Dev Psych_Papalia Drills PDF

Papalia Human Development 12. Dr. Liefeld is conducting a study in which she observes hundreds of children to try to determine the average age at Chapter 1...

Papalia Human Development 12. Dr. Liefeld is conducting a study in which she observes hundreds of children to try to determine the average age at Chapter 1 which they are able to climb the sliding chute without assistance. This research is concerned with the __________ of 1. Which of the following words best describes the focus of the behavior. study of human development? A. modification B. explanation A. change B. childhood C. description D. prediction C. infancy D. relationships 13. A change in the number or amount or frequency of a 2. Life-span studies are based on which of the following ideas? behavioral characteristic would be referred to as a __________ A. There is little continuity over the life span. change. B. Development occurs early in life, not during adulthood. A. normative B. qualitative C. Every portion of the life span is influenced by earlier events C. bidirectional D. quantitative and will in turn affect later events. D. both a and b 14. Which of the following is an example of qualitative change in human development? 3. Historically, the study of child development gained impetus A. Tina develops two new strategies for remembering. from B. Barbara has learned two new words. A. immunization to protect children from disease C. At 6 months of age, Danny has doubled his birth weight. B. child labor laws D. Mary can jump higher now than she could last year. C. scientific discoveries about the nature of conception D. all of the above 15. Elaine gains 14 pounds between the ages of 12 and 13. This is an example of 4. Studies on the “wild boy of Aveyron” hoped to investigate A. qualitative change and find answers to developmental questions such as B. quantitative change A. Are the qualities, behaviors, and ideas that define each C. normative age-graded development human acquired, inborn, or both? D. non normative development B. Is social contact important to child development? C. Can the lack of social contact be overcome? 16. Change and stability in mental abilities, such as learning, D. all of the above memory, language, thinking, reasoning, etc. would constitute which type of development? 5. Itard, a young practitioner in psychiatry, was able to teach A. physical development Victor all of the following except the ability to B. cognitive development A. speak C. psychosocial development B. discriminate among sensory experiences D. physiological development C. read and write simple sentences D. express desires and obey commands 17. Which type of development would be most involved in the growth of body and brain, sensory capacities, motor skills, and 6. Which American university opened the first major scientific health? research unit devoted to aging? A. cognitive development A. Columbia B. Michigan B. neurological development C. U.C.L.A. D. Stanford C. physical development D. psychosocial development 7. Who was one of the first psychologists to become interested in the study of aging; publishing the book Senescence: The 18. Physical development Last Half of Life at the age of 78? A. interacts with cognitive, personality, and social development A. John Watson B. G. Stanley Hall at all ages C. Arnold Gesell D. Lewis Terman B. occurs independently of cognitive development C. becomes less important than personality and social 8. Research in the field of adolescent development has development during adolescence increased in the past one hundred years mainly due to the fact D. is controlled entirely by one’s genetic makeup that A. it was considered a stage of development by the fifteenth 19. Marcus is 14 months old and having great difficulty when century left with the babysitter. This separation anxiety is an example B. it was not considered a stage of development until the of interaction between which two types of development? twentieth century A. intellectual and physical C. Freud was the first researcher to consider it a stage of B. cognitive and intellectual development C. physical and emotional D. it was discussed in Hall’s book Senescence D. intellectual and social 9. The life span has almost doubled during the past century. 20. Marlane is large for her age and does not have many Social reconstruction has resulted in the increase in length of friends. This is an example of interaction between which two what developmental stage? types of development? A. childhood B. adolescence A. physical and intellectual B. intellectual and social C. middle age D. old age C. physical and social D. personality and social 10. Which of the following is not one of the studies that have 21. The existence of the period of adolescence in many given us much information on long-term development? industrialized societies is an example of A. Berkeley Growth and Guidance Studies A. environmental experiences B. social constructivism B. Fels Research Institute Study C. cognitive development D. physical development C. the Brazelton Study D. Oakland Growth Study 22. According to your text, which of the following is not one of the major divisions 11. Which of these goals of the scientific study of human of the life span? development is the most A. prenatal B. infancy and toddlerhood difficult to accomplish? C. late adulthood D. senescence A. description B. explanation C. prediction D. modification 23. Shayla is dependent on adults to meet her basic needs for 34. Meghan recorded events such as the first word, the first food, clothing, and shelter, and to provide attachment bonding. step, and the events of puberty in her sons Joseph and She is experiencing the needs of what developmental period? Andrew. These landmarks in human development are referred A. infancy B. toddlerhood to as C. early childhood D. middle childhood A. environmental influences B. milestones C. inherited characteristics D. maturation 24. Becoming introspective and searching out meaning in life is characteristic of which of the following? 35. Environmental or experiential factors that help define A. adolescents B. young adulthood individual differences in development include all of the C. middle adulthood D. late adulthood following except A. genetic inheritance B. socioeconomic status 25. Marcus has stopped being so demanding and waits his C. ethnicity D. historical events turn when playing with his friends. He also appears to be more interested in others instead of himself. He is probably in what 36. A child born today in Iraq will have different experiences developmental period? than children born in the United States or Mexico. These A. infancy B. toddlerhood experiences will impact the course of development for these C. early childhood D. middle childhood children because each child develops within a unique A. biological context 26. During which developmental period do children begin to B. social and historical context regulate their own behavior and become more interested in C. family system their peer group? D. maturation period A. infancy B. toddlerhood C. early childhood D. middle childhood 37. Industrialization and the move to more populated areas are both cited as reasons for the decline in the 27. During which developmental period do children make the A. multi-lingual family B. nuclear family transition from childhood to adulthood, while at the same time C. extended family D. blended family searching for their personal identity? 38. A multigenerational kinship unit consisting of parents, A. middle childhood B. adolescence children, grandparents, aunts, uncles, and cousins is called C. young adulthood D. none of the above a(n) A. family B. nuclear family 28. During which developmental period do most people finish C. extended family D. blended family their formal education, become independent, and start families and careers? 39. Socioeconomic status is determined by all of the following A. adolescence B. young adulthood except C. middle adulthood D. older adulthood A. ethnicity B. income C. education D. occupation 29. The concept of individual differences implies that A. developmental periods occur in different sequences for 40. All of the following may be considered indirect effects of different people poverty except B. deviations from “average” development are a cause for A. parents emotional state concern B. home environments C. rates of development may vary from the average or typical C. presence of models for young people D. all of the above D. breakdown of the nuclear family 30. The range of individual differences 41. A group’s shared identity, attitudes, beliefs, and values that A. does not vary much across the life span result from ancestry, race, religion, language, or national origin B. is greatest in infancy and early childhood are referred to as its C. increases as people grow older A. subculture B. ethnicity D. is greatest in adolescence C. culture D. acculturation 31. Dr. Gaipo is a psychologist whose research focus is on 42. Some religious groups have taught children consistent genetic strengths and traditions for weddings and funerals. Teaching these ways to weaknesses to explain development. In his work he the next generation is an example of emphasizes A. context B. ethnic diversity A. experience B. maturation C. culture D. morality C. nurture D. environmental factors 43. Which factor(s) are probably the most difficult obstacles in 32. Which of the following statements about hereditary and assimilating Americans into the dominant culture? environmental influences on development is true? A. overcoming poverty and inadequate education A. Internal influences are more important because they occur B. unfair laws for U.S. immigrants first. C. multilingualism B. External influences are more important because they are D. discrimination and prejudice active for a longer time. C. Internal and external influences interact and often cannot be 44. The most powerful aspect in the composition of the separated. neighborhood that Paula and Krystal live in that affects D. Internal and external influences are independent and can be development is readily separated. A. the variety of ethnic groups B. multilingualism that encourages isolation 33. The periods of the human life cycle are produced by C. the average neighborhood human capital A. individual responses to the opportunities offered by one’s D. impact of parenting practices culture B. the interaction of biological, cognitive, and socioemotional 45. Sandro’s ethnic identity is processes A. a fixed, inherited identity C. maturation B. passed from generation to generation unaltered D. one’s perception of the events in his/her life C. easily determined by observers D. a personal and deliberate decision 46. The most powerful aspect in the Cortese family’s choice of D. a high school student in Binghamton, NY and a high school where to live is affected by the presence/absence of student in Elmira, NY. A. human capital B. multi-generational families C. access to daycare D. a quality school system 59. A specific time when a given event, or the absence of that event, has the greatest impact on development is called a(n) 47. One of the purposes in designing cross-cultural research __________ period. projects is to A. important B. essential A. establish norms for development within a culture C. required D. critical B. identify cultural influences on development C. discover which cultural practices result in optimum 60. A critical period is a time when development A. an organism is most likely to be influenced by a specific D. all of the above event B. a person faces a developmental transition 48. An event that is experienced in a similar way by most C. development is taking place most rapidly people in a group is called a _________ influence. D. development slows down for a period of time A. nonnormative B. normative C. cohort D. cultural 61. Rubella has a disastrous impact if it is contracted during the first trimester of a pregnancy yet has hardly any impact if 49. Typical events that happen at an atypical time, or atypical contracted at the end of a pregnancy. This is an example of events that happen at a typical time, are called __________ A. fetal immune system maturation events. B. normative age-graded events A. normative B. nonnormative C. maturational timing C. unusual D. bizarre D. critical periods 50. Nonnormative life events are 62. The critical period for language development is from early A. unusual events that influence a person’s life infancy to B. events that generally happen to everyone A. toddlerhood B. early childhood C. typical for a given population C. middle childhood D. puberty D. traumatic or unhappy events 63. Most deaf children are born to __________ parents. 51. Events like starting school that occur at about the same A. hearing B. deaf age for people the world over are called C. retarded D. signing A. normative age-graded influences B. normative history-graded influences 64. Learning a second language seems to have a(n) C. nonnormative life events __________ period, just like learning a first language does. D. cohort determined influences A. best B. critical C. only D. absolute 52. Normative age-graded influences include all of the following except 65. Which of the following is not one of the principles of A. puberty and menopause B. starting school life-span development identified by Baltes (1987)? C. retirement D. war and famine A. Development is lifelong. B. Development takes place in a historical context. 53. Normative history-graded influences include all of the C. Development ends with childhood. following except D. Development is pliable or plastic. A. worldwide economic depression B. introduction of the contraceptive pill 66. Allocation of resources often changes as a person C. AIDS epidemic develops. Which is not an example of this redistribution? D. death of a spouse A. Personal growth and improvement of skills are benefited by the availability of resources. 54. The impact of technological developments such as video B. People are able to use resources to regain proficiency in a games, computers, and the internet would be considered certain area. A. nonnormative age-graded influences C. Often resources are used in times of personal loss to the B. normative history-graded influences individual. C. normative age-graded influences D. The availability of resources increases over time. D. non normative history-graded influences 67. Which researcher studied the effect of income loss and 55. A group of people who share a similar experience common economic hardship on families in the 1930s and the 1980s? to all of its members is A. Baltes B. Elder called a C. Conger D. Bowlby A. generation B. cohort C. culture D. group 68. In the Oakland Growth Study, the longitudinal study of social and emotional development of urban youth during the 56. Cohort differences are primarily due to Great Depression, A. geographical separation A. parent's economic stress did not affect children’s lives B. experiences affecting a generation B. increases in alcohol use by fathers was negligible C. variations of family history C. the long-term effects of the depression did not affect the D. unusual life events male children D. adolescent children tended to show developmental 57. Your cohort would include your difficulties A. grandparents B. parents C. schoolmates D. children 69. The Oakland Growth Study was replicated in an Iowa farm town in 1989. The 58. Which of the following are members of the same cohort? longitudinal study of social and emotional development of farm A. a woman who raised children in Binghamton during World families that developed over the depreciation of the farmland War II and a woman raising children in Binghamton during the were similar in all areas except 1990s A. depressed parents often withdrew from their children B. an urban child in Iraq and a rural child in the United States B. children often lost their self-confidence, were unpopular and C. a veteran of the Gulf War and a veteran of Vietnam War did poorly in school C. in the more recent study parent data included more effects likelihood of giving birth to twins. Which woman would you of mothers behavior on the family inform has the highest chance of giving birth to fraternal twins? D. parents developed emotional problems A. a Japanese woman B. an East Indian woman C. a Chinese woman D. an African-American woman Chapter 3 11. Statistically speaking, who would be least likely to give birth to identical twins? 1. A cluster of abnormalities demonstrated by children whose A. a 19-year-old Japanese woman who is pregnant for the first mother drank alcohol during their pregnancy, and is a leading time cause of mental retardation, is called B. a 38-year-old white woman who already has three children A. drinker’s syndrome C. a 29-year-old East Indian woman whose sister did have B. fetal alcohol syndrome twins C. drunk woman’s syndrome D. a 42-year-old African-American woman who is pregnant for D. mental retardation syndrome the first time 2. A zygote is created when a sperm and an egg combine in 12. The increased use of fertility drugs, along with delayed the fallopian tube to form a single cell. This process is referred childbearing, has resulted in to as A. an increase in multiple births A. implantation B. ovulation B. a decrease in multiple births C. fertilization D. menstruation C. no change in multiple births D. no relationship between these factors 3. Ovulation refers to A. the fertilization of an ovum by a sperm 13. You tell your parents that in college you wish to study the B. the expulsion of an ovum from the ovary science of genetics. C. that passage of an ovum through the vagina and out of a What will be the focus of your study? woman’s body A. The inborn, inherited factors that affect development. D. the absorption of an ovum by a woman’s white blood cells B. The effects of environmental influences on phenotypic development. 4. Sperm enters the women’s body through the vagina and C. The interactions of the environment with nurturing factors. then to the D. The factors responsible for all differences between people. A. uterus, cervix, fallopian tube B. cervix, uterus, fallopian tube 14. The human genome project was established to C. fallopian tube, cervix, uterus A. develop successful human cloning procedures D. cervix, fallopian tube, uterus B. map the precise order in which genes are expressed or activated 5. A couple wishes to maximize the woman’s chances of C. provide DNA information for use in criminal defenses becoming pregnant. When should they be sure to have D. established the differences in humans and animal DNA intercourse? A. during menstruation 15. You meet a scientist who tells you that she studies the B. 5 days after the onset of menstruation chemical that directs protein synthesis in cells. What chemical C. at ovulation or during the five days preceding it does she study? D. immediately after the onset of menstruation A. teratogenic substances B. adenosine monophosphate 6. Twins formed by the fertilization of two ova by two sperm are C. arachidonic acid A. fraternal D. deoxyribonucleic acid B. the least common type of twins C. genetically the same 16. Meiosis D. more likely in first pregnancies than in later ones A. results in two cells, each with 46 chromosomes B. results in the number of chromosomes being reduced by 7. Tasha has just given birth to healthy twins. One of the twins half has an X and Y chromosome, while the other has two X C. refers to the addition of an extra twenty-first chromosome chromosomes. These twins are D. the process by which the egg and sperm combine A. monozygotic B. dizygotic 17. Within each cell nucleus are these coils of DNA called C. unizygotic A. genes B. human genomes D. either monozygotic or dizygotic C. chromosomes D. zygotes 8. Which of the following statements about monozygotic twins 18. Genetic action that triggers both the development of the is true? growth of the body and A. They are no more similar to one another than normal brain are often regulated by siblings. A. the specific strength and viability of growth genes B. They will always have identical temperaments. B. hormone levels that stimulate genes C. They will always be born with identical physical C. amount of stress present in the environment characteristics. D. adequate nutrition during the developmental process. D. One twin may be right-handed while the other is left-handed. 19. The sex cells—ova and sperm—are called ________ and the fertilized ovum are called _______. 9. Scientists have been successful at producing a genetic copy A. gametes; zygotes of a human embryo that is being used in the area of B. zygotes; gametes therapeutic research. This copy is referred to as a C. embryonic cells; sex-linked cells A. zygote B. monozygotic twin D. sex chromosomes; zygotes C. clone D. dizygotic twin 20. How many pairs of chromosomes does the normal human 10. Corrine, a genetic counselor, has occasion to advise being have? women from a variety of different ethnic groups as to their A. 22 B. 23 C. 44 D. 46 21. The name for the process of cell division that produces 33. Although a genotype may include the ability for musical copies of cells with the 46 chromosomes is giftedness, which of the following experiences will encourage A. diffusion B. meiosis the expression of musical talent? C. translocation D. mitosis A. good nutrition on the part of the mother B. access to musical instruments/lessons 22. While discussing the sex of the “proposed” baby in their C. lack of interest in music future, Tasha and Vladimir found that it is the chromosomes of D. parents who have little or no musical interest or talent __________ that determine the sex of the child. A. the mother B. the father 34. Marsha’s nickname as a child was “Shirley Temple” C. both parents D. chance because of her curly hair. Although her hair is curly, she carries a gene for straight hair. Her phenotype is 23. Researchers working in the field of _____________ have A. curly hair been able to identify the B. the gene for straight hair role of specific genes that contribute to certain diseases and C. genes for both curly and straight hair even certain personality traits. D. her total genetic makeup A. heredity B. molecular genetics C. child development D. development 35. Traits that are affected by many genes are A. only expressed through homozygous alleles 24. The chromosomes that do not determine sex are called B. usually recessive for females A. zygotes B. genes C. generally dominant in monozygotic twins C. gametes D. autosomes D. influenced through polygenic inheritance 25. The process of sexual differentiation that occurs during the 36. Most of the serious malformations that increase the risk of early weeks of prenatal development is now recognized as dying shortly after birth involve being __________ complex as/than was previously thought. A. the nervous A. less B. not as B. the heart and blood vessels C. more D. we don’t know C. the respiratory system D. the circulatory and the nervous system 26. Sexual differentiation in humans normally occurs in the embryo during the ___________ after conception. 37. Genetic material that has been permanently altered due to A. six to eight weeks environmental conditions A. second trimester such as radiation or environmental hazards is/are called B. moments after conception occurs A. incomplete dominance D. twelfth week B. recessive defects C. alleles 27. When tall homozygous pea plants are crossbred with D. mutations homozygous short pea plants, the resulting hybrids are tall; but in the next generation, one out of four plants is short. This 38. An interaction between genetic and environmental factors experiment demonstrates Mendel’s law of is thought to be A. independent segregation responsible for B. dominant inheritance A. Down syndrome B. sickle-cell anemia C. incomplete dominance C. spina bifida D. Tay-Sachs disease D. multifactorial inheritance 39. Which of the following disorders is probably due to 28. If Laurie has albinism but neither of her parents exhibits multifactorial transmission? this inherited condition, the trait must be __________ and A. Tay-Sachs disease B. sickle-cell anemia Laurie’s genotype for this trait is _________. C. Huntington’s disease D. spina bifida A. dominant; homozygous B. recessive; homozygous 40. Which birth defect afflicts European Jews at a rate of 1 in C. dominant; heterozygous 3000? C. recessive; heterozygous A. Tay-Sachs disease B. sickle-cell anemia C. cystic fibrosis B. Cooley’s anemia 29. A hereditary characteristic that is carried by an individual, but is not expressed in the phenotype is 41. A genetic defect in males that results in muscle weakness A. recessive B. partially dominant with respiratory failure and death in young adulthood is C. homozygous D. regressive A. cystic fibrosis B. Down syndrome 30. When neither of two alleles is dominant the resulting trait C. muscular dystrophy reflects the influence of both. This is called D. Huntington’s disease A. polygenic inheritance B. dominant inheritance 42. Christopher has a gene for Huntington’s disease and will C. codominance definitely have the disorder. This is an example of transmission D. recessive inheritance by __________ inheritance. A. recessive B. dominant 31. A person’s observable characteristics are his or her C. sex-linked D. multifactorial A. alleles B. genetic imprint C. phenotype D. genotype 43. Angelina and Brandon, while not affected by the disorder, are parents who are each carriers for a specific genetic 32. Marlin has been asked to go on a blind date with his friend abnormality. The probability that their child will carry the gene Roger’s sister. If Marlin wants to know facts like hair color, but not be affected by the disorder is body type, etc. Roger will need to share his sister’s A. greater than if only one parent carried the faulty gene A. incomplete dominance B. less than if only one parent carried the faulty gene B. phenotype C. the same as if only one parent carried the faulty gene C. genotypic manifestation D. 100 percent D. allele differentiation 44. Joan has the most common lethal genetic defect among white people and will probably not live to be 30 years of age. Joan suffers from A. PKU B. cystic fibrosis. C. spina bifida D. Tay-Sachs. 54. The most common chromosomal abnormality that takes place in the autosomes is 45. Some infants are born with sex linked disorders. These A. Klinefelter’s syndrome B. Down syndrome disorders are C. Turner’s syndrome D. Walker syndrome A. never seen in females B. generally passed from father to son 55. Emanuel’s friend Natalie has just given birth to a child with C. generally passed from mother to daughter Down syndrome. What might he tell her about the future D. often carried by a female but are not apparent in her prospects for the child? phenotype A. After the first three years, the child’s intellectual development will catch up with normal children. 46. Thomas suffers from a sex-linked blood-clotting disorder B. The child’s retardation will be so severe that she must place called Hemophilia that is transmitted by a recessive gene. the child in an institution. Neither his mother nor his father has ever shown symptoms of C. Although the child will be retarded, she can learn useful this disease. What can we conclude about the genetic makeup skills to support herself as an adult. of John’s parents? D. The child is likely to die of respiratory problems before 10 A. Both the mother and the father have the faulty gene. years of age. B. The mother is a carrier for hemophilia, while the father does not have the gene. 56. Which of the following statements about persons with C. The mother is homozygous for the faulty gene while the Down syndrome is true? father is heterozygous. A. Most are profoundly retarded. D. The father has the faulty gene while the mother does not. B. Most have severe health problems and die before age 30. C. Most require total care for life. 47. Keane's daughter Kara was born with a birth defect D. Most can function to some degree in society. resulting from a chromosomal abnormality. The Keane’s genetic counselor has assured them subsequent children will 57. The Slocum’s were recently married and decided to visit have __________ risk of also being born with a similar birth with a genetic counselor in order to discover their likelihood of defect. having a child with a hereditary illness. The genetic counselor A. 100 percent B. 50 percent obtains magnified photographs of each parent’s chromosomes C. 25 percent D. 0 percent and arranges them on a chart according to size and structure. What is this chart called? 48. Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome are due to A. allele typing B. phenotype abnormalities in the C. gamete analysis D. karyotype A. autosomes B. sex chromosomes C. teratogens D. gonads 58. Which family would have the least need for genetic counseling? 49. Social competence was measured in girls with Turner’s A. one who has already had a child with a genetic defect syndrome, a defect where infants are found to have an X B. one who has a family history of hereditary illness chromosome missing. Those who received the single X from C. one who has an immediate concern about defects their fathers did better and were more adjusted than those that D. one who suffers from conditions suspected to be inherited received the single X from their mothers. The dad’s gene seemed to override the mothers chemically altered gene. This 59. In attempting to study the degree to which genetics is an example influence activity levels in newborns, Dr. Dan Lane compares A. genetic imprinting monozygotic and dizygotic twins for their level of similarity on B. a sex-linked characteristic that trait. This research is attempting to determine the C. a recessive trait __________ of the trait activity levels. D. incomplete dominance A. teratogenesis B. genotype C. karyotype D. heritability 50. Latrice was born with an extra fold of skin at the corners of her eyes, a small head, protruding tongue, and mental 60. A statistical estimate of how great a contribution heredity retardation. She probably has makes toward individual differences in a specific trait at a A. Turner’s syndrome certain time within a given population is referred to as B. Klinefelter’s syndrome A. inheritance B. heritability C. Down syndrome C. heredity D. genetics D. hemophilia 61. Your text suggests that the ability to identify genes that 51. Which of the following statements regarding Down contribute to serious disorders, and the ability to influence syndrome is true? normal traits may result in all of the following except A. It is due to a defect in the sex chromosomes. A. genetic screening of newborns B. If one identical twin has the disorder, the other twin must B. gene therapy to repair or replace genes also have the disorder. C. gene therapy to design the “perfect child” C. It is the cause of about one-third of all cases of D. genetic screening to decide who to select as partners to moderate-to-severe mental retardation. have children with D. Individuals with the disorder must be hospitalized throughout much of their lives. 62. While some simple physical characteristics like eye color are clearly inherited, more complex traits like intelligence seem 52. A factor that increases the probability of having a baby with to be due Down syndrome is A. almost entirely to heredity, or nature A. increased age of mother or father B. almost entirely to the environment, or nurture B. parent’s use of tobacco C. to an interaction between nature and nurture C. parent’s use of alcohol D. almost exclusively to maturation D. a defective XY chromosome pattern 63. Family studies fail to rule out the extent to which 53. The most frequently stated cause for Down syndrome is environmental factors influence certain traits. To separate the A. a recessive gene effects of heredity from those of environment researchers do B. seasonal fluctuations of hormones A. twin studies C. exposure to x-rays and pesticides B. experimental studies D. an accident in chromosome distribution C. adoption studies D. longitudinal studies A. is easily influenced by environmental conditions B. is affected little by environmental conditions 64. For a chiefly hereditary trait, C. only appears in certain situations A. fraternal twins would show more concordance than identical D. has a large reaction range twins B. identical twins would show more concordance than fraternal 73. Generalizing from the text: one would predict that twins characteristics that exhibit a ___________ degree of C. identical and fraternal twins would be equally concordant canalization would display a ___________ level of D. identical twins in different environments would be least concordance in monozygotic twins. concordant A. high; high B. low; high C. high; negative D. low; stable 65. Although Jean-Paul’s adoptive parents are quite short in stature, he is growing to be quite tall like his biological mother. 74. Which of the following traits would be the least highly What might we conclude about Jean-Paul’s height? canalized in most human beings? A. It is influenced primarily by the positive environment of the A. eye color B. body type adoptive family. C. motor development D. personality B. It is influenced primarily by heredity. C. Nutrition did not influence his height. 75. The environment often reflects or reinforces genetic D. It is primarily a result of independent segregation. differences; that is, certain genetic and environmental influences tend to act in the same direction. This tendency is 66. Which of the following most clearly demonstrates the called influence of the environment? A. environment-genotype covariance A. Bill, who was adopted at birth, died at the same age as his B. genotype-environment correlation biological father. C. niche-picking B. Patty, who was adopted at the age of 2, walks like her D. shared environment adoptive mother. C. Matt and Jason, identical twins who were separated at birth, 76. The genetic-environment correlation where children with are both overweight. different genetic makeups D. Marie and Amy are fraternal twins who were reared apart. evoke responses from adults that strengthen the child’s genetic Marie has high blood pressure and Amy does not. inclinations are called A. passive correlations 67. Which of the following statements about the influences of B. reactive correlations heredity and environment is correct according to your text? C. niche-picking A. A person’s height is determined by his or her genes. D. active correlations B. A person’s potential range of height is genetically determined, but actual height may be influenced by nutrition. 77. Which of the following would be considered to be the most C. The genetic upper limit or range of height can be raised by highly canalized trait at birth? improved nutrition. A. sequence of motor development D. Nutrition is more important than genetic limits or range. B. tendency toward early sexual activity C. antisocial behavior 68. Which child would be likely to exhibit the smallest reaction D. language development range for the trait of intelligence? 78. Which of the following physiological traits are determined A. a child born with severe brain damage primarily by heredity rather than by an interaction between B. a child born with mild brain damage heredity and environment? C. a child born to parents with normal intelligence A. obesity D. a child born to parents with extremely high intelligence B. longevity of life C. facial structure 69. Which of the following statements about environmental D. greater risk for some medical disorders influences is not true? A. Children growing up in the same family have the same 79. Studies of intelligence indicate that environment. A. older children are more influenced by environment B. Some individual experiences, like illness and injury, become B. younger children show greater environmental effects, but environmental influences. these may diminish later in life C. Siblings are usually more different than alike. C. the environment is the most important factor in intelligence D. The home is the primary environment in the early years of and will overcome genetic deficits life. D. adopted children are more similar to their adoptive parents than to their biological parents 70. Susan and Betty are monozygotic twins, while George and Brent are dizygotic twins. If a particular trait is determined 80. Martha is adopted at the age of 1. When she is given an IQ primarily by hereditary factors, what would be the relative test at age 21 she is more likely to be similar to her degree of concordance in these two twin pairs? A. adoptive mother B. adoptive father A. George and Brent would be more concordant than Susan C. biological mother D. all of the above and Betty. B. Susan and Betty would be more concordant than George 81. Studies done on 100 pairs of 7 year old siblings found and Brent. significant genetic influences in all but one of the following C. In similar environments, the two sets of twins would be A. sociability B. activity equally concordant. C. emotionality D. stubbornness D. It is not possible to determine concordance from studying twins. 82. Adoption studies of intelligence indicate that A. environment is a very small factor 71. Monochorionic twins tend to be __________ concordant B. environment is more important than heredity than dichorionic twins in IQ, certain personality patterns and C. environment has some impact, but less so than heredity cholesterol levels. D. genetic influence is very slight A. less B. more C. no difference D. research is inconclusive 83. According to the research study cited in the textbook, your temperament seems primarily determined by 72. A strongly canalized trait is one that A. the age of your parents when you were conceived B. the number of siblings you have B. hormones that help the uterus prepare for implantation of C. your genotype the zygote D. your karyotype C. substances in the maternal blood supply that indicate the possibility of spontaneous abortion 84. Which of the following statements about boldness and D. molecules that direct limb and organ formation shyness is true? A. Shyness has a strong genetic component, while boldness is 95. Long-term improvement for children suffering from autism due to experience. may involve all of the following except B. Boldness or shyness appears in most children after the age A. behavioral therapy to improve social skills of four. B. early diagnosis and intervention C. They are largely inborn and tend to stay with a person C. extensive parent training throughout life. D. unstructured play situations D. Boldness and shyness are not influenced by heredity; they are shaped by the environment. 96. A fertilized ovum is also called a(n) A. embryo B. zygote 85. According to the text, besides genes that have already C. fetus D. morphogen been identified by scientists as being directly linked with specific personality traits, an additional estimated 97. The term that describes the principle of prenatal _____________ other genes may also be involved in anxiety. development in which the sequence of growth is from the head A. 3 B. 10-15 C. 20-25 D. 100 to the feet is A. proximodistal B. cephalocaudal 86. Researchers are first able to determine a child’s C. cephagestation D. top to bottom temperament at what age? A. not before three years B. very early in infancy 98. The zygote divides and implants into the wall of the uterus C. not before twelve months D. not until puberty during which stage of gestation? A. fetal B. embryonic 87. Which of the following psychopathologies does not seem to C. germinal D. terminal have a strong heredity influence? A. schizophrenia B. autism 99. Which of the following cell groups will become the outer C. depression D. anxiety layer of skin, hair, nails, sensory organs, and nervous system? A. ectoderm B. endoderm 88. Which of the following has not been mentioned as an C. mesoderm D. pachyderm indicator for the risk of schizophrenia? A. fetal undernourishment 100. The __________ refers to a thickened mass of cells on B. fathers who are over 50 the blastocyst from which the baby will develop. C. lack of the brain chemical reelin A. embryonic disk B. germinal disk D. babies born in rural areas C. amniotic thickening D. lateral ridge 89. A psychological disorder marked by loss of contact with 101. A pregnant woman feels movement known as quickening reality and demonstrating such symptoms as hallucinations at about which month? and delusions, which also seems to have a strong genetic A. first B. second component is C. fourth D. ninth A. neuroticism B. depression C. schizophrenia D. mental retardation 102. Which of the following is not a function of the placenta? A. encases the baby with a fluid-filled membrane 90. Concordance rates for schizophrenia are highest between B. removes body wastes from the baby A. mothers and biological sons or daughters C. fights infections in the baby B. grandparents and grandchildren D. produces hormones that stimulate lactation C. members of monozygotic twin pairs D. members of dizygotic twin pairs 103. The fluid-filled sac surrounding the developing human organism is the 91. A couple has a 2-year-old son who has never been very A. placenta B. amniotic sac responsive to social stimulation, shows little language C. trophoblast D. blastocyst development, and engages in repetitive behaviors. A probable diagnosis for this child is 104. The __________ refers to the outer cell layer of the A. depression B. alpha thalassemia blastocyst which produces threadlike projections that enable C. Down syndrome D. autism the blastocyst to burrow into the uterine wall. A. neoblast B. protoblast 92. Michael, a 3-year-old boy, has recently been diagnosed C. trophoblast D. amniocyst with autism. Developmental expectations for Michael may include all of the following except 105. During which stage do the major body systems and A. he may be taught to read, write, and speak organs develop? B. he may be will be able to learn basic social skills A. fetal B. embryonic C. the possibility exists that through occupational therapy he C. germinal D. terminal will be able to participate in highly structured play D. he will be able to grow up and live independently with 106. At what stage of gestation would exposure of the unborn proper training baby to alcohol be the most damaging? A. embryonic B. germinal 93. All but which of the following has been discussed as a C. fetal D. terminal reason for autism? A. a strong genetic basis 107. An unborn baby is most vulnerable to prenatal B. exposure to certain viruses or chemicals in utero environmental influences and is also more vulnerable to suffer C. pregnancy complications a miscarriage or spontaneous abortion during which stage? D. lack of the measles-mumps-rubella vaccine soon after birth A. fetal B. embryonic C. germinal D. terminal 94. Morphogens are A. toxic environmental substances that can damage a 108. Miscarriages are most commonly caused by developing fetus A. sudden movements or jolts B. fear baby with C. stress A. autism D. chromosomal abnormalities B. leukemia C. spina bifida 109. Which of the following statements about developmental D. sudden infant death syndrome differences between the sexes is true? A. More males are conceived than females. 120. Which of the following is not a result of a woman B. Males develop more rapidly. becoming obese during pregnancy? C. Females are more likely to have birth defects. A. miscarriage B. stillbirth D. Female fetuses are more likely to be spontaneously C. neonatal death D. spina bifida aborted. 121. One way that Kristen can reduce risks to her unborn baby 110. Which of the following stands the greatest risk of being during pregnancy is to spontaneously aborted or being born stillborn? A. gain less than 12 pounds A. a female B. exercise regularly B. no difference in risk C. smoke no more than once a day C. a male D. drink alcohol in moderation D. completely the result of chance 122. Which of the following statements regarding physical 111. That male fetuses have been found to be more active and activity during pregnancy is false? to move more vigorously throughout gestation has been A. Moderate exercise may make delivery easier. detected by B. Moderate exercise may prevent constipation. A. mother’s personal reports C. Long working hours and excessive fatigue increases risk of B. ultrasound premature birth. C. amniocentesis D. Exercising to the point of exhaustion may produce D. fetal ex-rays permanent heart damage in the fetus. 112. Which of the following behaviors cannot be observed in 123. During which period of pregnancy are babies most fetuses? vulnerable to drugs taken by the mother? A. developed sense of smell A. first trimester B. preference for mother’s voices B. second trimester C. responses to sound and vibrations outside the womb C. third trimester D. preference for father’s voices D. vulnerability is equivalent during gestation 113. The transition from the embryonic to the fetal stage of 124. Doctors found which drug used to prevent acne can prenatal development is the results of the first appearance of cause serious birth defects A. toenails B. bone A. opiates B. diethylstilbestrol (DES) C. eyelids D. fingernails C. Accutane D. anti-inflammatory drugs 114. Which of the following statements regarding the fetal 125. When women used DES to prevent miscarriage, stage of development is A. the effects showed up in their children at birth false? B. their children were mentally retarded A. Fetuses may kick and suck their thumbs. C. their daughters and sons showed reproductive B. A fetus grows about 20 times larger during this period. abnormalities later in life C. Boys develop more rapidly than girls during this stage. D. only their daughters were affected D. Learning and remembering are possible during this stage. 126. What drug previously banned in the United States for 115. Environmental factors that may produce birth defects are causing serious birth defects when taken during pregnancy has called suddenly been made available in other countries to treat AIDS, A. blastocysts B. allergens certain cancers, and various other illnesses? C. teratogens D. toxinogens A. DES B. Accutane C. Thalidomide D. Tetracycline 116. Women who gain less than 20 pounds during pregnancy are 127. Suppose you are a health care worker who is examining a A. more likely to have healthy babies child with the following symptoms: facial and bodily B. less likely to have late miscarriages malformations, a short attention span, hyperactivity, and motor C. less likely to have complications impairments. Which drug would you suspect that the child’s D. more likely to have low-birthweight babies mother took during pregnancy? A. cocaine B. birth control pills 117. According to the text, approximately how many extra C. heroin D. alcohol calories should a woman consume each day during pregnancy? 128. If you were a researcher in the field of child development A. 50-200 B. 300-500 and were asked to advise a young mother who recently found C. 700-900 D. over 1000 out that she was pregnant, your “expert” advise would be A. pregnant women should limit their consumption of caffeine 118. Which of the following statements about prenatal B. drugs that are safe for adults will not harm the fetus nourishment is not true? C. drugs prescribed by a physician will have no effect on the A. Proper nutrition during pregnancy is the most effective way fetus to ensure healthy prenatal development. D. pregnant women should NEVER take any drug B. Giving malnourished mothers dietary supplements during pregnancy can increase their babies’ visual alertness. 129. Use of alcohol during pregnancy C. Damage due to maternal malnutrition during pregnancy is A. is beneficial because it reduces stress irreversible. B. is acceptable if the woman drinks less than a six-pack of D. The effects of maternal malnutrition may be aggravated by a beer a day deprived family environment. C. is not harmful if the woman has only two drinks a day D. should be avoided 119. Insufficient intake of folic acid during pregnancy increased the risk of having a 130. A baby born with cognitive disabilities, heart problems, 141. Mothers who consume opiates during pregnancy are and facial and limb deformities probably had a mother who more likely to have babies with all but which of the following engaged in __________ during her pregnancy. characteristics? A. marijuana use B. cocaine use A. addiction B. tendency to die in infancy C. heavy drinking D. caffeine use C. obesity D. learning deficits 131. Moderate to heavy drinking during pregnancy may harm 142. Children born addicted to opiates such as heroin have the fetus. Which of the following is not known to be an effect of shown what characteristics by age 6? alcohol on the developing fetus? A. They tend to be bullies. A. neurological and behavioral functioning B. They often have educational difficulties. B. poor social interaction with the mother C. They are at higher risk of autism. C. unusual degrees of aggressiveness in childhood D. They are at higher risk of cancer. A. speech and language deficits 143. If contracted in the second or third trimester, 132. Children born to women who smoke during pregnancy _____________ can cause severe brain damage, severely tend to show impaired eyesight, seizures, miscarriage, and death of the A. retardation of growth baby. B. social maladjustment A. rubella B. toxoplasmosis C. learning problems in school C. genital herpes D. gonorrhea D. all were demonstrated 144. During the critical period between eight and fifteen weeks 133. Generalizing from the text, children of mothers who after fertilization, ____________ has been linked to mental smoked during pregnancy are at a higher than normal risk for retardation, chromosomal malformations, and seizures. all of the following except A. exposure to radiation B. lead poisoning A. hyperactivity C. genital herpes D. gonorrhea B. face and limb malformations C. social maladjustment 145. Which of the following is not associated with a pregnant D. sudden infant death syndrome woman’s use of cocaine? A. higher risk of miscarriage 134. A child is born shorter and lighter, has poor respiratory B. higher risk of premature birth functioning, and tends to be a colicky baby. The substance the C. higher risk of obesity mother probably abused is D. higher risk of lower birth weight A. alcohol B. nicotine C. cocaine D. caffeine 146. According to the text, use of which drug has the greatest effect on the number of children requiring special education 135. A problem in studying the effects of tobacco smoking services? during pregnancy is that A. marijuana B. cocaine A. it is difficult to separate effects of prenatal and postnatal C. heroin D. nicotine exposure B. long-term follow-up, as the children reach adulthood, is 147. According to research cited in the text, what is likely to difficult happen to children who were infected with HIV prenatally? C. the effects are so small they are hard to detect A. Most will develop AIDS before they are one year old, and D. most smokers increase their alcohol consumption during most will die before age three. pregnancy B. Most will not develop AIDS until they are teens and become sexually active. 136. A ten-year longitudinal study found that there was a C. Some develop AIDS early in life, but some may go for years fourfold increase in conduct disorders in boys and a five fold without any symptoms. increased risk of drug dependence in girls in children whose D. Most will be stillborn or spontaneously aborted. mothers reported ____________during pregnancy A. heavy smoking 148. Which of the following is not one of the advances made in B. moderate to heavy alcohol use the prevention, detection, and treatment of HIV in infants? C. cocaine addiction A. use of the drug AZT D. heavy caffeine use B. having a vaginal birth C. women with HIV not breast-feeding their babies 137. According to the text, marijuana use alone during D. use of drugs to treat AIDS-related pneumonia pregnancy increased the prevalence of A. sudden infant death syndrome 149. Rubella has the greatest potential for damage when it is B. respiratory problems contracted during which period of a pregnancy? C. cancer-causing mutations A. first 11 weeks B. 13 to 16 weeks D. prematurity C. after 16 weeks D. all of the above periods 138. According to the text, which of the following may be a 150. Lisa is concerned because she is 8 months pregnant and problem associated with caffeine consumption during has just contracted rubella. Which birth defect is likely to be pregnancy? present in her child as a consequence? A. leukemia B. miscarriage A. mild retardation C. hyperactivity D. all of the above B. blindness C. deafness 139. According to the text, most research reported so far has D. No birth defects are likely to be present. shown that the use of marijuana during pregnancy A. produces no detectable birth defects 151. Which of the following is treatable and may affect a child’s B. is much more damaging to a fetus than alcohol future cognitive performance, if it is not treated? C. may produce neurological disturbances A. thyroid deficiency B. pancreas deficiency D. may lead to babies who are themselves addicted C. liver deficiency D. hypothalamus 140. Which of the following is not an opiate? 152. Although the majority of these children appear normal at A. morphine B. marijuana birth, more than half of the children whose mothers contract C. codeine D. heroin _______________during the second or third trimester suffer from eye infections, hearing loss, and learning disabilities. A. rubella B. urinary tract infections 165. The prenatal test called __________ may be useful for C. thyroid deficiency D. toxoplasmosis detecting genetic defects in embryos conceived by in vitro fertilization. 153. The risks of delayed childbearing appear to be A. ultra radiography __________ than previously believed. B. preimplantation genetic diagnosis A. higher B. lower C. prenatal amniocentesis C. more correlated D. dramatically greater D. chorionic villus sampling 154. According to the text, how might a father’s use of cocaine 166. In the United States, approximately what percentage of produce birth defects in his children? pregnant women receives A. The social stress experienced by the mother due to father’s no prenatal care during the first trimester? cocaine use can alter fetal development. A. about 10 percent B. about 20 percent B. Cocaine in the semen causes inflammation in the woman’s C. about 30 percent D. about 50 percent reproductive tracts, which can damage the fetus. C. Cocaine can be carried into the ovum by the sperm. 167. If a prenatal influence is potentially harmful, it is said to be D. Cocaine use by the father delays implantation of the A. hazardous B. teratogenic fertilized ovum. C. environmental D. threatening 155. Which paternal behavior increases the risk of cancer in 168. How important is prenatal care to healthy prenatal children? development? A. drinking alcohol B. smoking cigarettes A. strongly suggested B. essential C. smoking marijuana D. drinking coffee C. recommended D. optional 156. If a mother wanted to have a clear image of the fetus in her womb, which procedure would she most likely use? A. amniocentesis B. ultrasound C. fetal biopsy D. chorionic villus sampling Chapter 4 157. In which procedure is a sample of fluid taken from around 1. The twin brother of Elvis Presley was born the fetus and analyzed A. healthy B. stillborn for possible defects? C. handicapped D. premature A. amniocentesis B. chorionic villus sampling C. ultrasound D. electronic fetal monitoring 2. While there have been increases in the number of home births, today most people are born 158. Amniocentesis is generally recommended for A. at home B. in hospitals A. women between 20 and 35 years old C. in birthing centers D. in clinics B. women who have a history of sickle-cell anemia C. women who have had normal offspring in the past 3. The dramatic reduction in risks surrounding pregnancy and D. all women, to check on the condition of the fetus childbirth has resulted from all but which of the following? A. antibiotics B. anesthesia 159. In which prenatal assessment procedure is tissue taken C. prenatal care D. delayed childbirth from the membrane around the embryo? A. chorionic villus sampling B. amniocentesis 4. Approximately two weeks before her due date the doctor C. maternal blood test D. ultrasound told Elizabeth that the uterine and cervical changes that bring on labor had begun. This process is referred to as 160. Mary is 43 years old and pregnant with her second child. A. quickening B. parturition Her first child suffers from sickle-cell anemia. What prenatal C. labor D. contractions test is her doctor likely to recommend? A. ultrasound 5. The first stage of childbirth B. fetal biopsy A. usually lasts 1 to 2 hours C. umbilical cord blood sampling B. consists of dilation or widening of the cervix D. amniocentesis C. includes contractions that are continuous D. is the shortest of the stages of birth 161. A procedure that can be used within the first trimester of pregnancy to test fetal cells for defective conditions is 6. Monique is having her first child. She has done the reading A. amniocentesis B. chorionic villus sampling on childbirth and knows that she will have completed the first C. maternal blood test D. all of the above stage of labor when her doctor tells her that A. the baby’s head has moved through the cervix into the 162. Beth is 17 weeks into her pregnancy and undergoes a vaginal canal maternal blood test that shows a high level of alpha B. dilation of the cervix has begun fetoprotein. She may be carrying a baby at risk of C. the baby has left the mother’s body A. hemophilia B. spina bifida D. effacement has begun C. Turner’s syndrome D. polycystic kidney disease 7. Dilation of the cervix occurs during which stage of childbirth? 163. Maternal blood tests can reveal all but which of the A. the first stage following? B. the second stage A. AFP (alpha fetoprotein) levels C. the third stage B. carriers of Tay-Sachs disease D. shortly before the first contractions occur C. sex of the fetus D. gestational age of the fetus 8. The end of the second stage of childbirth is indicated by A. the initial dilation of the cervix 164. Which of the following is generally used to detect multiple B. the emergence of the baby from the mother’s body pregnancies or measure a fetus’s head? C. the expulsion of the placenta A. chorionic villus sampling B. maternal blood test D. contractions that occur every 8 to 10 minutes C. ultrasound D. amniocentesis 9. The placenta is expelled from the mother’s body during the __________ stage of childbirth. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth 22. According to the text, cesarean deliveries 10. During her labor Alaina’s doctor has requested that she be A. are more common among low-income women connected to an electronic fetal monitor that B. may often be performed unnecessarily A. measures the fetal heartbeat during labor and delivery C. always lead to healthier babies B. measures fetal brain activity during birth D. generally result in shorter hospital stays C. reduces the number of cesarean deliveries D. costs comparatively little 23. Based on research cited in the text, a criticism of medicated births is that 11. Which of the following statements regarding electronic fetal A. pain during childbirth is essential to a normal delivery monitoring during labor is false? B. women who choose medicated births have a weaker A. It reduces the number of cesarean deliveries. maternal instinct B. It detects a lack of oxygen in the fetus. C. babies’ motor responsiveness and development may be C. It is expensive and uncomfortable for the mother. slowed D. It often incorrectly indicates fetal distress. D. it leads to overprotectiveness by the mother 12. The use of electronic fetal monitoring equipment carries 24. The Cooper’s are expecting in the near future and have with it the risk that it could give a false reading which may found that studies on the effects of medicated delivery prompt a doctor to A. have produced contradictory results A. use forceps B. have all shown a negative effect on activity levels of infants B. deliver by cesarean birth exposed to medication during birth C. induce labor early C. found that babies born to non medicated mothers are less D. administer anesthesia responsive D. found that babies born to medicated mothers stimulate the 13. The method of childbirth experienced by the vast majority maternal instinct of mothers is a __________ delivery. A. vaginal B. medicated 25. In 1914, a British physician, Dr. Grantly Dick-Read, C. cesarean D. prepared suggested that pain in childbirth was caused mostly by __________. To eliminate this, 14. Cesarean birth rates in the United States are among the he advocated __________ in the world. natural childbirth. A. lowest B. highest A. fear B. ignorance C. average D. rarest C. stress D. relaxation 15. While fewer cesarean births are often encouraged, vaginal 26. Rena is in labor and along with her “coach” husband is births for women who have previously had a cesarean birth learning breathing techniques and muscle relaxation. She is would include all of the following risks except following a method developed by A. uterine rupture A. Fernand Lamaze B. increased risk of death to the infant during delivery B. The American Academy of Pediatrics C. fewer forceps and suction deliveries C. Benjamin Spock D. unsuccessful labor which later on will still undergo C-births D. Jerome Kagan 16. Regan’s obstetrician has decided that she should proceed 27. Drugs can have negative effects on childbirth. One way to with a cesarean section. Which of the following reasons would minimize the effects is not be a good reason for such a decision? A. don’t accept drug assistance until the baby is ready to be A. the pregnancy has gone past the calculated due date born B. the baby is in a head first position B. accept one large dose of painkiller upon arrival at the C. the fetal heart monitor has shown that the infant is in fetal hospital rather than continuous drug therapy distress C. use a variety of drugs so that no one drug will create an D. the doctor will be out of town during the time of the adverse effect calculated delivery D. use as small a dose as possible 17. A technique that substitutes voluntary or learned physical 28. Prepared childbirth teaches breathing and muscle responses for the fear and pain of childbirth is responses in order to A. natural childbirth B. prepared childbirth A. speed the birth B. minimize fear and pain C. cesarean childbirth D. vaginal childbirth C. bring about a hypnotic state D. slow the contractions 18. Tanya’s doctor has prepared her for the possibility that her 29. A small but growing percentage of women decide to have rather large baby may have to be delivered by surgical delivery their baby at home; the birth is usually attended by a through an incision in Tanya’s abdomen called a ____________ who has assisted them throughout the A. medicated birth B. prepared birth pregnancy. C. cesarean section D. Lamaze method A. nurse-midwife B. nurse/assistants 19. Katrina is in labor and was just told by her physician that C. doctor D. doula the baby’s feet are moving down the birth canal before the head. What sort of delivery is likely to be performed? 30. One of the complications of childbirth is caused by the A. Lamaze delivery B. prepared delivery immaturity of the baby’s liver. Because hospital stays are often C. cesarean delivery D. natural medicated delivery less than 48 hours, doctors often miss the diagnosis of A. meconium B. PKU 20. A newer method of medicated delivery that allows a C. neonatal jaundice D. anoxia women to feel sensations and move her legs and participate in childbirth is the 31. The neonatal period is the first __________ of life. A. narcotic injections B. anesthesia block A. 4 weeks B. 8 weeks C. general anesthesia D. “walking epidural” C. 6 months D. year 21. Natural childbirth or prepared childbirth can minimize the 32. The average newborn weighs __________ pounds. need for A. 5 B. 7 1⁄2 C. 8 1⁄2 D. 10 A. a doula B. pain-killing drugs C. electronic fetal monitoring D. cesarean births 33. Which of the following is likely to be heaviest at birth? A. firstborn girl B. firstborn boy 46. The various states of arousal and activity that an infant C. second-born girl D. second-born boy demonstrates are regulated by A. hormonal changes 34. Places in the neonate’s skull where the bones are not B. neurological “firing” completely fused are called the C. an internal “clock” A. fontanels B. vernix D. the way their parents treat them C. apex D. hyaline commissure 47. For how many hours a day does the average newborn 35. Fontanels are present in the neonate's skull sleep? A. to allow for rapid postnatal brain expansion A. 12 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18 B. to prevent calcium deposits from damaging cartilage C. to ease the passage of the skull through the birth canal 48. It is important to sooth a low-birthweight newborn who is D. until 6 months of age distressed because A. cries are usually a sign of serious infant distress 36. Which of the following statements about the first few days B. noisy babies exercise and this allows babies to “catch up” of life is not true? C. quiet babies maintain their weight better A. Newborns tend to have dark complexions. D. none of the above B. Babies lose as much as 10 percent of their body weight. C. The baby’s nose is likely to look flattened. 49. Most babies start to sleep through the night at about what D. The baby’s head may be misshapen. age? A. 3 weeks B. 6 weeks 37. The oily covering on the skin of a newborn is C. 3 months D. 6 months A. witch’s milk B. lanugo C. vernix caseosa D. fontanels 50. At what age do most infants get half or more of their sleep at night, much to the relief of every parent? 38. When Micah first sees his newborn daughter, he is A. 3 months B. 6 month surprised to find her body covered with dark hair. This fuzzy C. 9 months D. 12 months coat is called A. vermis B. follicle caseosa 51. Multicultural studies report that the best way to develop C. meconium D. lanugo babies’ sleep rhythms seems to be A. to allow babies to fall asleep whenever they feel tired 39. An infant who has not begun breathing within 5 minutes B. allow babies to fall asleep in no specific place after birth may suffer brain damage due to C. encourage babies to sleep in their parents’ bed A. hypothermia B. anoxia D. all of the above C. hyperphagia D. oxidation 52. In reviewing the literature on sleep, child development 40. Which of the following statements about newborns is experts correct? A. agree that shared sleeping arrangements are beneficial A. Newborns normally do not begin to breathe until 2 or 3 B. disagree about whether shared sleeping arrangements are minutes after birth. beneficial B. Newborns are covered with a protective film called C. found that sleeping arrangements are affected by culturally meconium. determined attitudes and behaviors C. Newborns possess a strong sucking reflex. D. sleeping arrangements are an important determinant in D. Newborns have a slow, regular heartbeat. development 41. Since the infant’s lungs have only one-tenth as many air 53. What is the most common practice in the United States sacs as adults do, they are susceptible to __________ regarding a newborn’s sleeping arrangements? problems. A. same room/separate bed A. circulatory B. respiratory B. separate room/separate bed C. neurological D. gastrointestinal C. separate room/another family member D. same room/same bed 42. If a newborn does not start breathing within about five minutes, brain injury may occur due to 54. A healthy newborn can receive a maximum score of A. neonatal jaundice B. anoxia __________ on the Apgar scale. C. lanugo D. hypothermia A. 10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 4 43. The stringy, greenish-black waste from a newborn is 55. The condition of a baby whose Apgar score is 3 is A. physiologic jaundice B. meconium A. very healthy C. lanugo D. vernix caseosa B. within normal range C. slig