Pneumonia in Special Populations
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following pathogens is NOT associated with pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?

  • Aspergillus
  • Mycobacterium avium complex
  • CMV
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae (correct)
  • What is the most sensitive and specific symptom of pneumonia?

  • Fever
  • Dyspnea
  • Cough
  • Tachypnea (correct)
  • Which clinical manifestation is the first sign of pneumonia in infants?

  • Dyspnea
  • Fever
  • Cough
  • Apnea (correct)
  • In older toddlers, which of the following respiratory symptoms is typically associated with pneumonia?

    <p>Fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What respiratory rate indicates a severe infection in infants?

    <p>RR &gt; 70</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical manifestation of premature neonates?

    <p>Disproportionately large head</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which complication is NOT associated with premature neonates?

    <p>Enhanced immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is primarily used to prevent bronchopulmonary dysplasia in ventilatory-dependent preterm neonates?

    <p>Corticosteroids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the immature immune system in premature neonates is true?

    <p>It increases the tendency for infections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a result of the immature reflexes in premature neonates?

    <p>Social interaction difficulties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is classified as a muscarinic antagonist used in the treatment of asthma?

    <p>Ipratropium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes glomerular hematuria when observed under phase contrast microscopy?

    <p>Dysmorphic RBCs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication may be administered intravenously during a management plan for status asthmaticus?

    <p>Magnesium sulfate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the classification of hematuria, which type is characterized by the presence of visible blood?

    <p>Macroscopic hematuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs is an example of a leukotriene modifier used in asthma management?

    <p>Zafirlukast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of non-glomerular hematuria?

    <p>Bleeding disorders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is NOT used in the management of status asthmaticus?

    <p>Zileuton</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum number of red blood cells (RBCs) per visual field that defines hematuria?

    <p>5 RBCs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition poses the highest risk when a mother has blood group O and the child has blood group A or B?

    <p>ABO incompatibility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of Rhesus incompatibility, what is produced by the mother after exposure to the Rh-positive fetal blood?

    <p>IgM antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common prenatal diagnosis technique used to determine hydrops fetalis?

    <p>Doppler sonography</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical feature is specifically expected in cases of Rh incompatibility?

    <p>Hydrops fetalis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is specifically used during the prenatal period for managing severe hemolytic disease?

    <p>Intrauterine blood transfusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by a positive Coombs test in the case of Rh incompatibility?

    <p>Presence of maternal IgG antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key aspect of screening for Rh-negative mothers during pregnancy?

    <p>Screening for anti-D antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common postnatal treatment for hyperbilirubinemia in newborns?

    <p>Phototherapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory findings on arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis indicate type 1 respiratory failure?

    <p>Decreased pCO2, increased pH, decreased pO2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a non-specific management approach for asthma?

    <p>Avoiding triggers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the treatment of asthma, what is the primary role of short-acting beta-2 agonists?

    <p>To provide immediate bronchospasm relief</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What skin test is commonly used to assess allergic asthma?

    <p>Skin prick testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is asthma management structured for children?

    <p>Step-by-step approach based on symptom control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the focus of long-term relievers in asthma treatment?

    <p>Controlling inflammation and improving overall asthma control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication class is primarily used for acute asthma attacks?

    <p>Short-acting beta-2 agonists</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a patient's asthma control test score indicate?

    <p>Overall control of asthma symptoms over the past four weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diameter of induration in a PPD test is considered positive for immunosuppressed individuals?

    <blockquote> <p>5mm</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test does NOT produce false positives in tuberculosis diagnosis?

    <p>Interferon gamma release assay (IGRA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis?

    <p>Rifampin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum duration for the intensive phase of drug therapy in active tuberculosis?

    <p>6 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common side effect of Isoniazid?

    <p>Hepatotoxicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment option is effective against latent tuberculosis infections?

    <p>Isoniazid for 6 months OR Isoniazid + Rifampicin for 3 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the Xpert MTB/RIF test in tuberculosis diagnosis?

    <p>It indicates the presence of TB and drug sensitivity in less than 2 hours.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition may lead to a false negative result in a tuberculin skin test?

    <p>Immunosuppression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Pneumonia in Immunocompromised Patients

    • Mycobacterium avium complex, Aspergillus, CMV, and Pneumocystis jiroveci are common causes of pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals.

    Pneumonia in Cystic Fibrosis Patients

    • Staphylococcus aureus (infants) and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (older patients) are frequent causes of pneumonia in cystic fibrosis.

    Clinical Manifestations of Pneumonia

    • Neonates: Fever or hypoxia might be the only symptoms, with minimal or absent physical signs.
    • Infants: Apnea can be the first sign.
    • Toddlers and older children: Fever, chills, rapid breathing, cough, malaise, chest retractions, and shortness of breath are more common.
    • Viral pneumonia: Often associated with cough, wheezing, stridor, and less prominent fever.
    • Bacterial pneumonia: Typically presents with higher fever, chills, cough, dyspnea, crackles on auscultation, and possible conjunctivitis (infants).
    • General symptoms: Shortness of breath, chest pain, cough (productive or non-productive), fever (HR increases ~10 bpm per 1°C increase), rapid breathing (a sensitive and specific symptom). Severe infection is indicated by:
      • Newborn: Respiratory rate (RR) > 60 (RR > 70 severe)
      • Infant: RR > 50 (RR > 70 severe)
      • Toddler: RR > 40 (RR > 50 severe)
      • Older child: RR > 20 (RR > 50 severe)
    • Associated symptoms: Abdominal pain, rash (viral), headache, lethargy, pharyngitis, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, eye involvement (consider Chlamydia).

    Etiology of ABO/Rh Incompatibility

    • ABO incompatibility: Highest risk is a mother with blood type O and a child with blood type A or B. Maternal antibodies (anti-A and/or anti-B) are present even without prior sensitization.
    • Rh incompatibility: Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive child. Maternal exposure to fetal blood results in IgM antibody production against the Rh antigen. Subsequent pregnancies with Rh-positive children expose the mother to rapid IgG anti-D antibody production, leading to hemolytic anemia (HDFN) and hydrops fetalis risk.

    Clinical Features of ABO/Rh Incompatibility

    • Prenatal: Hydrops fetalis (only in Rh incompatibility).
    • Postnatal: Neonatal anemia, hepatosplenomegaly, neonatal jaundice, hypoxia.

    Diagnosis of ABO/Rh Incompatibility

    • Prenatal: Ultrasound (hydrops fetalis), Doppler sonography (fetal anemia).
    • Postnatal: Coombs test (positive in Rh incompatibility; weak-positive or negative in ABO).

    Treatment of ABO/Rh Incompatibility

    • Prenatal: Intrauterine blood transfusion.
    • Postnatal: Anemia (iron supplements, transfusions), hyperbilirubinemia (phototherapy), severe cases involve IV immunoglobulin (IVIG).

    Prevention of ABO/Rh Incompatibility

    • Screening: ABO and Rh(D) typing of the mother. Rh-negative mothers require anti-D antibody screening, and monitoring (amniocentesis/imaging) for hemolysis in sensitized mothers. Postpartum hemorrhage in Rh-negative mothers require consideration of anti-D prophylaxis.

    Tuberculosis Diagnosis

    • PPD (Tuberculin Skin Test):

      • 5mm: Positive in immunosuppressed/HIV patients

      • 10mm: Positive in high-risk reactivation patients

      • 15mm: Positive, always consider, even without risk factors.

      • False-positive: BCG vaccination, non-TB mycobacterial infection
      • False-negative: Immunosuppression.
    • IGRA (Interferon Gamma Release Assay): ELISA measuring IFN-γ from T-cells exposed to synthetic TB peptides. No false-positives.

    • NAAT (Nucleic acid amplification test) and Xpert MTB/RIF: Simultaneous TB diagnosis and antibiotic sensitivity test (within 2 hours).

    Tuberculosis Treatment

    • Active disease: 6-month combined drug therapy (intensive phase 2 months, 3-4 drugs; continuation phase 4-7 months, 2 drugs). Extra-pulmonary TB requires longer treatment. DOT (directly observed therapy). Isolation until secretions are negative.
    • Latent TB: Isoniazid for 6 months, or Isoniazid + Rifampicin for 3 months.

    Tuberculosis Drugs (RIPE)

    • Rifampin
    • Isoniazid
    • Pyrazinamide
    • Ethambutol

    Multidrug-resistant TB

    • Delamanid (children)

    Tuberculosis Treatment Monitoring

    • Renal function, ophthalmology, ENT, liver function tests.

    Tuberculosis Drug Side Effects

    • Isoniazid: Hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, optic neuritis
    • Rifampin: Hepatotoxicity, CYP inducer, red/orange body fluids
    • Pyrazinamide: Hepatotoxicity, hyperuricemia, arthralgia, myopathy
    • Ethambutol: Optic neuritis

    Congenital Tuberculosis

    • Rare vertical transmission from mother to fetus, resulting in multiple organ complications like impaired kidney function, GIT issues, CNS impairments, and immune system dysfunction for babies. Premature neonates frequently experience reduced temperature, hypoglycemia, and respiratory problems.

    Preterm Neonate Characteristics

    • Small body, large head, less rounded features, lanugo hair, low body temperature, respiratory distress, feeding problems (lack of sucking and swallowing reflex).

    Preterm Neonate Treatment

    • Medication: Corticosteroids to prevent bronchopulmonary dysplasia (increase lung function).
    • Oxygen therapy.
    • Phototherapy (hyperbilirubinemia).
    • Continuous naso/orogastric nutrition.
    • Temperature regulation.

    Preterm Neonate Complications

    • Respiratory distress syndrome.
    • Temperature disturbances.
    • Decreased growth and development.
    • Psychosocial complications (language, concentration, learning, social, motor, mental health).

    Respiratory Failure in Preterms (Laboratory)

    • Pulse oximetry and ABG (blood gas analysis for SpO2 < 94%).
      • Initially: decreased pCO2, increased pH, decreased pO2 (type 1 respiratory failure).
      • Ultimately: increased pCO2, decreased pH, decreased pO2 (type 2 respiratory failure).
    • Immunoglobulins: check for specific or total IgE.

    Allergic Asthma

    • Diagnosis: Skin prick testing.
    • Treatment:
      • Non-specific: Avoid triggers, healthy nutrition, regular exercise.
      • Pharmacotherapy:
        • Short-term relievers (acute attacks): Short-acting beta-2 agonists, anticholinergics (reverse bronchospasms, no effect on inflammation).
        • Long-term relievers (control inflammation): Inhaled corticosteroids, long-acting beta-2 agonists, leukotriene modifiers, methylxanthines.
        • New modalities: Monoclonal anti-IgE, specific immunotherapy.
    • Management: Step-by-step approach, asthma control testing.
      • Oral corticosteroids: Methylpredisolone, Prednisone
    • Leukotriene modifiers: Montelukast, Zafirlukast, Zileuton
    • Muscarinic antagonist: Ipratropium, Tiotropium
    • Biologicals: Omalizumab (Anti-IgE), Mepolizumab (anti-IL-5).
    • Methylxanthines: Theophylline (inhibits phosphodiesterases).
    • Mast-cell stabilizers: Cromolyn, Nedocromil (prevents degranulation).

    Asthma Complications: Status Asthmaticus

    • Severe asthma exacerbation unresponsive to bronchodilators. Presents with rapid breathing, tachycardia, hypoxemia, cyanosis, hypercarbia. Signs of impending respiratory arrest include drowsiness, paradoxical breathing, bradycardia, absent wheezing, pulsus paradoxus. Diagnosed with ABGs and peak expiratory flow. Management includes hospitalization, supplemental oxygen, and non-invasive ventilation.

    Differential Diagnosis of Hematuria

    • Hematuria: presence of ≥ 5 RBCs/visual field in fresh, midstream urine (microscopic is more common).

      • Microscopic (usually glomerular origin).
      • Macroscopic (usually non-glomerular origin).
    • Morphology of RBCs (urine, phase contrast microscopy):

      • Normal RBC morphology = lower urinary tract origin
      • Dysmorphic RBCs (acanthocytes) = glomerular origin
    • Etiology (categories):

      • Prerenal: bleeding disorders
      • Renal:
        • Glomerular: Acute PSGN, IgA nephropathy (Berger/HS), Alport, thin basement membrane nephropathy, other GN, SLE, MPGN.

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    Description

    Examine the various causes and clinical manifestations of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients and those with cystic fibrosis. This quiz will cover the specific pathogens involved and the signs and symptoms exhibited in different age groups. Test your knowledge on this important medical condition.

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