Pharmacology Test 1 - Study Notes
72 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

Which bisphosphonate drug is most likely to cause esophagitis and gastrointestinal disturbances?

  • Alendronate (correct)
  • Risedronate
  • Ibandronate
  • Zoledronic acid
  • Which hormone is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism?

  • Insulin
  • Calcium
  • Adrenaline
  • Cortisol (correct)
  • Which Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) requires specific client education regarding potential hot flashes and calcium intake?

  • Tamoxifen
  • Anastrozole
  • Raloxifene (correct)
  • Letrozole
  • Which medication requires monitoring for loss of effect through regular bone density studies and may cause nasal irritation?

    <p>Calcitonin-Salmon Intranasal spray</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which benzodiazepine is associated with withdrawal symptoms that include anxiety and insomnia if abruptly discontinued?

    <p>Alprazolam</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Biologic DMARDs are linked to increased susceptibility to infections and reactivation of latent tuberculosis?

    <p>Etanercept</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which MAOI drug has adverse effects including hypertensive crisis when consuming tyramine-containing foods?

    <p>Phenelzine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What precautions should be taken when applying topical medications?

    <p>Wear gloves and ensure skin is clean and dry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which conventional antipsychotic requires client education regarding symptoms like muscle rigidity and severe spasms?

    <p>Haloperidol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which food-drug interaction should patients avoid while taking Sertraline to prevent toxicity?

    <p>Grapefruit drink</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication's adverse effects include insomnia, hypertension, and seizures upon abrupt withdrawal?

    <p>Lorazepam</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which population is more susceptible to drug toxicity due to physiological changes affecting metabolism and excretion?

    <p>Geriatric Population</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of reaction involves serious symptoms such as swelling and difficulty breathing?

    <p>Anaphylactic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which population should consider special medication precautions due to slower gastric emptying and increased absorption?

    <p>Infants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these drugs require supervision by licensed healthcare providers to avoid potential harm?

    <p>Prescription drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of drugs are typically safe and sold over the counter without a prescription?

    <p>Non-Prescription drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Beta-Adrenergic drug is contraindicated for clients with heart block, heart failure, COPD, asthma, and bronchospasms?

    <p>Propranolol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What psychotherapeutic drug therapy is contraindicated in renal insufficiency or moderate to severe cardiac disorders?

    <p>Lithium therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which supplement should be administered to enhance calcium absorption?

    <p>Vitamin D</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What bisphosphonate drug is used to decrease bone absorption by inhibiting osteoclast activity?

    <p>Aldendronate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Biologic DMARD requires screening for tuberculosis prior to initiation?

    <p>Infliximab</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) is used for prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis?

    <p>Raloxifene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug requires an allergy skin test prior to administration due to potential allergies related to Salmon?

    <p>Calcitonin-Salmon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by depression, blood in urine, flank pain, and increased urine output?

    <p>Hypercalcemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action of dinoprostone when administered?

    <p>Stimulates uterine contractions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is specifically used to reduce the size of the prostate in patients with BPH?

    <p>Finasteride</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following contraceptive methods does not require self-administration by the client?

    <p>IUD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition is oxytocin contraindicated?

    <p>Cephalopelvic disproportion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a nurse monitor for in a client receiving terbutaline?

    <p>Heart rate and respiratory status</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary advice should be given to a client taking sildenafil?

    <p>Do not combine with high-fat foods</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which side effect is associated with hormone-based contraceptive therapy?

    <p>Mood swings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should clients be educated about regarding missed doses of oral contraceptives?

    <p>Take it as soon as possible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse drug reactions should be monitored for in a client taking exenatide (Byetta)?

    <p>Pancreatitis and renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should Lispro (Humalog) and regular insulin be administered according to the protocol for mixing insulins?

    <p>Draw up regular insulin first, then NPH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important nursing assessment for clients taking glipizide?

    <p>Monitor blood glucose levels closely</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should clients avoid while taking methotrexate?

    <p>Drinking alcohol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the medication thiazolidinedione work to help manage type 2 diabetes?

    <p>By increasing insulin sensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended immunization for adults aged 50 years or older?

    <p>Herpes zoster vaccine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which adverse effect is associated with the medication levothyroxine?

    <p>Tremors and palpitations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be considered when administering pramlintide?

    <p>Take the medication before meals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of administering dinoprostone?

    <p>To increase cervical dilation and stimulate uterine contractions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition should oxytocin administration be avoided?

    <p>Cephalopelvic disproportion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is used for urinary obstruction due to enlarged prostate?

    <p>Tamsulosin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which advice should be given to clients regarding the use of tamsulosin?

    <p>Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What client education should be provided for finasteride?

    <p>Wear protective clothing and sunscreen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary advice should be given to a client taking sildenafil?

    <p>Do not take it with high-fat foods to avoid reduced effectiveness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect associated with hormone-based contraceptive therapy?

    <p>Increased risk for blood clots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should a client be advised to handle a missed dose of an oral contraceptive?

    <p>Take the missed dose as soon as possible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of thiazolidinedione medication on glucose levels?

    <p>Increases insulin sensitivity in body tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action for the administration of sustained release glipizide?

    <p>Take it once a day, 30 minutes before a meal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse drug reaction is associated with exenatide (Byetta)?

    <p>Pancreatitis and renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of somatropin (Genotropin)?

    <p>Height and weight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is crucial to ensure when mixing two types of insulin in a syringe?

    <p>Always draw up the regular insulin first</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What preventative measure can be taken to avoid skin irritation during insulin administration?

    <p>Rotate insulin injection sites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an important client education point regarding methotrexate?

    <p>Report any yellowing of the eyes immediately</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immunization is recommended for individuals aged 50 years or older?

    <p>Herpes zoster vaccine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary route of administration for dinoprostone?

    <p>Vaginal insertion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk factor for developing erectile dysfunction?

    <p>Diabetes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication serves to reduce the size of the prostate for patients diagnosed with BPH?

    <p>Finasteride</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which condition is the use of oxytocin contraindicated?

    <p>Cephalopelvic disproportion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which client group should combination oral contraceptives be used with caution?

    <p>Clients with diabetes and heart disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary advice should be given to a client taking sildenafil?

    <p>Use with high-fat foods</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should clients be educated about regarding missed doses of oral contraceptives?

    <p>Take missed doses as soon as possible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is important to monitor in a client receiving magnesium sulfate during pregnancy?

    <p>Fluid intake and output</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of rotating insulin injection sites?

    <p>To increase absorption of insulin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of somatropin (Genotropin)?

    <p>Height and weight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which adverse effect should be monitored for a client taking levothyroxine?

    <p>Tremors and palpitations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical nursing assessment for clients prescribed glipizide?

    <p>Monitoring blood glucose levels closely</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication requires administration 30 minutes before a meal?

    <p>Sustained release glipizide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long can opened insulin vials be stored at room temperature?

    <p>30 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism through which thiazolidinediones help manage type 2 diabetes?

    <p>Increase insulin sensitivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adverse effect should be monitored for in patients taking imatinib?

    <p>Fluid retention leading to pulmonary edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Pharmacology Test 1 - Study Notes

    • Centrally Acting Muscle Relaxer (Question 1): Baclofen requires client education about effects decreasing over time, minimizing effects with low doses, avoiding driving if drowsy, and tapering off over 1-2 weeks.

    • Peripherally Acting Muscle Relaxer (Question 2): Carisoprodol is a peripherally acting muscle relaxer that can cause dry mouth, muscle weakness, drowsiness, dizziness, diarrhea, and liver toxicity.

    • Cholinesterase Inhibitors (Question 3): Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., Donepezil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine, Physostigmine) require client education: taking with food at bedtime, reporting vomiting, severe diarrhea, weight loss, GI bleeding, reporting CNS symptoms, and loss of consciousness.

    • Dopamine-Replacement Drugs (Question 4): Levodopa/Carbidopa is contraindicated in patients with angle-closure glaucoma, melanoma history, and psychosis with suicidal thoughts.

    • Adverse Reactions (Question 5): Valproic acid, Carbamazepine, Phenobarbital, and Baclofen can have adverse reactions including jaundice, skin rash, bruising, prolonged bleeding, GI symptoms, neural tube defects, hyperammonemia, pancreatitis, and liver toxicity (potential fatal).

    • Side Effects (Question 6): Cyclobenzaprine, Gabapentin, Baclofen, Methocarbamol may cause dizziness, drowsiness, headaches, fatigue, confusion, dry mouth, constipation, nausea, blurred vision, and visual disturbances.

    • Contraindications (Question 7): Methocarbamol, Carisoprodol, Cyclobenzaprine, Orphenadrine are contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to the drug, concurrent use with MAOIs, caution in older adults, children, and clients with severe mental illness/seizure disorders, or previous CVA.

    • Anesthetics (Question 8): Local, general, regional, and sedation anesthetics can cause CNS depression, tachycardia, respiratory depression, and hypotension.

    • Muscle Spasm Treatment (Question 9): Botulinum Toxin A is a treatment for muscle spasms when drug therapy is not working. Other treatments include physical therapy and surgery.

    • Foods to Avoid (Question 10): Foods containing tyramine (aged cheese, processed meats) should be avoided when taking MAOIs.

    • Anesthetic Prolonging Agent (Question 11): Epinephrine is used with lidocaine to prolong the anesthetic effect during local anesthesia.

    • Painful Muscle Spasm Treatment (Question 12): Centrally acting muscle relaxants are used to treat painful muscle spasms related to spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, or other musculoskeletal disorders.

    • Drugs to Relax Skeletal Muscles (Question 13): Peripherally Acting Muscle Relaxant/DAMR drugs are used to treat conditions like cerebrovascular accidents, spinal cord injuries, multiple sclerosis, and cerebral palsy.

    • Drug Education (Question 14): Dexmethylphenidate requires education regarding avoiding caffeine, taking the drug early, reporting anorexia or weight loss, and tapering instead of stopping abruptly.

    • General Anesthesia Induction (Question 15): Propofol, barbiturates, nitrous oxide, or etomidate are used for rapid induction of anesthesia and hypnosis for brief procedures.

    • Sedation Before Anesthesia (Question 16): Opioids and benzodiazepines are used to provide sedation before general anesthesia.

    • General Anesthesia Supplement (Question 17): Opioids, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates are used as supplements during general anesthesia.

    • Medication Intervention (Question 18): Lowering the dose of medication, discontinuing the dose, administering an anticholinergic medication, or a drug holiday may be interventions for symptoms in patients with conditions such as extrapyramidal symptoms, serotonin syndrome, or opioid withdrawal.

    • Adverse Effects (Question 19): Olanzapine, Risperidone, Quetiapine, Aripiprazole can have adverse effects including drowsiness, insomnia, dizziness, extrapyramidal effects, weight gain, and metabolic changes.

    • Adverse Reactions (Question 20): Chlorpromazine, Olanzapine, Risperidone, Haloperidol can cause akathisia, Parkinsonian symptoms, acute dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, anticholinergic effects, sexual dysfunction, dysrhythmias, dermatitis, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

    • Contraindications (Question 21): ACE inhibitors have contraindications for pregnancy / lactation, severe renal insufficiency, moderate to severe cardiac disorders, dehydration, low-sodium diets, and a history of angioedema.

    • Adverse Effects (Question 22): Fluoxetine can have adverse effects including paradoxical effects (insomnia, anxiety, restlessness), nausea, dizziness, and headache.

    • SSRI Education (Question 23): Sertraline requires client education about avoiding sleep interference, reporting impotence/decreased libido and adverse effects, dietary changes, and exercise, reporting increased anxiety, fever, hallucinations, and stopping the drug.

    • Beta-Adrenergic Drug Adverse Effects (Question 24): Betaxolol, Propranolol, Atenolol, Metoprolol may cause stinging/burning/eye discomfort. If absorbed, they can lead to bradycardia, hypotension, and bronchospasm.

    • Beta-Adrenergic Drug Contraindications (Question 25): Propranolol is contraindicated for patients with heart block, heart failure, COPD, asthma, and bronchospasms.

    • Psychotherapeutic Drug Contraindications (Question 26): Antipsychotic therapy has contraindications for pregnancy, lactation, renal insufficiency, cardiac disorders, dehydration, low sodium, a history of angioedema, diabetes mellitus, urinary retention, and suicidal ideation.

    • Calcium Absorption Supplement (Question 27): Vitamin D is given to enhance calcium absorption.

    • Bisphosphonate Drug for Bone Absorption (Question 28): Alendronate helps decrease bone absorption by inhibiting osteoclast activity.

    • Negative Feedback Mechanism Drugs (Question 29): The drug that regulates a negative feedback mechanism is Calcium, not Insulin, Cortisol, or Adrenaline.

    • Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (Question 30): Tamoxifen is a SERM for prevention/treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis and reducing the risk of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer.

    • Allergy Testing Drug (Question 31): Calcitonin-Salmon may require allergy testing prior to use.

    • Calcium Condition (Question 32): Hypercalcemia is characterized by depression, blood in urine (kidney stones), flank pain, increased urine output (polyuria), constipation, nausea, and vomiting.

    • Folic Acid Supplement (Question 33): Methotrexate therapy toxicity risk may be reduced with folic acid supplements.

    • Bisphosphonate Adverse Effects (Question 34): Risedronate, Alendronate, Ibandronate, Zoledronic acid are examples of bisphosphonates with potential adverse effects such as esophageal inflammation (esophagitis); gastrointestinal issues (nausea, vomiting); muscle/joint pain; and eye pain/vision changes.

    • Negative Feedback Mechanism (Question 35): Calcium is a drug that regulates a negative feedback mechanism.

    • Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator Education (Question 36): Tamoxifen, Raloxifene, Anastrozole, and Letrozole require client education about pain in the calf, difficulty breathing, avoiding estrogen replacement, hot flashes, supplemental calcium/vitamin D, weight-bearing exercise.

    • Drug Education (Question 37): Alendronate, Calcitonin-Salmon Intranasal spray, Risedronate, and Ibandronate may require education on nasal irritation/bleeding, provider notification for rashes, muscle spasms, and loss of effect monitoring.

    • Benzodiazepine Withdrawal (Question 38): Lorazepam, Alprazolam, Diazepam, Clonazepam withdrawal can include insomnia, anxiety, tremors, diaphoresis, dizziness, panic, hypertension, seizures, paranoia, muscle twitching, and/or hallucinations.

    • Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI) Adverse Effects (Question 39): Tranylcypromine, Isocarboxazid, Phenelzine, Selegiline can cause orthostatic hypotension, anxiety, insomnia, agitation, hypertensive crisis (tyramine-containing foods), constipation, nausea, vomiting, and other GI symptoms, and suicidal ideation.

    • Conventional Antipsychotic Education (Question 40): Thioridazine, Chlorpromazine, Haloperidol, and Fluphenazine require client education regarding inner restlessness, muscle rigidity, and severe spasms, and informing the provider about these symptoms.

    • Biologic DMARD Adverse Reactions (Question 41): Etanercept, Methotrexate, Certolizumab, and Azathioprine are biologic DMARDs associated with infections, dizziness, abdominal pain, pharyngitis, psoriasis, upper respiratory infections, rare severe allergic reactions (Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis), erythema multiforme, local injection site reactions, heart failure, and reactivation of latent tuberculosis.

    • Medication Application Precautions (Question 42): Be mindful of using gloves when applying medications topically, ensuring the area is clean and dry, and avoiding open areas.

    • Sertraline Food Interaction (Question 43): Grapefruit juice can interact with sertraline, potentially causing toxicity.

    • Population at Risk for Toxicity (Question 44): Geriatric populations are more at risk for toxicity due to physiological changes affecting medication absorption, metabolism, and excretion.

    • Hypersensitivity Reaction (Question 45): Anaphylactic reactions are characterized by swelling in the eyes, face, mouth, throat, difficulty breathing, wheezing, rapid heart rate, and extremely low blood pressure.

    • Special Medication Considerations (Question 46): Special considerations apply to pregnant/elderly patients due to slower gastric emptying, increased absorption, altered blood-brain barrier, and decreased metabolism.

    • Potentially Harmful Drugs (Question 47): Over-the-counter, prescription, herbal, and homeopathic remedies can be harmful if administered without the supervision of a healthcare professional.

    • Over-the-Counter Drugs (Question 48): Non-Prescription drugs are usually safe for use without a prescription under normal circumstances.

    • Drug-Receptor Binding (Question 49): An agonist binds to a receptor producing a greater response than normal.

    • Drug-Receptor Action (Question 50): An antagonist binds to a receptor and blocks a response or causes a lesser response than normal.

    • Injection Site Reactions (Question 51): Subcutaneous, IM, and Intradermal injections can show potential problems including bruising, inflammation, and edema.

    • Drug-Induced Visual Disturbance (Question 52): Digoxin can cause visual disturbances with yellow/green halos, and bradycardia.

    • Drug Absorption Rate (Question 53): IV injection has the fastest absorption rate compared to other methods such as oral or topical applications.

    • Factors Affecting Medication (Question 54): Bioavailability, onset of action, GI metabolism, and peak values of a medication are the factors that affect medication.

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    Related Documents

    Pharmacology Test 1 PDF

    Description

    Prepare for your Pharmacology Test with this comprehensive quiz covering key concepts on muscle relaxers, cholinesterase inhibitors, dopamine-replacement drugs, and their adverse reactions. Each question is designed to enhance your understanding of medication management and client education. Test your knowledge and boost your confidence before the exam!

    More Like This

    Muscle Labeling Quiz
    57 questions
    Muscle Tissue Quiz
    16 questions

    Muscle Tissue Quiz

    EvaluativeQuantum avatar
    EvaluativeQuantum
    Muscle and Nervous Tissue Overview
    8 questions
    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Browser