734 Questions
Which structure in the nervous system is responsible for integrating and processing sensory information?
Cerebral cortex
Which part of the nervous system helps regulate the activities of the autonomic nervous system?
Enteric ganglia
What is the primary function of the cerebellum in the nervous system?
Coordination of movement
Which structure in the nervous system contains the cell bodies of neurons that bring most sensory information from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system?
Dorsal root ganglia
Which part of the brain is responsible for the formation, storage, and retrieval of memories?
Limbic structures
What is the primary function of the axons in the nervous system?
Transmitting electrical signals between neurons
Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for planning and abstract thinking?
Frontal and parietal lobes
Which brain structure is involved in the formation of new memories?
Limbic lobe
Where are memories typically stored in the brain?
Cortex near the associated sensory area
Which lobe is primarily responsible for hearing?
Temporal lobe
Which area of the brain is involved in the perception of touch and proprioception (awareness of body position)?
Postcentral gyrus
What is the primary function of the occipital lobe?
Vision
What is the primary function of the peripheral nervous system?
To detect stimuli and relay information to the central nervous system
Which part of the nervous system is responsible for integrating sensory information and generating responses?
The central nervous system
What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?
Central and peripheral
Which of the following is NOT a major anatomic structure of the central nervous system?
Peripheral nerves
Which part of the nervous system is responsible for controlling the digestive system?
Enteric nervous system
Which of the following is NOT a component of the neurologic physical exam?
Endocrine system evaluation
What is the purpose of the Romberg sign test?
To assess the function of the dorsal columns
What is the expected outcome if the dorsal columns are damaged in the Romberg test?
The patient will not be able to maintain balance with eyes closed
What is the purpose of the corticospinal tract test, also known as the pronator drift test?
To identify damage to the corticospinal tract
What is the expected outcome of the corticospinal tract test if there is damage to the corticospinal tract?
The patient's arm will drift to a more pronated position, and the hand will close
Which brain structures are part of the corticospinal tract?
The precentral gyrus and prefrontal cortex
Which neurological function is primarily evaluated by the tests described in the text?
Motor coordination
Which deep structure in the cerebrum regulates movements and behaviors?
The basal ganglia
What is the primary function of the thalamus?
Relaying sensory information to the cortex
Which of the following is a key function of the cerebellum?
Comparing sensory feedback to planned movements and making rapid adjustments
What is the main difference between the gray matter and white matter in the spinal cord?
Gray matter contains cell bodies and unmyelinated/lightly myelinated axons, while white matter contains myelinated axons
What is the primary role of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord gray matter?
To integrate and relay sensory information to the brain
Why are neurons and axons in the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) less able to regenerate compared to the peripheral nervous system?
The central nervous system is isolated from the rest of the body by the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid
Which function of Cranial Nerve VII is responsible for controlling facial movements, such as eye opening, pursed lips, and raised eyebrows?
Somatic motor
Which branch of Cranial Nerve VII is responsible for providing taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
Special sense (taste)
Which of the following is NOT a function of Cranial Nerve VII?
Providing somatic sensation from the eye muscles
Where does Cranial Nerve VII exit the pons and enter the facial canal?
Internal acoustic meatus
What is the primary function of the autonomic motor branch of Cranial Nerve VII?
Providing input to the salivary and tear glands
Which of the following is a key function of Cranial Nerve VII that is NOT mentioned in the text?
None of the above
Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for vision?
Cranial Nerve II
How would you test for anosmia (loss of smell)?
Ask the patient to identify distinctive smells
Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling pupillary dilation and constriction?
Cranial Nerve III
Which of the following tests is used to assess central vision?
Snellen eye chart
Which cranial nerve is responsible for directing the gaze laterally (abducting the eyeball)?
Cranial Nerve VI
What is the common skull entry/exit point for Cranial Nerves III, IV, and VI?
Superior orbital fissure
What is the primary function of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve)?
Detecting and transmitting olfactory (smell) sensations
Where are the nuclei (cell bodies) of most cranial nerves located?
Brainstem
What type of information is NOT typically conveyed by cranial nerves?
Visceral motor information (involuntary muscle control)
Which cranial nerve's nuclei are located in the midbrain?
Oculomotor (CN III) and Trochlear (CN IV)
Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression?
Facial (CN VII)
Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is NOT true?
Their nuclei are located in the cerebral cortex
What is the primary function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?
Controlling the muscles involved in swallowing and vocalization
How can the function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X) be tested?
By stimulating the posterior aspect of the pharynx and observing the gag reflex
Which of the following is NOT a function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?
Controlling the muscles involved in facial expressions
What is the meaning of the term 'vagus' in relation to the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?
It refers to the wandering or extensive distribution of the nerve
Which of the following is NOT a function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?
Controlling the movements of the eyes
What is a potential limitation of using the gag reflex test to assess the function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?
All of the above
What is the primary function of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X)?
Motor control of the vocal cords and palate elevation
How is the function of the accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) tested?
Having the patient shrug their shoulders and turn their head against resistance
What is the primary function of the hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII)?
Motor control of the muscles of the tongue for speech and swallowing
Which of the following statements about the accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) is true?
It is not considered a true cranial nerve, as its cell bodies are located in the cervical spinal cord
Which of the following is NOT a typical way to test the function of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X)?
Assessing the patient's ability to track objects with their eyes
What is the expected outcome if the hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) is damaged?
Difficulty swallowing and speaking clearly due to tongue muscle impairment
Which sugar is an aldose in the provided structures?
Glucose
What is the configuration of Idose?
L
In the context provided, which sugar is a ketose?
Fructose
Which sugar among the ones listed is an epimer of Mannose?
Galactose
What type of stereoisomers are Glucose and Idose?
Epimers
Which term describes stereoisomers that are not mirror images of each other?
Diastereomers
D-Glucose and D-Mannose are examples of which type of stereoisomer?
Epimers
Fructose and Galactose are examples of sugars that differ in what functional group?
Ketone group
Ketoses and Aldoses are differentiated based on the presence of which functional group?
Aldehyde group
Which term describes stereoisomers that are mirror images of each other?
Enantiomers
Which of the following is a key difference between glucose and fructose as indicated in the text?
Glucose is an aldose while fructose is a ketose
According to the information provided, which of the following is true about the relationship between glucose and fructose?
Glucose and fructose are converted via an isomerization reaction
What is the key difference between stereoisomers and structural isomers as described in the text?
Stereoisomers have the same atoms in the same order, but different spatial arrangement, while structural isomers have the same atoms but not in the same order
According to the information provided, which of the following statements about the D and L designations for monosaccharides is correct?
D-glucose and L-glucose are assigned based on the position of the hydroxyl group attached to the chiral carbon furthest from the aldehyde or ketone group
What is the key difference between epimers and diastereomers as described in the text?
Epimers differ at only one chiral carbon, while diastereomers may or may not differ at only one chiral carbon
What physical property of Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) allows them to have a 'slippery' texture?
Hydration
Which feature of Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) contributes to their ability to be 'squished' under pressure and then 'expand' when water returns?
Resilience
In glycoconjugates, such as proteoglycans, how are carbohydrates typically attached to proteins?
By covalent bonds
What is the main function of glycoconjugates like glycoproteins in biological systems?
Cell-cell recognition
Which characteristic makes Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) resistant to pressure?
Negative charges
What specific feature of glycoconjugates like glycolipids distinguishes them from other molecules?
Carbohydrate attachment
What is the significance of the branches in amylopectin compared to amylose?
The branches allow for more efficient storage of glucose molecules.
What is the main difference between the reducing and non-reducing ends of a polysaccharide like starch or glycogen?
The reducing end is where new glucose units are added during synthesis, while the non-reducing end is where glucose is released during breakdown.
What is the main difference between the structure of glycogen and amylopectin?
Glycogen has more branch points than amylopectin.
What is the main function of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) in the body?
GAGs serve as structural components in the extracellular matrix.
Which of the following statements about the D and L designations for monosaccharides is correct?
D-Glucose and D-Mannose are diastereomers.
What is the main difference between amylose and amylopectin in terms of their linkages?
Amylose contains only alpha(1,4) linkages, while amylopectin contains a mix of alpha(1,4) and alpha(1,6) linkages.
What type of linkage connects carbohydrates to the amino acid serine in O-glycosidic bonds?
O-glycosidic linkage
In N-glycosidic bonds, to which amino acid R-group does the carbohydrate attach?
Asparagine
Which type of glycoconjugate involves the attachment of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) via O-linkages?
Proteoglycans
In glycoproteins, what type of carbohydrate moieties are typically attached via O- or N-glycosidic linkages?
Mono-, di-, or oligosaccharides (but not GAGs)
Which amino acid is involved in the formation of N-glycosidic linkages with carbohydrates?
Asparagine
What type of carbohydrate linkage is typically involved in the attachment of oligosaccharides to asparagine residues?
N-glycosidic
What is the primary function of deoxyribose in biological systems?
It is a component of RNA, which carries genetic information.
What is the key difference between amino sugars and deoxyribose, as described in the text?
Amino sugars have an amino group (-NH2) instead of a hydroxyl group (-OH) on the carbon atom.
What is the structural name for the disaccharide maltose, as described in the text?
-D-glucopyranosyl-(14)--D-glucopyranose
Where do the 'gluco' parts of the names for disaccharides come from, as mentioned in the text?
They refer to the presence of glucose units in the disaccharides.
What is the key difference between glucose and fructose as indicated in the text?
Glucose is an aldose, while fructose is a ketose.
What type of reaction is involved in the formation of glycosides?
Glycosylation reaction
Which of the following is a key difference between glucose and fructose as described in the text?
Glucose has an aldehyde group, while fructose has a ketone group
What is the purpose of the glycosidic bond formed in the synthesis of glycosides?
To attach an alcohol to the anomeric carbon of a monosaccharide
What is the primary function of cardiac glycosides like digoxin as described in the text?
To improve the contraction of the heart
Which of the following is a key structural feature of monosaccharides discussed in the text?
They can form cyclic structures
Which metabolic pathway is used to break down glucose for energy in living cells?
Glycolysis
What is the key difference between glucose and fructose as indicated in the text?
Glucose is an aldose, while fructose is a ketose.
What is the structural feature that can be used to distinguish the 'gluco' from the 'galacto' monosaccharides?
The presence of a hydroxyl group at the C-4 position
What is the primary fuel used by red blood cells (RBCs) for energy, as they lack mitochondria?
Glucose
Which of the following is a component of the disaccharide sucrose?
Glucose and fructose
What is the sweetness of fructose compared to sucrose, as mentioned in the text?
Twice as sweet as sucrose
What is the significance of the non-reducing ends in homopolysaccharides?
They are involved in creating branch points
Which carbon in amylose is considered as the reducing end?
C1
What type of linkages are present in cellulose's D-glucose structure?
Beta (1,4) links
Which is true about the branch point links in amylopectin?
They involve beta (1,6) links
Which part of homopolysaccharides creates more non-reducing ends?
Branch points
What distinguishes the reducing end from the non-reducing end in homopolysaccharides?
Attachment to the next monosaccharide
What type of glycosidic linkage does isomaltose have?
α(1→4)
Which of the following statements about sucrose is correct?
It has an α,β(1→2) glycosidic linkage between glucose and fructose.
Why is the fructose unit in sucrose referred to as a 'furanose'?
Because it adopts a five-membered ring structure.
Which of the following sugars is a reducing sugar?
Both maltose and lactose
What is the primary reason for the structural difference between maltose and isomaltose?
The type of glycosidic linkage
Which of the following statements about the glycosidic linkages in sucrose is correct?
The glucose unit has an α-linkage, and the fructose unit has a β-linkage.
What is the main function of cellulose in plant cell walls?
Provides structural support
How are cows and termites able to digest cellulose, which humans cannot?
Cows and termites have gut microbes that produce cellulases to digest cellulose.
What is the structural difference between the reducing and non-reducing ends of cellulose?
The reducing end has a free aldehyde group, while the non-reducing end has a free hydroxyl group.
What is the primary difference between homopolysaccharides and heteropolysaccharides?
Homopolysaccharides are made up of a single type of monosaccharide, while heteropolysaccharides are made up of multiple types of monosaccharides.
What is the primary function of cellulose in the human body?
Cellulose is used as dietary fiber to aid digestion.
What is the significance of the branched structure of amylopectin compared to the linear structure of amylose?
The branched structure of amylopectin allows for greater storage of energy, while the linear structure of amylose limits energy storage capacity.
What is the key difference between homopolysaccharides and heteropolysaccharides?
Homopolysaccharides are made up of a single type of monosaccharide, while heteropolysaccharides are made up of multiple types of monosaccharides.
Which of the following is NOT a common monosaccharide found in glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)?
Fructose
What type of modification is commonly found in the monosaccharides that make up glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)?
Acetylation
What is the primary function of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) in the body?
To provide structural support and resist compression
Which of the following monosaccharides is an epimer of glucose?
Mannose
What is the structural difference between glucuronic acid and iduronic acid?
Glucuronic acid has a different stereochemistry at the C-5 position compared to iduronic acid.
Where does the hypothalamus sit in relation to the thalamus?
Below the thalamus
Which gland is directly connected to the hypothalamus?
Pituitary gland
What is the general process in the hypothalamic-pituitary system for hormone secretion?
Hypothalamic signal regulates pituitary cell release
Which hormone controls water balance in the body and is secreted by the posterior pituitary?
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
What do anterior pituitary hormones control?
Endocrine glands like thyroid and adrenal gland
In the hypothalamic-pituitary system, what do hypothalamic neurons project to in the pituitary gland?
Posterior aspect of the pituitary
What is the primary role of the effector in a homeostatic system?
To change the value of the regulated variable
What is a common feature of disease states as discussed in the text?
Altered set points causing instability
In the given example of a homeostatic system regulating pH, what is the non-regulated variable?
Respiratory rate
Which regulatory mechanism tends to result in an exponential 'increase' in a system's output?
Positive feedback loop
Which of the following statements about the relationship between homeostasis and negative feedback loops is true?
Homeostasis can use negative feedback loops, but not all negative feedback loops are homeostatic
What is a characteristic of positive feedback loops based on the text?
The limiting event ends the feedback loop
In which disease is hypertension described as a 'set point error'?
Hypertension itself
In the simplest negative feedback loop given (A -> B -> C -> A+B+C), what is the role of component C?
It is the negative feedback signal
What is the primary function of the controller in a homeostatic system?
To detect deviations from the setpoint
What does redundancy indicate in the regulation of vital parameters according to the text?
Greater number of systems regulating a vital parameter
Which term describes an oscillation in a regulated variable as a typical feature of homeostatic systems?
'Oscillations' in the regulated variable
In the context of homeostasis, what is the purpose of the setpoint?
It is the target value for the regulated variable
What happens when ADH is secreted?
More water is kept in the bloodstream
How is blood osmolarity detected in the body?
By osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
What regulates the release of thyroid hormone?
Hypothalamus
How does thyroid hormone negatively affect the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus?
It inhibits their function
Which structure is involved in an example of anterior pituitary signaling besides ADH and thyroid hormone?
Pituitary gland
What is a typical characteristic of hypothalamic-pituitary signaling?
Negative feedback loops
Which statement best describes the concept of homeostasis at the cellular level?
The molecular and biochemical networks that maintain cellular homeostasis are complex and difficult to measure.
What is the primary reason for maintaining homeostasis at the organism level?
To ensure that individual cells are not exposed to a hostile environment.
In the process of paracrine signaling, what is the role of the soluble messenger produced by Cell A?
It diffuses to Cell B and binds to a membrane receptor, initiating an intracellular signal in Cell B.
Which type of intercellular signaling involves direct contact between membrane receptors and their ligands?
Contact signaling
What is a key difference between contact signaling and paracrine signaling?
Paracrine signaling involves soluble messengers, while contact signaling does not.
Which statement best describes the relationship between homeostasis at the cellular level and the organism level?
Maintaining organism-level homeostasis helps create a favorable environment for cellular homeostasis.
According to the mass balance model, what happens to the concentration of substance Z in the reservoir if the amount removed is decreased?
Z reaches a new steady state at a higher concentration
What is a key assumption of the mass balance model?
The system has a constant volume
Which of the following statements about the mass balance model is true?
The system is initially at a steady state
What is the primary purpose of the mass balance model?
To show the balance between addition and removal of a substance
What happens to the mass balance system if the rate of Z addition is increased?
A new steady state is reached with a higher concentration of Z
Which of the following statements about the mass balance model is false?
It assumes a variable rate of Z addition
According to Boyle's Law, what happens to the volume of a gas when the pressure is increased?
The volume of the gas decreases.
What is the primary mechanism by which ventilation occurs, according to the information provided?
Pressure gradients and Poiseuille's law.
During inspiration, how does the pressure in the alveoli compare to atmospheric pressure?
The alveolar pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure.
Which major muscles contract during expiration, according to the information provided?
Intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles.
How does the pleural fluid help transmit force from the muscles that change the volume of the thoracic cavity?
The pleural fluid acts as a lubricant, allowing the muscles to easily change the volume of the thoracic cavity.
What is the major muscle that contracts during inspiration, according to the information provided?
Diaphragm.
What is the approximate alveolar ventilation rate mentioned in the text?
4.4 L/min
What is the concentration of CO2 in the alveoli according to the text?
40 mm Hg
What is the concentration of carbon dioxide in the pulmonary arterial blood according to the text?
45 mm Hg
What is the cardiac output to the lung mentioned in the text?
5 L/min
What happens to the arterial CO2 concentration if ventilation is cut in half to 2.2 L/min?
It increases
How accurate is the calculation for the effect of hypoventilation on arterial CO2?
Somewhat inaccurate but not terribly so
According to Laplace's Law, what happens to the tension on the walls of a cylindrical or spherical structure as the radius increases?
The tension increases
If the pressure inside a cylindrical structure increases, what happens to the tension on the walls according to Laplace's Law?
The tension increases
What is the relationship between the thickness of the wall and the tension on the walls, according to Laplace's Law?
The tension is inversely proportional to the thickness
In the case of an aneurysm, where there is a pathological increase in the diameter of a blood vessel, what impact does this have on the tension or stress across the wall of the vessel?
The tension increases
Which of the following structures in the body are examples of cylindrical or spherical objects that Laplace's Law applies to?
All of the above
What is the primary reason for the relevance of Laplace's Law in the context of the body?
To understand the tension on the walls of cylindrical or spherical structures
What is the primary effect of the increased radius of the ventricle in dilated cardiomyopathy?
The heart uses more energy to counteract the wall tension when contracting
What is the relationship between ventilation and blood flow according to the provided information?
Ventilation and blood flow are directly proportional
Why does the calculated arterial CO2 level of 91 mmHg seem inaccurate according to the text?
A number of other parameters would correct for the rising carbon dioxide levels
What is the key difference between glucose and fructose as described in the text?
Glucose has a linear structure while fructose has a ring structure
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Archaea domain?
Use inorganic energy sources like hydrogen sulfide and ammonia
Which phylum of bacteria is known for being deeply branching and thermophilic (heat-loving)?
Deinococcus-Thermus
Which of the following is a true statement about the rRNA sequence comparison used to construct phylogenetic trees?
rRNA sequences are more similar between land plants and green algae than between green algae and mammals
Which of the following phyla of bacteria is known for containing purple non-sulfur bacteria?
Proteobacteria
Which of the following is a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria?
They have a thick peptidoglycan layer and no outer membrane
Which phylum of bacteria is known for containing green sulfur bacteria?
Chlorobi
Which phylum of bacteria is known for containing nitrifying bacteria?
Proteobacteria
What is a distinguishing characteristic of purple phototrophs?
Use sulfur in their metabolism
Which group of gram-positive bacteria is known to frequently form endospores?
Clostridia
What distinguishes Mycoplasmas from other low G+C gram-positive bacteria?
Lacking cell walls
Which type of sugar is typical in the peptidoglycan layer of a Gram-positive cell wall?
Ribose
Which low G+C gram-positive bacteria is characterized by distinctive colonies on agar plates?
Mycoplasma
In which group of low G+C gram-positive bacteria can you find members capable of invading white blood cells?
Listeria
What staining technique is used to identify acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium and Nocardia?
Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast staining
Which bacterial group reproduces by spores at the ends of filaments and has subgroups including Actinomyces, Nocardia, and Streptomyces?
Actinomycetes
Which bacteria are known for their waxy cell walls that reject crystal violet in Gram staining?
Nocardia
Which group of bacteria consists of rod-shaped species, including C.diptheriae, that reproduce by snapping division seen as V-shapes or pallisades?
Corynebacterium
Which bacterial group exclusively consists of aerobic species that take months to grow on plates and include famous members like M.leprae and M.tuberculosis?
Myobacteria
Which feature distinguishes Actinobacteria like Corynebacterium and Mycobacterium from other bacterial groups based on the provided text?
Branching filaments
Why is it significant that all the representatives of deeply branching bacteria are autotrophic?
Autotrophs can produce their own food through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis, which allows them to thrive in extreme environments.
Why is it significant that many of the deeply branching bacteria live in hot, acidic, anaerobic environments and can withstand high levels of UV radiation?
These bacteria have adapted to survive in harsh conditions, allowing them to outcompete other organisms in their environment.
How does the color of a phototrophic bacterium's pigment molecule determine the wavelengths it reflects?
The pigment molecule absorbs all wavelengths except the one it reflects, which determines the color of the bacterium.
What is the main difference between cyanobacteria (formerly known as blue-green algae) and other phototrophic bacteria?
Cyanobacteria are the only phototrophic bacteria that can perform oxygenic photosynthesis, like plants and algae.
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the photosynthetic process in cyanobacteria (blue-green algae)?
Cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen, which is then used to synthesize amino acids and other nitrogen-containing compounds.
How do the photosynthetic pigments in phototrophic bacteria differ from the photosynthetic pigments found in plants and algae?
Phototrophic bacteria have a wider range of photosynthetic pigments, including carotenoids and bacteriochlorophylls, which allow them to absorb a broader spectrum of light.
What is the main purpose of the thylakoid membranes in phototrophic bacteria?
The thylakoid membranes in phototrophic bacteria provide a large surface area for the absorption of light energy, which is then used to drive the production of ATP.
What is the primary way that humans can become infected with diseases according to the passage?
From contact with asymptomatic carriers
Which of the following is considered a 'portal of entry' for pathogens to infect the human body according to the passage?
All of the above
What is the primary function of the skin as a 'microbiotic barrier' according to the information provided?
To provide a physical barrier against microbe entry
What is the main purpose of the mucous membranes in the body according to the passage?
To be the most common portals of entry for pathogens
What is the key difference between 'contamination' and 'infection' as described in the passage?
Contamination refers to microbes in or on the body, while infection refers to microbes successfully invading the body
According to the information provided, which of the following is considered a 'non-living reservoir' for the movement of microbes into human hosts?
All of the above
What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes mutualism from other symbiotic relationships?
Both organisms directly benefit from the interaction
Which of the following is an example of a parasitic relationship mentioned in the text?
Tapeworm and its host
What is the primary mechanism by which normal microbiota can become opportunistic pathogens?
Introduction to an unusual site in the body or changes in population
Which of the following is NOT listed as a potential source of human diseases in the text?
Plant sources
In the context of symbiotic relationships, what does the term 'commensalism' refer to?
A relationship where one organism benefits and the other is unaffected
Which of the following is an example of a mutualistic relationship mentioned in the text?
Humans and Honeyguides
What is the primary role of enzymes like hyaluronidase and collagenase produced by invasive bacteria?
To dissolve chemicals and structures in the body's tissues, aiding invasion
Which of the following best describes the difference between pathogenicity and virulence?
Pathogenicity refers to the ability to cause disease, while virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity.
Which of the following is an example of a highly virulent pathogen mentioned in the text?
Francisella tularensis (rabbit fever)
What is the purpose of coagulase produced by some bacteria?
To initiate the formation of blood clots
Which of the following terms refers to the objective, measurable characteristics of a disease?
Signs
What is the primary distinction between a disease and a syndrome, according to the text?
A disease is characterized by a single symptom, while a syndrome is a group of symptoms.
What is the primary role of exotoxins produced by bacteria?
To kill host cells
Which of the following is a mechanism by which bacteria can evade phagocytosis?
Forming a capsule
What is the primary role of endotoxins released by Gram-negative bacteria?
Induce fever and inflammation
Which mode of disease transmission involves the transfer of pathogens through contaminated objects?
Indirect contact transmission
Which of the following is a characteristic of acute infectious diseases?
Develops rapidly with severe symptoms
Which mode of disease transmission involves the transfer of pathogens through living organisms?
Vector transmission
What is the key difference between subacute disease and latent disease according to the text?
Subacute disease has shorter durations and milder severities compared to latent disease
Which characteristic distinguishes a contagious disease from a communicable disease?
Contagious diseases are easily transmitted between hosts, while communicable diseases are not
What is the primary focus of epidemiology according to the text?
Epidemiology focuses on the study of where and when diseases occur, and how they spread within populations
What is the key difference between incidence and prevalence of a disease according to the text?
Incidence measures the number of new cases, while prevalence measures the total number of cases at a given time
What is the primary cause of nosocomial infections?
Transmission of pathogens between staff and patients, and among patients
What is the primary focus of hospital epidemiology according to the text?
Analyzing the occurrence of nosocomial infections in healthcare settings
Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA viral shapes?
Helical shape
What is the function of polyhedron in viral shapes?
Capsid symmetry
In viral propagation, what is calculated by counting Plaque Forming Units (PFU)?
Virus titer
Which cellular effect is observed during the development of cytopathic effects by viruses?
Cell lysis
What is a distinguishing feature of complex viruses in terms of structure?
Enveloped capsid
What is an example of a continuous cell line used in virology studies?
3T3 cells
What determines the classification of viruses in the Classical System?
Nature of the nucleic acid in virion
What is the primary function of viral glycoproteins in the attachment process of animal viruses?
Membrane fusion with the host cell
How do enveloped viruses differ from naked virions?
Enveloped viruses acquire a membrane from the host cell
In viral size, where does a bacteriophage T4 fall within the range of measured diameters?
$ ext{50 nm}$
What is the key determinant of a virus's host range?
Viral glycoproteins
How do animal viruses enter host cells through direct penetration?
Through viral genome attachment to cytoplasmic membrane receptors
What is a distinguishing feature of influenza viruses in terms of their structure?
$ ext{50 nm}$ size
What role does the tail fiber of bacteriophages play in their mechanism of action?
Aids in viral attachment to host cells
What was the key discovery that led to the identification of viruses in the late 1800s?
Passing tobacco plant sap through a porcelain filter that trapped bacteria
What is the key difference between the lytic and lysogenic cycles of bacteriophages?
The lytic cycle leads to the immediate destruction of the host cell, while the lysogenic cycle allows the viral genome to integrate into the host's chromosome.
Which of the following is a key step in the infectious cycle of a virus?
Attachment to the host cell
What is the primary function of the capsid in a virus?
To provide a protective shell for the viral nucleic acid
What is the main difference between monolayer and suspension cell cultures used in virology?
Monolayer cultures grow on a solid surface, while suspension cultures grow in a liquid medium.
What is the primary purpose of using electron microscopy in virology?
To measure the size and shape of viral particles
What was the key discovery that led to the crystallization of the tobacco mosaic virus?
Extracting the virus from the infected plant material
What is the process by which the cytoplasmic membrane of the host engulfs the virus known as?
Endocytosis
Which of the following is NOT a possible form of viral nucleic acid mentioned in the text?
Single stranded DNA
What is the term used to describe DNA or RNA with covalently attached protein mentioned in the text?
Nucleoprotein
Which classification system categorizes viruses based on genome type and viral proteins?
Baltimore Classification
What characteristic differentiates Double-Stranded RNA (DSRNA) from Gapped DNA?
Presence of gaps in the sequence
In the Baltimore Classification, which category does Reverse Transcriptase (-) Strand RNA belong to?
(−) Strand RNA viruses
What type of genomic structure is characteristic of Single-Stranded DNA (SSDNA) viruses?
Linear
Which feature distinguishes Positive Strand RNA viruses from Negative Strand RNA viruses?
(+) or (-) sense nucleic acid
'Central Dogma' is related to which aspect of classifying viruses?
'DNA makes RNA makes protein' flow of genetic information
Which type of collagen is most abundant in the dense regular connective tissue?
Type I collagen
What is a common symptom of atopic dermatitis?
Pruritus
Which component of ground substance provides resistance to compression?
Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for controlling facial movements like eye opening and raised eyebrows?
Cranial Nerve VII
What is the function of confocal microscopy in studying tissues?
Viewing tissues in a specific plane
What is the main structural difference between loose connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue?
The density of collagen fibers
What is the primary function of desmosomes in epithelial cells?
To provide structural stability to the cell
How do hemidesmosomes differ from desmosomes in their structure and function?
Hemidesmosomes bind to components of the basement membrane, while desmosomes bind to adjacent cells
Which cellular junctions contribute to the barrier function of the epithelium that restricts the movement of substances from the apical to basal side?
Tight junctions and adherens junctions
What is the primary function of hemidesmosomes in epithelial cells?
To anchor the cell to the basement membrane
Which type of cellular junction is responsible for determining the apical-basal polarity of epithelial cells?
Tight junctions
How do desmosomes and adherens junctions differ in their intracellular components?
Adherens junctions connect to actin filaments, while desmosomes connect to intermediate filaments
What is the primary purpose of fixation in histological tissue preparation?
To cross-link proteins and inactivate degrading enzymes
Which type of microscopy allows for the visualization of structures at the molecular level?
Electron microscopy
What is the purpose of dehydration and clearing in histological tissue preparation?
To remove water from the tissue and replace it with alcohol
How are tissues typically prepared for imaging in a scanning electron microscope?
By coating them with a thin layer of gold
What is the primary advantage of confocal microscopy over traditional fluorescence microscopy?
It eliminates out-of-focus light from other focal planes
Which step in histological tissue preparation involves embedding the tissue in a substance like paraffin wax?
Infiltration and embedding
What is the primary function of laminin in the extracellular matrix (ECM)?
Binding to type IV collagen and integrins of hemidesmosomes
Which component of proteoglycans is primarily responsible for their high water retention capacity in the ECM?
The shorter GAG chains attached to the linking proteins
What is a primary function of proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix (ECM)?
Storing and releasing growth factors
Which of the following is a common source of pathology related to epithelial and connective tissue interfaces?
All of the above
What is the primary function of a stratified squamous epithelium, such as the skin?
Protection and barrier function
Which of the following is a function of fibronectin in the extracellular matrix (ECM)?
Binding to collagen and GAGs on proteoglycans
What is the primary purpose of histology according to the information provided?
To study the structure and function of cells and tissues in the body
What type of stain is particularly effective at highlighting glycoproteins and glycogen according to the text?
Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
Which of the following histological stains is best suited for visualizing muscle fibers, nuclei, and collagen?
Masson's trichrome
What is the primary function of the Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain according to the information provided?
To visualize glycoproteins, glycogen, and mucus
Which histological stain is particularly effective at highlighting the distinction between the cytoplasm and nuclei in the small intestine?
Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)
What is the primary function of the Masson's trichrome stain according to the information provided?
To visualize connective tissue, nuclei, and cytoplasm
What is a typical finding under the microscope in cases of irreversible cellular injury?
Decreased integrity of mitochondrial membranes
Which mechanism of injury is NOT associated with necrosis as described in the text?
Increased DNA repair
What distinguishes necrosis from programmed cell death according to the text?
Requirement for protein synthesis
Which term describes the late-stage nuclear fragmentation in necrosis?
Karyorrhexis
What is a key characteristic of necrosis compared to apoptosis according to the text?
Disorganized cellular signaling
Which of the following is NOT a direct consequence of irreversible cellular injury?
Enhanced DNA repair
What is the typical cause of fat necrosis in the pancreas and peritoneal cavity?
Liquefaction of fat cell membranes by activated pancreatic lipases
Which process may occur if necrotic cells and debris are not destroyed and reabsorbed?
Mineralization with calcium salts
Which mineral is involved in producing the grossly visible chalky white areas in fat necrosis?
Calcium
What is the process through which most necrotic cells and debris disappear?
Phagocytosis by leukocytes
What may happen if necrotic cells and debris are not removed from tissues?
Attraction of mineral deposits
What is the main outcome if activated pancreatic enzymes escape from acinar cells and ducts?
Liquefaction of fat cell membranes
What is a necessary condition for lysosomal enzymes to become activated and cause unreguated enzymatic degradation of cell components?
Injury to lysosomal membranes
Which of the following is NOT one of the consequences of unreguated lysosomal enzyme activity mentioned in the text?
Depletion of ATP stores
What is a potential consequence of damage to the cytoskeleton according to the text?
Cell membrane detachment and susceptibility to rupture
Which of the following enzymes is NOT mentioned as being present in lysosomes?
Lipases
What is a potential cause of cytoskeletal damage mentioned in the text?
Increased cytosolic calcium leading to protease activation
Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of cell membrane detachment from the cytoskeleton according to the text?
Increased membrane rigidity
What is the primary function of cytochrome C when it leaks into the cytosol during apoptosis?
Activate caspase enzymes indirectly through APAF
What is the role of the BH3-only molecules in the regulation of apoptosis?
They inhibit the anti-apoptotic BH proteins
Which of the following is a common trigger for the activation of the mitochondrial leak channel (Bax/Bak)?
Lack of growth signals
What is the primary function of the executioner caspases (e.g., caspase-3 and caspase-6) in the apoptotic pathway?
Degrade cellular components and dismantle the cell
Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of the anti-apoptotic and pro-apoptotic BH protein families?
They counteract each other's effects on apoptosis
What is the primary function of the apoptosis-activating factor (APAF) in the apoptotic pathway?
Activate the executioner caspases
What is the major difference between autophagy and macroautophagy as described in the text?
Autophagy selectively targets malfunctioning organelles, while macroautophagy targets cell materials for digestion.
What is the main cause of pathologic atrophy according to the text?
Compression of tissue
In pathologic calcification, which process leads to the final formation of crystalline calcium phosphate?
Deposition of calcium near the membrane
What is a distinguishing feature of metastatic calcification compared to dystrophic calcification?
Metastatic calcification is associated with hypercalcemia, whereas dystrophic calcification has no abnormalities in serum calcium.
Which cellular stresses can activate the autophagy pathway according to the text?
Nutrient deprivation
What is a characteristic feature of coagulative necrosis?
Presence of fragmented cells with no inflammation
What is the primary function of the stratum corneum layer of the epidermis?
To provide mechanical protection
Which of the following components of the stratum corneum is responsible for aggregating keratin into large macrofibrils?
Filaggrin
What is the typical thickness range of the epidermis layer of the skin?
0.4 - 1.4 mm
Which layer of the epidermis is only present in thick skin areas like the palms and soles?
Stratum lucidum
What is the primary function of the dermis layer of the skin?
Facilitating sensory perception
What is the approximate total surface area of the skin for an adult human?
8 lbs, 1.5 - 2 m^2
Which anatomical structure is responsible for supplying a capillary network to the hair bulb?
The dermal papilla
Which layer of the hair shaft is filled with hard keratin?
Cortex
Which part of the skin is described as having the highest density of hair follicles?
The face
Which of the following areas of the skin is described as being completely without hair?
Palms and soles
What is the total number of hairs on the human body according to the text?
5 million hairs
Which layer of the hair shaft is described as having a structure that looks like 'tiles' or 'shingles'?
Cuticle
Which stratum is responsible for the synthesis of keratin and other proteins?
Stratum spinosum
What is the primary function of the stratum lucidum?
Protection, similar to the stratum corneum
Which stratum contains lamellar granules that help reduce water loss?
Stratum granulosum
What is the primary function of the tonofibrils in the stratum spinosum?
Provide structural support
Which stratum is the thickest in most skin?
Stratum spinosum
Which stratum is found only in thick skin like palms, soles, and digits?
Stratum lucidum
What is the primary structural component of collagen fibres?
Tropocollagen
What is the unique amino acid sequence pattern found in collagen?
Gly-X-Y
What is the role of hydroxyproline and proline in the collagen structure?
They introduce sharp twists or kinks in the molecule
Which vitamin is crucial for the formation and crosslinking of collagen?
Vitamin C
Where does the final assembly of fibril-forming collagens occur?
In the extracellular space
What is the primary function of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) in the extracellular matrix?
Regulating water balance and compression resistance
What is the primary function of the arrector pili muscles in hair follicles?
To contract and cause the hair shaft to stand more erect
What is the primary function of the hair root plexus?
To provide sensory feedback from the hair follicle
What is the role of epidermal stem cells in the hair growth cycle?
They produce progenitor cells that give rise to the matrix of the new hair bulb
What is the primary function of the hypodermis/subcutaneous tissue?
To store fat and insulate against heat loss
What is the primary location of the stem cells responsible for hair growth?
In the external root sheath near the attachment points of the arrector pili
What is the primary function of the vessels located in the superficial region of the hypodermis?
To facilitate heat transfer and insulation
What is the role of cyclin-Cdk complexes in the cell cycle?
Activating specific target proteins for phosphorylation
What is the function of the anaphase promoting complex (APC/C) mentioned in the text?
Polyubiquitinating target proteins for proteolytic destruction
How do cyclin-Cdk complexes induce different effects at different times during the cell cycle?
Through changes in the accessibility of Cdk substrates
Which protein family does the anaphase promoting complex (APC/C) belong to?
Ubiquitin ligase family of enzymes
What is the requirement for full activation of cyclin-Cdk complexes?
Interaction with cyclin activating kinase (CAK)
Which process is regulated by anaphase promoting complex (APC/C) through polyubiquitination?
Proteolytic destruction of specific target proteins
What is the primary function of cyclin-Cdk complexes in the cell cycle?
To regulate the progression through different phases of the cell cycle
Which cyclin-Cdk complex is responsible for triggering progression through the Start transition?
Cyclin E - Cdk2
What is the primary function of the cyclin A-Cdk1/Cdk2 complex?
Initiating chromosome duplication during the S phase
Which cyclin-Cdk complex is responsible for stimulating entry into mitosis at the G2/M transition?
Cyclin B - Cdk1
What happens to the levels of cyclin B during the cell cycle?
They decrease in mid-mitosis
Which cyclin-Cdk complex is needed for progression through the Start transition, also known as the G1/S checkpoint?
Cyclin D - Cdk4/Cdk6
What is the primary function of the molecular mechanisms described in the passage, which include Cdk inhibitory proteins (CKIs) and proteins coded by tumor suppressor genes?
To pause the cell cycle in response to unfavorable conditions
What is the primary mechanism that prevents premature activation of the M-Cdk complex?
Inhibitory phosphorylation by the Wee1 kinase
Which of the following is a key event that occurs at the end of mitosis, as described in the passage?
Dephosphorylation of Cdk targets by various phosphatases
According to the passage, which of the following is a key reason why progression through the cell cycle can be paused at the G1 checkpoint?
Both a and b
Which protein acts as an inhibitor of sister chromatid separation during early mitosis?
Securin
How do the Cdk inhibitory proteins (CKIs) described in the passage function to regulate the cell cycle?
They inactivate cyclin-Cdk complexes to pause the cell cycle
What is the primary mechanism that triggers sister chromatid separation and progression to anaphase?
Ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis of securin
At which stage of mitosis does the metaphase-to-anaphase checkpoint occur?
Metaphase
What is the primary function of the dephosphorylation of Cdk targets described in the passage as occurring at the end of mitosis?
To allow for the completion of telophase and cytokinesis
According to the passage, which of the following is a key reason why progression through the cell cycle can be paused at the G2/M checkpoint?
Both b and c
What is the role of the Cdc25 phosphatase in the regulation of the M-Cdk complex?
It activates the M-Cdk complex by dephosphorylation
Which of the following is the correct order of events during mitosis?
Prophase → Prometaphase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase
Which cyclin-cdk complex is inhibited by p16 according to the text?
G1-Cdk complex
What is the function of Cyclin A-Cdk2 & Cyclin A-Cdk1 (S-Cdk complex) according to the text?
Stimulate chromosome duplication
Which protein recognizes and binds damaged DNA in cells according to the text?
p53
What happens to p53 in the presence of DNA damage according to the text?
It will be phosphorylated
Which CKI is associated with inhibiting CyclinE-cdk2 (G1/S-cdk complex) according to the text?
p21
What is the primary function of RB (Retinoblastoma protein) as mentioned in the text?
Triggers progression through Start Transition
Which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replication known to occur?
S phase
What is the primary purpose of the DNA double helix structure during DNA replication?
To provide a template for its own duplication
Which of the following is a key step in the process of DNA replication?
Primer removal
What type of bonding helps contribute to the stability of the DNA double helix structure?
Hydrogen bonds
What is the primary purpose of the semi-conservative replication of the DNA double helix?
To ensure the accurate transmission of genetic information to daughter cells
What is the primary function of the DNA replication process during the cell cycle?
To ensure the accurate duplication of the genetic material
What is the main reason why the DNA double helix must be 'opened up' or separated during DNA replication?
To enable the unwinding of the DNA helix and the synthesis of new strands
What type of bonds does DNA Helicase break to unwind the double helix?
Hydrogen bonds
What is the direction of nucleotide polymerization during DNA replication?
Opposite to the overall direction of DNA chain growth
How many RNA primers are required on the leading strand during DNA replication?
One primer is required at the start of replication
What is the primary function of the single-stranded DNA binding proteins at the replication fork?
To bind tightly and cooperatively to stabilize the single-strand conformation
What is the function of DNA topoisomerase during DNA replication?
It breaks the phosphodiester bonds to relieve superhelical tension
What is the primary reason why DNA Polymerase requires a primer to begin DNA synthesis?
DNA Polymerase can only elongate an existing strand of DNA
What happens to the RNA primers used during DNA replication?
They are removed by a DNA repair system and replaced with DNA
What is the key difference between the leading strand and the lagging strand during DNA replication?
The leading strand is synthesized continuously, while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously.
What is the purpose of the Okazaki fragments during DNA replication?
They are temporary segments of DNA that are later joined together on the lagging strand
Which enzyme is responsible for creating the RNA primers that serve as the starting point for DNA synthesis at the replication fork?
DNA Primase
What is the primary function of the replication fork during DNA replication?
To unwind the double helix and expose the single-stranded DNA template
How does DNA ligase function during DNA replication?
It joins the 3' end of a new DNA fragment with the 5' end of the previous fragment
What is the significance of the asymmetric structure of the replication fork with respect to the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands?
It enables the synthesis of the leading strand in a continuous manner and the lagging strand in a discontinuous manner.
What is the role of DNA topoisomerase in relieving supercoiling during DNA replication?
It breaks the phosphodiester bonds to allow the DNA sections to rotate and relieve tension
During DNA replication in Eukaryotes, when does histone synthesis primarily occur?
Interphase of the cell cycle
Which proteins assist in the formation of histone octomers and nucleosomes during histone synthesis?
Histone chaperones
What must be synthesized in Eukaryotes to package newly replicated DNA into nucleosomes?
Histones
When does DNA topoisomerase reform the phosphodiester bond after replication?
After replication
Which phase of the cell cycle is associated with histone synthesis?
S phase
What is required for the packaging of newly replicated DNA into nucleosomes in Eukaryotes?
Histones
Which enzymes or proteins are needed for each step of DNA synthesis in Eukaryotes?
Helicase and Polymerase
'Histone chaperones' primarily assist in the formation of which structures during DNA replication?
'Histone octomers & nucleosomes'
'DNA topoisomerase' reforms the phosphodiester bond as it leaves after what process?
'DNA replication'
What is the primary cause of Marfan syndrome according to the text?
A defect in the gene for fibrillin-1
What is the prevalence of Marfan syndrome according to the text?
1 in 5,000
Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of Marfan syndrome according to the text?
Dislocation of the lens
What is the primary cardiovascular change associated with Marfan syndrome according to the text?
Mitral valve prolapse
What percentage of Marfan syndrome cases are familial according to the text?
75-85%
Which of the following explains the increased skeletal growth seen in Marfan syndrome according to the text?
Increased bioavailability of TGF-beta
In X-linked recessive inheritance, how is the mutant gene typically passed down within families?
From affected males to their obligate carrier daughters
What is a distinguishing feature of X-linked recessive disorders in terms of how they manifest?
Manifestation in males only
Which of the following clinical features is characteristic of Hemophilia A, an X-linked recessive disorder?
Mucosal bleeding and hematomas in joint spaces (hemarthrosis)
How does X-linked recessive inheritance differ from autosomal dominant inheritance?
Only males are affected in X-linked inheritance
What is a key characteristic of autosomal recessive disorders?
The expression of the defect tends to be more uniform than in autosomal dominant disorders.
What is the risk of autosomal recessive disorders manifesting when there is consanguinity?
Increased risk of manifestation with offspring from homozygotes and heterozygotes
What is a common consequence of an enzyme defect in autosomal recessive disorders?
All of the above
Which statement accurately describes the transmission pattern seen in X-linked recessive disorders?
'Knight's move' pattern of transmission observed
In heterozygotes for an autosomal recessive disorder, what is typically observed regarding enzyme levels?
Equal amounts of normal and defective enzyme are synthesized.
What is a common characteristic of autosomal dominant disorders?
Incomplete penetrance is common.
What is a potential consequence of an accumulation of a substrate due to an enzyme defect?
The substrate can be toxic in high concentrations.
What is a common characteristic of many of the mutated genes associated with autosomal recessive disorders?
They encode enzymes.
What is the fundamental difference between frameshift mutations and non-frameshifting indels?
Frameshift mutations result in a complete loss of protein function, while non-frameshifting indels may still produce a functional protein.
What is the primary reason for the difference in phenotypic expression between individuals with the same autosomal dominant disorder?
Both penetrance and expressivity contribute to the variability in phenotypic expression.
What is the primary mechanism by which autosomal dominant disorders arise?
Loss-of-function mutations that result in reduced or no production of a functional protein.
Which of the following statements about point mutations is true?
Nonsense mutations can lead to premature termination of translation.
Which of the following statements about Mendelian disorders is correct?
Mendelian disorders are typically caused by mutations in single genes with large effects.
What is a potential advantage of having a heterozygous genotype for certain genetic disorders?
Increased resistance to certain infectious diseases, like HIV or malaria.
What is the primary cause of the accumulation of glucosylceramide in Gaucher disease?
Deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase
Which of the following is NOT a common finding in Gaucher disease type I?
Rapid neurological deterioration
What is the primary mechanism by which lysosomal storage diseases lead to cellular dysfunction?
Interference with cellular function due to numerous, enlarged lysosomes
Which of the following statements about X-linked disorders is correct?
Affected males do not transmit the disorder to their sons
What is the primary reason for the accumulation of metabolites in phagocytic cells in Gaucher disease?
Phagocytic cells are responsible for clearing dying cells
What is the primary consequence of the secondary storage problem in lysosomal storage diseases?
Impaired autophagy and cellular housecleaning
What is the primary function of the alimentary canal?
To absorb nutrients from ingested food
Which of the following is NOT a component of the alimentary canal?
Liver
What is the primary function of the accessory digestive organs?
To secrete substances into the alimentary canal
Which of the following is a component of the large intestine?
Appendix
What is the embryological origin of the accessory digestive organs?
They develop as outgrowths of the early alimentary canal
Which of the following statements about the histologic layers of the alimentary canal is correct?
The histologic layers are typical and surround a lumen
Which of the following is NOT a component of the small intestine?
Cecum
What is the main function of the gall bladder?
Storage of digestive enzymes
Which layer of the alimentary canal optimizes mixing and exposure of epithelial cells to lumen contents?
Submucosa
What is the primary role of the parietal peritoneum?
Absorption of nutrients
Which component helps to make hydrophobic molecules water soluble for elimination by the kidney?
Ingested proteins
Which structure in the nervous system contains the neurons that bring sensory information from the peripheral to the central nervous system?
Myenteric plexus
What is the primary role of goblet cells in the alimentary canal?
Secretion of digestive enzymes
What is the function of Peyer's patches located in the Jejunum?
Production of intrinsic factor
What is the main difference between rigidity guarding and rigidity?
Rigidity guarding is voluntary while rigidity is involuntary.
What is the primary cause of rigidity?
Chemical irritation of the parietal peritoneum lining
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of chemical irritation leading to rigidity?
Appendicitis
Which region of the abdomen is associated with pain from the small intestine, cecum, or appendix?
Umbilical
Which condition is characterized by a large, firm liver with an irregular edge?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
What is a possible cause of pain in the left hypochondriac region of the abdomen?
Stomach disorder
Which of the following statements about hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) is correct?
Hepatomegaly can cause changes in the consistency of the liver.
Which condition is associated with a large liver with a firm, nontender edge?
Liver cirrhosis
What is a potential cause of abdominal pain in the left iliac region?
Diverticulitis
What is the main characteristic of decreased (hypoactive) bowel sounds according to the passage?
Suggests more emergent conditions like bowel obstruction, peritonitis, or intestinal ischemia
How long should a clinician listen for bowel sounds before assuming their absence, according to the text?
The text does not specify a recommended listening time
What is the key difference between abdominal pain and abdominal tenderness according to the passage?
Abdominal pain is always present, while tenderness only occurs with palpation
According to the passage, which of the following can cause 'deep' or 'visceral' abdominal pain?
Both stretching/ischemia of the GI tract and thoracic pathologies
What is the key distinction between guarding and rigidity according to the passage?
Guarding refers to voluntary muscle contraction, while rigidity is involuntary
What is the primary function of the mucous membranes in the body according to the passage?
To secrete mucus that lubricates and protects the underlying tissues
What term is used to describe tumour cells that resemble normal cells both morphologically and functionally?
Well differentiated
Which characteristic is typical of poorly differentiated (anaplastic) tumour cells?
Presence of large numbers and abnormal mitoses
What is a common feature of anaplasia in malignant tumours?
Loss of differentiation
What does the term 'pleomorphism' refer to in the context of anaplasia?
Variability in cell size and shape
Which of the following is a characteristic of anaplastic tumour cells?
Disproportionally large nuclei & nucleoli
What visual characteristics are indicative of anaplasia according to Pathologic Basis of Disease?
Figure 7.9 on page 272
In the context of anaplasia, what do nuclei containing abundant chromatin that stain darker indicate?
Abnormal nuclear morphology
What is a key distinguishing characteristic of malignant tumors compared to benign tumors?
Malignant tumors demonstrate local invasion into adjacent normal tissue
Which of the following is a key characteristic that distinguishes benign tumors from malignant tumors?
Benign tumors have a progressive and slow rate of growth, while malignant tumors have a rapid and erratic growth rate
According to the provided information, what is a key difference between benign and malignant tumors in terms of local invasion?
Benign tumors are well-demarcated and do not demonstrate local invasion, while malignant tumors are locally invasive
What is a key difference between benign and malignant tumors in terms of their metastatic potential?
Malignant tumors frequently demonstrate metastasis, while benign tumors do not
Which of the following is a key distinguishing characteristic of the differentiation status of benign versus malignant tumors?
Malignant tumors are poorly differentiated (anaplastic), while benign tumors are well differentiated
According to the information provided, which of the following is a key characteristic that distinguishes the mitotic activity of benign versus malignant tumors?
Malignant tumors have numerous and abnormal mitotic figures, while benign tumors have minimal mitotic figures
What is a key difference between benign and malignant tumors in terms of their local invasion?
Malignant tumors are locally invasive, while benign tumors are well-demarcated
What is a key distinguishing feature of benign versus malignant tumors in terms of their growth rate?
Benign tumors have a progressive and slow growth rate, while malignant tumors have an erratic and rapid growth rate
What is the key characteristic that distinguishes malignant tumors from benign tumors?
Malignant tumors have uncoordinated and excessive growth that continues beyond cessation of growth stimuli, while benign tumors have coordinated growth.
What is the main difference between a 'carcinoma' and a 'sarcoma' in terms of tumor classification?
Carcinomas are tumors of epithelial cell origin, while sarcomas are tumors of mesenchymal/mesodermal origin.
According to the passage, which of the following is a key characteristic of benign tumors?
Benign tumors remain localized at their site of origin.
What is the main difference between the terms 'neoplasia' and 'tumour' as used in the passage?
'Neoplasia' refers to a new growth, while 'tumour' refers to an abnormal mass of tissue.
Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant tumors according to the passage?
Malignant tumors invade and destroy adjacent structures and spread to distant sites.
According to the passage, which of the following is a common exception to the "-oma" suffix typically denoting a benign tumor?
Lymphoma
How is RB typically inactivated in most human cancers?
Loss of function mutation involving both RB alleles
Which gene is most frequently mutated in human cancer?
p53
What is one role of p53 in the presence of DNA damage?
Inducing cellular senescence
How can mutated p53 contribute to carcinogenesis?
Escaping DNA mutations
Which function is NOT regulated by p53?
Cell membrane synthesis
Which checkpoint does RB facilitate passing through?
G0/G1 checkpoint
What is the primary reason for cancer cells' reliance on aerobic glycolysis (Warburg effect) for ATP production?
To facilitate rapid cell division and growth by providing biosynthetic precursors
Which of the following is NOT considered a hallmark of cancer cells?
Reliance on oxidative phosphorylation for energy production
Which gene/pathway is commonly dysregulated in colorectal cancers, contributing to the loss of contact inhibition and metastasis?
E-cadherin
Which of the following cell cycle regulators is NOT mentioned as being dysregulated in a significant majority of human cancers?
p53
Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene mentioned in the text?
RB
Which pathway is mentioned in the context of the APC gene's role in colorectal cancers?
Wnt-β-catenin pathway
Which of the following best describes the process of tumour progression?
Tumours evolve genetically, with the fittest subclones dominating the tumour mass
What is the primary role of oncogenes in tumour development?
Promote excessive cell growth, even in the absence of normal growth-promoting signals
Which of the following proto-oncogenes is NOT mentioned in the text as being discussed in more detail?
p53
What is a common characteristic of tumours that recur after therapy?
They are almost always found to be resistant to the initial treatment
Which of the following is NOT a potential type of oncoprotein encoded by oncogenes?
Tumour suppressor proteins
According to the information provided, what is the primary reason for the genetic evolution of tumours?
The survival and selection of the fittest tumour subclones
Which of the following statements about the Ras protein is true?
It is a downstream component of receptor tyrosine kinase signaling pathways.
What is the primary role of the PI3K family of proteins in cancer?
Inhibiting apoptosis and promoting cell proliferation.
Which of the following statements about the Myc protein is correct?
It is an immediate early response gene induced by Ras/MAPK signaling.
Which of the following cancers is most likely to have a mutated version of the RAS gene?
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Which of the following statements about the PI3K protein is true?
It is a downstream component of receptor tyrosine kinase signaling pathways.
What is a key function of the Myc protein in cancer development?
Increasing cell proliferation and growth when activated.
What is the main cause of mutations leading to carcinogenesis according to the text?
Both UV radiation and ionizing radiation
Which of the following viruses is associated with leukemia?
Human T-cell Leukemia Virus Type 1 (HTLV-1)
What is the fundamental difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
Oncogenes promote cell division, while tumor suppressor genes inhibit it
Which of the following DNA viruses is associated with Merkel cell carcinoma?
Merkel cell Polyomavirus
Which virus is mentioned in the text as being associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)
What is suggested as a study question in the text?
Build a table comparing oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes
What is the key difference between the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
The CNS is located within the brain and spinal cord, while the PNS consists of nerves that connect the CNS to the rest of the body.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the autonomic nervous system?
It is part of the peripheral nervous system.
What is the primary function of the glial cells in the nervous system?
To provide structural support and insulation for neurons.
Which of the following is a key difference between the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
The CNS is protected by the blood-brain barrier, while the PNS is not.
What is the primary function of the ventricular system and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the nervous system?
To cushion and protect the brain and spinal cord.
Which of the following is a key modality of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
All of the above.
What is the primary role of epineurium in protecting peripheral nerves?
Actively controlling the entry of white blood cells into neurons
Which component of a neuron is responsible for protein synthesis for the rest of the neuron?
Nissl substance
Why are mature, 'mushroom-shaped' dendritic spines considered more effective in transmitting information?
They are larger and broader, providing more effective synapses.
What is the significance of the close proximity between axon terminals and dendritic spines in neurons?
To enhance synaptic effectiveness
Which type of cells are crucial for repair in most tissues, including peripheral nerves?
Leukocytes
Where is the key protein synthesis site for the rest of the neuron located?
Soma (cell body)
Which part of the nervous system controls the autonomic nervous system?
Brain
What is the primary function of the sympathetic nervous system?
Increase glucose availability
Which cranial nerve is responsible for parasympathetic control over pupillary muscles?
CN III
What is the function of the corticospinal tract in motor control?
Control voluntary skeletal muscles below the neck
In which location are the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system typically found?
Prevertebral ganglia
Which of the following is true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?
Decreases digestive function
What is the primary function of the axon hillock?
To initiate action potentials
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of multipolar neurons?
Their cell bodies receive sensory information directly
What is the primary function of pseudo-unipolar neurons?
To transmit somatic sensory information to the CNS
Which of the following is NOT a component of the general sensory system?
Motor neurons
What is the primary function of bipolar neurons?
To detect special senses like vision and hearing
Which of the following is a key step in the sensation process?
Detection of a physical or chemical stimulus by a receptor
Which neurotransmitter is the major one involved in the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Acetylcholine
Which cranial nerves are involved in the Parasympathetic Nervous System outflow?
CN 3, 7, 10
Where do sacral spinal nerves originate and target?
Originate in sacral spinal cord and target organs in the abdomen and pelvis
Where are ganglia located in relation to target organs in the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Closer to the target organs
Which nerves are responsible for visceral efferents up to the proximal large bowel in the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Vagus nerve and Sacral nerves
Which regions of the body do Sacral nerves target in the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Abdomen and pelvis
Which of the following molecules is NOT mentioned as an allosteric inhibitor of pyruvate kinase?
ADP
How does insulin affect the expression of glycolytic enzymes according to the passage?
Insulin promotes the transcription of hexokinase, PFK-1, and pyruvate kinase.
Which of the following is a key difference between glucose and fructose metabolism as described in the text?
Fructose metabolism bypasses the first two regulated steps of glycolysis.
What is the primary function of fructose-1-phosphate in the fructose metabolism pathway described in the text?
It is a substrate for glycolysis.
How does glucagon affect the expression of glycolytic enzymes according to the passage?
Glucagon inhibits the transcription of hexokinase, PFK-1, and pyruvate kinase.
Which of the following is NOT listed as a bypass reaction in the regulation of gluconeogenesis?
Fructose-6-phosphatase
What is the key product of the pentose phosphate shunt?
NADPH
How is the activity of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase regulated?
Both allosteric regulation by NADPH and hormonal regulation by insulin
What is the role of glycogen synthase in the glycogenesis pathway?
It catalyzes the addition of glucose units to the growing glycogen chain
Which enzyme is needed to commit glucose-6-phosphate to the glycolysis pathway?
Hexokinase
What are the three irreversible enzymes that regulate glycolysis?
Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase
What reaction does hexokinase catalyze in glycolysis?
Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis?
Lactate dehydrogenase
What is the allosteric activator of pyruvate carboxylase in the context of gluconeogenesis?
Acetyl CoA
Which enzyme is needed to commit glucose-6-phosphate to glycolysis?
Hexokinase
What reaction does FBP-1 catalyze in the context of gluconeogenesis?
Conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
Which hormone promotes the activation of FBP-2 leading to lower levels of Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate?
Glucagon
What can glucagon induce the transcription of in the context of gluconeogenesis?
PEP carboxykinase
In individuals with G6PD deficiency, what is a common trigger for hemolytic anemia?
Exposure to oxidant stress
Which population group is reported to have the highest prevalence of G6PD deficiency?
Those of Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, and tropical African or Asian descent
What is the pathway through which Glucose-6-P can be committed to glycolysis?
Pentose Phosphate Shunt
Which molecule is directly converted to Ribose-5-phosphate in the non-oxidative phase of the Pentose Phosphate Pathway?
Ribulose-5-P
What is the role of Ribose-5-phosphate in the Pentose Phosphate Pathway?
Used in DNA and RNA synthesis
Which enzyme is essential for converting Glucose-6-P into Glycogen for storage?
Glycogen Synthase
What is the primary purpose of the pentose phosphate pathway?
To generate NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate
Which of the following accurately describes the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway?
It generates $CO_2$ as a byproduct
Which enzyme is the rate-limiting step in the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
What is the primary function of NADPH generated in the pentose phosphate pathway?
To reduce glutathione and maintain cellular antioxidant levels
Which of the following statements about the non-oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway is correct?
It converts ribose-5-phosphate into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and fructose-6-phosphate
Why is the pentose phosphate pathway considered a 'shunt' from glycolysis?
It 'shunts' molecules into and out of the glycolytic pathway
Where does the pentose phosphate shunt primarily take place?
Cytoplasm
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone in the pentose phosphate shunt?
Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase
What is the primary function of glycogen phosphorylase in glycogenolysis?
Break down glycogen to glucose
Which hormone inhibits glycogenolysis and stimulates glycogenesis?
Insulin
In the glycolysis pathway, what is the final product derived from the conversion of pyruvate?
Acetyl CoA
Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate in glycolysis?
Fructose Bisphosphatase
What is the net ATP produced from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis?
2 ATP
What is the fate of NADH generated during glycolysis under aerobic conditions?
Donated to complex I of the electron transport chain
What is the primary function of glycogen synthase?
Catalyze formation of glycogen from glucose
What is the primary purpose of the pentose phosphate shunt?
To generate NADPH and precursors for nucleotide synthesis
Which enzyme catalyzes the irreversible step in glycolysis that commits glucose to being metabolized?
Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
Which of the following is a key regulatory enzyme in gluconeogenesis?
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
What is the primary function of glycogenolysis?
To break down glycogen into glucose-6-phosphate
Which of the following is a key difference between glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
Glycolysis is an energy-producing pathway, while gluconeogenesis is an energy-consuming pathway
Which of the following is a key regulatory mechanism for glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
All of the above
What is the primary function of the pentose phosphate shunt in cells?
To produce NADPH for anabolic reactions
Which of the following statements about fructose metabolism is true?
Fructose is first converted to fructose-6-phosphate before entering glycolysis
What is the primary purpose of the Goldman Field equation mentioned in the text?
To predict the membrane potential when the membrane is permeable to more than one ion
Which type of channels are mentioned in the text as being able to open or close in response to a variety of stimuli?
All of the above
What is the primary requirement for the production of an action potential according to the text?
Both a and b
What is the key characteristic of the membrane voltage change during an action potential as described in the text?
The membrane becomes more positive (depolarized)
Where in the nervous system do action potentials occur according to the text?
In the axon, axon hillock, and synaptic terminal
What is the primary role of channels in the movement of ions across the cell membrane according to the text?
Channels are necessary because membranes are poorly permeable to charged particles
What is the relationship between axon diameter and conduction velocity for both myelinated and unmyelinated fibers?
Directly proportional
In a myelinated axon, what is the main function of the nodes of Ranvier?
Expressing voltage-gated channels
What happens at the nodes of Ranvier during saltatory conduction in a myelinated axon?
Voltage-gated channels are expressed
Which type of fiber conducts impulses the fastest based on the information provided?
A Fibers - Largest fibers, myelinated
What is the primary function of the neurotransmitter vesicles in the presynaptic terminal?
Package and release neurotransmitters
What is the purpose of myelin insulation in a myelinated axon during saltatory conduction?
To provide electrical insulation for faster conduction
What is the primary role of sodium voltage-gated channels (Na+ VGC) in the axon hillock and axon?
To initiate and propagate the action potential
What is the primary function of the Na+/K+ ATPase during the resting membrane potential?
To actively transport sodium out and potassium into the cell
What is the primary cause of the depolarization step during the action potential?
The opening of sodium voltage-gated channels
What is the primary mechanism that drives the repolarization step during the action potential?
The opening of potassium voltage-gated channels
What is the role of the activation gate in the sodium voltage-gated channel?
It allows the channel to open when the threshold is reached
What is the primary function of potassium leak channels during the resting membrane potential?
To facilitate the diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell
Why is the membrane potential of a neuron close to, but not the same as, the equilibrium (Nernst) potential for potassium?
The neuron membrane is more permeable to potassium than other ions, but not perfectly permeable to potassium alone.
What is the primary factor that determines the magnitude of the Nernst potential for a specific ion?
The concentration gradient of the ion across the membrane.
If the membrane potential of a neuron is equal to the Nernst potential for a particular ion, what can be inferred about the movement of that ion across the membrane?
The ion is moving in both directions at equal rates.
According to the Nernst equation, what would happen to the Nernst potential for an ion if the extracellular concentration of that ion increased while the intracellular concentration remained constant?
The Nernst potential would become more negative.
Which of the following statements about the resting membrane potential of a neuron is true?
It is primarily determined by the permeability of the membrane to potassium ions.
What is the primary reason for the separation of charges across the membrane of a neuron, which creates the voltage (potential energy) mentioned in the text?
The differential permeability of the membrane to different ions.
What is the primary role of calcium in synaptic transmission?
To bind to neurotransmitter-filled vesicles and trigger their fusion with the presynaptic membrane
What are the key players involved in the regulated release of neurotransmitter vesicles?
v-SNAREs, t-SNAREs, complexin, and synaptotagmin
What is the primary function of complexin in the synaptic vesicle release process?
To prevent premature release of neurotransmitters after v-SNAREs and t-SNAREs engage
What is the approximate time frame for neurotransmitter release after the arrival of an action potential at the presynaptic terminal?
Milliseconds (1-5 ms)
What is the primary role of v-SNAREs in the synaptic vesicle release process?
To 'force' the vesicle to fuse with the presynaptic membrane and dock with t-SNAREs
What is the significance of the action potential in the synaptic transmission process?
To open calcium channels in the presynaptic terminal, leading to calcium-induced exocytosis of neurotransmitters
What is the primary difference between cerebrosides and gangliosides as mentioned in the text?
Headgroup composition
What is the common feature shared by all sphingolipids according to the text?
Fatty acid linkage to sphingosine
What distinguishes glycosphingolipids from phospholipids?
Head group composition
Which fatty acid derivative serves as a physiological vasodilator?
Eicosanoids
What is the consequence of the accumulation of sphingolipids in the body?
Neuronal cell damage
What is the defining feature of wax esters compared to other lipid structures?
Connection to hydrocarbon alcohols
What are the three categories of isoprenoids?
Terpenes, Mixed Terpenes, Steroids
What is the name given to a terpene consisting of 6 isoprene units?
Triterpene
Which of the following is an example of a mixed terpene?
Coenzyme Q (CoQ)
What is the starting molecule for cholesterol synthesis and ketogenesis?
Acetyl CoA
What is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis?
HMG-CoA reductase
How does high cholesterol affect the rate-limiting enzyme in its synthesis?
It inhibits the enzyme
What do phospholipids and glycosphingolipids have in common in terms of structure?
Both contain a backbone
Which lipid structure involves a ceramide consisting of sphingosine and an additional fatty acid chain?
Glycosphingolipids
Where is Glycerol-3-P produced from in the liver and adipose tissues?
Glucose
What is used as the carrier for the activation of fatty acids before they are added to Glycerol-3-P?
ATP
Following the addition of fatty acids to Glycerol-3-P, what is the next step in producing phospholipids?
Transformation into phosphatidic acid
Which head group is characteristic of Phospholipids?
-serine, -ethanolamine, -inositol, -choline
What enzyme is responsible for adding a phosphate group to glycerol during the synthesis of the glycerol-3-phosphate backbone?
Glycerol kinase
What enzyme catalyzes the conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) to glycerol-3-phosphate?
Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
What is the role of the coenzyme A (CoA) in lipogenesis?
It acts as a carrier for fatty acid chains and transfers them to the glycerol-3-phosphate backbone.
Which enzyme is responsible for transferring the first two fatty acid chains to the glycerol-3-phosphate backbone?
Acyl transferase
What is the intermediate formed after the addition of the first two fatty acid chains to the glycerol-3-phosphate backbone?
Phosphatidic acid
Which enzyme is responsible for removing the phosphate group from phosphatidic acid and adding the third fatty acid chain to form a triacylglycerol (triglyceride)?
Phosphatidic acid phosphatase
What class of drugs inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme HMG-CoA reductase in cholesterol synthesis?
Statins
Which of the following isoprenoid compounds is an intermediate in cholesterol synthesis?
Squalene
What is a primary function of cholesterol synthesized in the liver?
Formation of bile
After binding to receptors on cells, what happens to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles?
They are degraded, releasing cholesterol
Why do cells need cholesterol?
To build cell membranes
What is the initial metabolic precursor for cholesterol biosynthesis?
Acetyl CoA
What is the primary cause of the symptoms of raised intracranial pressure in non-communicating hydrocephalus?
Blockage of the cerebral aqueduct
Which of the following is a key symptom of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) that differentiates it from other types of hydrocephalus?
Headache
What is the primary cause of the difficulty walking (spasticity) seen in hydrocephalus?
Increased ventricular volume
What is the key difference between non-communicating hydrocephalus and normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) described in the passage?
The age distribution of the patients
What is the primary reason given in the passage for why the cause of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is not well understood?
The ventricular volume is increased but subarachnoid volume is not
What is the primary symptom of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) that is rare in other types of hydrocephalus?
Headache
Which symptom often occurs as part of the prodrome phase of a migraine?
Neck discomfort
What is a common characteristic of the aura phase in migraines?
Heaviness of limbs
Which criteria are needed for a diagnosis of migraine based on the text?
At least 2 unilateral throbbing headaches with moderate intensity
Which symptom is NOT part of the POUND screen used for migraines?
Numbness or tingling
What is a common feature of the visual disturbances during the aura phase of migraines?
Peripheral vision loss
Which symptom is NOT commonly associated with the prodrome phase of migraines?
Unilateral throbbing pain
What is the primary cause of pain in migraine headaches?
Imbalance in the modulation of pain sensation from trigeminal afferents
Which pathway is primarily involved in the transmission of migraine pain signals?
Trigeminovascular input → trigeminal ganglion → thalamus → cortex
Which group of medications acts on the receptors important in the trigeminal nucleus and thalamus to treat migraines?
Triptans (5-HT1 receptor agonists)
What is the most appropriate epidemiological definition of migraine described in the passage?
A benign, recurring headache associated with neurologic symptoms like nausea and vomiting
Which brain region is likely to play a key role in modulating the pain signals in migraine?
Dorsal raphe nucleus
According to the passage, which statement about migraine triggers is correct?
Migraines can be associated with triggers, but not necessarily
Which tissue/structure is most likely to produce the fluid that accumulates in the ventricles during communicating hydrocephalus?
Choroid plexus
What is the primary consequence of cerebral edema, as described in the passage?
Flattening of the gyri and narrowing of the sulci
According to the passage, what is the primary cause of most cases of hydrocephalus?
Impaired flow and resorption of CSF
How does the appearance of the patient with hydrocephalus differ depending on the age of presentation?
Before closure of cranial sutures, it results in macrocephaly, while after closure, it results in enlargement of the ventricles
What is the key difference between communicating hydrocephalus and other forms of hydrocephalus?
Communicating hydrocephalus involves enlargement of the entire ventricular system, while other forms do not
What is the typical rate of CSF production by the choroid plexus, as mentioned in the passage?
0.3 ml/min
What is the primary neurotransmitter implicated in the pathogenesis of migraine headaches?
CGRP
What is the proposed mechanism by which the 'spreading depression' wave leads to the neurological symptoms of migraine?
It causes a refractory period in the affected cortical areas, preventing normal synaptic excitation
What is the current understanding of the etiology of migraine headaches?
It has a strong genetic component, but the specific genes involved are difficult to identify
What is the primary mechanism of action of the monoclonal antibodies used for migraine prevention?
They bind and eliminate CGRP, preventing it from activating its receptor
What is the primary function of the trigeminal ganglion in the pathogenesis of migraine?
It is the site of CGRP release, which activates nociceptors and increases pain sensation
What is the primary mechanism by which sumatriptan, a common migraine medication, is thought to be effective?
It causes vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow and pain
Which type of herniation is described as the most common in the text?
Subfalcine herniation
What are the two main symptoms associated with compression of the cingulate gyrus or the nearby anterior cerebral artery, according to the text?
Weakness of the contralateral leg and limbic symptoms like apathy, difficulty making decisions, and indifference
According to the information provided, what is the primary cause of the increased intracranial pressure that leads to herniation?
Brain tumor
What is the primary function of the limbic lobe, which contains the cingulate gyrus?
Emotional processing and memory
Which of the following is NOT a key feature of subfalcine herniation described in the text?
Displacement of the brain stem
What is the primary reason why increased intracranial pressure can lead to herniation, according to the information provided?
The brain is enclosed within the rigid skull, limiting its ability to expand
What is the primary concern with transtentorial herniation?
Compression of the midbrain and pons
What is the primary concern with tonsillar herniation?
Brainstem compression and respiratory/cardiac dysfunction
What is the primary mechanism by which necrotic cellular damage occurs in the central nervous system?
Accumulation of intracellular calcium
Which of the following is a common characteristic of tumors that recur after therapy?
All of the above
What is the primary role of oncogenes in tumor development?
All of the above
What is the primary function of the Na+/K+ ATPase during the resting membrane potential?
Maintaining the concentration gradients of Na+ and K+
What is the key reason why brain tissue deprived of blood flow (ischemia) becomes depolarized?
Disruption of the sodium-potassium pump leading to membrane depolarization
How can the depolarization of neurons during ischemia be linked to 'unregulated' neurotransmitter release?
Depolarization opens calcium channels, leading to increased intracellular calcium and exocytosis of neurotransmitters
How can the unregulated neurotransmitter release during ischemia impact free radical production?
Excess neurotransmitters activate receptors that stimulate nitric oxide synthase, leading to increased nitric oxide production
What is a key feature of the 'red neuron' appearance observed in acute neuronal injury?
Increased eosinophilia and pyknosis of the nucleus
What is the primary mechanism by which nitric oxide (NO) can become a more toxic free radical species in the brain?
Nitric oxide is converted to peroxynitrite (ONOO-) through reaction with superoxide
How does the appearance of 'red neurons' on H&E staining differ from normal neurons?
Red neurons have a more intense eosinophilic staining of the cytoplasm compared to normal neurons
What is the primary role of astrocytic gliosis in the central nervous system?
To buffer excitotoxins and maintain the blood-brain barrier
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of microglial activation in response to injury?
Formation of a glial scar to contain the injury
What is the primary mechanism of neuronal injury during the early phase of ischemic stroke?
Excitotoxicity and calcium influx
Which of the following is a characteristic of liquefactive necrosis in the central nervous system?
Accumulation of leukocytes and purulent inflammation
Which of the following is a common intracellular inclusion seen in neurological diseases?
Lewy bodies in Parkinson's disease
What is the primary role of nitric oxide production in neuronal cells during ischemia?
To promote excitotoxicity and cell death
What is the primary characteristic of gemistocytic astrocytes?
They are hyperproliferative and hyperplastic astrocytes
What is a key benefit of astrocytic gliosis following neuronal injury?
It may help with synaptogenesis or formation of new synapses after injury
What is a key histological feature of subacute or chronic neuronal injury?
Reactive gliosis with proliferation and hypertrophy of astrocytes
How does neuronal cell loss typically manifest in subacute or chronic neurological diseases?
It is difficult to detect as neurons are lost gradually over time
What is a common mechanism underlying neuronal cell loss in chronic neurological conditions?
Apoptosis or programmed cell death without inflammation
What morphological change occurs in activated microglial cells during chronic neuronal injury?
Their processes become shorter and thicker or 'fatter'
Explore the fundamental physiologic basis of the neurologic exam in the context of Clinical Physiology. Learn about the divisions of the nervous system, major anatomic structures, functional anatomy, motor system components, sensory system, reflexes, cerebellar signs, and other pertinent neurological signs.
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