Ryanair RST 3 2023 Exam PDF

Welcome Caitlin Pollard Home Record of Learning Course Catalogue Home / Courses / Flight Crew Training / Recurrent Training / RST 3 2023 / 4 Reports Search / Technical Examination Started on Monday, 19 June 2023, 4:47 PM Quiz navigation 3 Required Learning State Finished 1 2 5 6 7...

Welcome Caitlin Pollard Home Record of Learning Course Catalogue Home / Courses / Flight Crew Training / Recurrent Training / RST 3 2023 / 4 Reports Search / Technical Examination Started on Monday, 19 June 2023, 4:47 PM Quiz navigation 3 Required Learning State Finished 1 2 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Completed on Monday, 19 June 2023, 5:03 PM Time taken 16 mins 48 secs Grade 100 out of 100 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Feedback 25 PASS Well done! You have successfully passed this Examination. Show one page at a time Finish review Question 1 What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: MCP SPD  CWS P V/S VNAV The correct answer is: MCP SPD Question 2 How can VNAV be terminated? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: Selecting HDG SEL selecting LNAV. Selecting a different pitch mode  LOC capture. The correct answer is: Selecting a different pitch mode Question 3 When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: The highest of the other three answers  When the speed is equal to or less than 1.3 VS for current flap setting. Minimum speed for current flap setting cannot be reached. FMC speed or selected speed cannot be reached. The correct answer is: The highest of the other three answers Question 4 Correct During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations? Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: A manual F/D Go-around is available  Automatic A/P Go-around occurs after FLARE armed annunciates. The A/P Go-around is only available after the second push of the TO/GA switch. An A/P Go-around will automatically engage. The correct answer is: A manual F/D Go-around is available Question 5 After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: 800 feet above Field Elevation.  800 feet Radio Altitude and 18 seconds after lift-off. 400 feet Radio Altitude and 18 seconds after lift-off. 400 feet Radio Altitude. The correct answer is: 800 feet above Field Elevation. Question 6 Correct What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach? Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed  The autopilot will only disengage below 2000ft The autopilot will remain engaged The heading and pitch modes will change to HDG SEL and V/S The correct answer is: The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed Question 7 Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: N1 and ARM. GA and ARM. THR HLD Only. THR HLD and ARM.  The correct answer is: THR HLD and ARM. Question 8 Correct Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach? Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: VOR/LOC APP  VNAV LNAV The correct answer is: APP Question 9 Which of the following actions would terminate VNAV? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: Selecting a different pitch mode.  LOC capture. Selecting HDG SEL. Selecting LNAV. The correct answer is: Selecting a different pitch mode. Question 10 Correct The loss of one DEU results in activation of both the EEC's in alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct? Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: a. The EEC's automatically switch into hard mode and the engines might overboost. b. You can only enter the hard mode by manually selecting it on the engine control panel. c. If the thrust levers are reduced the hard mode is entered and last valid flight conditions will be used for the engine parameters. d. The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters.  The correct answer is: The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters. Question 11 Which of the following actions would cause a displayed ENG FAIL Alert to extinguish? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: Engine fire warning switch pulled.  Engine fire bottle discharged EEC set to ALTERNATE Start lever moved to IDLE. The correct answer is: Engine fire warning switch pulled. Question 12 Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: Before the fuel reaches the HMU. Before passing through the second stage engine fuel pump. After passing through the fuel filter. After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve.  The correct answer is: After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve. Question 13 Correct Auto-relight is provided for flameout protection, with the EEC activating both igniters. Which of the following situations would cause Flameout Protection to operate? Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: Rapid decrease in fuel flow. Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM.  Rapid decrease in N1, or N1 below idle RPM. Rapid decrease in EGT. The correct answer is: Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM. Question 14 If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: 10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to IDLE. 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to IDLE during ground starts.  No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start. 15 seconds after the air start valve opens. The correct answer is: 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to IDLE during ground starts. Question 15 Correct If the EGT exceeds the starting limit during an engine start, in what circumstances would the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine? Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: in flight only never on the ground and in flight on the ground only  The correct answer is: on the ground only Question 16 If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: No AC power available OAT is above 40 degrees C APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel is not in.  Less than 453Kg of fuel in the centre tank The correct answer is: APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel is not in. Question 17 In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either engine. The aircraft descends below 15,000 feet MSL Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.  Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT. The correct answer is: Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine. Question 18 When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips.  Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD. System B fails and wheel speed > 50kts. System B fails and flaps are up. The correct answer is: The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips. Question 19 Correct What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD) on a Ryanair aircraft? Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: Brake temperature on all four main wheels. Hydraulic pressure and quantity only.  Hydraulic pressure, hydraulic quantity and flight control positions. Duct temperatures, cabin temperatures and brake temperatures. The correct answer is: Hydraulic pressure and quantity only. Question 20 Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A fluid located? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: In the standby hydraulic tank. In main fuel tank No.1.  In the System A hydraulic tank. In the centre fuel tank. The correct answer is: In main fuel tank No.1. Question 21 What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: 760 Kgs in the related main tank.  453 Kgs in the related main tank. There is no minimum fuel quantity limitation on the ground 363 Kgs in the related main tank. The correct answer is: 760 Kgs in the related main tank. Question 22 Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed? Select one: Only when both FLT CONTROL switches are selected to STBY RUD At all times.  Only when the Yaw Damper is selected on Only in the event of the loss of System A or System B The correct answer is: At all times. Question 23 Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.  Outboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers. Alternate brakes, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper. Inboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers. The correct answer is: Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper. Question 24 When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: After a failure of the number 1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned UP When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON. When System A pressure is zero and the landing lever is positioned UP. Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up.  The correct answer is: Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up. Question 25 With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF? Correct Mark 4 out of 4 Flag question Select one: Pump drive is disconnected. Transfers system to ENG 2 pump output. Pump continues to run and output is diverted to Electric hydraulic pump. Pump continues to be driven by the engine, but it's output is isolated from the rest of the hydraulic system.  The correct answer is: Pump continues to be driven by the engine, but it's output is isolated from the rest of the hydraulic system. Finish review © 2023 Ryanair DAC. All Rights Reserved. Welcome  Till Kupi Search Home / Courses / Flight Crew Training / Recurrent Training / RST 2 2022/23 / Started on State Completed on Time taken Question 1 Correct / Technical Examination Tuesday, 14 February 2023, 12:22 PM Finished Tuesday, 14 February 2023, 12:51 PM 29 mins 15 secs Which statement is true when the STANDBY POWER Switch is selected to OFF (the center position)? Marked out of 4.00 Select one: The Static Inverter provides 28 volt DC power to Transfer Bus No 1. The 'STANDBY PWR OFF' light will extinguish. The 'STANDBY PWR OFF' light will illuminate (amber).  Automatic switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power sources. Question 2 Correct Marked out of 4.00 On the ground, what would cause the TR UNIT light to illuminate (amber)? Select one: Any TR has failed.  TR 3 has failed. TR 1 has failed. Only if TR 2 and TR 3 have failed. Question 3 Which bus is always connected to the main battery? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: DC Standby Bus Switched Hot Battery Bus Battery Bus Hot Battery Bus  Question 4 What does illumination of the ELEC light indicate whilst on the ground? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: DC power system fault. Standby power system fault. A fault in the AC power system A fault exists in the DC Power System or Standby Power System  Question 5 When will the ELEC Light illuminate on the ground? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: When a fault exists in the DC or standby system.  When a fault exists in the AC or standby power system. When a fault exists in the AC, DC or the standby system. The ELEC light only operates in flight. Question 6 When will the APU GEN OFF BUS illuminate? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Whenever the APU is not running. b. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No l. c. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No 2. d. When the APU is at operational speed but is not supplying an AC transfer bus.  Question 7 What does an illuminated GEN OFF BUS light indicate? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: The related generator bus is not powered. The IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus.  The generator is not supplying power to the related generator bus The related transfer bus is not powered. Question 8 Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: The standby power control unit supplies TR3 At glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other  DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are connected by the cross bus tie relay The AC Busses are isolated from the DC busses Question 9 What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate. b. Automatic braking when reverse thrust is selected. c. Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.  d. Maximum braking occurs when speed brake is deployed. Question 10 Which statement is true when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Landing gear retraction is enabled. b. Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position.  c. Normal gear extension is possible if hydraulic system B pressure is available. d. Normal landing gear extension is possible with the loss of hydraulic system A. Question 11 The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Landing gear is up and locked with gear lever in the OFF position. Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL). Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position OR the landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).  Landing gear is up and locked with the LANDING GEAR lever UP or OFF. Question 12 What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Isolates Rudder Pedal nose wheel steering, limiting nose wheel steering to the Tiller only. b. Depressurises hydraulic system B. c. Depressurises nose wheel steering allowing pushback or towing without having to depressurise the hydraulic systems.  d. Depressurises the nose wheel braking system, to prevent damage to the tow bar. Question 13 Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur. b. Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed.  c. Autobrake action will occur only when thrust reverse is selected. d. Autobrakes will arm after decelerating through 60 knots groundspeed. Question 14 What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots. b. Extend limit speed, 280k/.72M maximum. c. Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.  d. Maintain 235 knots for 20 minutes. Question 15 Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. AUTOBRAKE switch to MAX. b. Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE.  c. Wheel speed greater than 60 knots. d. AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF. Question 16 What happens if you reject a takeoff with a groundspeed of 100 knots with Autobrakes in RTO? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Maximum braking is applied automatically when the forward thrust levers are retarded to idle.  b. Ground Spoilers are automatically deployed when thrust levers are retarded to idle. c. Maximum braking is applied automatically when reverse thrust selected. d. AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light will illuminate. Question 17 What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Skew detection for LE flaps b. LE skew detection for slats 1 through 8. c. Protection from uncommanded motion, for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position.  d. Slat and skew protection during auto-slat operation Question 18 What is the speed range for fully enabled speed trim operation? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. 100-300 KIAS b. 100 KIAS - Mach 0.60  c. 100 KIAS - Mach 0.5 d. 158-300 KIAS Question 19 How many slats are located on each wing? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Two inboard of each engine. b. Three outboard of each engine. c. Four outboard of each engine.  d. Six in total Question 20 With reference to the flight controls and manual reversion, which statement is correct? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost.  b. The secondary flight controls are powered by hydraulic system A, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost. c. The secondary flight controls are powered by hydraulic system B, with backup from hydraulic system A for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost. d. The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B with manual reversion if system A and B pressure is lost. Question 21 How many spoilers deploy on the ground on each wing? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: All  2 4 0 Question 22 How many flight spoilers are there on each wing? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. 2 b. 8 c. 6 d. 4  Question 23 Correct What is the result of selecting the Stabilizer Trim Override Switch (on the AFT Electronic Panel) to OVERRIDE? Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches on each control wheel.  b. Isolates the stabilizer trim motor. c. Bypasses the stabilizer trim main electric cutout switch and the stabilizer trim autopilot cutout switch on the control stand. d. Overrides the main electric switch. Question 24 Correct With the speed brake lever at ARMED, if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing, will the flight spoilers deploy automatically? Marked out of 4.00 Select one: They will deploy when the Air /Ground system senses ground mode (any gear strut compresses).  The flight spoilers will not deploy unless wheel spin up of 60kts or greater is detected. They will deploy only after the Ground Spoilers have deployed. They will deploy when the right main landing gear strut is compressed. Question 25 Correct With the speed brake lever at ARMED, if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing, will the flight spoilers deploy automatically? Marked out of 4.00 Select one: They will deploy only when the right main landing gear strut is compressed. The flight spoilers will not deploy unless wheel spin up of 60kts or greater is detected. They will deploy automatically when the Air /Ground system senses ground mode.  They will deploy only after the Ground Spoilers have deployed. Welcome  Till Kupi Search Home / Courses / Flight Crew Training / Recurrent Training / RST 2 2022/23 / Started on State Completed on Time taken Question 1 Correct Marked out of 4.00 / Technical Examination Friday, 4 August 2023, 12:02 PM Finished Sunday, 6 August 2023, 4:48 PM 2 days 4 hours Under normal conditions, from where is the AC standby bus powered? Select one: a. The batteries via the static inverter. b. AC transfer bus 1.  c. AC transfer bus 2. d. TR1, TR2 and TR3. Question 2 Which bus powers the auxiliary battery charger? Incorrect Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. AC ground service bus 1 b. Transfer bus 1 c. Transfer bus 2 d. AC ground service bus 2  Question 3 Under what conditions can the APU generator can supply both transfer busses? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. It cannot supply both transfer busses simultaneously. b. Both on the ground or in flight.  c. On the ground only. d. In flight only. Question 4 Which statement is correct for an aircraft taking off with the APU powering both transfer buses? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Both transfer buses will automatically disconnect after lift-off. b. The engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer buses after passing 1500 feet AGL. c. The engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer buses if the APU is shut down.  d. The AC and DC Standby buses will automatically disconnect after lift-off. Question 5 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: It will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the AC voltmeter. It must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director approach. It normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 and 2 through a diode. It opens to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 if the BUS TRANSFER Switch is moved to OFF.  Question 6 During primary charge cycle operation, approximately what can battery voltage reach? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: 55 volts. 28 volts. 24 volts. 30 volts.  Question 7 During charging of the battery, would the battery voltage be Incorrect Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Over 32 volts. Less than 28 Volts or more than 28 Volts Equal to 28 Volts  Less than 28 Volts Question 8 Correct Switching the CAB/UTIL Switch to the OFF position removes electrical power from all 115v AC galley busses, and which other buses? Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Cargo compartment heaters Landing lights Forward airstairs Left and right recirculation fans  Question 9 Incorrect When disarming the Autobrake System which of the following does NOT cause the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light to illuminate? Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Positioning the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. b. Advancing the forward thrust levers after the first 3 seconds after touchdown. c. Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the DOWN detent.  d. Applying manual brakes. Question 10 What protection is provided during alternate brake operation? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.  b. No protection is provided during alternate brake operation. c. Skid, and hydroplane only. d. Skid, locked wheel and hydroplane only. Question 11 Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur. b. Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed.  c. Autobrakes will arm after decelerating through 60 knots groundspeed. d. Autobrake action will occur only when both thrust levers are retarded to reverse thrust range. Question 12 What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: To automatically use power from hydraulic system B to assist landing gear retraction to achieve the normal rate of retraction if hydraulic system A engine driven pump pressure falls below a preset value.  To allow landing gear extension if hydraulic system B is lost during takeoff. To allow the use of alternate nosewheel steering in the event hydraulic system A fails. To automatically use hydraulic system A for landing gear retraction if hydraulic system B fails at any time. Question 13 What is the result if the thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown? Incorrect Marked out of 4.00 Select one: The AUTO BRAKE SELECT switch will move to OFF. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate after 5 seconds . The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate.  Question 14 What happens if you reject a takeoff with a groundspeed of 100 knots with Autobrakes set to RTO? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Maximum braking is applied automatically when the thrust levers are retarded to idle.  Automatic speed brake deployment will occur when manual braking is applied Maximum braking is applied automatically when reverse thrust selected. AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light will illuminate. Question 15 With regards to nose wheel steering, which of the following statements is true? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Rudder pedal steering overrides the nose wheel steering Tiller inputs. b. Rudder pedal steering allows 78 degrees of steering in either direction. c. Hydraulic System B pressure is bypassed with the lockout pin installed in the steering depressurization valve. d. Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends.  Question 16 Which of the following conditions would prevent the RTO mode from being armed prior to takeoff? Incorrect Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Wheel speed less than 60 knots.  ANTISKID system inoperative. Thrust levers set to idle. AUTO BRAKE select switch set to RTO Question 17 Which statement is true regarding aileron trim? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale.  b. Aileron trim is not available with the autopilot engaged. c. It repositions the ailerons by using aileron balance tabs. d. The amount of trim is indicated on the scale on top of control column with or without autopilot engaged. Question 18 Correct How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection? Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. 5 degrees b. 20 degrees c. 10 degrees  d. 15 degrees Question 19 Correct Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated? Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Lighter than normal control forces must be used for take off and landing. Applying force against the jam will break out only the captain's control column. The elevator feel and centring unit will transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the control column. The control columns are physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control.  Question 20 Why are mechanical gates installed at Flap 15 and Flap 1 on the flap selector unit? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. To hinder inadvertent flap lever movement beyond Flaps 1 and Flaps 15 during a go-around.  b. To hinder flap movement to the UP position when speed is too low. c. Has no particular function. d. To hinder flap movement beyond Flaps 15 until gear down is selected. Question 21 In addition to Hydraulic System A and B, how else can the rudder be powered? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: System B powering the Standby Rudder PCU. Standby hydraulic system through the Standby Rudder PCU.  System A powering the Standby Rudder PCU. Standby hydraulic system through the Main Rudder PCU. Question 22 What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed.  b. Captain's pitot system fails. c. Flaps are up and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance between hydraulic System A and the Standby hydraulic system is sensed. d. Flaps are not up and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance between hydraulic System B and the Standby hydraulic system is sensed. Question 23 Above what speed will the Mach Trim System operate? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Mach .455 b. Mach .505 c. Mach .555 d. Mach .615  Question 24 Which statement is true if the spoilers have become jammed? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. The first officer's control wheel operates the ailerons. b. The first officer's control wheel operates the spoilers and ailerons. c. The captain's control wheel operates the ailerons.  d. The ALT spoiler system is selected. Question 25 What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Only System A hydraulic pressure b. Elevator balance tabs position c. Airspeed and stabilizer position.  d. Altitude and elevator position. Welcome  Salvatore Santacaterina Search Home / Courses / Flight Crew Training / Recurrent Training / RST 1 2022 / Started on State Completed on Time taken Question 1 Incorrect Marked out of 1.00 / Technical Examination Friday, 23 September 2022, 4:22 PM Finished Friday, 23 September 2022, 4:53 PM 30 mins 40 secs Which statement is correct: Select one: A. Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply. B. Bleed air is provided from the 5th and 9th stage of the compressor whenever the bleed air valve is selected ON.  C. Bleed air is only supplied from the 5th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 9th stage alone can supply. D. Bleed air is constantly provided from stage 5 and stage 9 of the compressor. Question 2 What is the result if one pack fails in-flight? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. The packs will automatically switch off, and cabin temperature is controlled by the mix manifold and the recirculation fans. B. The remaining pack when selected to AUTO will be capable of maintaining pressurisation up to aircraft ceiling, only if all Zone Temperature Controllers are selected to OFF. C. The remaining pack will not operate in HIGH flow. D. The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet.  Question 3 If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled? Incorrect Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. The last settings before the failure will be maintained until the packs are selected OFF. B. The cabin temperatures cannot be controlled in this situation.  C. A fixed cabin temperature will be produced in this situation - 24 degrees C from the left pack, and 18 degrees C from the right pack. D. The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones. Question 4 When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. The trim air modulating valves close so no pack air is provided to the two cabin zones, only recirculated air is provided. B. The flight deck required temperature will also be provided to the passenger cabin. C. Left pack produces 18 degrees C, right pack produces 22 degrees C. D. An average temperature for the two cabin zones.  Question 5 Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Engine cowling lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU compartment, keel beam. B. Engine cowl lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, electronic equipment bay, APU bleed duct. C. Engine struts, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU duct, keel beam. D. Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam.  Question 6 What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. The packs will attempt to maintain an average temperature across all zones. B. Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade.  C. The right pack will produce a fixed temperature of 75 degrees Fahrenheit, and the left pack will produce a fixed temperature of 65 degrees Fahrenheit. Question 7 Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor. Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 8 Correct Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True  False Question 9 Correct Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True  False Question 10 Correct The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True  False Question 11 Correct The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 12 Correct After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated? Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Up to 60 seconds. B. 195 minutes. C. Immediately. D. Up to 30 seconds  Question 13 How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. 1 fire extinguisher bottle that can only be discharged into forward cargo hold. B. 1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold.  C. 2 fire extinguisher bottles, 1 rapid discharge bottle and one smaller slow discharge bottle. D. 2 fire extinguisher bottles, one for forward cargo hold, and one for rear cargo hold. Question 14 The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Detecting smoke only  B. Detecting either smoke or heat above a pre-set value. C. Forward cargo compartment set to detect smoke only, due to hot air from cabin conditioning system being discharged into forward cargo hold, aft cargo compartment set to detect both smoke and heat. D. Detecting heat above a pre-set value only. Question 15 What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch? Incorrect Marked out of 1.00 Select one: a. Extinguishes Master Caution and Fire Warning lights, silences Fire Warning Bell, shuts down No1 engine, and discharges No1 Fire Bottle into No1 engine. b. Closes engine fuel shutoff valve, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure warning light, disables thrust reverser, arms Squib on No1 engine fire bottle, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated to the left to discharge bottle into N01 engine. c. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure light, disables thrust reverser, arms one Squib on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right. d. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes inlet valve to both Air Conditioning Packs, trips IDG control relay, arms both Squibs on both on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.  Question 16 How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: a. The fire warning bell is only silenced once the condition causing the Overheat or Fire warning has been removed. b. Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel.  c. Only by pushing the Master FIRE WARN light d. Pushing the Master FIRE WARN light, or pushing the bell mute button located next to the speaker on the flight deck ceiling. Question 17 What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: Fire warning system test completed satisfactorily. Fire extinguisher circuit test is normal  All fire extinguisher bottles are at the required pressure Fire Switch unlock test satisfactory. Question 18 Incorrect If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed? Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Move to FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE switch to the central TEST position, then test one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected first to A and then B.  B. This indication only occurs when BOTH loops have failed. C. Carry out the test again with the switch selected to FAULT/INOP testing each loop individually with the OVHT DET switch at A then B. D. Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B. Question 19 How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Lavatory Fire warning illuminated on flight deck. B. Extinguisher discharge nozzle will have changed colour  C. Pressure gauge on fire bottle in the green zone. D. Fire bottle will have it's "pop-out" indicator exposed. E. Discharge indicator panel above lavatory door illuminated. F. Steady red light remains illuminated on Lavatory ceiling smoke detector panel after alarm tone has silenced. Question 20 Correct True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 21 Correct Boeing provide the option for 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted to the B737-800. Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True  False Question 22 Correct The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 23 Correct Marked out of 1.00 The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s). Select one: True  False Question 24 Correct The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 25 Incorrect The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct? Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. There is a negative pressure relief valve, which limits the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient.  B. There are two pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1 psi. C. There is an outflow valve which opens when cabin pressure reaches 9.1 psi above ambient. D. There are two negative pressure relief valves, which limit the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient. Welcome  Salvatore Santacaterina Search Home / Courses / Flight Crew Training / Recurrent Training / RST 1 2022 / Started on State Completed on Time taken Question 1 Incorrect Marked out of 1.00 / Technical Examination Wednesday, 5 October 2022, 9:43 AM Finished Wednesday, 5 October 2022, 9:53 AM 9 mins 36 secs Which statement is correct: Select one: A. Bleed air is provided from the 5th and 9th stage of the compressor whenever the bleed air valve is selected ON. B. Bleed air is constantly provided from stage 5 and stage 9 of the compressor.  C. Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply. D. Bleed air is only supplied from the 5th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 9th stage alone can supply. Question 2 What is the result if one pack fails in-flight? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. The remaining pack will not operate in HIGH flow. B. The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet.  C. The packs will automatically switch off, and cabin temperature is controlled by the mix manifold and the recirculation fans. D. The remaining pack when selected to AUTO will be capable of maintaining pressurisation up to aircraft ceiling, only if all Zone Temperature Controllers are selected to OFF. Question 3 If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. A fixed cabin temperature will be produced in this situation - 24 degrees C from the left pack, and 18 degrees C from the right pack. B. The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones.  C. The last settings before the failure will be maintained until the packs are selected OFF. D. The cabin temperatures cannot be controlled in this situation. Question 4 When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. The trim air modulating valves close so no pack air is provided to the two cabin zones, only recirculated air is provided. B. The flight deck required temperature will also be provided to the passenger cabin. C. Left pack produces 18 degrees C, right pack produces 22 degrees C. D. An average temperature for the two cabin zones.  Question 5 Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam.  B. Engine cowl lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, electronic equipment bay, APU bleed duct. C. Engine struts, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU duct, keel beam. D. Engine cowling lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU compartment, keel beam. Question 6 What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade.  B. The right pack will produce a fixed temperature of 75 degrees Fahrenheit, and the left pack will produce a fixed temperature of 65 degrees Fahrenheit. C. The packs will attempt to maintain an average temperature across all zones. Question 7 Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor. Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 8 Correct Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True  False Question 9 Correct Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True  False Question 10 Correct The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True  False Question 11 Correct The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 12 Correct After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated? Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Up to 60 seconds. B. Immediately. C. 195 minutes. D. Up to 30 seconds  Question 13 How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. 1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold.  B. 1 fire extinguisher bottle that can only be discharged into forward cargo hold. C. 2 fire extinguisher bottles, 1 rapid discharge bottle and one smaller slow discharge bottle. D. 2 fire extinguisher bottles, one for forward cargo hold, and one for rear cargo hold. Question 14 The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Detecting smoke only  B. Detecting heat above a pre-set value only. C. Forward cargo compartment set to detect smoke only, due to hot air from cabin conditioning system being discharged into forward cargo hold, aft cargo compartment set to detect both smoke and heat. D. Detecting either smoke or heat above a pre-set value. Question 15 What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: a. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes inlet valve to both Air Conditioning Packs, trips IDG control relay, arms both Squibs on both on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right. b. Closes engine fuel shutoff valve, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure warning light, disables thrust reverser, arms Squib on No1 engine fire bottle, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated to the left to discharge bottle into N01 engine. c. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure light, disables thrust reverser, arms one Squib on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.  d. Extinguishes Master Caution and Fire Warning lights, silences Fire Warning Bell, shuts down No1 engine, and discharges No1 Fire Bottle into No1 engine. Question 16 How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: a. Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel.  b. Only by pushing the Master FIRE WARN light c. Pushing the Master FIRE WARN light, or pushing the bell mute button located next to the speaker on the flight deck ceiling. d. The fire warning bell is only silenced once the condition causing the Overheat or Fire warning has been removed. Question 17 What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: Fire warning system test completed satisfactorily. All fire extinguisher bottles are at the required pressure Fire Switch unlock test satisfactory. Fire extinguisher circuit test is normal  Question 18 Correct If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed? Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Move to FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE switch to the central TEST position, then test one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected first to A and then B. B. Carry out the test again with the switch selected to FAULT/INOP testing each loop individually with the OVHT DET switch at A then B. C. This indication only occurs when BOTH loops have failed. D. Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B.  Question 19 How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged? Correct Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. Lavatory Fire warning illuminated on flight deck. B. Extinguisher discharge nozzle will have changed colour  C. Pressure gauge on fire bottle in the green zone. D. Fire bottle will have it's "pop-out" indicator exposed. E. Discharge indicator panel above lavatory door illuminated. F. Steady red light remains illuminated on Lavatory ceiling smoke detector panel after alarm tone has silenced. Question 20 Correct True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 21 Correct Boeing provide the option for 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted to the B737-800. Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True  False Question 22 Correct The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 23 Correct Marked out of 1.00 The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s). Select one: True  False Question 24 Correct The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems. Marked out of 1.00 Select one: True False  Question 25 Incorrect The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct? Marked out of 1.00 Select one: A. There is an outflow valve which opens when cabin pressure reaches 9.1 psi above ambient.  B. There is a negative pressure relief valve, which limits the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient. C. There are two negative pressure relief valves, which limit the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient. D. There are two pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1 psi. Welcome  Salvatore Santacaterina Search Home / Courses / Flight Crew Training / Recurrent Training / RST 2 2022/23 / Started on State Completed on Time taken Question 1 Correct Marked out of 4.00 / Technical Examination Thursday, 13 April 2023, 11:06 AM Finished Thursday, 13 April 2023, 11:42 AM 36 mins 17 secs Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located? Select one: In the external AC power receptacle located on the lower right side of the fuselage. On the Aft Attendant´s panel On the Forward Attendant´s panel  On the Aft Overhead panel on the Flight Deck Question 2 During primary charge cycle operation, approximately what can battery voltage reach? Incorrect Marked out of 4.00 Select one: 30 volts. 28 volts.  55 volts. 24 volts. Question 3 Which of the following statements is one of the basic principles of operation for the 737 electrical system? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: There is no paralleling of the AC sources of power.  An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source. There is paralleling of AC sources of power. All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System. Question 4 Which bus is always connected to the main battery? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Battery Bus Hot Battery Bus  DC Standby Bus Switched Hot Battery Bus Question 5 What is the function of the TR´s (Transformer Rectifier Units)? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: To convert 115 volts AC to 28 volts AC. To convert 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC.  To rectify 115 volts DC to 28 volts. To convert 115 volts DC to 28 volts AC. Question 6 Under what conditions can the APU generator can supply both transfer busses? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. It cannot supply both transfer busses simultaneously. b. On the ground only. c. Both on the ground or in flight.  d. In flight only. Question 7 Which bus powers the auxiliary battery charger? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. AC ground service bus 2 b. AC ground service bus 1  c. Transfer bus 2 d. Transfer bus 1 Question 8 Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are connected by the cross bus tie relay The standby power control unit supplies TR3 At glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other  The AC Busses are isolated from the DC busses Question 9 Which of the following conditions would prevent the RTO mode from being armed prior to takeoff? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: ANTISKID system inoperative.  AUTO BRAKE select switch set to RTO Thrust levers set to idle. Wheel speed less than 60 knots. Question 10 Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level. AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, but normal automatic braking action still occurs. AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, and no automatic braking action occurs.  Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level. Question 11 What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: To allow landing gear extension if hydraulic system B is lost during takeoff. To automatically use hydraulic system A for landing gear retraction if hydraulic system B fails at any time. To automatically use power from hydraulic system B to assist landing gear retraction to achieve the normal rate of retraction if hydraulic system A engine driven pump pressure falls below a preset value.  To allow the use of alternate nosewheel steering in the event hydraulic system A fails. Question 12 What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.  b. Automatic braking when reverse thrust is selected. c. Maximum braking occurs when speed brake is deployed. d. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate. Question 13 Which statement is true when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position.  b. Landing gear retraction is enabled. c. Normal landing gear extension is possible with the loss of hydraulic system A. d. Normal gear extension is possible if hydraulic system B pressure is available. Question 14 What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Depressurises the nose wheel braking system, to prevent damage to the tow bar. b. Depressurises hydraulic system B. c. Isolates Rudder Pedal nose wheel steering, limiting nose wheel steering to the Tiller only. d. Depressurises nose wheel steering allowing pushback or towing without having to depressurise the hydraulic systems.  Question 15 What happens if you reject a takeoff with a groundspeed of 100 knots with Autobrakes in RTO? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light will illuminate. b. Ground Spoilers are automatically deployed when thrust levers are retarded to idle. c. Maximum braking is applied automatically when the forward thrust levers are retarded to idle.  d. Maximum braking is applied automatically when reverse thrust selected. Question 16 The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Landing gear is up and locked with gear lever in the OFF position. Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL). Landing gear is up and locked with the LANDING GEAR lever UP or OFF. Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position OR the landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).  Question 17 In addition to Hydraulic System A and B, how else can the rudder be powered? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Standby hydraulic system through the Standby Rudder PCU.  Standby hydraulic system through the Main Rudder PCU. System A powering the Standby Rudder PCU. System B powering the Standby Rudder PCU. Question 18 What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Closes the flight spoilers shut off valve. b. Fully extends the LE devices using electric motors. c. Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve.  d. Activates the standby hydraulic pump and pressurizes the standby rudder control unit. Question 19 With reference to the flight controls and manual reversion, which statement is correct? Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. The secondary flight controls are powered by hydraulic system B, with backup from hydraulic system A for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost. b. The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B with manual reversion if system A and B pressure is lost. c. The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost.  d. The secondary flight controls are powered by hydraulic system A, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost. Question 20 Which hydraulic system normally powers the Autoslats. Correct Marked out of 4.00 Select one: a. Hydraulic system B.  b. Hydraulic system A. c. Powered by hydraulic system A through the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) d. Powered by the standby hydraulic system if a loss of pressure is sensed from the system B engine driven pump. Question 21 Not answered Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated? Marked out of 4.00 Select one: Applying force against the jam will break out only the captain's control column. The elevator feel and centring unit will transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the control column. The control columns are physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control. Lighter than normal control forces must be used for take off and landing.