1. The leading cause of death and disability in children and young adults is: A) unintentional injuries. B) cancer. C) heart disease. D) homicide. 2. First aid is intended to: A) t... 1. The leading cause of death and disability in children and young adults is: A) unintentional injuries. B) cancer. C) heart disease. D) homicide. 2. First aid is intended to: A) take the place of medical treatment. B) provide care until the prognosis is known. C) only take care of injuries for which medical care is not needed. D) provide temporary help until proper medical care, if needed, is obtained. 3. Properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between: A) life and death. B) rapid recovery and long hospitalization. C) temporary disability and permanent injury. D) All of the above. 4. Consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is: A) responsive. B) mentally competent. C) of legal age. D) All of the above. 5. If the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is known as: A) actual consent. B) expressed consent. C) implied consent. D) legal consent. 6. In cases of psychiatric emergencies, who has authority to restrain and transport a person against the person’s will? A) A medical physician B) A paramedic C) A first aider D) A police officer 7. Deviating from accepted standards of care that results in further injury to the victim is known as: A) abandonment. B) negligence. C) carelessness. D) battery. 8. Duty to act, breach of duty (substandard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all factors involved in: A) negligence. B) abandonment. C) breach of duty. D) assault or battery. 9. Which of the following statements concerning Good Samaritan laws is true? A) They guarantee legal protection for the first aider. B) They make litigation against the first aider impossible. C) They protect the first aider no matter what type of care was given. D) They protect first aiders acting in good faith. 10. ______________ encourage(s) people to assist others in distress by granting them immunity against lawsuits. A) First aid training B) Continuing education C) Good Samaritan laws D) Published guidelines 11. If a victim refuses first aid treatment, the first aid responder should: A) perform first aid anyway. B) leave the victim because he or she has refused help. C) call 9-1-1 and stay with the victim until help arrives. D) None of the above. 12. Who usually recognizes a situation as an emergency and acts to help the victim? A) A police officer B) A firefighter C) A bystander D) A paramedic 13. Why are laypersons less likely to offer help when an emergency occurs in a public place? A) Lack of knowledge B) Confusion about what an emergency is C) Characteristics of the emergency D) All of the above. 14. What is the first action a bystander should take in an emergency? A) Decide to help. B) Contact EMS, if needed. C) Recognize the emergency. D) Provide first aid. 15. Someone must call 9-1-1 if you are unsure of the victim’s condition, if the victim’s condition is life threatening or could become life threatening, or: A) the victim needs the skill and equipment of EMS. B) a spinal injury is suspected. C) distance or traffic could delay getting to the hospital. D) All of the above. 16. In a serious situation, who should you call first? A) Your doctor B) The hospital C) 9-1-1 D) Neighbors 17. When calling 9-1-1, which of the following information should be given to the EMS dispatch? A) The victim’s location and condition B) Number of persons involved C) Your name and the phone number you are calling from D) All of the above. 18. A stressful event can be psychologically overwhelming and can result in a condition known as: A) social anxiety disorder. B) post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) phobic disorder. 19. What should the rescuer look for during the scene size-up? A) Hazards that could be dangerous to the rescuer, the victim(s), or bystanders B) The mechanism or cause of injury C) The number of victims D) All of the above. 20. Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes: A) exam gloves. B) mouth-to-barrier devices. C) eye protection. D) All of the above. 21. The most common type of personal protective equipment available for first aiders to protect against bloodborne pathogens is: A) a surgical mask. B) gloves. C) protective eyewear. D) gowns. 22. The first aider should leave the confirmation of death to: A) a physician. B) a paramedic. C) a police officer. D) a firefighter. 23. If the oxygen supply of the body is cut off, death will occur in about ________ minutes. A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 4 C) 4 to 6 D) 8 to 10 24. Oxygen from air is made available to the blood through the ________ and then to the body cells by the circulatory system. A) endocrine system B) gastrointestinal system C) respiratory system D) central nervous system 25. An unresponsive person is at risk for suffocation because: A) normal swallowing controls will not operate. B) liquid in the windpipe may cause suffocation. C) foreign objects, such as false teeth, may cause suffocation. D) All of the above. 26. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place in the ________. A) nose B) windpipe C) alveoli D) stomach 27. The process of breathing out is called ________. A) inhalation B) exhalation C) circulation D) respiration 28. Which of the following statements is true concerning infants and children? A) Infants and children have smaller respiratory structures than adults do. B) Infants’ and children’s respiratory structures are more easily obstructed than are those of adults. C) Cardiac arrest in children usually results from respiratory arrest. D) All of the above. 29. The average rate of breathing in an adult at rest is ________ breaths per minute. A) 5 to 10 B) 12 to 20 C) 15 to 20 D) 20 to 30 30. The average rate of breathing in a child at rest is ________ breaths per minute. A) 5 to 10 B) 12 to 20 C) 15 to 30 D) 40 to 50 31. The average rate of breathing in an infant at rest is ________ breaths per minute. A) 5 to 10 B) 12 to 20 C) 15 to 30 D) 25 to 50 32. Signs of inadequate breathing include which of the following? A) An abnormal breathing rate B) Pale or blue-gray skin C) Cool and clammy skin D) All of the above. 33. Cyanosis would cause what kind of skin color? A) Blue-gray B) Pink C) Red D) Green 34. The ________ is made of the blood, the heart, and the blood vessels. A) respiratory system B) circulatory system C) endocrine system D) digestive system 35. The heart is located behind the ________. A) sternum B) lungs C) stomach D) kidneys 36. The normal heart rate for adults is ________ beats per minute. A) 60 to 100 B) 80 to 100 C) 100 to 120 D) 120 to 140 37. Which blood vessels carry blood back to the heart? A) Arteries B) Veins C) Capillaries D) None of the above. 38. Each time the heart contracts, the surge of blood can be felt as a ________. A) pulse B) blood pressure C) muscular twitch D) All of the above. 39. Which of the following is the major artery of the neck? A) Femoral B) Carotid C) Radial D) Brachial 40. Which artery should be used to check the pulse of an unconscious victim? A) Femoral B) Carotid C) Radial D) Brachial 41. Which of the following arteries should be used to check the pulse of an infant? A) Femoral B) Carotid C) Radial D) Brachial 42. What transports food materials to the body cells and waste materials to organs for elimination? A) Plasma B) Red blood cells C) Platelets D) White blood cells 43. Which portion of blood carries oxygen to the organs? A) White blood cells B) Red blood cells C) Platelets D) None of the above. 44. Which portion of blood defends against bacteria? A) White blood cells B) Red blood cells C) Platelets D) None of the above. 45. ________ refers to the circulation of blood through an organ or a structure. A) Perfusion B) Hemorrhage C) Hypoperfusion D) Hyperperfusion 46. Hemorrhage is the term for: A) inadequate circulation. B) profuse bleeding. C) fainting. D) severe heat loss. 47. Inadequate circulation is known as ________. A) hyperperfusion, or shock B) hypoperfusion, or shock C) hemorrhage D) None of the above. 48. Which organs are part of the central nervous system? A) The brain and heart B) The heart and lungs C) The spinal cord and heart D) The brain and spinal cord 49. An injury to the lumbar spine causes paralysis and loss of sensation in the: A) arms. B) legs. C) chest. D) stomach. 50. The flat, narrow bone in the middle of the front wall of the chest is known as: A) the thorax. B) the femur. C) the scapula. D) the sternum. 51. Which kind of muscle is a specialized form found only in the heart? A) Skeletal B) Smooth C) Cardiac D) None of the above. 52. A victim’s level of responsiveness or mental status can be described according to the ________ scale. A) AVPU B) ABCD C) HELP D) PAIN 53. The A in AVPU stands for: A) airway. B) alert. C) awake. D) asleep. 54. The U in AVPU stands for: A) unresponsive. B) unresponsive only to painful stimuli. C) unresponsive to any stimulus. D) unresponsive to verbal commands. 55. For an alert, responsive victim, you can evaluate his or her ability to remember by asking: A) person, place, time, and event. B) who, what, where, and why. C) who, what, when, and where. D) person, time, where, and why. 56. For an unresponsive victim, call: A) your doctor. B) a family member. C) a close friend. D) 9-1-1. 57. Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim? A) Head tilt-chin lift B) Head tilt-neck lift C) Head tilt-jaw lift D) None of the above. 58. Which of the following indicates a breathing problem? A) Snoring B) Gurgling C) Wheezing D) All of the above. 59. When checking for severe bleeding, search the: A) victim’s entire body—head to toe. B) floor or ground for pooling blood. C) victim’s clothing. D) All of the above. 60. If the unresponsive victim is breathing, the best position for the victim is: A) on the back. B) on the stomach. C) on the side. D) sitting up. 61. A secondary assessment of an adult assesses the victim’s entire body from: A) toe to head. B) side to side. C) head to toe. D) None of the above. 62. Something that the first aider sees, hears, or feels is: A) a sign. B) a symptom. C) a diagnosis. D) a suspicion. 63. Which of the following is a sign? A) Numbness B) Moist skin C) Dizziness D) Pain 64. Something that the victim tells the first aider about is: A) a sign. B) a symptom. C) a diagnosis. D) a suspicion. 65. Which of the following is a symptom? A) Rapid pulse B) Dilated pupils C) Nausea D) Red face 66. Abnormal skin temperature feels: A) hot. B) cool or cold. C) clammy. D) All of the above. 67. Which of the following should be checked when assessing the victim’s skin condition? A) Skin color B) Skin temperature C) Skin moisture D) All of the above. 68. Using the mnemonic ________ can help you collect the victim’s history. A) PEARL B) HELP C) PAIN D) SAMPLE 69. ________ occurs when heart muscle tissue dies because its blood supply is severely reduced or stopped. A) Heart attack B) Angina C) High blood pressure D) Stroke 70. What is the leading cause of death in the United States? A) Stroke B) Cardiac arrest C) Trauma from motor vehicle accidents D) Drug overdose 71. At the same time you check for responsiveness, you should look at the victim to see whether he or she ________. A) has a pulse B) is breathing C) is choking D) All of the above. 72. If an unresponsive victim is not breathing or only gasping, the first aider should first: A) call 911. B) open the airway. C) perform rescue breathing. D) give CPR. 73. For effective chest compressions during CPR, the rescuer should: A) push hard and push fast. B) push lightly and push fast. C) push lightly and push slowly. D) push hard and push slowly. 74. CPR by a layperson is needed: A) for every heart attack victim. B) when the victim is not breathing. C) when the victim complains about chest pain. D) when the victim is unresponsive. 75. During CPR, the rescuer gives: A) rescue breathing. B) chest compressions. C) chest compressions and rescue breathing. D) None of the above. 76. If alone with an unresponsive child or infant victim, the rescuer should: A) activate EMS as soon as it’s determined the victim is unresponsive. B) stay with the victim until someone else arrives. C) provide care for 2 minutes, and then call 911. D) shout for help, and if no one comes quickly, activate EMS. 77. When performing chest compressions on an adult victim, the hands are placed: A) over the notch at the bottom of the sternum. B) at the center of the chest. C) over the middle of the sternum. D) over the upper half of the sternum. 78. When performing adult CPR, how many compressions should be given? A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 30 79. When performing chest compressions on an adult victim, the sternum should be depressed: A) 0.5 to 1 inch. B) 1 to 1.5 inches. C) 1.5 to 2 inches. D) at least 2 inches or 1/3rd the depth of the chest. 80. At what point would you stop performing adult CPR and check for circulation? A) When an AED becomes available B) When EMS personnel take over C) When you are too tired to continue D) All of the above. 81. After initiating CPR, you stop to check circulation again: A) after each minute. B) every few minutes. C) after every five cycles. D) You do not need to stop and check the pulse. 82. When giving rescue breaths to an infant, you should: A) form an airtight seal around the infant’s mouth. B) form an airtight seal around the infant’s nose. C) form an airtight seal around the infant’s mouth and nose. D) All of the above. 83. When giving chest compressions to an infant, place two fingers: A) one fingerbreadth above the nipple line. B) one fingerbreadth below the nipple line. C) on the center of the chest, just below the nipple line. D) None of the above. 84. When performing infant CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of: A) 40 to 50 compressions per minute. B) 50 to 80 compressions per minute. C) 80 to 100 compressions per minute. D) at least 100 compressions per minute. 85. When performing chest compressions on an infant, the sternum should be depressed: A) 0.5 to 1 inch. B) 1 to 1.5 inches. C) about 1.5 inches or 1/3rd the depth of the chest. D) one third to half the depth of the chest. 86. When performing chest compressions on a child, the sternum should be depressed: A) 0.5 to 1 inch. B) 1 to 1.5 inches. C) 1.5 to 2 inches. D) about 2 inches or 1/3rd the depth of the chest. 87. To perform chest compressions on a child: A) use two hands. B) use one or two hands. C) use two fingers. D) None of the above. 88. When performing child CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of: A) 60 compressions per minute. B) 80 compressions per minute. C) at least 100 compressions per minute. D) 120 compressions per minute. 89. When giving rescue breaths to a child, each breath should last approximately ________. A) 1 second B) 1 to 2 seconds C) 1.5 to 2 seconds D) 2 to 2.5 seconds 90. The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing child CPR is: A) 15 compressions to 2 breaths. B) 15 compressions to 1 breath. C) 30 compressions to 2 breaths. D) 30 compressions to 1 breath. 91. The signs of a severe airway obstruction may include: A) difficulty breathing. B) weak and ineffective cough. C) inability to speak or breathe. D) All of the above. 92. When giving abdominal thrusts to a choking victim, where should you position your hands? A) On the middle of the sternum B) In the middle of the abdomen, just above the navel C) In the middle of the abdomen, just below the navel D) None of the above. 93. How many abdominal thrusts should be given to a responsive choking victim? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) As many as are needed to remove the obstruction or until the victim becomes unresponsive 94. If the choking victim is extremely obese or in an advanced stage of pregnancy: A) chest thrust should be applied. B) place hands in the middle of the abdomen, just above the navel. C) place hands in the middle of the abdomen, just below the navel. D) None of the above. 95. Responsive choking in infants is managed through a sequence of: A) abdominal thrusts. B) thrusts, sweeps, breaths. C) chest thrusts, back blows. D) back blows, chest thrusts. 96. The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive victim is: A) foreign bodies. B) vomit. C) the tongue. D) swelling. 97. Before using an AED: A) give CPR until the AED is ready to be used. B) position it next to the victim. C) turn on the AED. D) All of the above. 98. When adequate blood and oxygen are provided to all cells in different tissues and organs in the body, this is called ________. A) diffusion B) occlusion C) perfusion D) hypofusion 99. Shock occurs when body parts do not receive adequate: A) water. B) hormones. C) oxygenated blood. D) nutrients. 100. Without oxygen, the brain will start to be damaged irreparably in ________ minutes. A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 4 to 6 D) 10 to 15 101. Without oxygen, the skin and muscle cells will start to be damaged irreparably in ________ minutes. A) 4 to 6 B) 10 to 20 C) 45 to 90 D) 180 to 360 102. The Perfusion Triangle includes: A) heart, lungs, liver. B) heart, blood vessels, blood. C) heart, kidneys, liver. D) heart, lungs, brain. 103. Hypovolemic shock results from: A) the loss of a significant amount of fluid. B) damage to the nervous system. C) damage to blood vessels. D) failure of the heart to pump sufficient blood. 104. Septic shock develops in some victims with: A) bacterial infection. B) damage to the nervous system. C) significant fluid loss. D) failure of the heart to pump sufficient blood. 105. Anaphylactic shock: A) is a massive allergic reaction. B) is a mild allergic reaction. C) is not life-threatening. D) is the least serious form of shock. 106. Sensitive persons may experience anaphylaxis from exposure to: A) medications. B) foods. C) insect stings. D) All of the above. 107. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? A) Intense itching B) Flushed skin C) Hives D) All of the above. 108. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? A) Swelling in the face, tongue, and lips B) Bluish lips (cyanosis) C) Sneezing, coughing, wheezing D) All of the above. 109. The early stage of shock is called: A) terminal. B) decompensated. C) compensated. D) None of the above. 110. The late stage of shock is called: A) terminal. B) decompensated. C) compensated. D) None of the above. 111. The final stage of shock is called: A) terminal. B) decompensated. C) compensated. D) None of the above. 112. First aid for anaphylactic shock includes which of the following? A) Emergency transport to a medical facility B) Transporting the victim in a half-sitting position C) Determining if the victim has an emergency epinephrine kit D) All of the above. 113. Rapid blood loss of ____ quart(s) or more in an adult can lead to shock and death. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 114. How much blood loss is extremely dangerous for a child? A) One fourth pint B) One half pint C) One pint D) One quart 115. The term ________ refers to a large amount of bleeding in a short time. A) hematoma B) contusion C) hemorrhage D) None of the above. 116. In ________ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound. A) arterial B) venous C) capillary D) None of the above. 117. Which is the most serious type of bleeding? A) Arterial B) Venous C) Capillary D) None of the above. 118. Which type of bleeding produces the fastest blood loss and is the most difficult to control? A) Arterial B) Venous C) Capillary D) None of the above. 119. Blood from ________ flows steadily or gushes. A) arteries B) veins C) capillaries D) None of the above. 120. What type of bleeding is the most common, is usually not serious, and is easily controlled? A) Arterial B) Venous C) Capillary D) None of the above. Read more