legislation from the waning years of the George W. Bush administration currently prohibits the use of federal funds for this research. 15 108. Human embryonic stem cells (hES cells) derived from blastocysts donated after IVF (in vitro fertilization) have been successfully used in research to: a. Create new mesodermal cells like beating heart cells b. Create new ectodermal cells like dopamine-producing nerve cells c. Create new endodermal cells like insulin-secreting pancreatic islet cells d. Create a cloned human from stem-cell derived eggs and sperm 109. The bacteria Bacillus thurengiensis (Bt) a. naturally makes a crystal protein toxic to Lepidopteran insects b. causes food poisoning in people who eat the crystal protein c. is the active ingredient in the insecticide Dipel d. all of the above e. a and c 110. In the crop called Golden Rice, this genetically modified food a. contains 4 genes from daffodils and bacteria that together produce the pigment B-carotene in rice b. holds the potential for preventing the deaths of millions of people every year c. can help prevent blindness resulting from vitamin A deficiency d. will be offered at low cost or no cost to developing countries e. all of the above 111. Crops that are RoundUp Ready a. Make the herbicide RoundUp in every cell of the plant b. Kill weeds in the fields where they are growing c. Are genetically modified to be resistant to treatment with RoundUp herbicide d. Contain a mutant form of the enzyme EPSP synthase that is unaffected by RoundUp herbicide e. c and d only 112. A dideoxy (“chain terminating”) nucleotide used in DNA sequencing differs from a deoxynucleotide as it has a. An -OH at the 3-carbon and an -OH at the 2-carbon of deoxyribose b. A “U” instead of an “A” in base-pairing c. An -H at the 3-carbon and an -OH at the 2-carbon of deoxyribose d. An -H at the 3-carbon and an -H at the 2-carbon of deoxyribose e. Ribose as the sugar and 3 phosphates from ATP Unit 5: The Evolutionary History of Biological Diversity —> Chapters 27-31 Ch 27 Bacteria and Archaebacteria 113. Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of: a. efficient use of their flagella. b. cloaking the cell with host proteins. c. cloaking the cell with a watery capsule. d. changing their cell wall structure to resemble that of their host. e. eliminating the use of a membrane. 114. Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on: a. the nuclear membranes. b. the endoplasmic reticulum. c. infoldings of the plasma membrane. d. ribosomes. e. the cell wall. 115. Extrachromosomal circles of DNA in bacteria called ______ often carry genes involved in _______: a. capsids, bacterial reproduction b. capsids, antibiotic resistance. c. plasmids, viral resistance. d. plasmids, antibiotic resistance. 16 116. Many Gram (+) Eubacteria like Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthraxis have the ability to survive harsh environmental conditions by protecting their DNA in a dormant structure called a(n) a. capsule b. endospore c. endotoxin d. sporangium e. capsid 117. Once they appeared on Earth, ___ forever changed the atmosphere on earth by the production of large quantities of oxygen gas. a. Gm (+) eubacteria b. archaebacteria c. cyanobacteria d. plants e. Gm (-) rickettsias 118. Prokaryotes found inhabiting the Great Salt Lake would be the _____. a. cyanobacteria b. extreme halophiles c. methanogens d. extreme thermophiles 119. The structure in the accompanying figure labeled C (outermost layer) is ___, and the structure indicated by the letter I is _____: a. C - the plasma membrane, I – the cilia. b. C - the capsule, I – the cilia c. C - the capsule, I – the flagella d. C - the cell wall, I – the flagella e. C - the capsule, I – the pilus 120. What is the function of the structures labeled B? a. to adhere to host cells, or other bacteria, or solid substrates b. to prevent phagocytosis by a white blood cell of the host c. to transmit DNA from one cell to another d. to exchange genetic material and genetic traits like antibiotic resistance between cells e. All answers except B 121. The ____ Archaebacteria are typically found in extremely hot environments, whereas the _______ Archaebacteria are typically found in swampy environments lacking oxygen. a. Extreme halophile, methanogenic b. Extreme thermophile, methanogenic c. Pyrrhanogen, Extreme halophilic d. Methanogens, Extreme thermophilic e. Gram positive, Gram negative. 122. Organisms that share the most DNA homology to mitochondria and chloroplasts, respectively, are: a. Proteobacteria, cyanoacteria. b. Proteobacteria, green sulfur bacteria. c. Eubacteria, green sulfur bacteria. d. Eubacteria, cyanobacteria. e. E. coli, green sulfur bacteria 123. What makes rRNA (or another sequence) a good ‘evolutionary chronometer’? a. It is universally distributed across group chosen – all organisms have rRNA. b. It is functionaly similar between organisms – rRNAs all participate in protein synthesis. c. Its sequence changes slowly - good for looking across long periods of time d. The rRNA sequences can be aligned, or matched up, between 2 organisms. e. All of the above 17 124. The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is: a. the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea. b. the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria. c. the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria. d. the small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence. e. All of the above. 125. The first indication that Archaea were different from the Eubacteria came from: a. the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea. b. Ribosome size. c. 16 S rRNA sequence. d. nuclei. e. response to antibiotics. 126. Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by a. an efficient water pump. b. a tough cell membrane. c. pumping large quantities of salts into the cell. d. a rigid cell wall. e. a stiff capsule. 127. Gram-positive bacteria stain _____ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of _____ in their cell walls a. green; peptidoglycan b. purple; peptidoglycan c. green; cellulose d. purple; polysaccharides e. red; polysaccharides 128. Which of the following groups of prokaryotes contains the genus Clostridium, responsible for the human diseases tetanus and botulism? a. Spirochetes b. Cyanobacteria c. Methanogens d. Gram Positive Eubacteria e. Proteobacteria 129. Which of the following groups of prokaryotes in the figure above contains the bacteria Helicobacter pylori, responsible for the human ulcers, and E. coli, beneficial intestinal bacteria in humans? a. Thermophiles b. Cyanobacteria c. Methanogens d. Gram Positive Eubacteria e. Proteobacteria 130. Which of the following groups of prokaryotes might be found in the Great Salt Lake, the Red Sea, the Dead Sea, but NOT necessarily in the ocean? a. Cyanobacteria b. Methanogens c. Gram Positive Eubacteria d. Proteobacteria. e. Extreme Halophiles 18 131. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Which of the following cellular structures are shared by bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes? a. Plasma membrane b. Nuclear envelope c. Membrane-bound organelles d. Cell wall composed of peptidoglycan e. Linear chromosomes 132. Match the Prokaryotes to their classification group: a. Prokaryotes that thrive in the Great Salt Lake and salt evaporation ponds 1. Cyanobacteria b. Prokaryotes that thrive in extremely hot environments 2. Halophiles c. Prokaryotes most closely related to human mitochondria 3. Gram negative proteobacteria d. Prokaryotes most closely related to sunflower chloroplasts 4. Thermophiles 133. Match the bacterium with the human disease it can cause i) Clostridium tetani a. Anthrax ii) Clostridium botulinum b. Syphilis iii) Helicobacter pylori c. Tetanus (“lockjaw”) iv) Bacillus anthraxis d. Stomach ulcers v) Tremonema pallidum e. Botulism (food poisoning) Ch 27 PRACTICAL - A.Bacteria_FA20 134. Ch27: Which of the following is responsible for the human disease Anthrax? a. Panel 1 b. Panel 2 c. Panel 3 d. Panel 4 135. Ch27: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY (ABOVE RIGHT): The colorful organisms growing in this photo a. Are isolated populations of red algae, green algae, and golden algae b. Cause deadly ‘red tides’ in the oceans during the summer months c. Are populations of Halophilic, extremophilic Archaea 19 136. Ch27: MATCHING: Match the following structures (BELOW) with its function. a. 1 = Endospore, protection from adverse environmental conditions b. 2= Sex Pilus, transfer of genetic material from one cell to another c. 3= Heterocyst, fixing N2 into NH3 d. 4= Spirillum, cause of syphilis, sexually transmitted disease 137. Ch27/28: MATCHING: Match the organisms to the disease they cause. i) African Sleeping Sickness ii) Tetanus iii) Malaria iv) Trichomonas 20 Ch 28 PRACTICAL - B.Protists_FA20 138. SELECT ALL THT APPLY: What do these three cells BELOW have in common? a. They all have DNA-containing nuclei (one or more) b. They are all photosynthetic c. They all move by means of flagella d. They are all Unikonts 139. Which of these three cells ABOVE is an Excavate (Superclade 1) that does not have functional mitochondria? a. A b. B c. C d. All of them have mitochondria e. None of them have mitochondria 140. Ch28: The process occurring between cell 1 and 2 BELOW is termed: a. Endospore formation b. Cytoplasmic streaming c. Conjugation d. Asexual reproduction e. Endosymbiosis 141. Ch28: The organism in this slide ABOVE, Spirogyra, is a member of: a. Superclade I: Excavata b. Superclade II: S.A.R. c. Superclade III: Archaeplastida d. Superclade IV: Unikonta 21 142. Ch28: Among the protists shown (1, 2, 3, 4): a. Which two are members of Superclade II, S.A.R? b. Which two are members of Superclade III, Archaeplastida? 143. Ch 28: Parasitic Protists: MATCHING: Match the Protist Diseases / Conditions to their correct picture a. Malaria b. Giardia c. Red Tide d. African Sleeping Sickness Ch 28: Protists: 144. What type of protists have formed massive deposits of chalk, as seen in the White Cliffs of Dover? a. Diatoms b. Dinoflagellates c. Alveolates (Ciliates) d. Cercozoans (Forams) e. Euglenas 22 145. Pseudopods are used by the members of clade Amoebozoa for ingesting food as well as for: a. reproduction. b. excretion. c. digestion. d. movement. e. avoiding predation. 146. Which of the following is true about Radiolarans? a. They cause periodic red tides, poisoning shellfish and the people who eat the shellfish b. They capture prey through the use of thread-like pseudopods c. They have a test (shell) of calcium carbonate (chalk) d. B and c e. All of the above 147. Entamoeba histolytica, a parasite that is the causative agent of Amoebic Dysentery, crawls through the small intestine of its victims via pseudopod formation. Based on this information, Entamoeba histolytica is a member of the clade a. Euglenozoa b. Amoebozoa c. Alveolata d. Stramenopila 148. A commercially important unicellular protist whose silica shells are used in filters, polishes, toothpaste and various industrial processes are the: a. dinoflagellates. b. euglenoids. c. apicomplexans. d. zooflagellates. e. diatoms. 149. Protists like ________________ represent an intermediate stage in eukaryotic evolution when cells each had two haploid nuclei but fusion to become a true diploid organism had not occurred. a. Plasmodium b. Amoeba c. Euglena d. Giardia e. Paramecium 150. The parasitic protist that causes malaria, Plasmodium, must spend part of its life cycle in a nonhuman host. What organism(s) serve(s) as the vector for this life cycle? a. rats b. sand flies c. mosquitos d. leeches e. tse-tse flies 151. Trypanosomes are eukaryotes that are currently classified in the SuperClade a. Superclade I: Excavata b. Superclade II: S.A.R. c. Superclade III: Archaeplastida d. Superclade IV: Unikonta 152. Which organisms are capable of producing a "red tide", secreting a nerve agent toxic to humans? a. dinoflagellates b. chrysophytes (diatoms) c. sporozoans d. euglenids e. red algae 23 153. The mitochondria of eukaryotic cells most likely arose as a result of endosymbiosis between a eukaryotic cell and a a. Cyanobacteria (Blue-green bacteria). b. Gram (-) bacterium like Rickettsia. c. Gram (+) bacterium like Bacillus d. Gram (-) bacterium like E. coli e. Spiral bacteria like spirochaetes 154. In paramecium and stentor, the surface of the cell is covered with thousands of short, hairlike _____: a. pili b. pseudopods c. flagella d. cilia e. trichomes 155. Molecular data in support of endosymbiosis indicates that chloroplasts are highly similar to __________ that may have been engulfed by a heterotrophic eukaryote over a billion year ago. a. mitochondria b. euglenids c. cyanobacteria d. ciliates e. dinoflagellates 156. Euglena and dinoflagellates show Secondary Endosymbiosis in that a. they have both mitochondria and chloroplasts b. they have two lipid bilayers around their mitochondria c. they have chloroplasts, but they are non-functional d. they have two lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts e. they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts. 157. Which parasitic protist has 2 haploid nuclei, 2 pairs of flagella, remnants of mitochondrial genes (but no intact mitochondria) and lives and reproduces in the small intestines of mammals? a. Chara b. Giaridia c. Amoeba d. Stentor e. Volvox 158. Evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory (Margulis, 1967) includes a. similarity between bacterial size and the size of mitochondria and chloroplasts b. the presence of a single circular chromosome in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts c. reproduction by binary fission in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts d. 70S ribosomes in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts e. All of the above provides evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory. 159. Evidence that Chara is the direct ancestor of all land plants includes a. the mechanism of cell wall synthesis in Chara and all land plants b. the presence of vascular tissue in Chara and all land plants c. the presence of homologous chloroplasts (chlorophylls a and b, as well as accessory pigments) in Chara and all land plants d. the presence of a cuticle in in Chara and all land plants e. A and C only. 24 Chapter 31- Fungi 160. A wildlife pathologist is examining some skin tissue from a dead frog. She notes the presence of a fungus. She cultures the fungal cells and notices that some of the cells are flagellated. She concludes that the frog has a disease caused by a. an ascomycete fungus. b. a zygomycete fungus. c. a basdiomycete fungus. d. a chytridomycete fungus. Use the fungal life cycle figure at right to answer the following 2 questions 161. The cells in this mushroom are a. 1= haploid, 2 = diploid b. 1= dikaryotic, 2 = haploid c. 1= diploid, 2 = haploid d. 1= dilkaryotic 2 = diploid e. 1= haploid, 2 = dikaryotic 162. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY : The products of meiosis 3 released by this fungus (arrow indicated by 3): a. Are haploid b. Are diploid c. Are called basidiospores d. Are called conidia 2 1 e. A and b only f. A and C only 163. The sac fungi are characterized by sexual reproductive structures called_________ and asexual reproductive structures called ___________: a. asci, conidia. b. basidia, sporangia c. gemmae cups, conidia. d. conidiophores, ascocarps e. conidia, asci 164. Claviceps purpurea infests grain like rye and produces _______________, a precursor of LSD which, if accidentally ingested, can cause hallucinations and even death. a. an ergot b. a smut c. a rust d. a brown rot e. a mildew 165. Consuming even a single mushroom of the genus _______________ can be fatal due to the irreversible inhibition of the enzyme RNA polymerase. a. Agaricus b. Shittake c. Portobello d. Amanita e. Oyster 166. Mycorrhizal fungi benefits plants by: a. increasing photosynthetic area. b. increasing absorptive surface area of roots. c. increasing chlorophyll content. d. increasing leaf area. e. All of the above. 25 167. The sexual spores produced by black bread mold, Rhizopus, are called a. zygospores. b. ascospores. c. basidiospores. d. conidia e. puffballs. 168. Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by ______, which are fragments of the body of the lichen. a. conidia b. soredia c. asci d. thalli 169. DNA and rRNA analysis indicates that modern fungi descended from a. Plants b. Diatoms and other protists with a shell made of chitin c. Colonial, flagellated protists similar to choanoflagellates d. Colonial, photosynthesic protists similar to volvox e. Protists that have large masses of amoeboid cells like plasmodial slime molds 170. Puffballs and shelf fungi are most closely related to: a. molds. b. truffles. c. the common edible mushroom. d. yeast. e. the black bread mold. FUNGI PRACTICAL 171. Ch31: Which one of the following BELOW is the only fungus with a well-known sexual and asexual life cycle? A. Panel A B. Panel B C. Panel C D. Panel D 172. Ch31: Which one of the following fungi ABOVE is a member of the Deuteromycota? a. Panel A b. Panel B c. Panel C d. Panel D 26 173. Ch31: The orange fungus shown BELOW in the upper left box is a member of the Phylum: a. Glomerulomycota b. Ascomycota c. Zygomycota d. Basidiomycota e. Deuteromycota 174. Ch31: If you were to look closely at the orange fungus shown in the upper left box ABOVE , which of the following structures would you see at higher magnification that would indicate sexual reproduction and meiosis is occurring? a. Panel A b. Panel B c. Panel C d. Panel D 175. Ch31: When the organism (A) BELOW reproduces, it produces the structures shown in: a. Panel B b. Panel C c. Panel D d. Panel E 176. Ch31: Which organism ABOVE is the Chytrid fungus implicated in amphibian die-offs worldwide? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 27 177. Ch31: The two structures (2 and 3) BELOW are commonly seen in a kitchen: a. 2 = In a jar of bread machine yeast; 3 = On moldy oranges b. 2 = On moldy bread; 3 = On moldy oranges c. 2 = On moldy bread; 3 = In a container of sliced mushrooms d. 2 = Growing in Bleu cheese; 2 = On moldy bread e. 2 = In a jar of bread machine yeast; 3 = On moldy oranges 178. Ch31: In this slide ABOVE, (1) represents a _________ and (2) represents a _________: a. Sporangium; Zygospore b. Zygospore; Conidia c. Zygospore ; Sporangium d. Conidia; Zygospore 179. Ch31: Which of the fungi shown BELOW is a member of the genus Amanita and produces a deadly poison? a. A b. B c. C d. D 180. Ch31: Which of the following fungi ABOVE is NOT a member of the Phylum Basidiomycota? a. A b. B c. C d. D 28 181. Which two of the following choices (a-l) are mismatched? a. Bread mold - zygomycetes g. Pizza Mushroom – Basidiomycetes b. Sac fungi - Ascomycota h. Sac fungi – Ascomycetes c. Yeast - Ascomycota i. Club fungi – Basidiomycetes d. Amanita mushrooms – Ascomycota j. Puff balls – Basidiomycetes e. Shelf fungi – Basidiomycota k. Corn smut - Ascomycetes f. Bleu cheese (Penicillium) fungi – l. Mycorrhizal fungi – Glomerulomycota Deuteromycota Ch. 29-30: PLANT PHYSIOLOGY 182. List the times each organism first appeared on earth: The last one has been done for you a. First flowering plants = _______________ b. First seed plants = _______________ c. First pteridophytes (ferns) = _______________ d. First land plants (bryophytes) = _______________ e. First animals (ie: jellyfish) = _______________ f. First fungi = _______________ g. First eukaryotes (protists) = _______________ h. First photosynthetic bacteria = _______________ i. First bacterial life (Archaea) = 3.8 billion years ago 183. When you see a green moss, you are looking at the _________ generation a. haploid sporophyte b. haploid gametophyte c. diploid sporophyte d. diploid gametophyte e. structure where meiosis occurs f. structure that results directly from a fertilized egg 184. In the fern life cycle shown at right, where is the process of meiosis taking place? a. In the archaegonium - A Haploid b. In the fern sori – A c. In the diploid zygote - B d. In the heart-shaped Prothallus – C e. In the fiddlehead - D C 185. The haploid gametophyte (C ) a. develops from meiosis in the sori b. Has some cells that make flagellated sperm c. Has some cells that make haploid eggs A B d. Will nourish the young fern fiddlehead e. All of the above D 186. The leafy fern that you might have as a house plant is the _____________________ generation. a. diploid sporophyte Diploid b. diploid gametophyte c. haploid sporophyte d. haploid gametophyte 29 187. Fertilization in moss occurs when sperm swim from a(n) _____ and down the neck of a(n)________to fertilize the egg a. antheridium... sporangium b. sporangium... antheridium c. antheridium... archegonium d. archegonium... antheridium e. sporangium... archegonium 188. Ch 29: In mosses, the antheridia produce: a. sperm b. spores c. buds d. eggs e. leaves 189. Following double fertilization in Angiosperms, the triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the a. embryo b. endosperm c. fruit d. carpel e. seed Ch 30 SEED PLANTS: GYMNOSPERMS AND ANGIOSPERMS 190. The eggs of gymnosperms like conifers are fertilized within ovules, and the ovules then develop into _____ a. seeds b. spores c. gametophytes d. fruit e. ovaries 191. In angiosperms, double fertilization produces a. twin embryos (diploid) b. the 2n embryo and the 3n antipodals c. the 2n embryo and the 2n seed coat d. the 2n embryo and the 3n endosperm e. the 3n endosperm and the 2n seed coat 192. Following fertilization, an unequal division of the cytoplasm occurs to split the embryo into two cells. Which of the following is true? a. The upper, terminal cell becomes the embryo and eventually the new plant b. The lower, basal cell becomes the suspensor and anchors the embryo within the seed c. The upper, terminal cell becomes the endosperm d. a and b only e. b and c only 193. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Seeds have advantages over spores. For example, _____ a. seeds contain embryonic plants, an abundant food supply, and a protective covering b. seeds can survive for extended periods of time at reduced metabolic rates c. seeds are single cells, demanding fewer nutrients from the parent plants d. seeds can survive even in conditions that are unfavorable for the parent plants 194. Pollen is __________ and contains __________. a. diploid... spores b. diploid... sperm nuclei c. haploid... spores d. haploid... sperm nuclei 30 195. The receptive portion of a flower that receives the pollen is the a. ovary b. stigma c. anther d. carpel e. anther 196. The triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the _____ a. embryo b. endosperm c. fruit d. carpel e. seed 197. A pea pod is formed from _____. A pea inside the pod is formed from _____. a. an ovule... a carpel b. an ovary... an ovule c. an ovary... a pollen grain d. an anther... an ovule e. endosperm... an ovary 198. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dicots? a. two seed leaves b. parts of flowers in fours or fives c. a taproot d. vascular bundles arranged in a ring e. veins in leaves usually parallel Ch 29-30 Plant Practical 199. Ch29: A derived characteristic that present in 2 (Ephedra) BELOW but absent in 1 (Club Moss) and 3 (Equisetum) is: a. Production of seeds b. Presence of vascular tissue c. Production of flowers d. A dominant sporophyte generation 200. Ch29: Which two of the three plants shown ABOVE is/are classified as Pteridophytes (Seedless vascular plants)? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 31 201. Ch29: A derived characteristic present in moss (right) BELOW but absent in Chara (left) is: a. The presence of true leaves b. The presence of vascular tissue c. The presence of a cuticle 202. Ch29: Which tissue on the right (1 or 2) ABOVE is diploid and contains spores? a. 1 b. 2 203. Ch29:A derived characteristic absent in Equisetum (A) but present in Gingko biloba (D) BELOW is: a. Presence of vascular tissue b. Production of seeds c. Production of flowers d. A dominant sporophyte generation 204. Ch29: Which one of the four plants shown ABOVE: Horsetails (Equisetum, A), Hornwort (Anthoceros, B), the Whisk Fern (Psilotum, C), and Gingko (D) is the most primitive land plant, as it lacks vascular tissue? a. A b. B c. C d. D 32 205. Ch29: Which of the following photos BELOW are of gymnosperms? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 4 206. Ch29: Which of the following photos (blue arrows)ABOVE shows the female egg sac of a plant? a. 1 only b. 2 and 4 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 3 and 4 207. Ch30: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What derived characteristics do these plants BELOW have that is shared by all angiosperms arising 130 million years ago to today? a. Seeds b. Fruits c. Flowers d. Cones 208. Ch30: Based on this photo ABOVE, the flower on the left (1) indicates a __ and on a right (2) indicates a a. Angiosperm, gymnosperm b. Corn flower, Pine Flower c. Dicot, monocot d. Monocot, dicot 33