Pharmacology Test 1 PDF

Pharmacology test 1 Your Name: 1. Which centrally acting muscle relaxer requires the following client education? Instruct clients that these effects will decrease with time and will be minimized by beginning with a low dose, advise against driving if drowsiness is experienced, and not to stop the...

Pharmacology test 1 Your Name: 1. Which centrally acting muscle relaxer requires the following client education? Instruct clients that these effects will decrease with time and will be minimized by beginning with a low dose, advise against driving if drowsiness is experienced, and not to stop the drug abruptly; taper doses over 1 to 2 weeks. A. Cortison B. Baclofen C. Cyclobenzaprine D. Methocarbamol 2. Which of these medications is a peripherally acting muscle relaxer that may cause adverse effects such as Dry mouth,muscle weakness, drowsiness, dizziness, diarrhea, and liver toxicity? A. Dantrolene B. Digoxin C. Cyclobenzaprine D. Carisoprodol 3. Which of the following Cholinesterase Inhibitors requires the following client education: Instruct client (caregiver) to take with food at bedtime to minimize GI effects Instruct client (caregiver) to report vomiting, severe diarrhea, weight loss, GI bleeding Instruct client (caregiver) to report CNS symptoms to provider Instruct client (caregiver) to report temporary loss of consciousness? A. Donepezil B. Rivastigmine C. Galantamine D. Physostigmine 4. Which of the following Dopamine-replacement drugs has specific contraindications such as- angle closure glaucoma, history of melanoma, and psychosis with suicidal thoughts? A. Levodopa/Carbidopa B. Bromocriptine C. Pramipexole D. Ropinirole 5. Which of the following drugs has the following adverse reactions? Jaundice,Skin Rash, Bruising, bleeding and prolonged bleeding time, decreased platelets; GI symptoms: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, flatulence, indigestion; neural tube defect (risk if client becomes pregnant); hyperammonemia; pancreatitis; liver toxicity (may be fatal)? A. Valproic Acid B. Carbamazepine C. Phenobarbital D. Baclofen 6. Which of the following drugs have the following side effects: dizziness, drowsiness, headaches, fatigue (usually subsides with continued use), confusion, dry mouth, constipation, nausea, blurred vision, and visual disturbances? A. Cyclobenzaprine B. Gabapentin C. Baclofen D. Methocarbamol 7. Which of the following drugs has the following contraindications: contraindicated in patients with a known hypersensitivity to the drug, should not be taken concurrently with MAOIs, and cautioned in older adults, children, and clients with severe mental illness/seizure disorders or who have had a CVA? A. Methocarbamol B. Carisoprodol C. Cyclobenzaprine D. Orphenadrine 8. Which of the following anesthetics can cause the following contraindications: CNS depression, tachycardia, respiratory depression, and hypotension? A. Local Anesthesia B. General Anesthesia C. Regional Anesthesia D. Sedation Anesthesia 9. What is the treatment for muscle spasms when drug therapy is not working? A. Botulinum Toxin A B. Physical therapy C. Surgery D. Chiropractic treatment 10. Foods that contain Tyramine, such as aged cheese or processed meats (hypertensive crises) should be avoided while taking? A. MAOI B. SSRI C. Benzodiazepines D. NSAIDs 11. What is used with lidocaine to prolong the anesthetic effect during local anesthesia? A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Fentanyl D. Atropine 12. Which drug class treats painful muscle spasms related to spinal cord injury, MS, Cerebral Palsy, or spasms due to musculoskeletal injury or other acute musculoskeletal disorders? A. Centrally Acting Muscle Relaxants B. Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) C. Opioids D. Antidepressants 13. Which class of drugs is used to relax skeletal muscles in conditions like cerebrovascular accidents, spinal cord injuries, multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, and to treat malignant hyperthermia? A. Peripherally Acting Muscle Relaxant/DAMR B. Benzodiazepines C. Opioids D. Antidepressants 14. Which of the following drugs should the client be educated about with these instructions: avoid caffeine due to potentiating stimulant effects, take the drug as early as possible with the last dose by 4pm, notify the provider if anorexia or weight loss occurs, and taper the drug rather than stopping abruptly? A. Dexmethylphenidate B. Cyclobenzaprine C. Carisoprodol D. Tizanidine 15. What is used with general anesthesia to provide rapid induction of anesthesia and hypnosis for brief procedures? A. Propofol B. Barbiturate C. Nitrous oxide D. Etomidate 16. Which class of drugs is used to provide sedation before administration of general anesthesia, induce a state of moderate or conscious sedation, and induce amnesia during procedures such as endoscopy or colonoscopy? A. Opioids B. Benzodiazepines C. Antidepressants D. Antihistamines 17. Which of these drugs are used as a supplement during general anesthesia, in conjunction with droperidol and nitrous oxide for neuroleptanalgesia? A. Opioids B. Benzodiazepines C. Barbiturates D. Antihistamines 18. Intervention for symptoms in patients who experience what condition involves lowering the dose of medication, discontinuing dose, Administer anticholinergic medications, or a drug holiday? A. Extrapyramidal Symptoms B. Serotonin Syndrome C. Opioid Withdrawal D. Hypertension 19. Which of the following drugs has the following adverse effects: drowsiness, insomnia, dizziness, extrapyramidal effects, weight gain, and metabolic changes? A. Olanzapine B. Risperidone C. Quetiapine D. Aripiprazole 20. Which of the following drugs is associated with the following adverse effects: Akathisia within the first 2 months, Parkinson-like symptoms within the first month, acute dystonia within hours to days of the first dose, tardive dyskinesia occurring months to years after therapy begins, anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth and constipation, suppressed sexual drive, severe dysrhythmias, dermatitis from sun exposure, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome? A. Chlorpromazine B. Olanzapine C. Risperidone D. Haloperidol 21. What drug therapy has the following contraindications: Pregnancy, lactation (teratogenic); Severe renal insufficiency; Moderate to severe cardiac disorders; Dehydration, decreased serum sodium, or low- salt diet; History of angioedema caused by ACE inhibitors? A. ACE inhibitors B. Lithium therapy C. Diuretics D. Beta-blockers 22. What drug has the following symptoms: Paradoxical effects (insomnia, anxiety, restlessness), Nausea and other gastrointestinal effects, Dizziness, lightheadedness, and headache? A. Fluoxetine B. Buspirone C. Sertraline D. Venlafaxine 23. What SSRI has the following client education: Report nervousness and insomnia, take the drug in the morning to avoid interference with sleep, report impotence and decreased libido, report headache, take over-the-counter analgesics as needed, eat a healthful diet and increase exercise, report lethargy, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and nausea, understand that this is a risk, report any worsening of depression or thoughts of suicide, report increased anxiety, fever, excessive sweating, tremors, and hallucinations, and stop taking the drug? A. Sertraline B. Fluoxetine C. Citalopram D. Paroxetine 24. What Beta-Adrenergic drug has the following adverse effects: stinging, burning, eye discomfort? If absorbed, it can cause cardiac and respiratory effects such as bradycardia, hypotension, and bronchospasms. A. Betaxolol B. Propranolol C. Atenolol D. Metoprolol 25. What Beta-Adrenergic drug is contraindicated for clients with heart block, heart failure, COPD, asthma, and bronchospasms? A. Timolol B. Propranolol C. Albuterol D. Salmeterol 26. What psychotherapeutic drug therapy has the following contraindications: Pregnancy risk (teratogenic) may cause fetal heart defects in the 1st trimester, not taken during lactation, contraindicated in clients with renal insufficiency or moderate to severe cardiac disorders, those who are dehydrated or have a low sodium level, on diuretics, or a low salt diet, history of angioedema (swelling around lips and mouth from ACE inhibitors), diabetes mellitus, urinary retention, suicidal ideation, and caution required for older adults who are more likely to have other health problems and take multiple drugs for disorders? A. Antidepressants Therepy B. Lithium therapy C. Benzodiazepines Therepy D. Antipsychotics Therepy 27. What supplement should be given to enhance absorption of Calcium? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin C C. Iron D. Magnesium 28. What bisphosphonate drug helps to decrease bone absorption by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts? A. Aldendronate B. Ibuprofen C. Metformin D. Amoxicillin 29. What Biologic DMARD that necessitates screening for tuberculosis before initiation of therapy to prevent reactivation of latent TB. A. Infliximab B. Adalimumab C. Etanercept D. Rituximab 30. Which Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) Is commonly used for: prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis and reduction of the risk of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer? A. Tamoxifen B. Raloxifene C. Clomiphene D. Anastrozole 31. Which of the following drugs requires an allergy skin test prior to taking to check for allergies related to Salmon? A. Calcitonin-Salmon B. Insulin C. Ibuprofen D. Lisinopril 32. What is the calcium condition that has the following manifestations: depression, blood in urine due to increased risk of kidney stones, flank pain, increased urine output (polyuria), constipation, nausea, and vomiting? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Normocalcemia D. Calcitonin deficiency 33. Which of the following drugs is given in conjunction with Folic Acid supplement to reduce the risk of toxicity? A. Methotrexate therapy B. Cyclophosphamide therepy C. Doxorubicin therepy D. Tamoxifen therepy 34. Which of the following Bisphosphonate drugs has the adverse effects of: Esophagitis Gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain) Muscle and joint pain Eye pain and vision changes? A. Risedronate B. Alendronate C. Ibandronate D. Zoledronic acid 35. Which of the following drugs regulates with a negative feedback mechanism? A. Insulin B. Calcium C. Cortisol D. Adrenaline 36. Which Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) is associated with the following client education guidelines: contact provider if client experiences pain in calf or difficulty breathing, do not take estrogen replacement therapy during treatment, hot flashes may occur, consume adequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D, perform daily weight-bearing exercises, and if premenopausal and using it to prevent breast cancer, use contraception and do not breastfeed during treatment? A. Tamoxifen B. Raloxifene C. Anastrozole D. Letrozole 37. Which drug has the following client education guidelines: - Alternate nostril used daily. - Report nasal irritation or bleeding. - Instruct clients to immediately notify provider if rash or itching occurs. - Notify provider of muscle spasms, tingling of fingers and toes. - Eat a diet high in calcium and vitamin D. - Monitor for loss of effect after a year or more of use through regular bone density studies? A. Alendronate B. Calcitonin-Salmon Intranasal spray C. Risedronate D. Ibandronate 38. What Benzodiazepine, if abruptly stopped, causes the following adverse effects due to possible withdrawal symptoms: insomnia, anxiety, tremors, diaphoresis, dizziness, panic, hypertension, seizures, paranoia, muscle twitching, and hallucinations? A. Lorazepam B. Alprazolam C. Diazepam D. Clonazepam 39. What MAOI drug has the following adverse effects: Orthostatic hypotension, anxiety, insomnia, agitation, hypertensive crisis in presence of tyramine-containing foods, constipation, nausea, vomiting, and other GI symptoms, and suicidal ideation (especially in children and young adults)? A. Tranylcypromine B. Isocarboxazid C. Phenelzine D. Selegiline 40. Which of the following Conventional antipsychotics does the client education pertain to, including instructions to notify the provider for various symptoms such as inner restlessness, muscle rigidity, and severe spasms? A. Thioridazine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Fluphenazine 41. Which Biologic DMARDs are associated with the following adverse reactions: Increased susceptibility to infections, Dizziness, Abdominal pain, Pharyngitis, Psoriasis, Upper Respiratory Infections, Rare occurrences of severe allergic reactions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), erythema multiforme, Local injection site reaction, Heart failure, and Reactivation of latent tuberculosis (TB)? A. Etanercept B. Methotrexate C. Certolizumab D. Azathioprine 42. When applying which of the following medications would you want to make sure of the following: Wear gloves, skin is clean and dry, do not apply on open areas? A. Oral medications B. Topical medications C. Inhaled medications D. Intravenous medications 43. When taking Sertraline, clients should avoid which type of food-drug interaction that can cause sertraline to accumulate in the body, leading to risk of toxicity? A. Grapefruit drink B. Apple juice C. Orange juice D. Pineapple juice 44. Which population is more at risk for toxicity due to physiological changes such as decreased cardiac output, decreased peristalsis, decline in renal/hepatic function affecting metabolism and excretion, and increased pH level in the GI tract affecting absorption and metabolism? A. Pediatric Population B. Geriatric Population C. Adult Population D. Pregnant Population 45. What type of reaction is characterized by signs and symptoms such as swelling in the eyes, face, mouth, and throat; difficulty breathing; wheezing; rapid heart rate; and extremely low blood pressure? A. Anaphylactic B. Allergic C. Cytotoxic D. Delayed-type 46. With this population, what special medication considerations are due to slower gastric emptying, increased absorption, high water-body fat content affecting drug distribution, a less effective blood-brain barrier allowing drugs to enter the brain more easily, and fewer enzymes produced affecting drug metabolism? A. Elderly patients B. Infants C. Adults D. Pregnant women 47. Which of these drugs are considered potentially harmful if there is no supervision by licensed healthcare members? A. Over-the-counter medications B. Prescription drugs C. Herbal supplements D. Homeopathic remedies 48. Which type of drugs are considered to be safe and are usually sold over the counter without a prescription? A. Prescription drugs B. Non-Prescription drugs C. Controlled substances D. Experimental drugs 49. This type of drug binds with a receptor and precipitates a greater than typical response? A. Antagonist B. Agonist C. Partial agonist D. Inverse agonist 50. This drug binds to a receptor and either blocks a response or precipitates a less than typical response. What is this type of drug called? A. Agonist B. Antagonist C. Agonist-antagonist D. Partial agonist 51. What type of injection may show signs of potential absorption problems such as bruising, inflammation, edema, and pain at the injection site? A. Subcutaneous injections B. IM injections C. Intravenous injections D. Intradermal injections 52. What drug is associated with adverse effects such as visual disturbances with yellow or green halos, bradycardia, arrhythmias, and fatigue/weakness? A. Lisinopril B. Digoxin C. Amiodarone D. Amlodipine 53. Which of the following drug types has the quickest absorption? A. Oral drugs B. Inhaled drugs C. IV injection D. Topical 54. These various factors, including the route of administration, patient metabolism, drug formulation, and the patient's age affect medication ? A. Bioavailibilty B. On set of action C. GI metabolism D. Peak