Gulf Air Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank PDF

Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank Revision: 01 07/01/2023  Page: 2 Revision: 01...

Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank Revision: 01 07/01/2023  Page: 2 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank Preface This question bank may not be copied, photocopied, reproduced, translated, distributed, or converted to any electronic or machine-readable form in whole or in part without prior written approval of Gulf Air. The document is prepared as a study guide and may not, under any circumstances be used for line operation. Bolded answers are the correct answers.  Page: 3 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 1. The primary reason for venting an engine oil tank is to: A) prevent overflow. B) cool the oil. C) allow for expansion of hot oil. D) prevent excessive pressure in the tank. 2. An accumulator in a hydraulic system will.. A) store fluid under pressure. B) increase pressure surges within the system. C) reduce fluid temperature only. D) reduce fluid temperature and pressure. 3. The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are: A) providing an alternative current. B) automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed. C) directly connected to the battery. D) kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure. 4. Which part of the fuselage carries loads imposed by pressurization? A) Skin. B) Stringers C) Ribs. D) Spars. 5. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for: A) nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed. B) undercarriage selection and automatic brake system. C) flap extension only. D) flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power. 6. Hydraulic fluid in the reservoir is pressurised to.. A) prevent vapour locking. B) prevent cavitation in the pump. C) prevent overheating of the pump. D) ensure sufficient pump output.  Page: 4 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 7. On most transport aircraft, flight deck windows are protected against icing by: A) rain repellent systems. B) anti-icing fluid. C) vinyl coating. D) electrical heating. 8. The APU of a large passenger jet airliner has its own AC generator that.. A) is driven at constant speed through a constant speed drive (CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator. B) must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter. C) is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up. D) supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115 V, 400 Hz AC. 9. Modern pressurised transport aeroplanes are equipped with: A) only one oxygen system supplying the whole aeroplane. B) two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin. C) two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin. D) only portable oxygen bottles. 10. The wing anti-ice system protects the.. A) whole of the leading edge and the whole lower wing surface. B) leading edge and the slats, either partially or completely. C) whole of the leading edge except the slats because they cannot be anti-iced when extended. D) the whole upper wing surface and the flaps. 11. The fan of a turbo-fan engine is driven by: A) the HP compressor through reduction gearing. B) the LP turbine. C) the HP turbine. D) airflow drawn across it by the HP compressor.  Page: 5 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 12. For a given type of oil, the viscosity depends on the.. A) outside pressure. B) oil pressure. C) oil temperature. D) quantity of oil. 13. Which of these statements is correct about a flight crew oxygen mask? A) Below a certain altitude the oxygen mask switches automaticall y to “constant flow” B) In the position “100%” oxygen is always supplied with some overpressure. C) When selected to the position “EMERGENCY” oxygen is always supplied with some overpressure. D) In the position “DILUTE” oxygen supply is from a special bottle containing diluted oxygen. 14. The fuselage structure of a modern pressurised transport aeroplane is an example of a.. A) semi-truss structure. B) semi-monocoque structure. C) truss structure. D) pure monocoque structure. 15. What is the correct sequence during the start of a turbine engine on the ground? A) Rotation, fuel, ignition. B) Starter, rotation, ignition, fuel. C) Rotation, ignition, fuel. D) Starter, ignition, rotation, fuel. 16. Once the oxygen masks for the passengers have dropped down, the oxygen flow starts.. A) after the system has been switched on by a crew member. B) only above FL200. C) immediately. D) when each passenger pulls the oxygen mask to his/her face.  Page: 6 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 17. The cabin pressure is regulated by the.. A) air-conditioning pack. B) cabin airflow inlet valve. C) air cycle machine. D) outflow valve. 18. The use of a hot air wing anti-icing system: A) does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust. B) reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust. C) does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum thrust. D) reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum thrust. 19. Which of these statements concerning oxygen on board of passenge r transport aeroplanes is correct? A) Since lavatories are not fitted with an oxygen system, they should be evacuated quickly in case of decompression. B) After being activated a chemical oxygen generator does not produce any heat. C) A chemical oxygen generator is able to provide oxygen for at least one hour. D) Lavatories are equipped with oxygen masks in case of a decompression. 20. One of the benefits of using reduced thrust setting for take off is the... A) decreased wear of the engine and maintenance costs. B) decreased engine wear. C) improved climb gradient. D) decreased risk of bird strike. 21. The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces: A) the least part of the thrust. B) the greatest part of the thrust. C) half the thrust. D) none of the thrust.  Page: 7 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 22. The most favourable conditions to apply the flexible take -off procedure are: 1 – high take-off mass. 2 – low take-off mass. 3 – high outside temperature. 4 – low outside temperature. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is : A) 1,3. B) 2,3. C) 2,4. D) 1,4. 23. An abortive (hung) start is the term used to describe an attempt to start in which the engine: A) lights up, but fails to accelerate sufficiently. B) fails to light up. C) commences initial rotation, but fails to receive any fuel. D) will not rotate. 24. Some gas turbine engines have multiple stages in the HP and LP turbines: A) to help stabilise the pressure between the compressor and the turbine. B) to reduce noise in the propelling nozzle. C) because one stage does not generate sufficient shaft power. D) to facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly. 25. The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is: A) to change AC into DC. B) to avoid a short circuit. C) to change the DC voltage. D) to change DC into AC. 26. Most old aircraft hydraulic systems operate at _____ PSI and modern aircrafts are typically _____ in value. A) 3000; higher B) 3000; lower C) 2000; higher D) 2000; lower  Page: 8 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 27. The pilot`s control input in a Fly-By-Wire system is.. A) linked by mechanical cables directly to the flight control surface. B) converted into an electrical signal and linked via a computer to the flight control surface. C) linked mechanically to a computer and then to the flight control surface. D) linked by electrical wires directly to the flight control surface. 28. The manual mode of a typical aeroplane`s pressurisation control system A) uses a separate circuit to control the operation of the outflow valve(s). B) uses a separate circuit to control the operation of the safety relief valve(s). C) is only available for ground operations. D) is only used to fully open or close the outflow valve(s). 29. In flight, the cabin air for large jet transport aeroplanes is usually supplied by.. A) single radial compressors. B) engine compressors. C) ram air intakes. D) piston compressors. 30. Cabin heating in a large jet transport aeroplane is obtained from.. A) hot air bled from a compressor. B) a fuel heater system. C) an electrical heater system. D) hot air bled from a turbine. 31. A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre -set cabin altitude by regulating the.. A) position of the duct relief valve/valves. B) position of the inward relief valve. C) mass air flow into the cabin. D) position of the outflow valve/valves.  Page: 9 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 32. One of the purposes of the starter-generator is to A) start the core engine until reaching self-sustaining speed. B) drive the generator until the engine takes over. C) excite the magnetic field when the generator is still. D) generate electrical power until reaching self -sustaining speed. 33. EPR can be defined as the ratio of: A) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure. B) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure. C) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure. D) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outl et pressure. 34. The advantages of a chemical oxygen source compared with a gaseous one for the passenger cabin are: 1. easier maintenance. 2. greater capacity. 3. reduced risk of explosion. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 1, 2. B) 1, 3. C) 1, 2, 3. D) 2, 3. 35. In jet aircraft equipped with a thermal anti-ice system, this is primarily supplied by.. A) mechanical anti-icing boots. B) electrically heating the surfaces to be protected. C) ram air, heated via a heat exchanger. D) bleed air from the engines. 36. When large transport aeroplanes are flying at high speed, full rudder deflection would cause excessive loads on the structure. What system is fitted to the rudder to prevent this happening? A) Rudder trim system. B) Fully powered rudder control. C) Rudder ratio or rudder travel changer. D) Yaw damper system.  Page: 10 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 37. On a jet aeroplane, fuel heaters are: A) installed in each tank. B) installed only in the centre tank. C) not necessary at all. D) located on the engines. 38. When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is: A) able to radiotelephone. B) not able to do any radio communication. C) only able to receive. D) only able to transmit. 39. The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is: A) induction, compression, expansion, power. B) compression induction, power, exhaust. C) induction, power, compression, exhaust. D) induction, compression, power, exhaust. 40. A bus bar is: A) the stator of a moving coil instrument. B) a distribution means for electrical power. C) a device which may only be used in DC circuits. D) a device permitting operation of two or more switches together. 41. The capacity of a battery is given in: A) Ampere hours B) Ohms C) Watts D) Amperes/volts 42. In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from: A) a TRU. B) a contactor. C) an inverter. D) a rectifier.  Page: 11 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 43. In the event of a fire in a gas turbine engine: A) an automatic shut off valve is moved to the closed position controlled by the fire sensing system. B) the fuel supply is isolated from the engine by pilot action. C) the fuel installation is protected by an automatic fire extinguishing system. D) the fuel supply is disconnected by a quick release coupling. 44. The most widely used AC frequency in aircraft is: A) 115 Hz. B) 50 Hz. C) 60 Hz. D) 400 Hz. 45. Ohm`s law states that in an electric circuit: A) the voltage passing through a resistor between two points is proportional to the current between those two points. B) the current passing through a resistor between two points is proportional to the voltage between those two points. C) the voltage passing through a resistor between two points is inversely proportional to the resistance between those two points. D) the current passing through a resistor between two points is proportional to the resistance between those two points. 46. The auto-brake system stops operating during landing.. A) by the pilot selecting idle reverse thrust. B) by the pilot extending ground spoilers. C) by pilot action. D) when the pilot does not lower the nose wheel to the ground. 47. Which statements are correct, as regards a jet en gine? 1. The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude increases. 2. The specific fuel consumption remains constant as the pressure altitude increases at constant TAS. A) Both 1 and 2 are correct. B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.  Page: 12 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 48. The input and output of a static inverter are respectively: A) AC and AC. B) AC and DC. C) DC and DC. D) DC and AC. 49. On most high by-pass ratio (fan) engines, reverse thrust is achieved by reversing: A) the direction of rotation of the fan. B) the direction of both the exhaust gas flow (hot stream) and the fan airflow (cold stream). C) only the direction of the exhaust gas flow. D) only the direction of the fan airflow. 50. The bypass ratio: I. is the ratio of inlet airflow to HP compressor flow. II. can be determined from the inlet air mass flow and the HP compressor mass flow. A) I is correct, II is incorrect. B) I is correct, II is correct. C) I is incorrect, II is incorrect. D) I is incorrect, II is correct. 51. When powering up a hydraulic system, the level in the reservoir will: A) initially increase with system pressurisation. B) always remain the same. C) increase as ambient temperature decreases. D) decrease slightly. 52. The purpose of a variable bypass valve, fitted between the LP and HP compressor of an axial flow compressor, is to.. A) prevent stall in the LP compressor. B) control the acceleration of the engine. C) prevent the engine from an overspeed. D) enable the engine to start with an external air supply.  Page: 13 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 53. The cabin differential pressure is.. A) cabin pressure minus ambient pressure. B) approximately 3 psi at maximum. C) the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin. D) approximately 15 psi at maximum. 54. What is an advantage of a fly-by-wire system compared with a conventional flight control system? A) Weight saving B) Mach number reduction C) Flight envelope exceedance D) Profile drag reduction 55. To protect against excessive system pressure, a hydraulic system usually incorporates.. A) a standby hydraulic pump. B) a high pressure relief valve. C) an accumulator. D) auxiliary hydraulic motors. 56. The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to: A) close the vent lines in case of turbulence. B) prevent fuel movement to the wing tip. C) damp out movement of the fuel in the tank. D) prevent positive pressure buildup inside the tank. 57. When the pressure altitude is 4000 ft but the density altitude is 5000 ft, the available torque of a turbine engine is A) more because of the lower temperature. B) more because of the higher density. C) less because of the higher pressure. D) less because of the higher temperature. 58. A relay is.. A) another name for a solenoid valve. B) a magnetically operated switch. C) a unitised to convert electrical energy to heat energy. D) a device used to increase electrical power.  Page: 14 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 59. The flexible take-off mode: 1 – can be used only on new engines. 2 – reduces engine wear. 3 – can be used in situations where take-off can be executed without the need for full engine power. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 2,3. B) 1,2,3. C) 1,3. D) 1 60. Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about resetting are correct or incorrect? I.A fuse is not resettable II. A circuit breaker is resettable. A) I is incorrect, II is correct. B) I is correct, II is incorrect. C) I is correct, II is correct. D) I is incorrect, II is incorrect. 61. Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurisation in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the.. A) compressor section. B) by-pass ducting. C) fan section. D) turbine section. 62. What is the name of the mode in which 100% oxygen is inhaled on demand? A) Diluter-demand. B) Demand. C) Emergency. D) 100%. 63. The emergency method of lowering the landing gear on a modern jet transport aeroplane is by.. A) suction created by the dynamic airflow. B) hydraulic accumulators.  Page: 15 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank C) gravity extension. D) alternate electrical extension. 64. The FADEC of a gas turbine engine consists of: A) an electronic engine control unit and the engine display units in the cockpit. B) an electronic engine control unit only. C) all electronic engine control units installed on the aircraft. D) an electronic engine control unit and its peripherals (fuel metering, actuators, electrical wiring, sensors). 65. In a commercial transport aeroplane the landing gear normal operating system is usually.. A) mechanically operated. B) pneumatically operated. C) electrically operated. D) hydraulically operated. 66. Why do large jet engines need a spool-up time? A) Because the engines are controlled by an electronic engine control unit, the calculations required to meter the correct amount of fuel produce a delay in the accelaration of the engine. B) Due to the number of turbine blades in jet fans and the high viscosity of cold blades. C) The engine gearbox requires a significant amount of the energy produced by the turbine; this causes a typical spool up time. D) A request for a rapid accelaration may cause a flameout due to the overfly rich mixture. 67. The function of the rudder limiter system is: A) to limit pedal movement in heavy turbulence. B) to restrict the rudder deflection during flight at high Mach numbers. C) to reduce pilot`s workload during engine failure. D) to restrict rudder deflection during flight at high IAS.  Page: 16 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 68. Alternating current can be derived from direct current by.. A) a transformer. B) a rectifier. C) an inverter. D) an alternating current motor. 69. The expression "primary flight control" applies to the: 1: stabiliser 2: rudder 3: speed brake 4: aileron The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 2,3. B) 1,4. C) 1,2,3,4. D) 2,4. 70. To achieve reverse thrust on a turbine engine with a high by - pass ratio, generally: A) the flow of hot stream air is reversed. B) the fan flow is deflected. C) the direction of rotation of the fan is reversed. D) the fan is stopped. 71. Which of these statements about chemical oxygen generators are correct or incorrect? I.Chemical oxygen generators are often used to supply passenger oxygen. II. The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, cannot be switched off. A) I is correct, II is correct. B) I is incorrect, II is correct. C) I is incorrect, II is incorrect. D) I is correct, II is incorrect.  Page: 17 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 72. The electronic engine control of a FADEC gas turbine engine checks: A) output data only. B) all input and output data. C) ACTIVE CHANNEL input and output data only. D) input data only. 73. Cabin pressure is controlled by.. A) maintaining a constant outflow. B) the outflow valve or valves. C) the inflow valve or valves. D) the cabin air recirculation system. 74. Parameters to monitor a hydraulic system in the cockpit are.. A) pressure and fluid viscosity. B) pressure and RPM of the hydraulic pump. C) pressure and hydraulic pump output. D) pressure, fluid temperature and quantity. 75. Assuming a constant speed drive (CSD) fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected: A) provided the engine is running. B) at flight idle engine rpm only. C) when the AC generator voltage is outside limits. D) on the ground only. 76. Which statement is correct, as regards a jet engine? 1. The maximum thrust decreases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases. 2. The specific fuel consumption increases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS. A) Both 1 and 2 are correct. B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. C) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. D) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.  Page: 18 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 77. On most large aeroplanes, the type of low-pressure fuel pump is.. A) centrifugal. B) gear. C) diaphragm. D) piston. 78. The primary element necessary for automatic ground spoiler deployment during landing is.. A) selecting reverse thrust. B) operating the ground spoiler control handle. C) the weight on wheels. D) applying brake pressure. 79. Ice formation on turbofan engine intakes is usually: A) removed by using electrical heating. B) prevented by using turbine bleed air. C) prevented by using compressor bleed air. D) removed by using pneumatic boots. 80. The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control): 1 – provides fully automatic engine starting. 2 – modifies aircraft airspeed in order to allow for the lowest fuel consumption. 3 – counters any yaw movement in case of engine failure. 4 – provides thrust reverser control. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 1,4. B) 1,2,4. C) 2. D) 1,2,3,4. 81. Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately.. A) 2000 psi. B) 1000 psi. C) 4000 psi. D) 3000 psi.  Page: 19 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 82. Primary flight controls are.. A) ailerons, elevators and rudder. B) ailerons, elevators, rudder and flaps. C) control wheel or stick, rudder pedals, flap lever and throttle. D) control wheel or stick, rudder pedals and speed brake. 83. In an aircraft`s pressurisation system, excessive cabin pressure would normally be alleviated automatically by the.. A) opening of a negative pressure relief valve. B) opening of the outflow valve. C) closing of the outflow valve. D) opening of a positive pressure relief valve. 84. The pilot detectes a low oil pressure in the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG). The pilot… A) Must reduce thrust on the associated engine and wait for the oil pressure to rise again. B) Must pull the corresponding circuit breaker (CB). C) Must use the generator control switch. D) Must operate IDG disconnect switch. 85. In a hydraulic system, overheat detectors are usually installed: A) at the pumps. B) at the actuators. C) in the accumulators. D) in the coolers. 86. By-pass ratio in a turbine engine is the ratio of the: A) intake air pressure to the turbine delivery air pressure. B) tertiary air mass flow to the primary air mass flow. C) speed of the combusted air to the speed of the by -pass air. D) cold air mass flow to the hot air mass flow.  Page: 20 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 87. The purpose of the combustion chamber in a gas turbine engine is to provide A) high-velocity air to the compressor and exhaust section. B) an optimal increase in the air`s temperature with a minimum loss of pressure. C) high-temperature air to the engine-bleed-air system and turbine section. D) an optimal increase in the air`s pressure with a minimum reduction in temperature. 88. Determine the main functions of the fuel system. A) Fuel storage and filtering B) Ensuring that the central tank is emptied first C) Even distribution of fuel among the tanks D) Provision of fuel to the engines, appropriate pressure to enable engine operation 89. Fuel flow information for gas turbine engines is measured.. A) in the line between the booster pump and the engine. B) in the inlet of the high-pressure fuel pump. C) in the line between the fuel control unit and the engine burners. D) at the outlet of the high pressure fuel pump. 90. Purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is to A) Used to maintain pressure in the hydraulic system B) Allows the pilots to place bets on the hydraulic system for great returns C) Acts as a tank for refilling any lost hydraulic fuel(Reserve tank) D) Supply an emergency reserve of power in the event of a hydraulic failure  Page: 21 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 91. The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) can provide: 1 – thrust reverser control. 2 – engine operation within safe limits. 3 – automatic engine starting sequence. 4 – automatic thrust rating control. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is : A) 1,2,3,4. B) 2,4. C) 2,3,4. D) 1,2,4. 92. The bypass ratio: I.is the ratio of inlet air mass flow to HP compressor mass flow. II. can be determined from the inlet air volume flow and the HP compressor volume flow. A) I is incorrect, II is correct. B) I is correct, II is correct. C) I is correct, II is incorrect. D) I is incorrect, II is incorrect. 93. Engine oil reservoirs are sometimes located at the front of the engine: A) to allow the hot oil to heat the air intake. B) to provide an attachment point for the mounting of the compressor and turbine bearings. C) to utilise its structure as mounting points for oil and fuel pumps. D) because it is the most distant position from the exhaust. 94. On a typical gas-turbine-engine aircraft, the pneumatic air bleed system uses air supplied from the engine.. A) compressor B) exhaust C) turbine D) inlet  Page: 22 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 95. When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the: A) temperature increases. B) pressure rises. C) pressure drops. D) axial velocity decreases. 96. Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? 1. The speed remains constant in flow direction. 2. The total pressure decreases in flow direction. A) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. B) Both 1 and 2 are correct. C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. 97. The power of a normally aspirated piston engine decreases during a climb with a constant power lever setting because of the.. A) increasing air density. B) increasing engine temperature. C) decreasing air density. D) decreasing outside air temperature. 98. An in-flight anti-icing system A) prevents ice formation on the engine air intakes. B) removes ice formed on the tail surfaces. C) prevents ice formation on the trailing edge flaps. D) removes ice formed on the leading edge flaps. 99. In a hard-time maintenance programme, a component must be replaced.. A) at a specified number of flight cycles or hours. B) if it fails a visual inspection. C) if there is evidence of stress loads. D) after a complaint from the flight crew.  Page: 23 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 100. What causes stress? A) Aging. B) Fatigue. C) Long working hours. D) Cycle loads. 101. What is a desired property of hydraulic fluids? A) High volatility B) High viscosity C) Low flammability D) Low flash point 102. The part of the aircraft’s fuselage which gives it its aerodynamic shape is the: A) Stringer. B) Former. C) Skin. D) Rib. 103. What is the concept of control-surface protection by means of a pressure-relief valve? A) A pressure-relief valve is used to resist the aerodynamic loads that are exerted on a flight control surface. B) It is a feature used to increase the aerodynamic lift induced by the control surface. C) It is the method by which a flight control surface can be moved by the pilot. D) A pressure-relief valve provides the automatic retraction of a flight control surface under excessive aerodynamic loads.  Page: 24 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 104. Refer to Annex 021-016 2008. The engine component between station numbers 6 and 7 is the: A) HP compressor. B) combustion chamber. C) intake. D) LP turbine. 105. Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct? A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases. 2. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. A) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. B) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. C) Both 1 and 2 are correct. D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 106. Cabin pressurisation is maintained by.. A) a special blower on the accessory section of the air conditioning system. B) regulating the bleed air supply to the cabin. C) controlling the negative relief valve. D) controlling the outflow valves.  Page: 25 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 107. Hydraulic systems, when operating normally, are pressurized by.. A) a ram turbine B) a system reservoir C) an engine pump D) a turbo compressor 108. On large pressurised jet transport aeroplanes, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately.. A) 13 psi to 15 psi. B) 8 psi to 9 psi. C) 22 psi. D) 3 psi to 5 psi. 109. The main function of an air cycle machine is to.. A) cool the bleed air. B) decrease the pressure of the bleed air. C) remove the water from the bleed air. D) pump the conditioned air into the cabin. 110. Viscosity is A) the temperature dependence of an oil. B) the pressure resistance of an oil. C) the flow velocity inside the oil lines. D) the tendency of a liquid or gas to resist flow. 111. In an aircraft’s hydraulic system, the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) is driven by: A) Hydraulic driven pump B) Centrifugal pump C) RAT D) Pneumatic system 112. What is the main purpose of a hydraulic system in an aircraft? A) To move large control surfaces. B) To warm up the fuel and cool down integrated drive generators (IDGs). C) To damp out movement while landing and taxiing. D) Use for lubrication.  Page: 26 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 113. A Power Transfer Unit (PTU) is powered by... A) a hydraulic motor. B) aircraft engine. C) an electric motor. D) a mechanical gearbox. 114. Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust phases. Which of these statements about a gas turbine are correct? 1. The process in a gas turbine engine is intermittent. 2. Theoretically the combustion occurs at constant volume. A) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. D) Both 1 and 2 are correct. 115. You were flying an Airbus A320 when the aircraft turned to Alternate mode. What feature is lost? A) Automatic pitch protection. B) Autopilot functions. C) Flight envelope protection. D) Overspeed protection. 116. Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust phases. Which of these statements about a gas turbine are correct? 1. The process in a gas turbine engine is intermittent. 2. Theoretically the combustion occurs at constant pressure. A) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. C) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. D) Both 1 and 2 are correct.  Page: 27 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 118. Holding procedure – The outbound time for a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is A) 1 minute. B) 2 minutes 30 seconds. C) 1 minute 30 seconds. D) 2 minutes. 119. The vertical separation minimum between opposite direction aircraft flying under IFR below flight level 290 is.. A) 2000 feet (600 m). B) 500 feet (150 m). C) 1000 feet (300 m). D) 1500 feet (450 m). 120. What PAPI lights will the pilot see when the aircraft is well above the approach slope? A) All four units are flashing white. B) All four units are steady white. C) The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are white, the two others are red. D) The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are steady white, the two in the centre are flashing white.  Page: 28 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 121. What is FAP? A) A point in space on the final approach track where the intermediate approach altitude/height intercepts the nominal glide path/microwave landing system (MLS) elevation angle. B) It is designed to place the aircraft on the localizer or the MLS azimuth specified for the final approach track. C) It identifies the beginning of the intermediate approach segment of an instrument approach procedure. D) It is the point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA/H in APV or precision approaches 122. When an ATC clearance is issued, who must take responsibility for terrain clearance? A) ATC B) The aircraft operator. C) The pilot-in-command. D) The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan. 123. Regarding runway characteristics, the clearway is.. A) trapezoidal, and the inner width is twice that of the outer width. B) semi-circular, with a radius twice that of the runway width. C) rectangular, and it is located on the ground or on water. D) conical, with a total length at least half that of the TORA.  Page: 29 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 124. According to ICAO Annex 13, what is the definition of the term accident? A) An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which affects or could affect the safety of operation. B) A person is fatally or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure, or the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible. C) A person is fatally or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustains minor damage or structural failure. D) A person receives minor injuries, or the aircraft sustains minor damage. 125. Ceiling is the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20 000 ft covering at least more than _____ the sky. A) 1/2 B) 3/4 C) 1/4 D) 1/3 126. What is the vertical separation minimum between FL290 and FL410 in RVSM airspace? A) 300 m (1000 ft) B) 1200 m (4000 ft) C) 600 m (2000 ft) D) 900 m (3000 ft)  Page: 30 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 127. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) is a statement of the navigation performance necessary for.. A) the clearance of obstacles in the approach sector. B) operation on aerodromes. C) the clearance of obstacles during take-off. D) operation within a defined airspace. 128. What transponder mode and code should be used by an aircraft in a state of emergency? A) Mode A, Code 7700. B) Mode C, Code 7600. C) Mode C, Code 7700. D) Mode A, Code 7500. 129. Regarding pavement strength, the abbreviation ACN stands for.. A) Aircraft Code Number. B) Aircraft Classification Number. C) Aerodrome Code Number. D) Aerodrome Classification Number. 130. In the climb after take-off, the change from QNH to Standard Pressure Setting shall be made at.. A) the transition layer. B) a level specified by ATC. C) the transition altitude. D) the transition level.  Page: 31 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 131. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? A) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value. B) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR; otherwise hourly. C) Only when weather changes are of a magnitude that requires a change of the active runway or instrument approach in use. D) The ATIS is updated immediately when a significant change occurs. 132. Non-precision approach runways and precision approach runways CAT I, II and III are defined as.. A) precision instrument runways. B) non-instrument runways. C) parallel runways. D) instrument runways. 133. Taxiway centre line lights, except on an exit taxiway, are fixed lights showing.. A) yellow B) blue C) green D) white  Page: 32 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 134. In which of the following cases will ASDA, LDA, TODA and TORA have the same length? A) Stopway and clearway are equal but no displaced threshold. B) No stopway, no clearway, no displaced threshold. C) Stopway and clearway equal and a displaced threshold is available. D) No stopway but a clearway and a displaced threshold are available. 135. Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent terrain collisions when.. A) a flight under IFR is vectored by radar. B) the GPWS of the aircraft is declared U/S. C) an ATS is provided. D) an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC. 136. Taxiway edge lights shall be fixed showing.. A) blue. B) yellow. C) green. D) white. 137. When flying on an airway with an easterly magnetic heading, the correct flight level will be.. A) usually even. B) usually odd. C) always odd. D) always even.  Page: 33 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 138. A defined rectangular area, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height is called.. A) a Clearway. B) the Runway End Safety Area (RESA). C) a Stopway. D) the Take-Off Run Available (TORA). 139. The expression `Radar Contact` in RT phraseology means.. A) the pilot does not have to follow up and report the position of the aircraft. B) the radar identity of the aircraft has been established. C) position reports may be abbreviated. D) the aircraft is subject to positive control and separation from other traffic will be provided. 140. What is the purpose of a missed approach procedure? A. It is designed to provide climb and direct an aircraft back to the initial approach fix (IAF). B. It is designed to minimize noise. C. It is designed to provide protection from obstacles. D. It is designed to climb above the minimum sector altitude (MSA).  Page: 34 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 141. The acronym PAPI stands for.. A) Precision Approach Power Indicator. B) Precision Approach Path Index. C) Precision Approach Power Index. D) Precision Approach Path Indicator. 142. What colour are runway markings? A) White. B) Red. C) Yellow. D) Blue. 143. The "Mach number technique" may be applied by ATC to aircraft along the same route in order to.. A) allow reduced vertical separation. B) reduce the fuel burn in the cruise. C) adjust the Mach number as the aircraft`s mass reduces. D) maintain longitudinal separation. 144. The abbreviation "MDA" means: A) Minimum Decision Altitude B) Minimum Descent Attitude C) Maximum Drift Angle D) Minimum Descent Altitude  Page: 35 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 145. The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14 000 ft or below, in still air conditions, is.. A) 1 minute. B) 30 seconds. C) 1 minute 30 seconds. D) 2 minutes. 146. The MOC of a MSA is... A) 1 000 m B) 1 000 ft C) 300 ft D) 500 ft 147. The stopway is located at the end of the? A) Take-Off Run Available (TORA). B) Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA). C) Landing Distance Available (LDA). D) Take-Off Distance Available (TODA). 148. Runway lead-in lighting shall consist of.. A) a group of at least 5 flashing yellow lights. B) an arbitrary amount of green lights. C) a group of at least three white lights, flashing in sequence towards the runway. D) two parallel rows of lights leading towards the runway.  Page: 36 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 149. What is true concerning a clearway? A) A clearway can be used to bring an aircraft to a complete stop after an engine failure. B) A clearway must have a gradient of 1.5%. C) A clearway has a minimum width of 90 m. D) A clearway can be water or land and must be under the control of the airport authority. 150. The Minimum Sector Altitudes (MSAs) provide an obstacle clearance of at least 300 m (1000 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. – The circle has a radius of.. A) 5 NM. B) 20 NM. C) 10 NM. D) 25 NM. 151. What is the meaning of the abbreviation OCA? A) Obstruction clearance altitude B) Obstacle clearance altitude C) Oceanic clearance area D) Obstacle clearance area  Page: 37 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 152. What does the abbreviation ATIS stand for? A) Automatic Terminal Instruction Service B) Automatic Terminal Information Status C) Automatic Terminal Information Service D) Automatic Transferable Information Service 153. Take-off distance available (TODA) is the length of the.. A) runway available plus the length of provided clearway. B) take-off run available plus the length of provided stopway. C) take-off run available plus the length of provided stopway and clearway. D) take-off run available plus the length of provided clearway. 154. The transition level is.. A) the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established. B) calculated and declared for an approach by the pilot -in command. C) the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude. D) published for each aerodrome in the AIP, Section MAP. 155. Which of the following terms is used to report the condition of a runway as regards braking action? A) Standard B) Poor C) Sliding D) Skidding  Page: 38 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 156. The minimum wake turbulence separation to be applied between alight or medium aircraft taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, from the same position on the same runway, is.. A) 5 minutes. B) 3 minutes. C) 2 minutes. D) 1 minute. 157. Accelerate stop distance available (ASDA) is the length of the.. A) take-off run available plus the length of provided stopway. B) runway available plus the length of provided stopway. C) take-off run available plus the length of provided stopway and clearway. D) take-off run available plus the length of provided clearway. 158. The shape of a clearway is: A) Semi circular. B) Triangular. C) Rectangular, over, and or water. D) Conical. 159. In a non-standard holding pattern turns are made: A) to the right. B) in a direction depending on the wind direction. C) in either direction depending on the entry. D) to the left.  Page: 39 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 160. Which of the following information shall be provided by the Aeronautical Information Services (AIS) to flight crews, for pre -flight purposes? A) NOTAMS. B) Aircraft performance charts C) Operational Flight Plan D) Aircraft Minimum Equipment List 161. When does the pilot change from flight level to altitude? A) At the transition altitude. B) At the transition level. C) At or below the transition level. D) Below the transition level. 162. What is the preferred ILS glide path for a precision approach A) 2.5% B) 3 degrees C) 5 degrees D) 3% 163. Regarding the bearing strength of aprons, runways, and taxiways, the abbreviation PCN stands for.. A) Platform Code Number. B) Pavement Classification Number. C) Pavement Code Number. D) Platform Classification Number.  Page: 40 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 164. What does the abbreviation DER stand for? A) Displaced End of Runway. B) Distance Error in Routing. C) Departure End of Runway. D) Direct Entry Route. 165. A nautical mile is equivalent to: A) 1012 metres B) 1609 metres C) 1500 metres D) 1852 metres 166. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold A) a current class III medical assessment B) a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence C) a current class I medical assessment D) a current class II medical assessment 167. On approach to landing the wind is reported 040/20 kt. Which runways below is the approach controller most likely to clear you for landing? A) 09 B) 06 C) 27 D) 36  Page: 41 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 168. Except for a take-off or landing, an IFR flight has to be flown at a level which is not below the minimum flight altitude established by the State overflown. If no such minimum flight altitude has been established, what is the minimum altitude of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas? A) At least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. B) At least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 6 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. C) At least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. D) At least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 6 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. 169. A sign close to a taxiway, which indicates an ILS critical area, is a/an... A) ILS warning sign. B) taxiway location sign. C) No entry sign. D) Runway-holding position sign. 170. In a precision approach (ILS), the glide path interception generally occurs at heights above runway elevation between.. A) 300 m (1000 ft) and 600 m (2000 ft). B) 150 m (500 ft) and 900 m (3000 ft). C) 150 m (500 ft) and 300 m (1000 ft). D) 300 m (1000 ft) and 900 m (3000 ft).  Page: 42 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 171. PANS-OPS – Definitions – An OCA is referenced to.. A) an Aerodrome Elevation. B) the relevant Runway Threshold. C) the Aerodrome Reference Point. D) Mean Sea Level. 172. Runway threshold identification lights are.. A) steady yellow lights. B) steady white lights. C) flashing white lights. D) flashing green lights. 173. Which emergency frequency should be used, when on the frequency currently in use there is no possibility to communicate with ATS? A) 121.5 MHz B) 243 kHz C) 243 MHz D) 122.5 MHz 174. The transition layer is the airspace located.. A) above the Transition Level. B) where the atmospheric pressure equals 1013.2 hPa. C) between the Transition Level and the Transition Altitude. D) below the Transition Altitude.  Page: 43 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 175. What is the main purpose of a rapid exit taxiway? A) It minimises the runway occupancy time of landing aircraft. B) To permit Land-And-Hold-Short-Operations (LAHSO). C) To maximise the runway occupancy time of departing aircraft. D) It allows departing aircraft to line-up at higher speeds. 176. Altitude should be referred to as flight levels... A) above the airport elevation B) above the lowest possible altitude. C) above the 1 013.25 isobar. D) above the transition altitude. 177. ICAO Annex 2 defines "Ceiling" as the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000 feet, covering.. A) less than half of the sky. B) one quarter of the sky. C) more than one third of the sky. D) more than half of the sky. 178. The Convention which deals with offences against penal law is the.. A) Convention of Tokyo. B) Convention of Rome. C) Convention of Warsaw. D) Convention of Madrid.  Page: 44 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 179. After a Resolution Advisory situation is resolved, the pilot shall.. A) continue the flight without further notification to ATC. B) notify ATC when returning to the current clearance. C) request for an amended clearance in accordance with the current situation. D) maintain the current flight level and notify ATC. 180. What does RESA mean? A) Runway Excursion Safety Area B) Runway End Security Area C) Runway End Safety Area D) Runway Enhanced Safety Area 181. When does an operator need an operational approval for RNP/RNAV? A) If an operator has an approval for one application, all other applications are automatically covered. B) For all RNP procedures. C) Operators do not need an approval. D) For certain procedures. 182. Approach lights and crossbars are measured from the: A) Middle of the touchdown zone. B) Threshold. C) Runway extremity. D) Beginning of the touchdown zone.  Page: 45 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 183. Wake turbulence separation between arriving aircraft – The minimum wake turbulence separation for landing to be applied between a MEDIUM aircraft and an HEAVY aircraft is.. A) 2 minutes. B) 3 minutes. C) 5 minutes. D) 1 minute. 184. What does the abbreviation "IATA" stand for? A) International Air Transport Association. B) International Airport Training Association. C) International Air Trading Association. D) International Aviation Transportation Association. 185. A pilot should report "Runway vacated"... A) When the aircraft is turning to exit the runway. B) As soon as the entire aircraft has passed over the holding point. C) As soon as the aircraft is on the taxiway with taxi speed. D) As soon as the aircraft nose is beyond the limits of the runway. 186. The part of the AIP that gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available is.. A) FAL B) AD C) ENR D) GEN  Page: 46 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 187. Select the option with the correct equipment requirements for parallel runway approach procedures: A) PBN equipment, non-precision equipment, precision equipment. B) Non-precision equipment and precision equipment. C) Standard equipment and precision equipment. D) PBN equipment, precision equipment, non-precision equipment and GNSS functions. 188. If an ILS glide path (GP) becomes inoperative during the approach: A) A go-around should be initiated, or, if time permits, the approach can be continued by using the LOC signals. B) A go-around must be performed. C) ATC should be contacted for further instructions. D) It must be continued to the ILS minimum without GP. 189. In the context of ICAO Annex 13, Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation, the Maximum Mass is considered to be the. A) Maximum Structural Landing Mass. B) Dry operating mass. C) Maximum Zero Fuel Mass. D) Maximum Certified Take-Off Mass.  Page: 47 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 190. Separation methods and minima - Vertical Separation Minima (VSM) acc. DOC 4444: Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for aircraft flying in the same direction shall be : A) 2 000 feet. B) 4 000 feet. C) 3 000 feet. D) 1 500 feet. 191. What is affected by a displaced threshold of an active runway? A) ASDA B) TORA C) TODA D) LDA 192. What is the main purpose of the missed approach procedure A) To direct aircraft to the IAF for the subsequent approach. B) To provide obstacle protection throughout the manoeuvre. C) To climb to the highest MSA in the aerodrome area. D) To minimise noise in the aerodrome surroundings. 193. An aircraft lands at the destination with less than 30 minutes fuel. This is reported as: A) Incident. B) Serious Incident. C) Accident. D) As long as the aircraft land safely, there is no report.  Page: 48 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 194. Which of the following statements about a radar advisory service is true? A) Clearances are provided to increase safety in controlled airspaces. B) Such service is only provided for controlled aircraft in upper airspace. C) The pilot must consider that the controller is not aware of all traffic within their airspace. D) Such service is only provided on and in close proximity to aerodromes. 195. Interception. An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A A) Code 7500. B) Code 7600. C) Code 7000. D) Code 7700. 196. What is the ICAO definition for stopway? A) A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared to reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. B) A defined rectangular area on the ground or water established to permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. C) A defined rectangular area on the ground or water established to protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations. D) A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take - off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.  Page: 49 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 197. According to ICAO Annex 9, who shall sign the General Declaration in paper form, if needed? A) The Load Manager. B) The Authorized Agent or Pilot-in-command. C) The Accountable Manager. D) The Chief Purser. 198. In which of the following ATC clearances is the QNH altimeter setting included? A) In climb, when first cleared to an altitude above the transition level. B) In all climb or descent ATC clearances to an altitude. C) In all clearances to altitudes below 2000 ft above aerodrome level. D) In descent, when first cleared to an altitude below the transition leve 199. Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944: A. Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory. B. Each state was required to recognise the other states attending. C. All states in the world attended. D. Only 52 nations were permitted to attend.  Page: 50 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 200. What is the status of IATA? A. It is the international legislative arm of ICAO. B. It represents the air transport operators at ICAO. C. It is an associate body ICAO. D. It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation. 201. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: A. standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. B. aeronautical standards adopted by all states. C. proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. D. standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention. 203. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: A. approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies. B. approve new international airlines. C. develop principles and techniques for international aviation. D. approve new international airlines with jet aircraft.  Page: 51 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 204. What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act? A. Public transport flights only. B. Military flights only. C. Private flights only. D. All flights. 205. The first freedom of the air is: A. The right to land for a technical stop. B. The right to overfly without landing. C. The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states. D. The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state. 206. An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must: A. Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying. B. Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator. C. Follow the rules of the Air of the State that has issued the aircraft Certificate of airworthiness. D. Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration.  Page: 52 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 207. When is deviation from the rules of the air permitted? A. Only if the operator has special dispensation from the aircraft manufacturer. B. Only when it is economically advantageous. C. Anytime the PIC thinks it is necessary. D. Only in the interests of flight safety. 208. When does responsibility of the operator end if he has to deliver a person in custody? A. From the moment such person has left the aircraft and entered the corresponding state B. From the moment such person has arrived in the corresponding state C. From the moment such person has been admitted into the corresponding state D. From the moment such person has passed the customs control 209. When does FLIGHT TIME end? A. At touchdown. B. At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay. C. When all the passengers have disembarked. D. When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers.  Page: 53 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 210. In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled flight, which of the following actions is required? A. The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan should be submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable. B. No action required because the air traffic system accommodates delays of up to 60 minutes. C. None, because ATC will automatically amend the current flight plan. D. A new flight plan must be submitted if required by ATC. 211. ICAO Annex 2 - Definitions. Who is charged with the safe conduct of a flight? A. The airline operator. B. The aircraft owner. C. The ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace. D. The pilot-in-command. 212. To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies: A. An aircraft has to stop and hold at all lighted stop bars if so required by the aerodrome control tower. B. An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off. C. An aircraft shall stop and hold at all lighted stop bars unless otherwise authorised by the aerodrome control tower.  Page: 54 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank D. Lighted stop bars may only be crossed with the authorisation of aerodrome control tower. 213. PANS-OPS means: A. Procedures for Air Navigation Systems - Airfield operations. B. Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations. C. Pilots Alternative Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures. D. Primary and Alternative Navigation Systems and Operations. 214. Authority. The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the: A. Pilot-in-command. B. Operator. C. ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace. D. aircraft owner.  Page: 55 Revision: 01 Date: 07.01.2023 Ab-initio Technical Exam Question Bank 215. A danger area is: A. An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. B. An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which flight of aircraft is prohibited. C. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times. D. A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded. 216. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: A. on the ground when the engines are running. B. outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable. C. while taxiing, but not when it is being towed. D. outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed. 217. On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: A. other vehicles and pedestrians B. other converging aircraft C. all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle D. aircraft taking off or about to take off