NP CARDIOLOGY REVIEW KATIE B PART 2 (Clinical Application)
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Questions and Answers

What is the most common vein affected by superficial thrombophlebitis?

  • Basilic vein
  • Great saphenous vein (correct)
  • Small saphenous vein
  • Femoral vein

    • What is the first-line diagnostic tool for superficial thrombophlebitis?

  • CT scan
  • Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  • Duplex ultrasound (correct)
  • X-ray

    • Which statement about aortic dissection is correct?

  • Mild descending dissections can be treated with medications. (correct)
  • Chest x-ray is the preferred diagnostic test.
  • It is equally likely to affect men and women.
  • The peak incidence occurs before age 50.

    • What is the recommended management for superficial thrombophlebitis near a junction with the deep venous system?

    <p>Ligation of the affected vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mortality rate for ascending aortic dissections within the first 24 hours?

    <p>30%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common type of hypertension?

    <p>Essential hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Stage 1 hypertension according to the latest criteria?

    <p>140-159/90-99 mmHg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What risk factor is NOT commonly associated with hypertension?

    <p>Low-fat diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential cause of secondary hypertension?

    <p>Renal artery stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is NOT typically used in the treatment of hypertension?

    <p>Statins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with severe hypertension?

    <p>Nausea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered a hypertensive emergency?

    <p>Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg with end organ damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following can cause orthostatic hypotension?

    <p>Dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical effect of dyslipidemia as it progresses?

    <p>Advanced atherosclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary characteristic of stable angina?

    <p>Pain triggered by exertion or stress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by pain that occurs at rest and lasts longer than 15 minutes?

    <p>Unstable angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is typically the most common cause of aortic stenosis in patients over 65?

    <p>Valve calcification</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign is associated with aortic regurgitation?

    <p>De Musset sign</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is most commonly associated with left-sided heart failure?

    <p>Dyspnea on exertion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can lead to a paradoxical splitting of the second heart sound (S2)?

    <p>Aortic regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by rigidity of the ventricles leading to diastolic dysfunction?

    <p>Restrictive cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the hallmark physical exam finding in pericarditis?

    <p>Pericardial friction rub</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the treatment of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which medication is commonly prescribed?

    <p>Calcium channel blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is crucial for confirming bacterial infective endocarditis?

    <p>Blood culture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure?

    <p>Smoking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition is jugular venous distension primarily observed?

    <p>Cor pulmonale</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which murmur is the treatment of choice for mitral regurgitation?

    <p>Valve replacement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What cardiac condition is associated with elevated troponin levels?

    <p>Myocarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does nitroglycerin play in the management of stable angina?

    <p>Relieves chest pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a hypertensive urgency?

    <p>Greater than 180/120 mmHg with no signs of end-organ damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered a primary cause of hypertension?

    <p>Obesity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which dietary recommendation is commonly advised for managing hypertension?

    <p>DASH or Mediterranean diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical target blood pressure for treating hypertension?

    <p>Less than 130/80 mmHg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is identified as the number one cause of secondary hypertension?

    <p>Renal Artery Stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise from untreated hypertension?

    <p>Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pharmacological class of medication is NOT typically used in hypertension treatment?

    <p>Antihistamines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is important for evaluating secondary causes of hypertension?

    <p>Thyroid Panel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical presentation of hypotension?

    <p>Dizziness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can trigger Prinzmetal angina?

    <p>Rapid breathing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is considered first-line for hyperlipidemia?

    <p>Statins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnostic criteria for dyslipidemia regarding LDL levels?

    <p>Greater than 100 mg/dL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would be observed in a physical exam of someone with dyslipidemia?

    <p>Xanthelasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is typically associated with stable angina?

    <p>Retrosternal pain triggered by exertion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication of untreated dyslipidemia?

    <p>Atherosclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a risk factor for developing atherosclerosis?

    <p>Family history</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is utilized to enhance blood flow during an angina attack?

    <p>Nitroglycerin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important aspect of diagnosing orthostatic hypotension?

    <p>Decrease in blood pressure upon standing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom may indicate cardiogenic shock?

    <p>Tachycardia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk factor for developing Prinzmetal angina?

    <p>Japanese ethnicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes unstable angina from stable angina?

    <p>Duration of pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step in the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis?

    <p>Fatty streak formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important factor influencing the diagnosis of myocardial infarction?

    <p>ECG showing ST elevation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is commonly used for managing vasospasm during diagnostic procedures?

    <p>Ergonovine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is NOT typically associated with venous insufficiency?

    <p>Calf pain worsening with rest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

    <p>Obesity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical symptom is most indicative of Peripheral Arterial Thromboembolism (PAT)?

    <p>Coldness in the extremities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Virchow's triad associated with in the context of DVT?

    <p>Stasis, vessel injury, hypercoagulability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of a wide, fixed S2 split during a physical exam typically suggest?

    <p>Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic tool is primarily used to confirm the diagnosis of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

    <p>Doppler ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise from untreated Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

    <p>Gangrene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common treatment option for Congenital Heart Disease, specifically Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?

    <p>Surgical repair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor significantly increases the likelihood of closing the ductus arteriosus in Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

    <p>Prematurity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical exam finding is indicative of Coarctation of the Aorta?

    <p>Decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a typical symptom of Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)?

    <p>Fatigue with feeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first-line treatment for a confirmed DVT?

    <p>Anticoagulants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does magnesium play in the occurrence of vasospasm?

    <p>Its deficiency may trigger vasospasm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is indicative of cardiac tamponade?

    <p>Pericardial friction rub</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus of treatment for myocarditis?

    <p>Supportive care</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition does NOT typically cause aortic dissection?

    <p>Coronary artery disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is superficial thrombophlebitis most commonly caused?

    <p>Chemical irritation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common risk factor for developing abdominal aortic aneurysm?

    <p>Marfan syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical feature is typically associated with rheumatic heart disease?

    <p>Murmurs from valve damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical exam finding is associated with Turner syndrome in the context of vascular anomalies?

    <p>Delayed brachial-femoral pulse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common diagnostic test used for bacterial infective endocarditis?

    <p>Blood cultures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which congenital heart condition involves a single arterial trunk arising from both ventricles?

    <p>Truncus arteriosus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnosis method for conditions like Transposition of the Great Arteries?

    <p>Echocardiogram</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation is pericardiocentesis indicated?

    <p>Cardiac tamponade</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cyanotic congenital heart disease is characterized by absence of the tricuspid valve?

    <p>Tricuspid atresia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the symptoms of bacterial infective endocarditis?

    <p>Weight loss and fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic auscultatory finding in aortic regurgitation?

    <p>Diastolic murmur loudest at the left third intercostal space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments is appropriate for a mild descending aortic dissection?

    <p>Antihypertensive medication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is commonly associated with mitral stenosis?

    <p>Rheumatic heart disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which heart sound is described as 'Kentucky' and may indicate volume overload?

    <p>S3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common valvular disorder in individuals over 65 years of age?

    <p>Aortic stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of severe mitral regurgitation?

    <p>Pulmonary hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do diuretics play in the treatment of heart failure?

    <p>Eliminate excess fluid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following murmurs is characterized by a systolic thrill along the left sternal border?

    <p>Tetralogy of Fallot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary symptom of left-sided heart failure?

    <p>Dyspnea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT a characteristic of superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>It is an infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is primarily treated with prostaglandin administration to maintain PDA until surgery?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition is an Austin Flint murmur typically heard?

    <p>Severe aortic regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key sign of pericarditis on physical examination?

    <p>Friction rub</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of the Aortic Stenosis murmur?

    <p>Systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign is specifically associated with severe aortic regurgitation?

    <p>De Musset sign</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is typically indicated for tricuspid regurgitation?

    <p>Valve replacement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which congenital heart defect is associated with 'egg on a string' finding on X-ray?

    <p>Transposition of the great arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What murmur characteristic distinguishes hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?

    <p>Gets louder with decreased preload</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which additional symptom can indicate late-stage hypoxia in patients with tetralogy of Fallot?

    <p>Finger clubbing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable outcome of pulmonary hypertension in the context of heart failure?

    <p>Right-sided heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What abnormality is notably seen in patients with hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

    <p>Absence or stenosis of the mitral valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of congenital heart disease results in deoxygenated blood from pulmonary veins draining into the superior vena cava?

    <p>Total anomalous pulmonary venous return</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom can be seen in both right-sided heart failure and cor pulmonale?

    <p>Pitting leg edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical sign is associated specifically with tricuspid stenosis?

    <p>Diastolic murmur loudest at the left sternal border</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'afterload' refer to in cardiac physiology?

    <p>Pressure the heart must overcome to eject blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main treatment strategy for restrictive cardiomyopathy?

    <p>Medication aimed at diastolic filling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common initial symptom of mitral valve prolapse when it becomes symptomatic?

    <p>Chest pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is often appropriate for hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

    <p>Surgical fixation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following complications is associated with untreated hypertension?

    <p>Myocardial infarction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the criteria for diagnosing Stage 2 hypertension?

    <p>Greater than 160/100 mmHg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lifestyle change is recommended for managing hypertension?

    <p>Exercise for at least 150 minutes per week</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication class is NOT typically used in treating hypertension?

    <p>Antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is characteristic of a hypertensive emergency?

    <p>Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg with end organ damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common sign of hypotension that can be observed during a physical examination?

    <p>Clammy skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension?

    <p>Dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is primarily used for diagnosing dyslipidemia?

    <p>Fasting lipid panel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication of severe hyperlipidemia, specifically when triglyceride levels are very high?

    <p>Pancreatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers stable angina?

    <p>Stress or exertion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What differentiates unstable angina from myocardial infarction?

    <p>Duration of pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by arterial narrowing due to plaque buildup?

    <p>Atherosclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes Prinzmetal angina?

    <p>Occurs at rest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition would you expect to find Xanthelasma during a physical exam?

    <p>Dyslipidemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common treatment for cardiogenic shock?

    <p>Cardiac defibrillator or pacemaker</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lifestyle change is recommended for managing atherosclerosis?

    <p>Enhance exercise and improve diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common symptom is associated with hypotension when changing positions?

    <p>Dizziness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is preferred for assessing aortic dissection?

    <p>Trans-esophageal echocardiogram</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mortality rate within the first 24 hours for ascending aortic and arch dissections?

    <p>30%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is NOT recommended for superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>Antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can lead to superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>Irritation from IV drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment strategy for mild descending aortic dissections?

    <p>Beta blockers or calcium channel blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a physical examination for superficial thrombophlebitis, which finding is least likely to be present?

    <p>Color change of the skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which risk factor is associated with an increased occurrence of superficial thrombophlebitis during pregnancy?

    <p>Decreased fibrinolytic activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What imaging technique is considered the preferred method for evaluating superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>Duplex ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is NOT recommended for vasospasm?

    <p>Beta blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition can lead to pitting edema and varicose veins due to a failure in venous valves?

    <p>Venous insufficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary symptom of peripheral arterial disease that worsens with activity?

    <p>Claudication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic tool is most definitive for diagnosing peripheral venous thromboembolism (DVT)?

    <p>Doppler Ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which congenital heart defect is categorized as non-cyanotic and involves a shunt from the left to the right heart?

    <p>Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of heart murmur radiates to the carotids and occurs during systole due to aortic stenosis?

    <p>Systolic murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings is commonly associated with left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Pulmonary symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is a common cause of mitral regurgitation?

    <p>Rheumatic heart disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is characteristically associated with aortic dissection?

    <p>Intense, sudden tearing pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which murmur is described as a mid-systolic click associated with mitral valve prolapse?

    <p>Systolic murmurs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory finding is typically elevated in cases of myocarditis?

    <p>Eosinophilia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the management of pericarditis, which treatment is typically recommended?

    <p>Anti-inflammatories</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a common symptom of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

    <p>Jugular venous distension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can occur due to untreated bacterial infective endocarditis?

    <p>Heart valve damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes Stage 2 hypertension criteria?

    <p>Greater than 160/100 mmHg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common underlying condition that leads to secondary hypertension?

    <p>Renal artery stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a hypertensive emergency?

    <p>Blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg with end organ damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is a significant risk associated with hypertension?

    <p>Genetics and obesity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension effectively?

    <p>Labetalol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary change is recommended for individuals managing hypertension?

    <p>Low-salt diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of hypertension treatment?

    <p>Blood pressure less than 130/80 mmHg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is essential for assessing arrhythmias in hypotension?

    <p>Electrocardiogram (ECG)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common symptom of orthostatic hypotension?

    <p>Dizziness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a prevalent cause of dyslipidemia?

    <p>Familial hypercholesterolemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which complication is associated with untreated dyslipidemia?

    <p>Myocardial infarction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings might indicate atherosclerosis during a physical exam?

    <p>Xanthelasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lifestyle modification is recommended to reduce atherosclerosis risk?

    <p>Smoking cessation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary risk factor for developing hypotension in the elderly?

    <p>Chronic dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is commonly used for managing high triglycerides?

    <p>Fibrates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a characteristic finding in patients with significant atherosclerosis?

    <p>Angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic imaging technique can visualize narrowing of the carotid arteries?

    <p>Carotid ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of cardiogenic syncope?

    <p>Dizziness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic EKG finding during an attack of cardiac vasospasm?

    <p>ST elevation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is NOT typically included for managing venous insufficiency?

    <p>Beta-blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom associated with Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

    <p>Calf pain that improves with rest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What finding is associated with the diagnosis of Peripheral Venous Thromboembolism (DVT)?

    <p>Positive Homan’s sign</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which congenital heart defect is associated with a 'boot-shaped' heart appearance on imaging?

    <p>Tetralogy of Fallot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which heart sound indicates volume overload conditions?

    <p>S3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key risk factor contributing to Peripheral Arterial Thromboembolism?

    <p>Atrial fibrillation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic tool is definitive for diagnosing venous insufficiency?

    <p>Doppler ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by cyanosis due to deoxygenated blood shunted from the right heart to the left heart?

    <p>Tetralogy of Fallot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition is the Ankle Brachial Index (ABI) most commonly used as a screening test?

    <p>Peripheral Arterial Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does magnesium deficiency relate to cardiac vasospasm?

    <p>It can trigger vasospasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is used for emergent re-establishment of arterial flow in cases of Peripheral Arterial Thromboembolism?

    <p>Embolectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important preventative measure for venous thromboembolism?

    <p>Frequent ambulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is associated with aortic stenosis?

    <p>Narrow pulse pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a defining characteristic of unstable angina compared to stable angina?

    <p>Occurs without a clear trigger.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic tool reveals ST depression in both stable and unstable angina?

    <p>Electrocardiogram (ECG)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment option is NOT typically utilized for stable angina?

    <p>Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of Prinzmetal angina?

    <p>Chest pain that occurs primarily during rest or early morning.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical cause of Prinzmetal angina?

    <p>Coronary artery vasospasm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a non-invasive method for evaluating heart function during exercise?

    <p>Nuclear stress test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long does chest pain typically last during an episode of unstable angina?

    <p>15 to 20 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary physiological trigger for Prinzmetal angina?

    <p>Coronary artery vasospasm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom might indicate a more severe case of angina?

    <p>Chest pain radiating to the neck and jaw.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the management of unstable angina is true?

    <p>Immediate response is crucial to prevent myocardial infarction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of secondary hypertension?

    <p>It arises from underlying medical conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is most likely associated with severe cases of hypertension?

    <p>Headache</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dietary approach is commonly recommended for managing hypertension?

    <p>DASH diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic test is crucial for confirming the presence of pheochromocytoma?

    <p>Urinary catecholamines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following groups is at a higher risk for developing hypertension?

    <p>Sedentary individuals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main goal of pharmacologic treatment for hypertension?

    <p>To maintain blood pressure less than 130/80</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is NOT typically used in the treatment of hypertension?

    <p>Antidepressants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary imaging modality used to assess blood flow speed and direction in superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>Duplex ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical treatment approach for mild descending aortic dissections?

    <p>Administration of beta blockers or calcium channel blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical change can be observed on a CT scan of a patient with aortic dissection?

    <p>Double-barreled aorta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common factors contribute to the risk of developing superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>IV drug use and high-dose estrogen oral contraceptives</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended management for a patient with ascending aortic dissection?

    <p>Immediate surgical intervention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the demographics of aortic dissection?

    <p>Men have a threefold higher likelihood of developing it.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common clinical presentation of superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>Edema, bruising, and tenderness along the vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical mortality rate within the first 24 hours for ascending aortic dissections?

    <p>30%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common underlying cause of cardiogenic syncope?

    <p>Dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is indicated for patients with high triglycerides only?

    <p>Fibrates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for dyslipidemia?

    <p>Total cholesterol greater than 200</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes unstable angina from myocardial infarction?

    <p>Angina occurs at rest without a trigger</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with atherosclerosis?

    <p>Xanthelasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most prominent risk factor for developing atherosclerosis?

    <p>Genetic predisposition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical duration for stable angina episodes?

    <p>Less than 15 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intervention is NOT a supportive treatment for hypotension?

    <p>Increased caffeine intake</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging technique is used for diagnosing atherosclerosis?

    <p>Nuclear stress test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication of untreated dyslipidemia?

    <p>Atherosclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical exam finding is indicative of advanced atherosclerosis?

    <p>Arcus senilis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What key factor contributes to the onset of Prinzmetal angina?

    <p>Coronary artery vasospasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is primarily used to alleviate stable angina symptoms?

    <p>Nitroglycerin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lipid level indicates dyslipidemia if the LDL is found to be greater than this amount?

    <p>100</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis in patients over 65 years old?

    <p>Calcification of the valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign is characteristic of aortic regurgitation?

    <p>Becker sign</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common primary symptom in left-sided heart failure?

    <p>Cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is often necessary for severe mitral regurgitation?

    <p>Valve replacement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant cause of diastolic dysfunction in restrictive cardiomyopathy?

    <p>Idiopathic causes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common complication of rheumatic fever?

    <p>Mitral stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with a paradoxical split of the second heart sound (S2)?

    <p>Pulmonic stenosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?

    <p>Genetic mutation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common presentation of bacterial infective endocarditis?

    <p>New-onset heart murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first symptom of cor pulmonale?

    <p>Jugular venous distension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign is associated with aortic dissection?

    <p>Widened pulse pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Among the following, what is a common treatment for restrictive cardiomyopathy?

    <p>Diuretics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary treatment option for venous insufficiency?

    <p>Compression stockings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

    <p>Calf pain that worsens with activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common non-cyanotic congenital heart defect?

    <p>Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is a DVT primarily diagnosed?

    <p>Doppler ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical exam finding is associated with Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?

    <p>Wide fixed S2 split</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a risk factor for developing Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

    <p>Family history of thromboembolism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a failure of the ductus arteriosus to close after birth?

    <p>Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of monitoring magnesium levels in relation to treatment with nitroglycerin?

    <p>To assess electrolyte imbalance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does NOT form part of Virchow's Triad for thromboembolism risk?

    <p>Immune response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial screening test for detecting DVT?

    <p>Elevated D-dimer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is characteristic of Congenital Heart Disease?

    <p>Fatigue with feeding in infants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can lead to pitting edema as a complication?

    <p>Venous Insufficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom noted in patients with coarctation of the aorta?

    <p>Brachial pulse delayed compared to femoral pulse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with a single arterial trunk arising from both ventricles?

    <p>Truncus Arteriosus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic tool is primarily used for diagnosing transposition of the great vessels?

    <p>Echocardiogram</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic physical exam finding in Tetralogy of Fallot?

    <p>Cyanosis during crying</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cyanotic congenital heart defect shows an 'egg-on-a-string' appearance on X-ray?

    <p>Transposition of the Great Vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is indicated for maintaining the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in congenital heart defects?

    <p>Prostaglandin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is typical of right ventricular outflow obstruction in Tetralogy of Fallot?

    <p>Cyanotic spells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

    <p>Underdeveloped left ventricle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which congenital heart defect is the absence of the tricuspid valve noted?

    <p>Tricuspid Atresia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is often associated with an egg-shaped heart silhouette on imaging?

    <p>Transposition of the Great Vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of valvular stenosis?

    <p>Chamber enlargement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes the sound immediately following S2 that may indicate volume overload?

    <p>S3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes diastolic murmurs?

    <p>Caused by valve regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of increased afterload on the heart?

    <p>Increased risk of heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which congenital heart disease is NOT part of the '5 T's' mnemonic?

    <p>Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary risk factor associated with aortic dissection?

    <p>Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is most indicative of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm?

    <p>Pulsatile abdominal mass</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what size is surgical intervention generally recommended for an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

    <p>5 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging study is preferred for monitoring an abdominal aortic aneurysm smaller than 4.5 cm?

    <p>Ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with an aortic dissection?

    <p>Muffled heart sounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most critical initial step in the management of an aortic dissection?

    <p>Administer beta blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic finding on CT scan for aortic dissection?

    <p>Double barrel aorta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common trigger for superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>IV drug use</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical finding upon physical examination of superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>Firm thickened vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the immediate treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis?

    <p>NSAIDs and heat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes between a hypertensive urgency and a hypertensive emergency?

    <p>Hypertensive emergency presents with end organ damage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of hypotension?

    <p>Blurry vision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is considered a first-line pharmacological intervention for dyslipidemia?

    <p>Statins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory test is essential for diagnosing secondary hypertension due to pheochromocytoma?

    <p>Urinary catecholamines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common complication of untreated hypertension?

    <p>Myocardial infarction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the management of stable angina, what is the recommended duration for pain relief with nitroglycerin?

    <p>Less than 10 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which etiology is most commonly associated with primary hypertension?

    <p>Obesity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism through which aldosterone increases blood pressure?

    <p>Sodium and water reabsorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign may be observed in a physical exam of a patient with high triglycerides?

    <p>Xanthelasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes stable angina?

    <p>Relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended initial treatment for patients diagnosed with hypertension?

    <p>Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered a normal blood pressure according to the latest hypertension criteria?

    <p>Less than 130/85</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor for atherosclerosis?

    <p>Cirrhosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with unstable angina?

    <p>Preference for upright position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnostic tool for assessing peripheral arterial disease?

    <p>Ankle-brachial index</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common treatment approach for peripheral venous thromboembolism?

    <p>Compression stockings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which congenital heart defect is associated with a wide fixed S2 split?

    <p>Atrial septal defect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physical exam finding is characteristic of aortic regurgitation?

    <p>Harsh blowing diastolic murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most likely cause of cyanosis within hours of birth?

    <p>Hypoplastic left heart syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is typically associated with Turner syndrome?

    <p>Coarctation of the aorta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of venous insufficiency?

    <p>Aching and heaviness in legs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which risk factor is associated with peripheral arterial disease?

    <p>High cholesterol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of murmur is associated with mitral regurgitation?

    <p>Holosystolic murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What test is used to diagnose Prinzmetal angina?

    <p>Ergonovine provocation test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments is common for aortic stenosis?

    <p>Surgical replacement of valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What heart sound is indicative of volume overload?

    <p>S3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can lead to malleolar ulcers and pitting edema?

    <p>Peripheral venous insufficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis in individuals over 65?

    <p>Calcification of the valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which murmur is characteristic of mitral regurgitation?

    <p>Systolic murmur that radiates to the axilla</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What audible sign is associated with mitral stenosis?

    <p>Opening snap and diastolic murmur at the left lateral apex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following signs is a feature of aortic regurgitation?

    <p>De Musset's sign</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for symptomatic mitral valve prolapse?

    <p>Beta blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which echocardiogram finding is characteristic of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?

    <p>Increased velocity across left ventricular outflow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition would you expect to find a diastolic murmur loudest at the left sternal border?

    <p>Pulmonic regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of left-sided heart failure?

    <p>Dyspnea at rest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can often lead to sudden death in young athletes?

    <p>Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common physical examination finding in left-sided heart failure?

    <p>Meniscus sign on X-ray</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic sign of aortic regurgitation?

    <p>Austin Flint murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common factor is associated with right-sided heart failure?

    <p>Smoking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which murmur is associated with tricuspid regurgitation?

    <p>Systolic murmur at the left sternal fourth intercostal space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary symptom of core pulmonale?

    <p>Jugular venous distension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic finding is characteristic of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

    <p>Normal contraction with poor filling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common autoimmune trigger for rheumatic fever?

    <p>Group A streptococcus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which agent is NOT commonly associated with bacterial infective endocarditis in native valves?

    <p>Staphylococcus epidermidis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical sign of cardiac tamponade?

    <p>Beck's triad</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary symptom of myocarditis during the acute phase?

    <p>Fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is strongly associated with Kussmaul's sign?

    <p>Restrictive cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant diagnostic test for bacterial infective endocarditis?

    <p>Blood culture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is typically an adjunctive treatment for core pulmonale?

    <p>Digitalis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a classic symptom of pericarditis?

    <p>Sharp retrosternal chest pain worsened by inspiration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging modality is often used to assess pericardial effusion?

    <p>Echocardiogram</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is generally avoided in the treatment of restrictive cardiomyopathy due to potential complications?

    <p>Ionotropes like digoxin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the defining characteristic of myocarditis during the chronic phase?

    <p>Autoimmune destruction of myocardium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lab finding might be notable in myocarditis?

    <p>Elevated troponin levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is associated with pericardial effusion?

    <p>Paradoxical pulse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Hypertension

    • Hypertension is a silent disease, often undiagnosed, potentially leading to severe health complications if untreated. Symptoms may include severe headache, nausea, and blurry vision.
    • Fundoscopic exam may reveal AV nicking, copper and silver wiring, and papilledema.
    • 2020 International Society of Hypertension Criteria:
      • Normal: Less than 130/85 mmHg
      • Elevated: 130-139/85-89 mmHg
      • Stage 1: 140-159/90-99 mmHg
      • Stage 2: Greater than 160/100 mmHg
      • Hypertensive Urgency: Greater than 180/120 mmHg without end-organ damage
      • Hypertensive Emergency: Greater than 180/120 mmHg with end-organ damage (e.g., renal failure, seizures)
    • Renin-Angiotensin System (RAS) plays key role:
      • Angiotensinogen + Renin = Angiotensin I
      • Angiotensin I + ACE = Angiotensin II
      • Angiotensin II = Vasoconstriction, Aldosterone release
      • Aldosterone increases sodium and water reabsorption, increasing blood pressure
    • 95% of hypertension is essential (primary). Potential causes include genetics, obesity, diabetes, and heart disease.
    • Secondary hypertension caused by other conditions:
      • Renal artery stenosis: Most common cause, often due to fibromuscular dysplasia or atherosclerosis.
      • Pheochromocytoma
      • Addison's disease
      • Sleep apnea
      • Hyperthyroidism
    • Causes of Hypertensive Urgency/Emergency:
      • Non-compliance with medication
      • Stimulants (e.g., diet pills, pseudoephedrine, cocaine)
      • Eclampsia (pregnancy)
    • Epidemiology: Approximately 35% of Americans are affected. Smokers and sedentary individuals are at increased risk.
    • Complications (untreated): Renal failure, retinopathy, myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident (stroke).
    • Diagnosis: Requires at least three blood pressure readings greater than 130/80 mmHg on separate visits to exclude white coat hypertension.
    • Diagnostic testing:
      • Thyroid panel
      • Urinary catecholamines (pheochromocytoma)
      • Renal ultrasound (unresponsive to medications)
      • Polysomnography (sleep apnea)
      • Drug screen (cocaine use)
    • Counseling Points: DASH diet, Mediterranean diet, low-sodium diet, limit alcohol intake, 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic exercise per week.
    • Treatment:
      • Pharmacologic: ACE inhibitors, ARBs, diuretics, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers.
      • Goal: Blood pressure less than 130/80 mmHg
      • Emergency Treatment: Sodium nitroprusside, labetalol, phentolamine (cocaine overdose).
      • 2017 American Heart Association criteria might exist, but details are not provided.

    Hypotension

    • Common History findings: Dizziness, blurry vision, lightheadedness, palpitations, syncope with standing.
    • Physical Exam Findings: Increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate (compensatory), clammy skin.
    • Types of Hypotension:
      • Orthostatic Hypotension: Drop in blood pressure (20 mmHg systolic or 10 mmHg diastolic) within three minutes of standing, caused by sympathetic failure of the sinoatrial node, blood pooling in the legs. Most common cause is dehydration.
      • Cardiogenic Syncope: Vasoconstriction fails, leading to low brain perfusion. Can lead to cardiogenic shock. Causes of cardiogenic shock include myocardial infarction, ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation.
    • Epidemiology: Hypotension is common in the elderly due to dehydration.
    • Diagnosis: EKG, Holter monitor (arrhythmias), evaluation for chronic dehydration.
    • Treatment:
      • Support Treatment: Fluids, support hose, stand slowly.
      • Medications: Fludrocortisone, desmopressin
      • Severe cases: Cardiac defibrillator, pacemaker

    Dyslipidemia

    • Prevalence: 15% of Americans.
    • Diagnostic Criteria (Fasting lipid panel): LDL >100 mg/dL, HDL <40 mg/dL, total cholesterol >200 mg/dL, triglycerides >150 mg/dL.
    • Risk Factors: Genetics, diabetes, smoking, anorexia (impaired liver cholesterol metabolism), high-fat diets.
    • Dyslipidemia is a silent disease, with no symptoms until advanced atherosclerosis develops.
    • Physical Exam Findings: Xanthelasma, arterial bruits, arcus senilis.
    • Complications: Atherosclerosis, pancreatitis (high triglycerides).
    • Diagnosis: Fasting lipid panel.
    • Treatment:
      • First-line treatment: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins)
      • If statins are not tolerated: Bile acid sequestrants
      • High triglycerides only: Fibrates

    Atherosclerosis

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    (...Remaining sections unchanged, but incorporating the updated information... )

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    Description

    This quiz covers the classification, risk factors, and criteria for hypertension as defined by the American Heart Association. Learn the differences between essential and secondary hypertension, and understand the implications of various blood pressure stages. Test your knowledge on this common yet serious health issue.

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