Consolidated Technical Questions PDF

Consolidated Technical Questions Q1: QUESTION Answer: ANSWER Q2: A fluid leak develops in System A electric pump. Answer: Fluid quantity in System A reservoir decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost. Q3: A hot air leak is detected in the APU bleed air ducting. This is indicated on the forward overhead panel by Answer: left (1) WING-BODY OVERHEAT light Q4: A leak develops in the System A electric-driven pump; how does this affect the operation of the PTU? Answer: The PTU will not function as all system pressure is lost Q5: A leak in standby hydraulic system will cause system B fluid indication decrease, to approximately: Answer: 0.72 Q6: A pack light illuminates, it does not extinguish on reset of the master caution recall. What could have been the cause of the alert? Answer: A dual pack failure in which the pack will continue to operate until excessive temperature is sensed. Q7: AFDS is engaged in Altitude hold and heading select. If the heading select switch on the MCP was pushed what would the FMAs d isplay? Answer: MCP SPD/CWS R (in amber, below the FMA)/ALT HOLD. Q8: Air from the preconditioned ground source enters the air conditioning system through Answer: The Mix Manifold Q9: An OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the Navigation Display (ND). To view the TA or RA an appropriate action would be: Answer: increase ND display range on the EFIS Control Panel Q10: An OVERHEAT light on the hydraulic panel illuminates inflight - what does this mean? Answer: The hydraulic fluid used to cool & lubricate the related electric-driven pump has overheated or the pump itself has overheated Q11: At 100ft above DH/MDA the GPWS callout is: Answer: PLUS HUNDRED Q12: At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS approach the cross bus tie relay automatically opens: Answer: and the BUS TRANSFER switch returns to OFF (spring loaded).to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2. Q13: At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft? Answer: Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40 Q14: ATT:RST displayed in amber on an ISFD means Answer: Attitude must be reset using the ATTITUDE RESET switch Q15: Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when: Answer: The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips Q16: Battery power is provided by: Answer: Two 24 volt nickel?cadmium batteries, main and auxiliary, which are located in the electronics compartment. Q17: During 'TO/GA - Takeoff' pitch mode, the AFDS commands Answer: 10 degrees nose down until 60kts IAS Q18: During a single engine go-around, one push of a TO/GA switch Answer: F/D roll commands hold current ground track Q19: During alternate brake operation, the following protection is provided: Answer: Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane. Q20: During descent, with engines at a low thrust setting Answer: the high stage valve modulates open to maintain adequate bleed air pressure Q21: During gear retraction, if loose tread on a spinning main gear tyre impacts a fitting in the wheel well opening: Answer: that gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position. The affected gear cannot be retracted until the fitting is replaced. Q22: During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from Answer: 0° to 1100° C Q23: Engine number 1 bleed switch is in the ON position but the engine is not running. Will the number 1 bleed air valve be open? Answer: No Q24: Flight spoilers are operated: Answer: 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B Q25: Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by: Answer: 7 degrees. Q26: How can TOGA be selected for takeoff if both flight directors are OFF? Answer: Pressing TOGA after 80 knots and before 150 seconds after lift off. Q27: How do you activate the APU fire extinguisher from the wheel well? Answer: Pull the T-handle down to arm the system, then move the discharge switch to the left position to fire the squib. Q28: How is the accessory gearbox connected to the engine? Answer: It is mechanically linked to the N2 rotor Q29: How many modes of control does the outflow valve have on the 737-800? Answer: Three. One manual and two automatic - 'AUTO - ALTN - MAN' Q30: How many positive pressure relief valves are on the 737-800? Answer: 2 Q31: How many pressure relief valves are fitted to provide safety pressure relief? Answer: 2 Q32: How many spark igniters are there on each engine? Answer: 2 Q33: Hydraulic system pressure indication on the lower DU is derived from: Answer: combined engine and electric pump outputs. Q34: If a leak develops in the supply line to System A engine-driven hydraulic pump, what approximate reservoir quantity would you expect? Answer: 20% full Q35: If the ambient temperature is below -35C how many minutes must the engine be idled before changing thrust position? Answer: 2Min Q36: If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown below the roll section of the FMAs? Answer: CWS R in amber Q37: If windshear is encountered during F/D take-off or go-around, and vertical speed is less than +600fpm, the F/D pitch command bar provides commands to maintain Answer: 15 degrees nose up Q38: In case of cargo compartment fire: Answer: select the FWD ARMED or AFT ARMED switch then press the DISCH button Q39: In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power: Answer: All galley busses and main busses are automatically shed. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both IFE busses are also automatically shed. Q40: In flight, operating the Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT Switch extinguishes both Master Fire Warn Lights, silences the fire warning bell, and: Answer: resets the system for additional warnings Q41: In the event of an elevator control column jam, an override mechanism allows: Answer: The control columns to be physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control. Q42: In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC be displayed whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)? Answer: All modes Q43: On aircraft from EI-DPY there are new annunciators installed. Which? Answer: Takeoff Config light and Cabin Altitude light Q44: Overheat detection is available for Answer: Engines Q45: Positioning an engine-driven hydraulic pump switch to OFF: Answer: Isolates the hydraulic fluid flow from the system components, but the pump keeps rotating as long as the engine is running Q46: The controller programs the cabin to land slightly pressurized. After landing to depressurize the aircraft: Answer: while taxiing in, the controller slowly drives the outflow valve fully open. Q47: The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates amber: Answer: to indicate excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip Q48: The equipment cooling system comprises: Answer: 4 fans - 2 supply duct and 2 exhaust duct Q49: The Flap Load Relief system: Answer: will retract the TE Flaps from 40 to 30 if airspeed exceeds 163 knots. Q50: The flight directors must be ON to engage the AFDS in Go around mode? Answer: FALSE Q51: The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates: Answer: position information is contradictory on the ground only Q52: The forward cabin temperature control fails. Answer: FWD CAB Temperature selector works normally, but the cabin temperature is maintained at the average of the FWD and AFT CAB temperature selector settings. Q53: The green LE FLAPS EXT light: Answer: All LE Flaps & Slats extended - TE flaps 1-5 All LE devices FULLY extended - TE flaps 10-40 Q54: The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose? Answer: To set HF sensitivity on the on-side HF receiver. Q55: The isolation valve is _____ operated? Answer: AC Q56: The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC's alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct? Answer: The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters Q57: The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) light is inhibited: Answer: at all times in flight, when the thrust levers are advanced toward takeoff power at any time and for 30 seconds after landing. Q58: To silence the fire bell you can press either of the two Master Fire Warning (FIRE WARN) lights on the glareshield. There is another switch which will also silence the fire bell. Where is it located? Answer: On the fire protection panel Q59: Under normal operation the packs will produce an air temperature to satisfy Answer: the zone that requires the most cooling. Q60: Under what circumstances will the V Speed be removed from the FMC, the No V Speed Flag reappear on tthe PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEED DELETED appear? Answer: After the first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page Q61: Warm air from the E & E bay is: Answer: diffused to the lining of the forward cargo compartment in flight at high cabin differential pressures Q62: What additional items are detected on the LHS ?WING-BODY OVERHEAT? alert light that are not the RHS ?WING-BODY OVERHEAT? system? Answer: Bleed duct from APU and Keel Beam Q63: What does BOV stand for and what will be the effect of it on the flight directors? Answer: BOV: Bias out of view, removes either the pitch or roll flight director depending on the event causing the bias out of view. Q64: What fixed temperature will the left pack maintain If all the temperature selectors are positioned OFF? Answer: 24°C Q65: What is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)? Answer: Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active Q66: What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white? Answer: The RTP is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with that RTP. Q67: What is the EGT limit for engine starting on the ground? Answer: 725°C Q68: What is the maximum difference between the FMC GP Angle and the Approach Plate GP angle allowed for a RNAV (GPS, GNSS) A Answer: +\- 0.1 Q69: What is the range of the individual temperature selectors? Answer: Approximately 18°C to 30°C Q70: What will be displayed in the FMAs if in level flight on a radar heading and APP mode is selected prior to LQG/GS capture? Answer: MCP SPD / HDG SEL (VORLOC below in white) /ALT HOLD (GS below in white) Q71: When can you expect the EGPWS 'five hundred' call? Answer: When descending through 500ft RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ Q72: When extending or retracting the TE Flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, allow 15 seconds to elapse between consecutive selections: Answer: to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch. Q73: When is the current Mach numberdisplayed at the bottom of the airspeed indications tapeon the PFD? Answer: When airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above Q74: When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities: Answer: Select TA Q75: When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What is correct? Answer: Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the backup system has occurred. Q76: When selecting reverse thrust, when can the reverse thrust levers be increased beyond the idle detent? Answer: Once the reverser sleeves approach the fully deployed position Q77: Where is the Air Driven Starter fitted? Answer: On the front of the accessory gearbox Q78: Which of the following conditions will cause the AUTOFAIL light to illuminate? Answer: Excessive differential pressure (> 8.75 psi) Q79: Which of these is an AFDS status mode? Answer: FD Q80: With command A engage and FMAs displaying MCP SPD/LNAV/ALT HOLD, which FCC is the master? Answer: FCC A Q81: With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF? Answer: Pump continues to run, but output is isolated from system components Q82: 'TA Only' mode is enabled automatically: Answer: below 1,000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected. Q83: A fast realignment should be complete in: Answer: 30 seconds Q84: A flight is aborted shortly after takeoff and prepares to return to the departure airfield. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates. On the pressurization panel crew must: Answer: take no action - the auto abort capability programs cabin to land at takeoff field elevation Q85: A fuel CONFIG alert is extinguished if: Answer: Centre tank quantity less than 363kgs Q86: A fuel CONFIG Alert remains displayed until: Answer: Centre fuel tank quantity less than 363 kgs Q87: A leak occurs in the standby system - which statement is correct? Answer: The LOW QUANTITY light will illuminate when the standby reservoir is approx half empty, the standby reservoir quantity will decrease to zero and the system B reservoir level will decrease to approx 72% Q88: A Mach Trim System provides speed stability at airspeeds above: Answer: Mach.615 Q89: A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator display on the PFD indicates: Answer: the speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with V/S pitch mode engaged Q90: A single detector loop for an engine fails and the related OVHT/DET switch in the aft electronic panel is in the NORMAL position. What flight indications can you expect? Answer: There is no flight deck indication of single loop failure with the OVHT/DET switch in NORMAL. Q91: A TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND) has, alongside it, a down arrow and '- 07'. This means: Answer: The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm. Q92: Above 37,000 feet the pressurization controller maintains a pressure differential of: Answer: 8.35psi Q93: Activated at 14,000 feet the passenger oxygen masks drop down from the stowage: Answer: Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit. Q94: After a flight director take off in TO/GA mode, using LNAV, what FMAs occur if the autopilot is engaged during the climb and above thrust reduction altitude? Answer: N1/LNAV/MCP SPD Q95: After a normal takeoff which F/D pitch command can you expect? Answer: V2 plus 20kts Q96: After a normal takeoff which pitch command can you expect? Answer: V2 to V2+20kts Q97: After a steady cruise at FL 370 you climb to FL 390 and reset the FLT ALT in the pressurization panel accordingly. What would you expect the cabin rate of climb indicator to indicate during the climb? Answer: It will indicate a descent due to a scheduled change in differential pressure from 7.8 psi to 8.35 psi when selecting a FLT ALT above FL 370. Q98: After autobraking has started, what pilot actions disarm the autobrake system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light?: Answer: All of the above. Q99: After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until Answer: 800 feet above field elevation Q100: After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down? Answer: 60 seconds Q101: After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE NAV DATA base is expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the NAV DATA base change? Answer: Blank, requiring reloading Q102: After the loss of all generators, two fully charghed batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of: Answer: 60 minutes Q103: Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No. 2. You will see: Answer: An amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1. The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn amber Q104: All TCAS alerts are inhibited: Answer: By GPWS and windshear warnings. Q105: All window heat switches are selected to the ON position. The green window heat ON light for Right Side Window extinguishes. The most likely reason is: Answer: The window is at the correct temperature Q106: Alternate brakes are operated by: Answer: system A Q107: amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to: Answer: 91 kgs Q108: Amber PACK light illumination during Master Caution recall, that extinguishes when master caution is reset, indicates Answer: Failure of either primary or standby pack controller. Q109: An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is an indication of: Answer: The captain's and first officer's altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds. Q110: An amber CDS FAULT in the left lower corner of PFD indicates: Answer: A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the ground before starting second engine. Q111: An amber IAS DISAGREE alert in the bottom of the speed tape indicates: Answer: The captains and first officer's airspeeds disagree by more than 5 KTS for more than 5 seconds. Q112: An amber MAP RANGE DISAGREE annunciation on the ND indicates: Answer: The selected range on the EFIS control panel is different from the map display range Q113: An amber ROLL displayed in the lower portion of the attitude indicator on the PFD means: Answer: The captains and first officers attitude display differ by more than 5 degrees in roll Q114: An engine-driven hydraulic pump supplies approximately ____ times the flow rate of an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump. Answer: 6 times Q115: An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates: Answer: Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve has closed Q116: Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport on the DEP/ARR page: Answer: both origin and destination airport are available Q117: As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)? Answer: GA : (blank) : TO/GA Q118: At the end of the start cycle the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates: Answer: when the APU is ready to accept a bleed air or electrical load. Q119: At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach? Answer: 350 feet RA Q120: Auto-relight is provided for flameout protection, with the EEC activating both igniters. Which of the following situations would cause Flameout Protection to operate? Answer: Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM Q121: Autoslat operation is: Answer: normally powered by hydraulic system B Q122: Both, ON and ALTN visible on EEC switch, indicate EEC has automatically changed to soft alternate mode, and remains in soft mode until: Answer: Thrust lever retarded to idle or Manually selecting ALTN with EEC switch on AFT overhead panel. Q123: Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from: Answer: DC bus 1 and DC bus 2 Q124: Choose the answer which best describes the operation of the engine bleed air valve when the engine bleed air switch is in the ON position. Answer: The valve is DC activated and pressure operated. Q125: Cruise mode is activated when the aircraft climbs to: Answer: within 0.25psi of selected FLT ALT Q126: Current Mach number at the bottom of the airspeed indications tape on the PFD is displayed: Answer: when airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above Q127: Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within: Answer: 7.4M of the nose Q128: Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate: Answer: Terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane's current altitude. Q129: Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect? Answer: The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost. Q130: During a battery start, when does the EEC become energised? Answer: At 15% N2 Q131: During a normal engine start, which of the following statement is true? Answer: only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD Q132: During an autopilot ILS approach: Answer: at glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other Q133: During an engine start , when the engine start lever is positioned to IDLE detent, which of the following statements is correct? Answer: The SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes Q134: During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three seconds, this means: Answer: The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA) Q135: During an ILS approach, when the Radio Altimeter indication turns amber, this means Answer: The airplane has descended below the selected radio altitude minimums Q136: During automatic landing the FLARE manoeuvre starts at approximately Answer: 50 feet RA Q137: During cruise both centre tank fuel pumps have failed. There is still 460 kg in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. The upper display unit will show: Answer: There will be no indication on CDS Q138: During cruise the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates Answer: position information is contradictory Q139: During cruise you note both center tank fuel pumps have failed as indicated by the illumination of both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights. You still have 320 kg of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. You will see: Answer: There will be no indication on CDS Q140: During engine ground start, how long before the EEC detects a Wet Start and shuts off ignition and fuel if there is no rise in EGT after the start lever is moved to IDLE? Answer: 15 seconds Q141: During engine start, if the EGT exceeds the starting limit, in what circumstances would the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine? Answer: on the ground only Q142: During engine start, when does the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine? Answer: When the EGT exceeds the starting limit on the ground only Q143: During flight you get MASTER CAUTION > AIR COND > WING-BODY OVERHEAT. Is this resettable? Answer: No Q144: During normal operation with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, an alert is initiated if: Answer: both loop A and B are sensing a FIRE or OVHT Q145: During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained? Answer: Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment. Q146: During primary charge cycle operation battery voltage can be as high as Answer: 30 volts Q147: During single pack operation with TRIM AIR selected OFF: Answer: the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average demands of all three zones Q148: During taxiing out for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light illuminates, what should you do? Answer: position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not takeoff if light remains illuminated Q149: During undercarriage retraction: Answer: the brakes automatically stop rotation of the main gear wheels; snubbers stop rotation of the nose wheels. Q150: During VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails: Answer: The pilots enter and periodically update manually calculated fuel weight on the FMC PERF-INIT page in order to keep gross weight and performance data accurate Q151: During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means: Answer: VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots Q152: Electrical power to start the APU comes from:- Answer: No. 1 transfer bus or the airplane main battery. Q153: Elevator feel system is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of: Answer: airspeed and stabilizer position Q154: Engaging LVL CHG descent mode Answer: automatically engages the A/T in RETARD, and then ARM when thrust is at idle Q155: Engine oil pressure is in the amber band at take-off thrust. Which of the following is true? Answer: Do not take-off Q156: Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened if the windspeed exceeds: Answer: 40kt Q157: Extending the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel: Answer: by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits Q158: Extinguisher continuity can be tested by pushing and holding the Answer: EXT TEST switch Q159: F/D Go-around. If both autopilots are not engaged, a manual F/D only go-around is available under which of the following conditions? Answer: Inflight below 2000ft RA, Inflight above 2000ft RA with flaps not up or G/S captured and not in takeoff mode Q160: Failure of one temperature controller will be annunicated to the crew by Answer: ?Zone Temp? On Master Caution recall Q161: Failure of two temperature controllers will be annunicated to the crew by Answer: Illumination of the Master Caution Q162: Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing: Answer: only engine fire, cargo, APU fire and lavatory fires Q163: Flight spoiler deflection is initiated on the down going wing when the control wheel is displaced more than approximately: Answer: 10 degrees Q164: For ground servicing, a GROUND SERVICE Switch is placed: Answer: on the Forward Attendant ?s panel Q165: For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main tanks? Answer: 453 Kgs. Q166: For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is? Answer: 50 feet Q167: From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs? Answer: From the ADIRUs. Q168: Fuel for the APU is normally (AC fuel pumps operating) supplied from: Answer: The left side of the fuel manifold Q169: How can VNAV be terminated? Answer: selecting a different pitch mode Q170: How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio? Answer: Set the Filter Switch to B (Both) Q171: How is an APU bleed air duct leak annunciated in the flight deck? Answer: By the MASTER CAUTION, AIR COND and Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights Q172: How is the cabin altitude warning horn silenced? Answer: By pushing the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch on the forward overhead panel. Q173: How is the hard alternate mode entered? Answer: When in Soft Alternate mode, retard the thrust lever or push the EEC switch Q174: How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for the APU FIRE protection system? Answer: 1 Q175: How many fuel measuring sticks are installed? Answer: 16 Q176: How many times can the TRIP RESET button be used to reset a related system? Answer: Unlimited number of times Q177: How much greater is the fluid volume supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump, compared to the related electric motor-driven hydraulic pump? Answer: 6 times greater. Q178: If 'ON DC' on left IRS Mode Selector Unit comes ON steady it means: Answer: the related IRS is operating on DC power from the switched hot battery bus Q179: If a cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the selected position: Answer: the COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue Q180: If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, where is the Magenta "X-BLD" Indication displayed? Answer: above the N2 dial Q181: If a fire extinguisher is to be discharged on the flight deck: Answer: all crewmembers to wear oxygen masks with 'EMERG' selected Q182: If a landing is made with RTO selected: Answer: AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown Q183: If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine? Answer: 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to IDLE during ground starts Q184: If a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing and the speed brake is ARMED, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically: Answer: When the Air/Ground system senses ground mode (any gear strut compresses). Q185: if a Wing anti-ice control valve closes in flight and the WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON, what indications will the crew see? Answer: The respective L or R VALVE OPEN LIGHT will illuminate bright blue Q186: If aiplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page GROSS WT: Answer: will display box prompts Q187: If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF: Answer: the left pack maintains a fixed temperature 24°C and the right pack maintains 18°C as measured at the pack temperature sensor Q188: If an engine fails in flight: Answer: The ENGINE OUT CRUISE page is information only and the execution light will not illuminate. Q189: If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed: Answer: on the inboard display unit Q190: AUTOSLAT FAIL illuminates in amber when: Answer: Failure of a single Stall Management Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer. Q191: If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight: Answer: The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight. Q192: If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release the system annunciator, the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL, and extinguishes when Master Caution is reset. Answer: A single GPS sensor unit has failed Q193: If during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails: Answer: the flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid Q194: If one cargo fire detector loop loses power: Answer: the system automatically converts to a single loop detection system Q195: If one of the two engine fire detection loops A or B fails, how will you notice this? Answer: It will be noticed when performing the OVHT/FIRE test Q196: If the aircraft takes off with the APU powering both transfer buses: Answer: The engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer buses if the APU is shut down. Q197: If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indicaton: Answer: Stick shaker activates for existing flight conditions. Q198: If the amber LOW PRESSURE Light for the No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates, what will the QRH direct you do? Answer: position the pump switch to OFF Q199: If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed for pushback or towing: Answer: System A hydraulic pumps must be switched off. Q200: If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power from: Answer: the switched on battery bus Q201: If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, what mode will the EEC automatically change to? Answer: Soft alternate mode. Q202: If the spoilers become jammed: Answer: The captain's control wheel operates the ailerons Q203: If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown: Answer: after 3 seconds in the advanced position, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate Q204: If you switch off both ENGINE ANTI ICE switches in flight Answer: The engine anti ice valves will shut and the stick shaker logic returns to normal. Q205: Illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light in flight indicates: Answer: This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground. Q206: Illumination (blue) of a Generator Off Bus (GEN OFF BUS) Light indicates: Answer: the IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus Q207: Illumination of amber FAULT light with the overheat detector switch in NORMAL indicates: Answer: Both detector loops for an engine have failed. Q208: Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates: Answer: An over pressure in the duct between the engine anti ice valve and the engine cowl lip Q209: Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates: Answer: An over pressure in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve. Q210: Illumination of the 'APU DET INOP' Light will cause following lights to illuminate: Answer: both 'MASTER CAUTION' and 'OVHT/DET' Q211: Illumination of the 'BAT DISCHARGE' light indicates: Answer: excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON. Q212: Illumination of the 'GND POWER AVAILABLE' light indicates: Answer: ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards. Q213: Illumination of the amber ?DRIVE? light on the overhead panel indicates: Answer: IDG low oil pressure. Q214: Illumination of the blue 'APU GEN OFF BUS' means: Answer: APU is running and not powering a bus. Q215: Illumination of the blue 'GEN OFF BUS' light indicates: Answer: the IDG is not supplying power to it's associated transfer bus. Q216: Illumination of the DUAL BLEED light indicates: Answer: possible backpressure of the APU Q217: In case of an engine overheat: Answer: Both master caution lights, the related ENGINE OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate. Q218: In degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station? Answer: Capt. VHF 1, F.O VHF 2, Observer VHF 1. Q219: In flight A Predictive Windshear Warning Alert: Answer: Will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft Q220: In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power: Answer: all galley busses are automatically shed Q221: In flight if the APU is the only source of electrical power: Answer: Automatic Load Shedding will disconnect all Main and Galley Busses. Q222: In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH: Answer: None of RECIRC fans will operate. Q223: In flight with the 'STANDBY POWER' switch in the AUTO position, loss of all AC generators Will result in: Answer: AC Standby Bus is supplied by the static: inverter and DC Standby Bus is supplied by battery. Q224: In flight, when does the EEC automatically select approach idle? Answer: flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine Q225: In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow valve is driven by? Answer: a motor supplied from DC standby bus Q226: In normal operation, engine overheat and fire detection alerts are triggered when Answer: Both loops sense an overheat or fire Q227: In normal operation, what provides the A/T system with N1 limit values? Answer: FMC Q228: In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser? Answer: System A Q229: In order to extend the life of the APU, & stabilization time of ____ is recommended before using it as & bleed air source: Answer: 2 minutes Q230: In the PACK fail non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to: Answer: reduce the workload on the other air conditioning pack Q231: In the remote situation of total generator failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration may occur. Why? Answer: The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause an accumulation of dissolved air to obstruct the suction feed line. Q232: In what mode will a TCAS traffic alert automatically show the TCAS Traffic Alert message if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF? Answer: All modes Q233: In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU? Answer: on the ground or in flight Q234: In-flight, the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine? Answer: It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps Q235: Is automatic shutdown protection provided for the APU in the event of an APU fire if the APU fire detection system is inoperative? Answer: No Q236: Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown: Answer: prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed Q237: Landing gear uplock is released when: Answer: manual gear extension handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24inches (61cm). Q238: LNAV will automatically disengage: Answer: Reaching a route discontinuity. Q239: Logo lights are installed on: Answer: top of both horizontal stabilizers Q240: Minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature is: Answer: 3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or -43 degrees, whichever is higher. Q241: Normal hydraulic brake pressure is: Answer: 3000psi. Q242: Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates? Answer: MAINT Q243: On selection of FAULT/INOP we would expect to see Answer: Both Master Caution, OVHT/DET system annunciator, FAULT, and APU DET INOP lights illuminate Q244: On take off the config warning sounds. What can be the cause? Answer: Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition Q245: On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure indicates 50psi: Answer: As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal. Q246: On the FMC FIX INFO page the RAD/DIS FR indicates: Answer: the radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position Q247: On the ground, for primary ATC communication: Answer: Always use No.1 VHF radio. Q248: On the ground, the TR UNIT Light illuminates (amber) if: Answer: Any TR has failed. Q249: On the ground, with both Air Conditioning PACK Switches positioned to HIGH (and both packs operating) and both Recirculation RECIRC FAN Switches positioned to AUTO: Answer: Only the Right recirculation fan will operate Q250: On the ground, with both pack switches set to HIGH and both RECIRC FANs selected to AUTO: Answer: the left recirculation fan will shut down Q251: On the ground, with the Battery (BAT) Switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT, the switched hot battery bus is: Answer: not powered Q252: On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the switched hot battery bus is: Answer: not powered Q253: Once activated, a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) oxygen supply: Answer: flows for approximately 12 minutes Q254: One basic principle of operation for the 737 electrical system is: Answer: there is no paralleling of the AC power sources. Q255: Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch to STANDBY: Answer: does not require the BAT switch to be ON Q256: Operating the Cargo Fire DISCH Switch:- Answer: results in the total discharge of the cargo compartment fire extinguisher bottle contents into the cargo hold selected by the cargo fire ARMED switch Q257: Operating the EXT TEST Switch: Answer: to position 1 or 2 tests bottle discharge circuits for all three extinguisher bottles Q258: Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependant on: Answer: engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door open/closed status, DC power Q259: Placing the OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch to OVHT/FIRE position: Answer: tests overheat and fire detection loops on both engines and APU, and wheel well fire detector Q260: Placing the TEST switch, on fire protection panel, to FAULT/INOP position tests: Answer: The fault detection circuit for both engines and APU. Q261: Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight: Answer: Adjusts stick shaker logic and minimum maneuver speed bars whilst the switch is in the ON position Q262: Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON, in flight: Answer: Adjusts stick shaker and minimum manoeuvring speed bars on the airspeed indications and remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight. Q263: Predictive windshear alerts are issued when: Answer: below 1,200 feet RA Q264: Prior to returning to the oil tank, what does engine oil pass through? Answer: the scavenge filter and main engine oil cooler Q265: Pulling an engine fire-warning switch up: Answer: closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve Q266: Pulling the APU Fire switch up Answer: Provides backup for the automatic shutdown feature Q267: Pulling the engine fire switch up will Answer: Close both the engine fuel shutoff and spar shutoff valves Q268: Pulling the number 2 engine fire switch up will Answer: isolate the System B engine driven Hydraulic pump but the electric motor driven pump maintains System B pressure. Q269: Pushing the ATTEND call switch: Answer: sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights Q270: Pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel: Answer: improves reception of weak signals Q271: Reference to Overheat/Fire Protection Panel. FAULT light illuminated amber, choose the correct answer: Answer: With the overheat detector switch in NORMAL - indicates both detector loops for an engine have failed. Q272: Retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel: Answer: by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits Q273: Select the correct statement: Answer: The correct answer is: The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost. Q274: Selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to: Answer: ARM, closes trailing edge flap bypass valve, activates standby pump and arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch. Q275: Selecting the APU switch to OFF position trips the APU generator, closes the APU bleed air valve and extinguishes the APU GEN OFF BUS light. To allow for a cooling period, APU shutdown will occur automatically after a delay of _____ seconds: Answer: 60 Q276: Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF: Answer: energizes the blocking valve to block pump output. Q277: Switching the CAB/UTIL Switch to the OFF position removes electrical power from all 115v AC galley busses and also from the: Answer: left and right recirculation fans Q278: The 'GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when: Answer: the AC ground power cart has been disconnected. Q279: The 'TR UNIT' light Will illuminate in flight if: Answer: TR1 fails. Q280: The accessories gearbox receives drive from: Answer: the N2 rotor Q281: The aircraft is not certified for operations: Answer: above 82N or below 82S Q282: The aircraft takes off with the APU powering both transfer busses: Answer: the generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails. Q283: The airspeed range for fully enabled speed trim operation is: Answer: 100 KIAS - Mach 0.60 Q284: The alpha vanes provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, auto throttle, autopilot, auto slats and are anti-iced: Answer: By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the PROBE HEAT switches. Q285: The ALTERNATE FLAP Master Switch in ARM position: Answer: arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and closes the TE Flap Bypass Valve. Q286: The amber 'ELEC' light will illuminate on the ground if: Answer: a fault exists in the DC power or standby power system. Q287: The amber 'STANDBY POWER OFF' light will illuminate if: Answer: AC standby bus unpowered. Q288: The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the: Answer: Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed. Q289: The amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to: Answer: 91 kgs Q290: The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT Light Answer: is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight Q291: The amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light is armed: Answer: Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated. Q292: The APU can supply both bleed air and electrical load up to an altitude of: Answer: 10,000 feet Q293: The APU can supply both transfer buses: Answer: On the ground or in the air. Q294: The APU can supply electrical load only up to an altitude of: Answer: 41,000 feet Q295: The APU start cycle may take as long as ____ seconds. Answer: 120 seconds Q296: The aural alert for excessive bank angle is: Answer: BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE Q297: The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely cause is: Answer: RTO mode selected on the ground. Q298: The AUTO BRAKE Select Switch: Answer: when set to RTO will apply maximum brake pressure if the thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above 90kts during takeoff. Q299: The AUTO FAIL light is illuminated together with ALTN light. What does it indicate? Answer: This indicates a single controller failure. Q300: The AUTO FAIL light on the cabin pressurisation panel is illuminated alone. Answer: This indicates a dual controller failure. Q301: The Auto position of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) On/Auto switch: Answer: Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown. Q302: The AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall. The light extinguishes when master caustion system is reset. This indicates: Answer: failure of a single Stall Management/Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer. Q303: The autoslat system: Answer: drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the aircraft approaches a stall. Q304: The bleed air pressure indicator has L and R pointers. These pointers: Answer: may indicate a L/R duct pressure difference which is considered normal as long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurisation Q305: The BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates an Answer: Overpressure or Overheat in the bleed air duct system Q306: The blue 'APU GEN OFF BUS' light will illuminate: Answer: when the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC transfer bus Q307: The brake accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and: Answer: parking brake system Q308: The Cabin Altitude and Takeoff Configuration Warnings: Answer: both use the same intermittent warning horn when activated Q309: The cabin begins to pressurize Answer: on the ground at high power settings Q310: The cargo compartment fire detection system has dual detection loops and in normal operation: Answer: both loops must detect the presence of smoke to cause an alert. Q311: The cargo compartment fire protection system includes: Answer: A single fire extinguisher bottle Q312: The cargo compartments have Answer: Smoke detection powered by DC Bus 1 and DC bus 2 Q313: The center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operates when: Answer: the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full Q314: The cockpit voice decorrer records audio for: Answer: 120 minutes Q315: The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased by: Answer: Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set Q316: The columns and wheels are connected through transfer mechanisms which allow the pilots to bypass a jammed control or surface. If the ailerons control system is jammed, force applied to: Answer: force applied to the First Officer?s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers. The ailerons and the Captain?s control wheel are inoperative. Q317: The Cross Bus Tie relay: Answer: opens if the BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF. Q318: The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With the range set greater than 20 nm, each segment represents: Answer: predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90 second intervals Q319: The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set: Answer: independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel Q320: The display selector on the IRS Display Unit ( ISDU ) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is shown in the right window: Answer: right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete Q321: The DUAL BLEED light is illuminated amber. This indicates: Answer: Eng No 1 BLEED air switch ON and APU bleed air valve open Q322: The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch illuminated and the ON indication remaining visible. What would cause the EEC to change to Hard Alternate mode? Answer: Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch on the aft overhead panel. Q323: The Electrical (ELEC) Light will illuminate in flight if: Answer: the ELEC light only operates on the ground Q324: The Emergency Exit Lights switch, when placed in the ARMED position: Answer: illuminates all emergency lights automatically if airplane electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power is turned off Q325: The engine and APU fire detection systems are run from the Answer: Battery Bus Q326: The engine bleed air valve acts as: Answer: a pressure regulator and shutoff valve Q327: The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means? Answer: the Captain's and First Officer's pitch angle displays differ by more than 5 degrees Q328: The flap load relief system is operational at (assume for aircraft YC496 through YW097): Answer: flaps 30 and 40 Q329: The flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provides: Answer: protection for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position Q330: The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector rotated to the EMERGENCY position: Answer: supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitude Q331: The FSEU (flap/slat electronic unit) provides: Answer: protection and indication for TE Flap asymmetry, skew and uncommanded motion. Q332: The flight crew oxygen system pressure may be as high as: Answer: 1850psi Q333: The flight crew oxygen system uses auto pressure breathing masks/regulators with pressure breathing starting at: Answer: 27,000 feet Q334: The FMC advisory message "BUFFET ALERT" indicates: Answer: Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than required. Q335: The FMC alerting message 'RESET MCP ALT' means: Answer: aircraft within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting lower altitude on the MCP Q336: The FMC alerting message VERIFY GW AND FUEL is shown in the CDU scratchpad: Answer: When fuel quantity data is invalid and estimated fuel weight has to be entered manually Q337: The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1 is: Answer: present total fuel remaining, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system Q338: The FWD and AFT cargo compartments each have smoke detectors Answer: In a dual loop configuration. Normally, both detection loops must sense smoke to cause an alert Q339: The FWD CAB ZONE TEMP light illuminates amber. This indicates duct temperature overheat. Answer: The system may be reset by pushing the TRIP RESET switch Q340: The Galley busses are powered from: Answer: the AC Transfer busses. Q341: The indications for the Cargo Fire test Answer: Fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate, the extinguisher test lights illuminate, FWD and AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate, and the cargo fire bottle DISCH light illuminates Q342: The indications of an engine overheat are: Answer: Both MASTER CAUTION lights, the related ENG OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminate. Q343: The ISOLATION VALVE switch is in the AUTO position, both engine bleed switches are ON, the L PACK switch is in the AUTO position and the R PACK switch is in the HIGH position. What is the position of the isolation valve? Answer: Closed Q344: The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked: Answer: with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting (below 34 degrees) Q345: The Landing Gear Transfer Unit: Answer: Ensures System B can assist raising the gear on loss of System A Q346: The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft's condition (both engines are operating)? Answer: On approach passing 800ft RA and selecting Flaps 30 with any gear not down and locked Q347: The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground: Answer: yes Q348: The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning: Answer: a clacker Q349: The main wheel well has Answer: Fire detection only Q350: The maximum differential pressure is: Answer: 9.10 psi Q351: The minimum equipment requirement for RAs to be generated is if the other airplane has a working: Answer: Mode C transponder. Q352: The Navigation Display (ND) wind direction/speed and wind arrow is: Answer: Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots Q353: The number of flight spoilers located on each wing are: Answer: 4 Q354: The number of ground spoilers on each wing are: Answer: 2 Q355: The number of slats located on each wing are: Answer: Four outboard of each engine Q356: The outflow valve position indicator indicates the position of the outflow valve: Answer: in all modes Q357: The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate? Answer: Passenger oxygen system is activated Q358: The power source for Fire Extinguishing is: Answer: the Hot Battery Bus Q359: The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the: Answer: Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats. Q360: The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides an alternative source of power for the Autoslat system if: Answer: A loss of pressure from Hydraulic System B engine driven pump is sensed Q361: The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which of the following items? Answer: autoslats Q362: The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitors: Answer: takeoff and landing configuration warnings, landing gear, air/ground sensors Q363: The purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit is to: Answer: automatically use hydraulic system B for gear retraction if No.1 engine is lost and the landing gear lever is positioned up Q364: The R ELEV PITOT Light is illuminated and both PROBE HEAT switches are in the ON position. What does this indicate? Answer: The right elevator pitot is not heated Q365: The RA aural alert 'CLIMB' CLIMB NOW' means: Answer: Reversal manoeuvre from initial descent RA. Q366: The Recirculation Fan: Answer: reduces air conditioning pack load and the engine bleed air demand Q367: The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions? Answer: Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position OR the landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL). Q368: The right IRS is electrically powered from: Answer: normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - in emergency from switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes Q369: The right primary pack control fails. The right pack: Answer: is controlled by the left pack standby control Q370: The scratch pad message VERIFY GW AND FUEL appears: Answer: When fuel data is invalid and fuel has to be entered manually. Q371: The SMYD computers receive inputs from: Answer: anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs Q372: The Stabilizer Trim Override Switch on the Aft Electronic Panel, when set to OVERRIDE: Answer: Bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches on each control wheel Q373: The supplemental and temporary data bases have storage capacity for: Answer: 40 navaids and 6 airports Q374: The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if: Answer: stabilizer trim is not in the green band Q375: The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is: Answer: A solid white diamond Q376: The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from Answer: EGPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position Q377: The Thermal Anti Ice indication (TAI) above each N1 indicator: Answer: if green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON Q378: The thrust mode display on the upper DU shows A/T LIM in white. This means Answer: the FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 limit values, the A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC Q379: The TR ?s ( Transformer Rectifier Units ) convert: Answer: 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC Q380: The TR UNIT light will illuminate (amber) in flight if: Answer: TR1 has failed Q381: The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is: Answer: all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated. Q382: The trailing edge flaps are set to position 15. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is (assume for non-Short Field Performance aircraft YC496 through YW097): Answer: all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated green Q383: The vertical speed in white shown at the bottom of the vertical speed indication will show when the vertical speed exceeds: Answer: 400 feet per minute Q384: The wheel well is Answer: Monitored by a single fire detector loop. As the temperature of the detector increases above a predetermined limit, the detector senses a fire condition Q385: The window heat PWR TEST switch Answer: provides a confidence test Q386: The wing anti-ice system provides protection for: Answer: the three inboard leading edge slats on each wing Q387: The wing ANTI-ICE: Answer: Is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing conditions exist. Q388: The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning? Answer: AIR COND Q389: The yaw damper indicator: Answer: indicates main yaw damper movement of rudder; pilot rudder pedal inputs are not indicated. Q390: To extend the Fwd Airstair from outside the aircraft Answer: The Battery Master Switch can be on or off and the L1 door can be shut or partially open Q391: To receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio: Answer: set the Filter Switch to BOTH Q392: To see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude you select: Answer: POS REF page 2/3 Q393: Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. What affect will one radio altimeter becoming inoperative have on the Autopilot? Answer: the autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and G/S capture Q394: Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a radio altimeter inoperative, how long after LOC and GS capture will the autopilot disconnect? Answer: 2 seconds Q395: Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. The PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist? Answer: Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine?driven hydraulic pump drops below limits Q396: Under normal conditions the AC Standby Bus is powered from: Answer: AC Transfer Bus No 1. Q397: Up to what altitude may the APU be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously? Answer: 10,000 ft. Q398: VNAV is terminated by: Answer: selecting a different pitch mode Q399: What abnormal start protection is available? Answer: On the ground only and for hot, wet, stall and EGT exceedances Q400: What additional engine fire indication is shown or heard on the flight deck of later aircraft (from registration EI-FIV through EI-GXN) in the event of engine fire or during an engine fire test? Answer: The engine start lever will illuminate red. Q401: What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation? Answer: Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum. Q402: What are the indications of a cargo fire? Answer: The fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate and the FWD/AFT cargo fire warning light(s) illuminates. Q403: What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged? Answer: The Engine Start Switch returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes Q404: What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate: Answer: airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP, either main landing gear is not up and locked. Q405: What do the 3 green lights indicate, when the EXT TEST switch is moved to either 1 or 2 position? Answer: That the circuit continuity from the squib to the engine and APU fire switch is checked. Q406: What does a flashing RED autopilot indicator light mean? Answer: Autopilot has disconnected Q407: What does the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicate? Answer: Position information on the ground is contradictory. Q408: What does the illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light indicate, during climb? Answer: This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground. Q409: What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD)? Answer: hydraulic pressure and quantity only Q410: What fault indications can be reset with the TRIP RESET Switch? Answer: ZONE TEMP, PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF Q411: What FMAs would be expected on selection of HEADING SELECT and VERTICAL SPEED? Answer: MCP SPD / HDG SEL / VS Q412: What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO? Answer: Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE. Q413: What happens if you reject a takeoff with a groundspeed of 100 knots with Autobrakes in RTO? Answer: maximum braking is applied automatically when the forward thrust levers are retarded to idle Q414: What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation? Answer: the display opens up and shows FMC target speed Q415: What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT? Answer: only attitude and heading information Q416: What is one indication of a leak in the Standby Hydraulic System? Answer: decrease in System B quantity Q417: What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?. Answer: 56% N2 Q418: What is the cause of a wing-body overheat? Answer: A bleed air duct leak Q419: What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN Light when the crossfeed selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed? Answer: illuminated bright blue Q420: What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF? Answer: Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim Q421: What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent? Answer: Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes Q422: What is the effect on the spark igniters if the start switches are position to FLT? Answer: Both igniters operate with the start lever in idle regardless of the position of the ignition select switch Q423: What is the electrical power source of the APU fire detection system? Answer: the Battery Bus Q424: What is the electrical power source of the engine overheat and fire detection system? Answer: the battery bus Q425: What is the electrical source of power for the cargo compartment smoke Answer: the DC bus 1 and the DC bus 2 Q426: What is the electrical source of power for the engine fire extinguishing system? Answer: The Hot battery bus Q427: What is the flight deck annunciation if one cargo smoke detector in a loop fails? Answer: The DETECTOR FAULT light will illuminate, but only when a cargo fire test is manually initiated. Q428: What is the function of the TRIP RESET switch on the overhead pressurization panel? Answer: To reset a bleed trip off, pack trip off and zone temp malfunction Q429: What is the hydraulic sysytem maximum pressure indication, and what colour is it displayed? Answer: 3500 psi in white Q430: What is the indication of Crossfeed VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed? Answer: Illuminated bright blue Q431: What is the maximum authorized thrust reduction below any certified rating? Answer: 0.25 Q432: What is the maximum flap extension altitude? Answer: 20,000 feet Q433: What is the maximum permitted lever position of the speed brake lever in flight? Answer: FLIGHT DETENT Q434: What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach? Answer: 800 feet Q435: What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps? Answer: 760 Kgs in the related main tank. Q436: What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets? Answer: 24.3 Meters Q437: What is the number of the extinguisher bottles fitted for the cargo compartment fire suppression system? Answer: 1 bottle Q438: What is the purpose of the isolation valve? Answer: To Isolate the left and the right sides of the bleed air duct. Q439: What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit? Answer: Ensures that the landing gear can be raised at the normal rate if the output from System A is insufficient Q440: What is the purpose of the ram air system? Answer: To provide cooling for the heat exchangers Q441: What is the purpose of the recirculation fans? Answer: To reduce the workload on the PACKs Q442: What is the result of a fluid leak in the System A electric motor-driven pump? Answer: System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost. Q443: What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves? Answer: the Battery Bus Q444: What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets? Answer: 35.79 Meters Q445: What is the wingtip height of a blended wing aircraft? Answer: 6.42M Q446: What items make up the Automatic Flight System (AFS)? Answer: the autopilot, flight directors (AFDS) and the autothrottles (A/T) Q447: What modes can the EECs operate in? Answer: Normal, Soft Alternate and Hard Alternate Q448: What must be sensed by the detector loops to cause an engine overheat/fire alert? Answer: Temperature Q449: What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve? Answer: DC from Hot Battery Bus Q450: What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD? Answer: MCP SPD Q451: What position should the ignition select switch be in for operations from a manned maintenance station? Answer: Right Q452: What powers the AUTOSLAT system? Answer: is normally powered by Hydraulic System B Q453: What systems can the Standby Hydraulic System power when activated? Answer: Standby yaw damper, LE Flaps and Slats (extend only), Thrust Reversers and the Rudder Q454: What systems need pneumatic power for operation? Answer: Engine starting, Air conditioning/Pressurization, wing and engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurization Q455: What will be displayed in the FMAs if LVL change is selected in descent? (LNAV selected as the roll mode) Answer: RETARD then ARM / LNAV / MCP SPD Q456: What would system B hydraulic fluid indication decrease to, if there was a leak in the standby hydraulic system? Answer: Approximately 72% Q457: When a lavatory fire is detected: Answer: the fire extinguisher operates automatically Q458: When an active database expires in flight: Answer: The expired data base continues to be used until the data base is changed after landing. Q459: When are the NO SMOKING signs illuminated? Answer: The NO SMOKING Signs are illuminated at all times Q460: When Auto is selected, FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs: Answer: illuminate when flap or gear are extended Q461: When below radio altitude minimums, the Rad Alt display on the PFD: Answer: dial perimeter and pointer turn amber and flash for 3 seconds Q462: When both hydraulic pumps for a system are off, the indicated system pressure may read system reservoir pressure, this is normally? Answer: less than 100psi Q463: When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle has not exceeded what angle? Answer: 6 degrees Q464: When does a magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator display show? Answer: The speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with V/S pitch mode engaged Q465: When does the Rad Alt display a digital readout only? Answer: Between 2,500ft AGL and 1,000ft AGL Q466: When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display? Answer: The highest of the other three answers Q467: When is a resolution advisory generated? Answer: When the other aircraft is approx 25 seconds from point of closest approach Q468: When is the "RF" Indication dispayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity? Answer: When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engine shutdown. Q469: When is the descent mode activated if the pressurization mode selector is in the AUTO position? Answer: When the aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT. Q470: When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated? Answer: The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips Q471: When operating on standby power only: Answer: the Captain's PFD and ND will operate Q472: When operating on standby power: Answer: only the CAPT's pitot probe is heated Q473: When operating with normal power sources available, placing the Battery (BAT) Switch to OFF will remove power from: Answer: The battery bus and switched hot battery bus. Q474: When the aircraft batteries are the only source of power: Answer: The Captain's inboard and outboard DUs operate until the battery is discharged. Q475: When the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT: Answer: The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio. Q476: When the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch is selected DOWN: Answer: this fully extends LE devices using standby hydraulic pressure, electrically extends TE flaps. Q477: When the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode: Answer: First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF 2 Q478: When the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF: Answer: The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve both close. Q479: When the gear is down with 3 greens showing on the centre panel: Answer: the gear is down and locked, even if a corresponding landing gear indicator light on the overhead panel is NOT illuminated. Q480: When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, under normal circumstances the landing gear extends by: Answer: all of the above. Q481: When the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open: Answer: manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position. Q482: When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly: Answer: there will be a GPWS 'minimums' callout since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector Q483: When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF (the center position): Answer: The 'STANDBY PWR OFF' light will illuminate (amber) Q484: When the STANDBY POWER switch is selected OFF: Answer: AC standby bus, static inverter, and DC standby bus are not powered. Q485: When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true? Answer: The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet Q486: When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear? Answer: after failure of the number 1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up Q487: When will LNAV automatically disengage? Answer: Reaching a route discontinuity. Q488: When will the deflector doors extend? Answer: On the ground prior to liftoff and after touchdown. Q489: When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system? Answer: When descending 0.25psi below the selected altitude Q490: When will the fuel LOW alert be display? Answer: When the fuel tank quantity is less than 453 kgs in related main tank Q491: Where are the ?Bleed Air? trip sensors located? Answer: Before and after the bleed air valve Q492: Where are the bleed trip sensors installed? Answer: Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve. Q493: Where does air for APU cooling enter? Answer: enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet Q494: Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured? Answer: after passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve Q495: Where is the flight crew oxygen pressure displayed on the flight deck? Answer: On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel Q496: Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A fluid located? Answer: In main fuel tank No.1. Q497: Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference? Answer: THR HLD and ARM Q498: Which are the correct FMA modes, during NADP 2, A/P engaged, before flaps up (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)? Answer: N1 : LNAV : MCP SPD Q499: Which are the indication of an engine FIRE? Answer: The Fire Warning Bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN illuminate and the related Engine Fire switch illuminates. Q500: Which bus is always connected to the main battery? Answer: Hot Battery Bus Q501: Which bus powers the auxiliary battery charger? Answer: AC ground service bus 1 Q502: Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger? Answer: AC ground service bus 2 Q503: Which engines power the Boeing 737-800? Answer: CFM56-7 dual-rotor axial-flow turbofans Q504: Which flight instrument displays are available when the batteries are the only source of power: Answer: Captain's inboard ND and Captain's outboard PFD. Q505: Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers? Answer: System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2 Q506: Which is the ND symbol for a traffic advisory? Answer: Solid amber circle Q507: Which light will illuminate if the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle? Answer: the FAULT light illuminates Q508: Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate? Answer: EMER Q509: Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected during a dual channel A/P approach? Answer: APP Q510: Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF? Answer: closes both spar and engine fuel shutoff valves Q511: Which of the following actions would terminate VNAV? Answer: selecting a different pitch mode Q512: Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck? Answer: Lavatory Fire warning light Q513: Which of the following are not heated? Answer: Static ports Q514: Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system? Answer: Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper. Q515: Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff? Answer: Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE. Q516: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation? Answer: It opens to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 if the BUS TRANSFER Switch is moved to OFF. Q517: Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green? Answer: the thrust reverser is deployed Q518: Which of the following statements would cause the EEC to automatically turn off ignition, and shut of fuel to the engine when the EGT display box and dial turn red? Answer: the EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts Q519: Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn? Answer: Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever in the down position. Q520: Which of these conditions would cause FCCs to control their respective flight director modes (neither autopilot engaged in command)? Answer: GA mode engaged and below 400ft RA Q521: Which of these could cause a steady RED AUTOPILOT indicator light? Answer: ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go?around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation Q522: Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator? Answer: Maximum pressure of 3500 psi. Q523: Which one of these will cause the autopilot to disconnect? Answer: All of the other answers are correct Q524: Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails? Answer: The flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid. Q525: Which statement is correct in relation to the APU fuel supply: Answer: If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from the No. 1 tank. During APU operation, fuel is automatically heated to prevent icing. Q526: Which statement is correct regarding ground operations of the electric-driven hydraulic pumps? Answer: A minimum of 760kg of fuel must be present in the related main tank Q527: Which statement is correct regarding the APU Bleed Air Valve: Answer: The APU bleed air valve is DC controlled and pressure operated Q528: Which statement is correct regarding the supply of bleed air from the APU: Answer: The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for two packs on the ground, or one pack in flight Q529: Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT? Answer: The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio. Q530: Which statement is NOT true with regard to the lavatory smoke detection system? Answer: If the lavatory smoke detection system is actiated, lavatory fire extinguisher system activates automatically. Q531: Which statement is true regarding aileron trim? Answer: If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale. Q532: Which statement is true? Answer: rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends Q533: Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering? Answer: System A. Q534: Which systems use engine bleed air for operation? Answer: Engine starting, Air con/Press, Wing and Engine anti-ice, Hydraulic and water tanks pressurization. Q535: Which turbine stages supply air to the bleed air systems? Answer: 5th and 9th stages Q536: Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON? Answer: L1 only Q537: While flying an ILS approach, to inhibit a BELOW G/S alert: Answer: Push the BELOW G/S light (so that the alert will be inhibited below 1,000 feet radio altimeter). Q538: While making a no engine bleed takeoff with the APU operating, an engine failure occurs. When should the engine BLEED Air Switches be positioned to ON? Answer: When reaching 1500 feet AGL or until obstacle clearance height is reached. Q539: While performing the APPROACH checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall, this indicates: Answer: a problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight Q540: Whilst on the ground with WING ANTI-ICE selected ON, advancing the thrust levers to the take-off setting will cause: Answer: both wing anti-ice control valves close and the WING ANTI-ICE switch remains in the ON position Q541: Whith the Captain's ACP operating is in degraded mode, at that station: Answer: Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard Q542: Why are mechanical gates installed on the flap selector unit? Answer: To hinder inadvertent flap lever movement beyond Flaps 1 and Flaps 15 during a go-around Q543: Will the APU automatic shutdown protection occur with an APU Fire and the APU Detection Inoperative? Answer: No Q544: With a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around, what are the correct FMAs (Thrust : Roll : Pitch)? Note: assume for aircraft Tab numbers YA573 through YW058 Answer: G/A : (blank) : TO/GA Q545: With ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when would automatic ignition will occur? Answer: rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM and engine start lever isin IDLE Q546: With loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally): Answer: Main and Standby Yaw Dampers are not available. Q547: With pack switches set to AUTO, if one pack fails, when does the remaining pack provide high air flow: Answer: when the aircraft is in flight with flaps retracted Q548: With TCAS, proximate traffic: Answer: is within 6 miles and 1200ft vertically Q549: With the AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to RTO, autobraking is initiated: Answer: when wheel speed is 90 knots or more and the thrust levers are retarded to IDLE Q550: With the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station: Answer: Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard. Q551: With the engine running at stabilised idle, what drives the accessory gearbox? Answer: the N2 rotor Q552: With the Manual Extension Access Door open: Answer: manual landing gear extension is possible with the Landing Gear Lever in any position. Q553: With the Multifunction Display Switch (MFD) in SYS, the lower DU shows: Answer: hydraulic pressure and quantity only Q554: With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU electrical power will cause the AC standby bus to be powered from the batteries via the static inverter and the DC standby bus to be powered directly from the batteries: Answer: both in the air and on the ground Q555: With the temperature control placed in the ?OFF? position, the pack controls maintain a fixed temperature of: Answer: Left pack 24 ? Right pack 18 Q556: With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true? Answer: the isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position Q557: Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden: Answer: by either trim or rudder pedals inputs Q558: ZONE TEMP amber light illumination for CONT CAB indicates: Answer: A duct temperature overheat or failure of both flight deck primary and standby temperature controlle Q559: A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and '- 07'. This means: Answer: The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm Q560: After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude? Answer: 800 feet above Field Elevation. Q561: Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kg, of fuel in the No. 1 main tank and 3060 kg, of fuel in the No. 2 main tank. You will see: Answer: an amber IMBAL indication below main tank No 1, fuel quantity arc and digits on tank also turn amber Q562: An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is and indication of: Answer: The captain's and first officer's altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds. Q563: At what approximate altitude will both A/P's automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach? Answer: 350 feet RA Q564: During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated? Answer: 50 feet. Q565: Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened if the windspeed exceeds: Answer: 40 knots Q566: For ground service, a GROUND SERVICE SWITCH is located: Answer: on forward attendant´s panel. Q567: For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks? Answer: 453 Kgs Q568: Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the: Answer: Left side of the fuel manifold. Q569: If GROSS WT is not available from the FMC, the APPROACH REF page will be: Answer: box prompts Q570: If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch limit indicator: Answer: Stick shaker activates for existing flight condition. Q571: If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown in the roll section of the FMAs? Answer: CWS R in amber below the roll FMA. Q572: If the forward thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown: Answer: the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate Q573: Illumination (blue) of the APU GEN OFF BUS Light means the: Answer: APU is running and not powering a bus Q574: Illumination (blue) of the Ground Power Available (GRD POWER AVAILABLE) Light indicates: Answer: ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards Q575: In flight the Predictive Windshear Warning Alert system: Answer: will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft Q576: In the event of an elevator jam, an override mechanism allows: Answer: The control columns to be physically separated. Q577: In the unlikely situation of total generator failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration may occur. Why? Answer: The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause dissolved air released from the fuel to restrict fuel flow in the suction feed line Q578: In what mode will a TCAS traffic alert message automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF? Answer: In MAP, centre MAP, PLAN or APP modes Q579: In-flight, the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for mai tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine? Answer: It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps Q580: In-flight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine? Answer: it receives fuel by suction feed via the bypass valve in tank No.1 Q581: Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU: Answer: on the ground or in flight Q582: Once activated, a PSU oxygen supply: Answer: flows for approximately 12 minutes Q583: Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch set to STANDBY: Answer: does not require the BAT switch to be ON Q584: The ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch selected to ARM: Answer: Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve Q585: The APU generator can supply both transfer busses: Answer: on the ground or in flight Q586: The BLEED TRIP OFF light: Answer: Indicates excessive engine bleed air pressure or temperature. Q587: The call system from flight deck to cabin operates: Answer: pink call lights and a two-tone chime Q588: The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when: Answer: the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full Q589: The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased: Answer: Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft on ground with parking brake ON Q590: The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch illuminated and the ON indication remaining visible. What would cause the EEC to change to Hard Alternate mode? Answer: Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch on the aft overhead panel Q591: The ENG ANTI-ICE switch are positioned to ON in flight. The stall warning logic: Answer: Adjusts stick shaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on the airspeed indicator. Q592: The flight crew oxygen system usesauto pressure breathing masks/regulators with pressure breathing starting at: Answer: 27,000 feet Q593: The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page is: Answer: total fuel onboard, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system Q594: The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced. What is the aircraft's condition? Answer: On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting Flap 30 with any gear not down and locked Q595: The position trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on the ND in modes MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With the range set greater than 20 nm, each segment represents: Answer: predicts position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals Q596: The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of hydraulic power for the Autoslat System if: Answer: a loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine-driven pump is sensed. Q597: Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to op erate specific equipment. The PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist? Answer: Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine?driven hydraulic pump drops below limits Q598: Up to how long might the APU start cycle take? Answer: 120 seconds Q599: What is correct about the colour on the terrain display? Answer: Solid red - look ahead terrain warning is active Q600: What is the indication of the Crossfeed VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed? Answer: illuminated bright blue Q601: What is the maximum thrust reduction authorized below any certified rating? Answer: 25% Q602: What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn? Answer: 24.3M Q603: What is the wingspan of a wingleted aircraft? Answer: 35.79M Q604: When an active navigation database expires in flight: Answer: The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing. Q605: When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle is: Answer: 6 degrees or less Q606: When will the low fuel warning be activated? Answer: When the fuel tank quantity is below 453kgs in related main tank Q607: Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach? Answer: APP Q608: Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck? Answer: Lavatory Fire warning light Q609: which of the following anunciator are NOT fitted on the flight deck? Answer: Lavatory Fire warning ligth Q610: Which statement is correct: Answer: Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greather than the the 5th stage alone can supply. Q611: What is the result if one pack fails in-flight? Answer: The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41.000 feet. Q612: If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled? Answer: The Standby Pack Controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones. Q613: When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing? Answer: An average temperature for the two cabin zones. Q614: Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located? Answer: Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam. Q615: What is the result if all temperarue zone selectors are positioned to OFF? Answer: Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and the right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade. Q616: Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 10 of the high pressure compressor. Answer: False Q617: Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both shutoff and pressure regulating valve. Answer: 1 Q618: Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhaused through toilet and galley vents. Answer: 1 Q619: The packs pruduce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature. Answer: 1 Q620: The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert. Answer: False Q621: After peressin the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression System has been fully activated? Answer: Up to 30 seconds. Q622: How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo Compartments? Answer: 1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold. Q623: The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means? Answer: Detecting smoke only. Q624: What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch? Answer: Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve, and isolates EDP low pressure light, disables thrust reverser, arms on Squib on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right. Q625: How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced? Answer: Pushing the Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protectin panel Q626: What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate? Answer: Fire extinguisher continuity normal. Q627: The picture below shows that there is a fault in the left engine Overheat/Fire Detection loops. How would you determine which of the 2 loops had failed? Answer: Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B Q628: How might it be possible to determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged? Answer: Discharge nozzle changed colour from black to grey; Temperature indicator placard in lavatory changes colour from white to black Q629: As well as using the DISCH switch on the Fire Protection panel in the Flight Deck, an APU fire can be extinguished by discharging the APU fire extinguisher using the APU Ground Control Panel (shown below), which is located in a quick release access panel immediately forward and below the APU Answer: False Q630: Boeing provide the ption for 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted, one is a rapid discharge bottle which is fully discarged immediately upon pressing the DISCH switch on the Cargo Fire Panel, the second bottle is a slow discharge bottle that is released 1 minute after the discharge of the first bottle, and discharges slowly over several minutes to provide a total of 195 minutes of fire suppression in the cargo hold. This second slow discharge bottle is NOT fitted in any Ryanair B737-800 aircraft. Answer: 1 Q631: The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the down position and can only be pulled up, when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated. Answer: False Q632: The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s). Answer: 1 Q633: The engines and APU have fire extinguisher systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems. Answer: False Q634: The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct? Answer: There are two pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1 psi Q635: If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed? Answer: Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B Q636: True or false - "The APU fire bottle can be discharged by operating the switch on the APU Ground Control Panel even if the APU Fire Control handle has not been pulled down". Answer: False Q637: If you transmit on VHF2 for 60 seconds continuosly, what will happen? Answer: The ACP will automatically revert to receive mode after 35 seconds Q638: If an Audion Control Panel is operating in degraded mode, will a WINDSHEAR alert be heard through the headset on that channel on an 8200 aircraft? Answer: Yes. Q639: How can you improve the reception range of the VHF radios? Answer: Press the test switch on the Radio Tuning Panel Q640: How do you enable the aircraft to send and receive CPDLC data? Answer: Turn the frequency knob on the RTP for VHF3 unit DATA appears and then transfer to the active window Q641: Certain types of incident will require you to pull the CVR circuit breaker to preserve the recorded data. Where would you find a listg of such incident? Answer: Operations Manual Part A Q642: After unsucesfully trying to contact ATC for start clearance you notice the digital displays are blank on your Radio Tuning Panel and the OFF button is illuminated. What is the problem and how would you resolve it? Answer: The RTP switch is switched OFF. Press OFF to power it back on again Q643: In the event of failure of both GPS receivers, in addition to the GPS L INVALID and GPS R INVALID messages on the scratchpad, what other indications will you see? Answer: TERR POS on ND Q644: In normal operation, what are the power supplies for the Left and Right IRS? Answer: Left IRS is fed by the AC Standby BUS, the Right IRS is fed by AC Transfer BUS 2 Q645: When AC power is lost and both IRSs are operating on DC power, for how long will each IRS operate? Answer: The Right IRS will operate for 5 minutes, the Left IRS will operate for as long as battery power is available Q646: What does an amber FAULT light mean on IRS panel? Answer: The IRS computed latitude does not match the entered latitude Q647: What will cause the ANP scales to expand out to the centre and turn amber? Answer: The ANP is equal to RNP. The bars turn amber once the deviation is within the ANP bar limit for 5 continuos seconds Q648: In addition to ON DC light, what other indications is there that the IRSs are operating on DC power? Answer: On the ground, the Ground Call Horn will sound. Q649: How are flight crew alerted that the current position and heading will not allow LNAN engagement? Answer: The FMC will display the message NOT ON INTERCEPT HEADING Q650: If power to the FMC is lost for more than 10 seconds in flight whilst using VNAV and LNAV what will you need to do once power the the FMC is restored? Answer: Ensure that the appropriate Autothrottle, Roll and Pitch modes are engaged and select the active waypoint Q651: What would be the most likely cause of the following indications in flight? Answer: Failure of the left FMC Q652: In a VNAV descent what would be the risk associated with setting the missed approach altitude when within less than 300ft of the MAA? Answer: May cause enagagement of ALT ACQ Q653: What are the LNAV engagement criteria within 3 miles of the active route? Answer: The aircraft can be on any heading Q654: What are the LNAV engagement criteria w

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