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Questions and Answers
Which bisphosphonate drug is most likely to cause esophagitis and gastrointestinal disturbances?
Which bisphosphonate drug is most likely to cause esophagitis and gastrointestinal disturbances?
Which hormone is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism?
Which hormone is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism?
Which Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) requires specific client education regarding potential hot flashes and calcium intake?
Which Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) requires specific client education regarding potential hot flashes and calcium intake?
Which medication requires monitoring for loss of effect through regular bone density studies and may cause nasal irritation?
Which medication requires monitoring for loss of effect through regular bone density studies and may cause nasal irritation?
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Which benzodiazepine is associated with withdrawal symptoms that include anxiety and insomnia if abruptly discontinued?
Which benzodiazepine is associated with withdrawal symptoms that include anxiety and insomnia if abruptly discontinued?
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Which Biologic DMARDs are linked to increased susceptibility to infections and reactivation of latent tuberculosis?
Which Biologic DMARDs are linked to increased susceptibility to infections and reactivation of latent tuberculosis?
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Which MAOI drug has adverse effects including hypertensive crisis when consuming tyramine-containing foods?
Which MAOI drug has adverse effects including hypertensive crisis when consuming tyramine-containing foods?
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What precautions should be taken when applying topical medications?
What precautions should be taken when applying topical medications?
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Which conventional antipsychotic requires client education regarding symptoms like muscle rigidity and severe spasms?
Which conventional antipsychotic requires client education regarding symptoms like muscle rigidity and severe spasms?
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Which food-drug interaction should patients avoid while taking Sertraline to prevent toxicity?
Which food-drug interaction should patients avoid while taking Sertraline to prevent toxicity?
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Which medication's adverse effects include insomnia, hypertension, and seizures upon abrupt withdrawal?
Which medication's adverse effects include insomnia, hypertension, and seizures upon abrupt withdrawal?
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Which population is more susceptible to drug toxicity due to physiological changes affecting metabolism and excretion?
Which population is more susceptible to drug toxicity due to physiological changes affecting metabolism and excretion?
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What type of reaction involves serious symptoms such as swelling and difficulty breathing?
What type of reaction involves serious symptoms such as swelling and difficulty breathing?
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Which population should consider special medication precautions due to slower gastric emptying and increased absorption?
Which population should consider special medication precautions due to slower gastric emptying and increased absorption?
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Which of these drugs require supervision by licensed healthcare providers to avoid potential harm?
Which of these drugs require supervision by licensed healthcare providers to avoid potential harm?
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What type of drugs are typically safe and sold over the counter without a prescription?
What type of drugs are typically safe and sold over the counter without a prescription?
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Which Beta-Adrenergic drug is contraindicated for clients with heart block, heart failure, COPD, asthma, and bronchospasms?
Which Beta-Adrenergic drug is contraindicated for clients with heart block, heart failure, COPD, asthma, and bronchospasms?
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What psychotherapeutic drug therapy is contraindicated in renal insufficiency or moderate to severe cardiac disorders?
What psychotherapeutic drug therapy is contraindicated in renal insufficiency or moderate to severe cardiac disorders?
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Which supplement should be administered to enhance calcium absorption?
Which supplement should be administered to enhance calcium absorption?
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What bisphosphonate drug is used to decrease bone absorption by inhibiting osteoclast activity?
What bisphosphonate drug is used to decrease bone absorption by inhibiting osteoclast activity?
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Which Biologic DMARD requires screening for tuberculosis prior to initiation?
Which Biologic DMARD requires screening for tuberculosis prior to initiation?
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Which Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) is used for prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis?
Which Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) is used for prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis?
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Which drug requires an allergy skin test prior to administration due to potential allergies related to Salmon?
Which drug requires an allergy skin test prior to administration due to potential allergies related to Salmon?
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What condition is characterized by depression, blood in urine, flank pain, and increased urine output?
What condition is characterized by depression, blood in urine, flank pain, and increased urine output?
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What is the primary action of dinoprostone when administered?
What is the primary action of dinoprostone when administered?
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Which medication is specifically used to reduce the size of the prostate in patients with BPH?
Which medication is specifically used to reduce the size of the prostate in patients with BPH?
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Which of the following contraceptive methods does not require self-administration by the client?
Which of the following contraceptive methods does not require self-administration by the client?
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In which condition is oxytocin contraindicated?
In which condition is oxytocin contraindicated?
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What should a nurse monitor for in a client receiving terbutaline?
What should a nurse monitor for in a client receiving terbutaline?
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What dietary advice should be given to a client taking sildenafil?
What dietary advice should be given to a client taking sildenafil?
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Which side effect is associated with hormone-based contraceptive therapy?
Which side effect is associated with hormone-based contraceptive therapy?
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What should clients be educated about regarding missed doses of oral contraceptives?
What should clients be educated about regarding missed doses of oral contraceptives?
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What adverse drug reactions should be monitored for in a client taking exenatide (Byetta)?
What adverse drug reactions should be monitored for in a client taking exenatide (Byetta)?
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How should Lispro (Humalog) and regular insulin be administered according to the protocol for mixing insulins?
How should Lispro (Humalog) and regular insulin be administered according to the protocol for mixing insulins?
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What is an important nursing assessment for clients taking glipizide?
What is an important nursing assessment for clients taking glipizide?
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What should clients avoid while taking methotrexate?
What should clients avoid while taking methotrexate?
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How does the medication thiazolidinedione work to help manage type 2 diabetes?
How does the medication thiazolidinedione work to help manage type 2 diabetes?
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What is the recommended immunization for adults aged 50 years or older?
What is the recommended immunization for adults aged 50 years or older?
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Which adverse effect is associated with the medication levothyroxine?
Which adverse effect is associated with the medication levothyroxine?
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What should be considered when administering pramlintide?
What should be considered when administering pramlintide?
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What is the primary purpose of administering dinoprostone?
What is the primary purpose of administering dinoprostone?
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In which condition should oxytocin administration be avoided?
In which condition should oxytocin administration be avoided?
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Which medication is used for urinary obstruction due to enlarged prostate?
Which medication is used for urinary obstruction due to enlarged prostate?
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Which advice should be given to clients regarding the use of tamsulosin?
Which advice should be given to clients regarding the use of tamsulosin?
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What client education should be provided for finasteride?
What client education should be provided for finasteride?
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What dietary advice should be given to a client taking sildenafil?
What dietary advice should be given to a client taking sildenafil?
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What is a common side effect associated with hormone-based contraceptive therapy?
What is a common side effect associated with hormone-based contraceptive therapy?
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How should a client be advised to handle a missed dose of an oral contraceptive?
How should a client be advised to handle a missed dose of an oral contraceptive?
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What is the primary effect of thiazolidinedione medication on glucose levels?
What is the primary effect of thiazolidinedione medication on glucose levels?
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What is the recommended action for the administration of sustained release glipizide?
What is the recommended action for the administration of sustained release glipizide?
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What adverse drug reaction is associated with exenatide (Byetta)?
What adverse drug reaction is associated with exenatide (Byetta)?
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What should a nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of somatropin (Genotropin)?
What should a nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of somatropin (Genotropin)?
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What is crucial to ensure when mixing two types of insulin in a syringe?
What is crucial to ensure when mixing two types of insulin in a syringe?
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What preventative measure can be taken to avoid skin irritation during insulin administration?
What preventative measure can be taken to avoid skin irritation during insulin administration?
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Which of the following is an important client education point regarding methotrexate?
Which of the following is an important client education point regarding methotrexate?
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Which immunization is recommended for individuals aged 50 years or older?
Which immunization is recommended for individuals aged 50 years or older?
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What is the primary route of administration for dinoprostone?
What is the primary route of administration for dinoprostone?
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What is a significant risk factor for developing erectile dysfunction?
What is a significant risk factor for developing erectile dysfunction?
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Which medication serves to reduce the size of the prostate for patients diagnosed with BPH?
Which medication serves to reduce the size of the prostate for patients diagnosed with BPH?
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For which condition is the use of oxytocin contraindicated?
For which condition is the use of oxytocin contraindicated?
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Which client group should combination oral contraceptives be used with caution?
Which client group should combination oral contraceptives be used with caution?
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What dietary advice should be given to a client taking sildenafil?
What dietary advice should be given to a client taking sildenafil?
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What should clients be educated about regarding missed doses of oral contraceptives?
What should clients be educated about regarding missed doses of oral contraceptives?
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What is important to monitor in a client receiving magnesium sulfate during pregnancy?
What is important to monitor in a client receiving magnesium sulfate during pregnancy?
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What is the main purpose of rotating insulin injection sites?
What is the main purpose of rotating insulin injection sites?
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What should a nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of somatropin (Genotropin)?
What should a nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of somatropin (Genotropin)?
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Which adverse effect should be monitored for a client taking levothyroxine?
Which adverse effect should be monitored for a client taking levothyroxine?
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What is a critical nursing assessment for clients prescribed glipizide?
What is a critical nursing assessment for clients prescribed glipizide?
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Which medication requires administration 30 minutes before a meal?
Which medication requires administration 30 minutes before a meal?
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How long can opened insulin vials be stored at room temperature?
How long can opened insulin vials be stored at room temperature?
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What is the primary mechanism through which thiazolidinediones help manage type 2 diabetes?
What is the primary mechanism through which thiazolidinediones help manage type 2 diabetes?
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What adverse effect should be monitored for in patients taking imatinib?
What adverse effect should be monitored for in patients taking imatinib?
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Study Notes
Pharmacology Test 1 - Study Notes
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Centrally Acting Muscle Relaxer (Question 1): Baclofen requires client education about effects decreasing over time, minimizing effects with low doses, avoiding driving if drowsy, and tapering off over 1-2 weeks.
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Peripherally Acting Muscle Relaxer (Question 2): Carisoprodol is a peripherally acting muscle relaxer that can cause dry mouth, muscle weakness, drowsiness, dizziness, diarrhea, and liver toxicity.
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Cholinesterase Inhibitors (Question 3): Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., Donepezil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine, Physostigmine) require client education: taking with food at bedtime, reporting vomiting, severe diarrhea, weight loss, GI bleeding, reporting CNS symptoms, and loss of consciousness.
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Dopamine-Replacement Drugs (Question 4): Levodopa/Carbidopa is contraindicated in patients with angle-closure glaucoma, melanoma history, and psychosis with suicidal thoughts.
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Adverse Reactions (Question 5): Valproic acid, Carbamazepine, Phenobarbital, and Baclofen can have adverse reactions including jaundice, skin rash, bruising, prolonged bleeding, GI symptoms, neural tube defects, hyperammonemia, pancreatitis, and liver toxicity (potential fatal).
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Side Effects (Question 6): Cyclobenzaprine, Gabapentin, Baclofen, Methocarbamol may cause dizziness, drowsiness, headaches, fatigue, confusion, dry mouth, constipation, nausea, blurred vision, and visual disturbances.
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Contraindications (Question 7): Methocarbamol, Carisoprodol, Cyclobenzaprine, Orphenadrine are contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to the drug, concurrent use with MAOIs, caution in older adults, children, and clients with severe mental illness/seizure disorders, or previous CVA.
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Anesthetics (Question 8): Local, general, regional, and sedation anesthetics can cause CNS depression, tachycardia, respiratory depression, and hypotension.
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Muscle Spasm Treatment (Question 9): Botulinum Toxin A is a treatment for muscle spasms when drug therapy is not working. Other treatments include physical therapy and surgery.
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Foods to Avoid (Question 10): Foods containing tyramine (aged cheese, processed meats) should be avoided when taking MAOIs.
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Anesthetic Prolonging Agent (Question 11): Epinephrine is used with lidocaine to prolong the anesthetic effect during local anesthesia.
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Painful Muscle Spasm Treatment (Question 12): Centrally acting muscle relaxants are used to treat painful muscle spasms related to spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, or other musculoskeletal disorders.
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Drugs to Relax Skeletal Muscles (Question 13): Peripherally Acting Muscle Relaxant/DAMR drugs are used to treat conditions like cerebrovascular accidents, spinal cord injuries, multiple sclerosis, and cerebral palsy.
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Drug Education (Question 14): Dexmethylphenidate requires education regarding avoiding caffeine, taking the drug early, reporting anorexia or weight loss, and tapering instead of stopping abruptly.
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General Anesthesia Induction (Question 15): Propofol, barbiturates, nitrous oxide, or etomidate are used for rapid induction of anesthesia and hypnosis for brief procedures.
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Sedation Before Anesthesia (Question 16): Opioids and benzodiazepines are used to provide sedation before general anesthesia.
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General Anesthesia Supplement (Question 17): Opioids, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates are used as supplements during general anesthesia.
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Medication Intervention (Question 18): Lowering the dose of medication, discontinuing the dose, administering an anticholinergic medication, or a drug holiday may be interventions for symptoms in patients with conditions such as extrapyramidal symptoms, serotonin syndrome, or opioid withdrawal.
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Adverse Effects (Question 19): Olanzapine, Risperidone, Quetiapine, Aripiprazole can have adverse effects including drowsiness, insomnia, dizziness, extrapyramidal effects, weight gain, and metabolic changes.
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Adverse Reactions (Question 20): Chlorpromazine, Olanzapine, Risperidone, Haloperidol can cause akathisia, Parkinsonian symptoms, acute dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, anticholinergic effects, sexual dysfunction, dysrhythmias, dermatitis, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
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Contraindications (Question 21): ACE inhibitors have contraindications for pregnancy / lactation, severe renal insufficiency, moderate to severe cardiac disorders, dehydration, low-sodium diets, and a history of angioedema.
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Adverse Effects (Question 22): Fluoxetine can have adverse effects including paradoxical effects (insomnia, anxiety, restlessness), nausea, dizziness, and headache.
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SSRI Education (Question 23): Sertraline requires client education about avoiding sleep interference, reporting impotence/decreased libido and adverse effects, dietary changes, and exercise, reporting increased anxiety, fever, hallucinations, and stopping the drug.
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Beta-Adrenergic Drug Adverse Effects (Question 24): Betaxolol, Propranolol, Atenolol, Metoprolol may cause stinging/burning/eye discomfort. If absorbed, they can lead to bradycardia, hypotension, and bronchospasm.
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Beta-Adrenergic Drug Contraindications (Question 25): Propranolol is contraindicated for patients with heart block, heart failure, COPD, asthma, and bronchospasms.
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Psychotherapeutic Drug Contraindications (Question 26): Antipsychotic therapy has contraindications for pregnancy, lactation, renal insufficiency, cardiac disorders, dehydration, low sodium, a history of angioedema, diabetes mellitus, urinary retention, and suicidal ideation.
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Calcium Absorption Supplement (Question 27): Vitamin D is given to enhance calcium absorption.
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Bisphosphonate Drug for Bone Absorption (Question 28): Alendronate helps decrease bone absorption by inhibiting osteoclast activity.
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Negative Feedback Mechanism Drugs (Question 29): The drug that regulates a negative feedback mechanism is Calcium, not Insulin, Cortisol, or Adrenaline.
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Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (Question 30): Tamoxifen is a SERM for prevention/treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis and reducing the risk of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer.
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Allergy Testing Drug (Question 31): Calcitonin-Salmon may require allergy testing prior to use.
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Calcium Condition (Question 32): Hypercalcemia is characterized by depression, blood in urine (kidney stones), flank pain, increased urine output (polyuria), constipation, nausea, and vomiting.
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Folic Acid Supplement (Question 33): Methotrexate therapy toxicity risk may be reduced with folic acid supplements.
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Bisphosphonate Adverse Effects (Question 34): Risedronate, Alendronate, Ibandronate, Zoledronic acid are examples of bisphosphonates with potential adverse effects such as esophageal inflammation (esophagitis); gastrointestinal issues (nausea, vomiting); muscle/joint pain; and eye pain/vision changes.
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Negative Feedback Mechanism (Question 35): Calcium is a drug that regulates a negative feedback mechanism.
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Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator Education (Question 36): Tamoxifen, Raloxifene, Anastrozole, and Letrozole require client education about pain in the calf, difficulty breathing, avoiding estrogen replacement, hot flashes, supplemental calcium/vitamin D, weight-bearing exercise.
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Drug Education (Question 37): Alendronate, Calcitonin-Salmon Intranasal spray, Risedronate, and Ibandronate may require education on nasal irritation/bleeding, provider notification for rashes, muscle spasms, and loss of effect monitoring.
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Benzodiazepine Withdrawal (Question 38): Lorazepam, Alprazolam, Diazepam, Clonazepam withdrawal can include insomnia, anxiety, tremors, diaphoresis, dizziness, panic, hypertension, seizures, paranoia, muscle twitching, and/or hallucinations.
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Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI) Adverse Effects (Question 39): Tranylcypromine, Isocarboxazid, Phenelzine, Selegiline can cause orthostatic hypotension, anxiety, insomnia, agitation, hypertensive crisis (tyramine-containing foods), constipation, nausea, vomiting, and other GI symptoms, and suicidal ideation.
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Conventional Antipsychotic Education (Question 40): Thioridazine, Chlorpromazine, Haloperidol, and Fluphenazine require client education regarding inner restlessness, muscle rigidity, and severe spasms, and informing the provider about these symptoms.
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Biologic DMARD Adverse Reactions (Question 41): Etanercept, Methotrexate, Certolizumab, and Azathioprine are biologic DMARDs associated with infections, dizziness, abdominal pain, pharyngitis, psoriasis, upper respiratory infections, rare severe allergic reactions (Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis), erythema multiforme, local injection site reactions, heart failure, and reactivation of latent tuberculosis.
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Medication Application Precautions (Question 42): Be mindful of using gloves when applying medications topically, ensuring the area is clean and dry, and avoiding open areas.
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Sertraline Food Interaction (Question 43): Grapefruit juice can interact with sertraline, potentially causing toxicity.
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Population at Risk for Toxicity (Question 44): Geriatric populations are more at risk for toxicity due to physiological changes affecting medication absorption, metabolism, and excretion.
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Hypersensitivity Reaction (Question 45): Anaphylactic reactions are characterized by swelling in the eyes, face, mouth, throat, difficulty breathing, wheezing, rapid heart rate, and extremely low blood pressure.
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Special Medication Considerations (Question 46): Special considerations apply to pregnant/elderly patients due to slower gastric emptying, increased absorption, altered blood-brain barrier, and decreased metabolism.
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Potentially Harmful Drugs (Question 47): Over-the-counter, prescription, herbal, and homeopathic remedies can be harmful if administered without the supervision of a healthcare professional.
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Over-the-Counter Drugs (Question 48): Non-Prescription drugs are usually safe for use without a prescription under normal circumstances.
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Drug-Receptor Binding (Question 49): An agonist binds to a receptor producing a greater response than normal.
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Drug-Receptor Action (Question 50): An antagonist binds to a receptor and blocks a response or causes a lesser response than normal.
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Injection Site Reactions (Question 51): Subcutaneous, IM, and Intradermal injections can show potential problems including bruising, inflammation, and edema.
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Drug-Induced Visual Disturbance (Question 52): Digoxin can cause visual disturbances with yellow/green halos, and bradycardia.
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Drug Absorption Rate (Question 53): IV injection has the fastest absorption rate compared to other methods such as oral or topical applications.
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Factors Affecting Medication (Question 54): Bioavailability, onset of action, GI metabolism, and peak values of a medication are the factors that affect medication.
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Prepare for your Pharmacology Test with this comprehensive quiz covering key concepts on muscle relaxers, cholinesterase inhibitors, dopamine-replacement drugs, and their adverse reactions. Each question is designed to enhance your understanding of medication management and client education. Test your knowledge and boost your confidence before the exam!