Technam P2008 JC Question Bank PDF
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This document is a question bank for a Technical Aircraft Exam. It contains various questions on aircraft systems, engines, and flight procedures.
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AFM- TECHNAM P2008 JC QUESTION BANK Q1. Which of the following definition apply to a warning? a. Means that the non-observation of the corresponding procedure leads to an immediate or important degradation of the flight safety b. Means that the non-observation o...
AFM- TECHNAM P2008 JC QUESTION BANK Q1. Which of the following definition apply to a warning? a. Means that the non-observation of the corresponding procedure leads to an immediate or important degradation of the flight safety b. Means that the non-observation of the corresponding procedure leads to a minor or to a more or less long term degradation of the flight safety. c. Draws the attention to any special item not directly related to safety but which is important or unusual. d. None of the above Q2. Which of the following is the model of this engine? a. 912 iS b. 914 c. 912 S2 d. 912ULS Q3. Which of the following correct engine type? a. 4 cylinder with horizontally opposed with 1352 c.c. of total displacement. b. 4 cylinder with horizontally opposed with 1532 c.c. of total displacement. c. 7 cylinder radial with 1352 c.c. of total displacement. d. 7 cylinder radial with 1532 c.c. of total displacement. Q4. Which of the following is correct about the cooling system? a. Liquid Cooled Cylinder Heads, Ram-Air Cooled Cylinders b. Liquid Cooled Cylinder Heads and Cylinders c. Liquid Cooled Cylinders, Ram-Air Cooled Cylinder Heads d. Ram-Air Cooled Cylinder Heads and Cylinders Q5. What is the maximum power at rated rpm? a. 69 kW @ 5500 rpm (Continuous) b. 73.5 kW @ 5800 rpm (5 minutes) c. Both (a) & (b) are correct d. None of the above Q6. What is the correct model of the propeller? a. HO17GHM A 174 177C b. HO18GHMA 152 177 C c. HO19GHMA 111 177 C d. HO19GHMA 152 177 C Q7. Which of the following is true about the propeller? a. 3 blades of Laminated hard wood, b. 2 blades of Laminated hard wood, Composite structure, c. 3 blades of Laminated hard wood, epoxy fibre glass cover d. 2 blades of Laminated hard wood, Composite structure, epoxy fibre glass cover Q8. Ailerons travel? a. Up 22° Down 14 ° (± 2°) b. Up 4° Down 15° (± 2°) c. Up 2°; Down 12° (± 1°) d. None of the above Q9. Wing Loading of the aircraft is? a. 50.5 Kg/m2 b. 52.5 Kg/m2 c. 53.5 Kg/m2 d. 53.0 Kg/m2 Q10. Power Loading of the aircraft is? a. 6.09 Kg/hp b. 5.59 Kg/hp c. 7.59 Kg/hp d. 6.59 Kg/hp Q11. How many stages are there in flaps? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Q12. VA stands for? a. Rotation speed b. Design Manoeuvring speed c. Indicated Airspeed d. Maximum Structural Cruising Speed Q13. VO stands for? a. Calibrated Airspeed b. True Airspeed c. Operating Manoeuvring speed d. Stall Speed in landing configuration Q14. VNO stands for ? a. Maximum flap extended speed b. Maximum structural cruising speed c. Never exceed speed d. Stall speed Q15. VNE stands for ? a. Maximum flap extended speed b. Maximum structural cruising speed c. Never exceed speed d. Stall speed Q16. VS1 stands for ? a. Maximum flap extended speed b. Maximum structural cruising speed c. Never exceed speed d. Stall speed in given flap configuration Q17. VX stands for? a. Best angle of climb speed b. Maximum structural cruising speed c. Never exceed speed d. Stall speed Q18. Which of the following is true for TS ? a. Standard Temperature is 15°C at sea level pressure altitude and decreased by 2°C for each 1000 ft of altitude b. Outside Air Temperature is 15°C at sea level pressure altitude and decreased by 2°C for each 1000 ft of altitude c. Standard Temperature is 15°C at sea level pressure altitude and increased by 2°C for each 2000 ft of altitude d. Standard Temperature is 10°C at sea level pressure altitude and decreased by 1°C for each 1000 ft of altitude Q19. ________ is the takeoff distance measured from actual start to wheel liftoff point. a. TOD b. TOR c. GR d. None of the above Q20. ________ is the total takeoff distance measured from start to 15m obstacle clearing. a. TOR b. TOD c. GR d. None of the above Q21. ________ is the distance measured during landing, from 15m obstacle clearing to actual stop. a. GR b. TOR c. S/R d. LD Q22. ________ is the distance measured during landing from actual touchdown to stop point. a. GR b. LD c. TOD d. None of the above Q23. 5 / 9. (F – 32) is used in the conversion of? a. Fahrenheit to Celsius b. Celsius to Fahrenheit c. Kelvin to Celsius d. None of the above Q24. ((9 / 5)*C) + 32 is used in the conversion of? a. Fahrenheit to Celsius b. Celsius to Fahrenheit c. Kelvin to Celsius d. None of the above Q25. 1 Knot = ______ Km/hr? a. 1.85 b. 2.54 c. 3.28 d. 3.78 Q26. 1 NM = ______ Km? a. 3.78 b. 2.54 c. 3.28 d. 1.85 Q27. U.S Gallons = _______ Litres? a. 2.54 b. 3.78 c. 3.28 d. 1.85 Q28. 1 Kg = _______Pounds ? a. 1.234 b. 2.005 c. 2.205 d. 3.012 Q29. 1 Pound = _______Kg? a. 1.234 b. 2.005 c. 2.205 d. 0.453 Q30. 1 Litre = _______US Gallons? a. 0.2642 b. 1.023 c. 3.876 d. 5.014 Q31. Wing Span of this aircraft is? a. 9.00m b. 6.93m c. 7.00m d. 8.50m Q32. The Wing Area of this aircraft is? a. 21.80 m2 b. 12.16 m2 c. 12.12 m2 d. 11.40 m2 Q33. The Wheel Track of the aircraft is? a. 1.94m b. 1.373m c. 1.06m d. 1.8m Q34. The Wheel Base of the aircraft is? a. 1.94m b. 1.90m c. 1.06m d. 1.20m Q35. Standard Empty Weight is? a. is the standard empty weight to which it is added the optional equipment weight. b. is the weight of the aircraft with engine fluids and oil at operating levels. c. is the maximum weight approved to perform the takeoff. d. None of the above Q36. Maximum Take-off Weight is? a. is the standard empty weight to which it is added the optional equipment weight. b. is the weight of the aircraft with engine fluids and oil at operating levels. c. is the maximum weight approved to perform the take-off. d. None of the above Q37. Basic Empty Weight is? a. is the standard empty weight to which it is added the optional equipment weight. b. is the weight of the aircraft with engine fluids and oil at operating levels. c. is the maximum weight approved to perform the take-off. d. None of the above Q38. Section 2 pertains to? a. Limitation b. Airframe & Systems c. Weight balance d. Performance Q39. VA of this aircraft is? a. 100 KIAS b. 99 KIAS c. 98 KIAS d. 97 KIAS Q40. VO of this aircraft is? a. 100 KIAS b. 99 KIAS c. 98 KIAS d. 97 KIAS Q41. VNE of this aircraft is? a. 143 KIAS b. 139 KIAS c. 111 KIAS d. 110 KIAS Q42. VNO of this aircraft is? a. 143 KIAS b. 139 KIAS c. 111 KIAS d. 110 KIAS Q43. VFE of this aircraft is? a. 70 KIAS b. 71 KIAS c. 75 KIAS d. 72 KIAS Q44. Which ASI Marking indicates the White Arc? a. 49-111 KIAS b. 111-143 KIAS c. 40-70 KIAS d. None of the above Q45. What is the maximum power at rated rpm? a. 69 kW @ 5500 rpm (Continuous) b. 73.5 kW @ 5800 rpm (5 minutes) c. Both (a) & (b) are correct d. None of the above Q46. Minimum oil temperature is a. 100 C b. 200 C c. 500 C d. 700 C Q47. Maximum oil temperature is a. 1000 C b. 800 C c. 1300 C d. 700 C Q48. Minimum oil pressure is a. 10 psi b. 20 psi c. 12 psi d. 70 psi Q49. Maximum oil pressure is a. 100 psi b. 200 psi c. 120 psi d. 102 psi Q50. The maximum and minimum allowable OAT is? a. +500 C and -250 C b. +700 C and -150 C c. +800 C and -50 C d. +300 C and -350 C Q51. Maximum Usable Fuel in each tank is? a. 60 Litres b. 62 Litres c. 120 Litres d. 124 Litres Q52. Maximum total usable fuel is? a. 60 Litres b. 62 Litres c. 120 Litres d. 124 Litres Q53. Which of the following fuel have been approved for this aircraft? a. MOGAS ASTM D4814, MOGAS EN 228, AVGAS 100LL b. MOGAS ASTM D4814, MOGAS EN 228 c. MOGAS EN 228, AVGAS 100LL d. None of the above Q54. What is the correct model of the propeller? a. HO17GHM A 174 177C b. HO18GHMA 152 177 C c. HO19GHMA 111 177 C d. HO19GHMA 152 177 C Q55. Which of the following is true about the propeller? a. 3 blades of Laminated hard wood, b. 2 blades of Laminated hard wood, Composite structure, c. 3 blades of Laminated hard wood, epoxy fibre glass cover d. 2 blades of Laminated hard wood, Composite structure, epoxy fibre glass cover Q56. Which type of propeller is used in the aircraft? a. Fixed Pitch b. Constant Pitch c. Constant Speed d. Variable Pitch Q57. What is the diameter of the propeller? a. 1500 mm b. 1740 mm c. 1940 mm d. 2160 mm Q58. Maximum Operating Altitude? a. 16000 Feet b. 14000 Feet c. 13000 Feet d. 15000 Feet Q59. Normal operating (Green Arc) of the CHT is? a. 0-135 degrees Celsius b. 0-130 degrees Celsius c. 0-135 degrees Fahrenheit d. 0-130 degrees Fahrenheit Q60. What is the Maximum Baggage Compartment? a. 20 Kg b. 44 Kg c. 28 Kg d. 39 Kg Q61. Forward and Aft CG limits are? a. 1.841m and 1.978 m aft of datum b. 1.384m and 1.781 m aft of datum c. 1.841m and 1.978 m forward of datum d. 1.384m and 1.781 m forward of datum Q62. Which manoeuvres are authorized by the certification? a. Stalls (except whip stalls), Lazy eights, turns in which angle of bank is not more than 60° b. Stalls (except whip stalls), Lazy eights, Chandelles, turns in which angle of bank is not more than 60° c. Stalls (except whip stalls), turns in which angle of bank is not more than 60° d. None of the above Q63. The entry speed for the Chandelle maneuver is? a. 99 Kts b. 98 Kts c. 111 Kts d. Slow deceleration (1 kt/s) Q64. What are the manoeuvre load factors limit are a. +3.8 g & -1.9 g b. +1.78g & -3.8g c. +1.9g & -0g d. None of the above Q65. Which is the maximum load factor with Flaps Extended? a. +3.8 g & -1.78 g b. +1.78g & -3.8g c. +1.9g & -0g d. None of the above Q66. What is the maximum demonstrated Crosswind component? a. 12 Kts b. 10 Kts c. 15 Kts d. 16 Kts Q67. The capacity of the coolant tank is? a. 0.25 Ltr b. 2.5 Ltr c. 0.5 Ltr d. 1.25 Ltr Q68. Oil Brakes used in the aircraft is? a. MIL-PRF-5606H b. MIL-PRH-5608F c. MIL-PRH-5606F d. MIL-PRF-5608H Q69. Maximum Take-off Propeller RPM is? a. 2388 b. 2400 c. 2265 d. 2300 Q70. What procedure should follow, Before Rotation : Abort Take off a. Throttle : Idle b. Rudder : Keep heading control c. Both (a) & (b) are correct d. None Q71. The Amber light, located on the instrument panel indicates the following a. to indicate that pertinent device is turned ON b. to indicate no-hazard situations that have to be considered and which require a proper crew action c. to indicate emergency conditions d. none of the above Q72. The Green light, located on the instrument panel indicates the following a. to indicate that pertinent device is turned ON b. to indicate no-hazard situations that have to be considered and which require a proper crew action c. to indicate emergency conditions d. none of the above Q73. The Red light, located on the instrument panel indicates the following a. to indicate that pertinent device is turned ON b. to indicate no-hazard situations that have to be considered and which require a proper crew action c. to indicate emergency conditions d. none of the above Q74. If ALTOUT caution is ON : a. Increase electrical load b. Decrease electrical load c. Verify failure, circuit breaker & generator switch d. None of the above Q75. If ALTOUT caution persists : a. Increase electrical load b. Decrease electrical load c. Keep the same electrical load d. None of the above Q76. If fuel pressure does not build up then a. Reduce throttle power b. Decrease electric load c. Apply brakes d. Land as soon as possible Q77. The OP LOW warning is ON, when a. Oil pressure is less than 4 psi b. Oil pressure is less than 12 psi c. Oil pressure is less than 20 psi d. Oil pressure is less than 25 psi Q78. Landing with flat nose tyre, flaps position is : a. UP b. LAND c. Both a and b d. None of the above Q79. Alternator light may illuminate for a faulty alternator or when voltage is above: a. 11 V b. 13V c. 15V d. 16V Q80.The battery can supply electrical power for atleast : a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 60 mins Q81. In case of pitot heat malfunction : a. Land as soon as practical b. Land as soon as possible c. Avoid visible moisture conditions d. Turn off the alternator Q82. In case of emergency airplane evacuation: a. Parking brake must be set ON b. Parking brake must be set OFF c. Seat belts must be unstrapped completely d. Both a and c Q83. In case of low oil pressure: a. Increase throttle to maximum b. Reduce throttle to minimum practical c. Turn off the alternator d. None of the above Q84. In case of engine fire during takeoff , before rotation : a. Takeoff must be continued b. Takeoff must be continued with caution c. Take off must be aborted d. None of the above Q85. In case of engine fire in flight: a. Continue the sortie b. Turn on the carburetor heat c. Land as soon as possible d. Close the cabin vents Q86. The airspeed for forced landing without engine power is : a. 61 kts b. 66 kts c. 71 kts d. 75 kts Q87. In case of landing with a flat main tyre: a. Touchdown with the flat tyre first b. Touchdown with the good tyre first c. Touchdown with the nose tyre first d. Touchdown with both main tyres Q88. While recovering from an unintentional spin: a. Apply full rudder in the direction of spin b. Apply full rudder in the opposite direction of the spin c. Keep the rudder neutral d. Apply full ailerons in the direction of the spin Q89. In case of unintentional flight into icing conditions: a. Throttle idle b. Fuel pump OFF c. Cabin heat ON d. All of the above Q90. Landing with flat nose tyre, flaps position is : a. UP b. LAND c. Both a and b d. None of the above Q91. The low oil pressure annunciation is : a. Amber b. Red c. Green d. White Q92. In case of engine failure during takeoff run: a. Throttle idle b. Throttle fully forward c. Apply brakes as required d. Both a and c Q93. Section 4 includes: a. Emergency Procedure b. Normal Procedure c. Airframe & Systems d. Limitations Q94. The rotation speed (Vr) with flaps set to T/O is: a. 50 kts b. 55 kts c. 60 kts d. 65 kts Q95. The final approach speed with flaps full is : a. 51 kts b. 55 kts c. 61 kts d. 63 kts Q96. The optimal touch down speed with flaps full is : a. 51 kts b. 55 kts c. 61 kts d. 63 kts Q97. Best angle of climb speed ( Vx) is : a. 60 kts b. 63 kts c. 65 kts d. 71 kts Q98. Best rate of climb speed (Vy) is : a. 61 kts b. 63 kts c. 67 kts d. 71 kts Q99. The final approach speed with flaps full is : a. 51 kts b. 55 kts c. 61 kts d. 63 kts Q100. during engine shutdown, the engine must be run for a minute at : a. 1000 RPM b. 1200 RPM c. 1500 RPM d. 1900 PRM Q101. The fuel quantity must be: a. Checked visually by a dipstick b. Checked on fuel quantity indicator c. Should not be checked d. Both a and b Q102. The coolant level must be : a. Checked before every flight b. Checked only before first flight of the day c. Both a and b are correct d. None of the above Q103. Before starting engine, the circuit breakers should be : a. All OUT b. All IN c. Only essential equipment IN d. Both a and c Q104. Before starting engine, doors should be: a. Opened b. Half open c. Closed and locked d. All the above are correct Q105. After starting engine, the oil pressure should rise within : a. 5 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 15 seconds d. 30 seconds Q106. The maximum permissible drop in prop RPM when the ignition key is selected to left magneto is: a. 50 b. 100 c. 130 d. 200 Q107. When carburetor heat is selected ON, the drop in prop RPM is: a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 170 Q108. The optimal touchdown speed with flaps FULL: a. 45 kts b. 50 kts c. 55 kts d. 61 kts Q109. The never exceed speed (Vne) is : a. 98 kts b. 121 kts c. 133 kts d. 143 kts Q110. During cruise, the prop RPM must be below : a. 2200 b. 2250 c. 2400 d. None of the above Q111. Section 5 of the AFM includes? a. Emergency Procedures b. Performance c. Limitations d. Weight and Balance Q112. The stall speed at 650 kg , flaps 0 and 0 degree angle of bank is a. 40 KIAS b. 49 KIAS c. 53 KIAS d. 55 KIAS Q113. Decrease in take-off ground roll with 1 kt increase in headwind is: a. 2m b. 5m c. 7m d. 10 m Q114. Decrease in take-off ground roll with 5 kt increase in headwind is: a. 20 m b. 25 m c. 17 m d. 10 m Q115. Increase in takeoff ground roll with 1 kt increase in tailwind is: a. 10 m b. 15 m c. 20 m d. 25 m Q116. Noise level for P-2008 jc , determined in accordance with ICAO is a. 60 dB b. 65.5 dB c. 68.06 dB d. 70.1 dB Q117. Weighing procedure is to be carried out a. Outside the apron b. Inside a closed hangar c. On the taxiway d. On the runway Q118. What should be done before weighing an aircraft a. Seats are removed b. Fuel is drained c. Place control surfaces in neutral position d. Both a & b Q119. Weighing procedure should be repeated how many times a. One time b. Two time c. Three time d. Four time Q120. Flaps position during weighing is: a. T/o b. LDG c. Retracted d. Can be any of the above Q121. Which of the following procedures is to be carried out before weighing? 1. Remove unintentionally left objects from cabin 2. Move seats to forward position 3. Raise flap to retracted position a. Both 1 & 2 b. Both 1 & 3 c. Both 2 & 3 d. All of the above Q122. Under which section/Chapter is the empty weight of the aircraft found? a. Section/Chapter 1 b. Section/Chapter 2 c. Section/Chapter 6 d. Section/Chapter 8 Q123. Which formula is used in computing weight and balance? a. Weight * Arm = Moment b. Force = Mass * Acceleration c. Weight = Moment * Arm d. None of the above Q124. What is Maximum Takeoff Weight of Technam P-2008? a. 650 kg b. 1433 lbs c. 1450 lbs d. Both a & b Q125. Longitudinal leveling is adjusted by a. Placing weights ahead of the CG b. Placing weights behind the CG c. Deflating Nose wheel d. Changing fuel quantity Q126. Max. useful load is a. MTOW – MLW b. MTOW – ZFW c. MTOW – Empty Weight d. Empty Weight + Payload Q127. Section/ Chapter 7 of this AFM pertain to what? a. Emergency Procedures b. Airframe & systems c. Limitations d. Weight and Balance Q128. How many spars are there in the aircraft’s wing? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 0 Q129. Material used for the manufacturing of Fuselage is a. Glass Fibre Composites b. Carbon Fibre Composites c. Aluminium Alloys d. Steel Alloys Q130. How are longitudinal controls operated? a. Cable & Pulley b. Fly-by-Wire c. Push-Pull rods d. Hydraulic Actuators Q131. Which type of main landing gear is used in the aircraft? a. Rigid Struts b. Spring Steel Struts c. Bungee Cords d. Shock Struts Q132. Which flight control surface is responsible for pitch control in the aircraft? a. Ruddervator b. Elevons c. Stabilator d. Elevator Q133. How many flap configurations are there in this aircraft? a. 0, takeoff(T/O), Landing(FULL) b. takeoff(T/O), Landing(FULL) c. 0, Landing(FULL) d. 0, takeoff(T/O) Q134. What colour is the “ALT OUT” annunciation? a. Red b. Amber c. Green d. White Q135. What colour is the “OP LOW” annunciation? a. Red b. Amber c. Green d. White Q136. What colour is the “PITOT HEAT ON” annunciation? a. Red b. Amber c. Green d. White Q137. What colour is the “FUEL PUMP ON” annunciation? a. Red b. Amber c. Green d. White Q138. How is carburettor heat switched on? a. Pulling the knob outward then pushing it back b. Pushing the knob inward then pulling it back c. Pulling the knob fully outward d. Turning the knob clockwise Q139. Where is cabin heat knob located? a. Lower left side of the instrument panel b. Upper right side of the instrument panel c. Lower right side of the instrument panel d. None of the above Q140. When the Cabin is receiving maximum hot air? a. Pulling the knob outward then pushing it back b. Pushing the knob inward then pulling it back c. Pulling the knob fully outward d. Turning the knob clockwise Q141. The engine used in Tecnam P2008JC is: a. Rotax 915 IS b. Rotax 914 c. Rotax 912 UL/A/F d. Rotax 912 S2 Q142. Maximum horsepower of the engine is: a. 80HP b. 115.4HP c. 88HP d. 98.6HP Q143. What is the maximum rated RPM of the propeller? a. 2296 rpm/min b. 2306 rpm/min c. 2515 rpm/min d. 2388 rpm/min Q144. The Type of engine used in Tecnam P2008JC is: a. 4 stroke,4 cylinder horizontally opposed, mixed air & water cooled, twin ignition, forced lubrication b. 2 stroke,4 cylinder horizontally opposed, mixed air & water cooled, twin ignition, forced lubrication c. 4 stroke,2 cylinder horizontally opposed, mixed air & water cooled, twin ignition, forced lubrication d. 4 stroke,4 cylinder radial mixed air & water cooled, twin ignition, forced lubrication Q145. What is the rated voltage of the Alternator? a. 14VDC b. 10VDC c. 15VDC d. 21VDC Q146. What is the Amperage of the Lead Acid buffer battery? a. 6Ah b. 2Ah c. 4Ah d. 5Ah Q147. Where is the stall warning system consisting of a sensor located? a. Leading edge of left wing b. Under the fuselage c. Leading edge of horizontal stabilizer d. Leading edge of right wing Q148. Aircraft GTX 335 SSR transponder is capable of a. Mode A only b. Mode C only c. Both Mode C & S d. Mode S only Q149. Mooring is strongly recommended when the wind is more than? a. 15kts and completely refuelled b. 15kts and completely empty c. 20kts and completely refuelled d. 20kts and completely empty Q150. How can we remove icing from our aircraft? a. Pitot heat b. Anti-icing products c. Soft brush /humid cloth d. None of the above