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BMS TEST 2
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BMS TEST 2

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Questions and Answers

Which structure in the nervous system is responsible for integrating and processing sensory information?

  • Cerebellum
  • Basal ganglia
  • Cerebral cortex (correct)
  • Dorsal root ganglia

    • Which part of the nervous system helps regulate the activities of the autonomic nervous system?

  • Medulla
  • Pons
  • Enteric ganglia (correct)
  • Midbrain

    • What is the primary function of the cerebellum in the nervous system?

  • Coordination of movement (correct)
  • Conscious perception
  • Regulation of the autonomic nervous system
  • Language and speech processing

    • Which structure in the nervous system contains the cell bodies of neurons that bring most sensory information from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system?

    <p>Dorsal root ganglia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the brain is responsible for the formation, storage, and retrieval of memories?

    <p>Limbic structures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the axons in the nervous system?

    <p>Transmitting electrical signals between neurons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for planning and abstract thinking?

    <p>Frontal and parietal lobes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which brain structure is involved in the formation of new memories?

    <p>Limbic lobe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where are memories typically stored in the brain?

    <p>Cortex near the associated sensory area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lobe is primarily responsible for hearing?

    <p>Temporal lobe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which area of the brain is involved in the perception of touch and proprioception (awareness of body position)?

    <p>Postcentral gyrus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the occipital lobe?

    <p>Vision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the peripheral nervous system?

    <p>To detect stimuli and relay information to the central nervous system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the nervous system is responsible for integrating sensory information and generating responses?

    <p>The central nervous system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?

    <p>Central and peripheral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a major anatomic structure of the central nervous system?

    <p>Peripheral nerves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the nervous system is responsible for controlling the digestive system?

    <p>Enteric nervous system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a component of the neurologic physical exam?

    <p>Endocrine system evaluation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Romberg sign test?

    <p>To assess the function of the dorsal columns</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected outcome if the dorsal columns are damaged in the Romberg test?

    <p>The patient will not be able to maintain balance with eyes closed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the corticospinal tract test, also known as the pronator drift test?

    <p>To identify damage to the corticospinal tract</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected outcome of the corticospinal tract test if there is damage to the corticospinal tract?

    <p>The patient's arm will drift to a more pronated position, and the hand will close</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which brain structures are part of the corticospinal tract?

    <p>The precentral gyrus and prefrontal cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which neurological function is primarily evaluated by the tests described in the text?

    <p>Motor coordination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which deep structure in the cerebrum regulates movements and behaviors?

    <p>The basal ganglia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the thalamus?

    <p>Relaying sensory information to the cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key function of the cerebellum?

    <p>Comparing sensory feedback to planned movements and making rapid adjustments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between the gray matter and white matter in the spinal cord?

    <p>Gray matter contains cell bodies and unmyelinated/lightly myelinated axons, while white matter contains myelinated axons</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord gray matter?

    <p>To integrate and relay sensory information to the brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are neurons and axons in the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) less able to regenerate compared to the peripheral nervous system?

    <p>The central nervous system is isolated from the rest of the body by the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which function of Cranial Nerve VII is responsible for controlling facial movements, such as eye opening, pursed lips, and raised eyebrows?

    <p>Somatic motor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which branch of Cranial Nerve VII is responsible for providing taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

    <p>Special sense (taste)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function of Cranial Nerve VII?

    <p>Providing somatic sensation from the eye muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does Cranial Nerve VII exit the pons and enter the facial canal?

    <p>Internal acoustic meatus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the autonomic motor branch of Cranial Nerve VII?

    <p>Providing input to the salivary and tear glands</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key function of Cranial Nerve VII that is NOT mentioned in the text?

    <p>None of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for vision?

    <p>Cranial Nerve II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How would you test for anosmia (loss of smell)?

    <p>Ask the patient to identify distinctive smells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling pupillary dilation and constriction?

    <p>Cranial Nerve III</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following tests is used to assess central vision?

    <p>Snellen eye chart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cranial nerve is responsible for directing the gaze laterally (abducting the eyeball)?

    <p>Cranial Nerve VI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common skull entry/exit point for Cranial Nerves III, IV, and VI?

    <p>Superior orbital fissure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve)?

    <p>Detecting and transmitting olfactory (smell) sensations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where are the nuclei (cell bodies) of most cranial nerves located?

    <p>Brainstem</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of information is NOT typically conveyed by cranial nerves?

    <p>Visceral motor information (involuntary muscle control)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cranial nerve's nuclei are located in the midbrain?

    <p>Oculomotor (CN III) and Trochlear (CN IV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression?

    <p>Facial (CN VII)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is NOT true?

    <p>Their nuclei are located in the cerebral cortex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?

    <p>Controlling the muscles involved in swallowing and vocalization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can the function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X) be tested?

    <p>By stimulating the posterior aspect of the pharynx and observing the gag reflex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?

    <p>Controlling the muscles involved in facial expressions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the meaning of the term 'vagus' in relation to the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?

    <p>It refers to the wandering or extensive distribution of the nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?

    <p>Controlling the movements of the eyes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential limitation of using the gag reflex test to assess the function of the vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X)?

    <p>Motor control of the vocal cords and palate elevation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the function of the accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) tested?

    <p>Having the patient shrug their shoulders and turn their head against resistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII)?

    <p>Motor control of the muscles of the tongue for speech and swallowing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) is true?

    <p>It is not considered a true cranial nerve, as its cell bodies are located in the cervical spinal cord</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a typical way to test the function of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X)?

    <p>Assessing the patient's ability to track objects with their eyes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected outcome if the hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) is damaged?

    <p>Difficulty swallowing and speaking clearly due to tongue muscle impairment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sugar is an aldose in the provided structures?

    <p>Glucose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the configuration of Idose?

    <p>L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context provided, which sugar is a ketose?

    <p>Fructose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sugar among the ones listed is an epimer of Mannose?

    <p>Galactose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of stereoisomers are Glucose and Idose?

    <p><strong>Epimers</strong></p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes stereoisomers that are not mirror images of each other?

    <p><strong>Diastereomers</strong></p> Signup and view all the answers

    D-Glucose and D-Mannose are examples of which type of stereoisomer?

    <p><strong>Epimers</strong></p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fructose and Galactose are examples of sugars that differ in what functional group?

    <p><strong>Ketone group</strong></p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ketoses and Aldoses are differentiated based on the presence of which functional group?

    <p><strong>Aldehyde group</strong></p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes stereoisomers that are mirror images of each other?

    <p>Enantiomers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key difference between glucose and fructose as indicated in the text?

    <p>Glucose is an aldose while fructose is a ketose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the information provided, which of the following is true about the relationship between glucose and fructose?

    <p>Glucose and fructose are converted via an isomerization reaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between stereoisomers and structural isomers as described in the text?

    <p>Stereoisomers have the same atoms in the same order, but different spatial arrangement, while structural isomers have the same atoms but not in the same order</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the information provided, which of the following statements about the D and L designations for monosaccharides is correct?

    <p>D-glucose and L-glucose are assigned based on the position of the hydroxyl group attached to the chiral carbon furthest from the aldehyde or ketone group</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between epimers and diastereomers as described in the text?

    <p>Epimers differ at only one chiral carbon, while diastereomers may or may not differ at only one chiral carbon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physical property of Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) allows them to have a 'slippery' texture?

    <p>Hydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature of Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) contributes to their ability to be 'squished' under pressure and then 'expand' when water returns?

    <p>Resilience</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In glycoconjugates, such as proteoglycans, how are carbohydrates typically attached to proteins?

    <p>By covalent bonds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of glycoconjugates like glycoproteins in biological systems?

    <p>Cell-cell recognition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic makes Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) resistant to pressure?

    <p>Negative charges</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific feature of glycoconjugates like glycolipids distinguishes them from other molecules?

    <p>Carbohydrate attachment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the branches in amylopectin compared to amylose?

    <p>The branches allow for more efficient storage of glucose molecules.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between the reducing and non-reducing ends of a polysaccharide like starch or glycogen?

    <p>The reducing end is where new glucose units are added during synthesis, while the non-reducing end is where glucose is released during breakdown.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between the structure of glycogen and amylopectin?

    <p>Glycogen has more branch points than amylopectin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) in the body?

    <p>GAGs serve as structural components in the extracellular matrix.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the D and L designations for monosaccharides is correct?

    <p>D-Glucose and D-Mannose are diastereomers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between amylose and amylopectin in terms of their linkages?

    <p>Amylose contains only alpha(1,4) linkages, while amylopectin contains a mix of alpha(1,4) and alpha(1,6) linkages.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of linkage connects carbohydrates to the amino acid serine in O-glycosidic bonds?

    <p>O-glycosidic linkage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In N-glycosidic bonds, to which amino acid R-group does the carbohydrate attach?

    <p>Asparagine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of glycoconjugate involves the attachment of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) via O-linkages?

    <p>Proteoglycans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In glycoproteins, what type of carbohydrate moieties are typically attached via O- or N-glycosidic linkages?

    <p>Mono-, di-, or oligosaccharides (but not GAGs)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acid is involved in the formation of N-glycosidic linkages with carbohydrates?

    <p>Asparagine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of carbohydrate linkage is typically involved in the attachment of oligosaccharides to asparagine residues?

    <p>N-glycosidic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of deoxyribose in biological systems?

    <p>It is a component of RNA, which carries genetic information.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between amino sugars and deoxyribose, as described in the text?

    <p>Amino sugars have an amino group (-NH2) instead of a hydroxyl group (-OH) on the carbon atom.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the structural name for the disaccharide maltose, as described in the text?

    <p>-D-glucopyranosyl-(14)--D-glucopyranose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where do the 'gluco' parts of the names for disaccharides come from, as mentioned in the text?

    <p>They refer to the presence of glucose units in the disaccharides.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between glucose and fructose as indicated in the text?

    <p>Glucose is an aldose, while fructose is a ketose.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of reaction is involved in the formation of glycosides?

    <p>Glycosylation reaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key difference between glucose and fructose as described in the text?

    <p>Glucose has an aldehyde group, while fructose has a ketone group</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the glycosidic bond formed in the synthesis of glycosides?

    <p>To attach an alcohol to the anomeric carbon of a monosaccharide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of cardiac glycosides like digoxin as described in the text?

    <p>To improve the contraction of the heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key structural feature of monosaccharides discussed in the text?

    <p>They can form cyclic structures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which metabolic pathway is used to break down glucose for energy in living cells?

    <p>Glycolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between glucose and fructose as indicated in the text?

    <p>Glucose is an aldose, while fructose is a ketose.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the structural feature that can be used to distinguish the 'gluco' from the 'galacto' monosaccharides?

    <p>The presence of a hydroxyl group at the C-4 position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary fuel used by red blood cells (RBCs) for energy, as they lack mitochondria?

    <p>Glucose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a component of the disaccharide sucrose?

    <p>Glucose and fructose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the sweetness of fructose compared to sucrose, as mentioned in the text?

    <p>Twice as sweet as sucrose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the non-reducing ends in homopolysaccharides?

    <p>They are involved in creating branch points</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which carbon in amylose is considered as the reducing end?

    <p>C1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of linkages are present in cellulose's D-glucose structure?

    <p>Beta (1,4) links</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is true about the branch point links in amylopectin?

    <p>They involve beta (1,6) links</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of homopolysaccharides creates more non-reducing ends?

    <p>Branch points</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes the reducing end from the non-reducing end in homopolysaccharides?

    <p>Attachment to the next monosaccharide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of glycosidic linkage does isomaltose have?

    <p>α(1→4)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about sucrose is correct?

    <p>It has an α,β(1→2) glycosidic linkage between glucose and fructose.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is the fructose unit in sucrose referred to as a 'furanose'?

    <p>Because it adopts a five-membered ring structure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following sugars is a reducing sugar?

    <p>Both maltose and lactose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for the structural difference between maltose and isomaltose?

    <p>The type of glycosidic linkage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the glycosidic linkages in sucrose is correct?

    <p>The glucose unit has an α-linkage, and the fructose unit has a β-linkage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of cellulose in plant cell walls?

    <p>Provides structural support</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are cows and termites able to digest cellulose, which humans cannot?

    <p>Cows and termites have gut microbes that produce cellulases to digest cellulose.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the structural difference between the reducing and non-reducing ends of cellulose?

    <p>The reducing end has a free aldehyde group, while the non-reducing end has a free hydroxyl group.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between homopolysaccharides and heteropolysaccharides?

    <p>Homopolysaccharides are made up of a single type of monosaccharide, while heteropolysaccharides are made up of multiple types of monosaccharides.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of cellulose in the human body?

    <p>Cellulose is used as dietary fiber to aid digestion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the branched structure of amylopectin compared to the linear structure of amylose?

    <p>The branched structure of amylopectin allows for greater storage of energy, while the linear structure of amylose limits energy storage capacity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between homopolysaccharides and heteropolysaccharides?

    <p>Homopolysaccharides are made up of a single type of monosaccharide, while heteropolysaccharides are made up of multiple types of monosaccharides.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common monosaccharide found in glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)?

    <p>Fructose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of modification is commonly found in the monosaccharides that make up glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)?

    <p>Acetylation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) in the body?

    <p>To provide structural support and resist compression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following monosaccharides is an epimer of glucose?

    <p>Mannose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the structural difference between glucuronic acid and iduronic acid?

    <p>Glucuronic acid has a different stereochemistry at the C-5 position compared to iduronic acid.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does the hypothalamus sit in relation to the thalamus?

    <p>Below the thalamus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which gland is directly connected to the hypothalamus?

    <p>Pituitary gland</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the general process in the hypothalamic-pituitary system for hormone secretion?

    <p>Hypothalamic signal regulates pituitary cell release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hormone controls water balance in the body and is secreted by the posterior pituitary?

    <p>Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do anterior pituitary hormones control?

    <p>Endocrine glands like thyroid and adrenal gland</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the hypothalamic-pituitary system, what do hypothalamic neurons project to in the pituitary gland?

    <p>Posterior aspect of the pituitary</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the effector in a homeostatic system?

    <p>To change the value of the regulated variable</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common feature of disease states as discussed in the text?

    <p>Altered set points causing instability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the given example of a homeostatic system regulating pH, what is the non-regulated variable?

    <p>Respiratory rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which regulatory mechanism tends to result in an exponential 'increase' in a system's output?

    <p>Positive feedback loop</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the relationship between homeostasis and negative feedback loops is true?

    <p>Homeostasis can use negative feedback loops, but not all negative feedback loops are homeostatic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of positive feedback loops based on the text?

    <p>The limiting event ends the feedback loop</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which disease is hypertension described as a 'set point error'?

    <p>Hypertension itself</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the simplest negative feedback loop given (A -> B -> C -> A+B+C), what is the role of component C?

    <p>It is the negative feedback signal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the controller in a homeostatic system?

    <p>To detect deviations from the setpoint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does redundancy indicate in the regulation of vital parameters according to the text?

    <p>Greater number of systems regulating a vital parameter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes an oscillation in a regulated variable as a typical feature of homeostatic systems?

    <p>'Oscillations' in the regulated variable</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of homeostasis, what is the purpose of the setpoint?

    <p>It is the target value for the regulated variable</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when ADH is secreted?

    <p>More water is kept in the bloodstream</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is blood osmolarity detected in the body?

    <p>By osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What regulates the release of thyroid hormone?

    <p>Hypothalamus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does thyroid hormone negatively affect the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus?

    <p>It inhibits their function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is involved in an example of anterior pituitary signaling besides ADH and thyroid hormone?

    <p>Pituitary gland</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical characteristic of hypothalamic-pituitary signaling?

    <p>Negative feedback loops</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the concept of homeostasis at the cellular level?

    <p>The molecular and biochemical networks that maintain cellular homeostasis are complex and difficult to measure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for maintaining homeostasis at the organism level?

    <p>To ensure that individual cells are not exposed to a hostile environment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the process of paracrine signaling, what is the role of the soluble messenger produced by Cell A?

    <p>It diffuses to Cell B and binds to a membrane receptor, initiating an intracellular signal in Cell B.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of intercellular signaling involves direct contact between membrane receptors and their ligands?

    <p>Contact signaling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key difference between contact signaling and paracrine signaling?

    <p>Paracrine signaling involves soluble messengers, while contact signaling does not.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the relationship between homeostasis at the cellular level and the organism level?

    <p>Maintaining organism-level homeostasis helps create a favorable environment for cellular homeostasis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the mass balance model, what happens to the concentration of substance Z in the reservoir if the amount removed is decreased?

    <p>Z reaches a new steady state at a higher concentration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key assumption of the mass balance model?

    <p>The system has a constant volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the mass balance model is true?

    <p>The system is initially at a steady state</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the mass balance model?

    <p>To show the balance between addition and removal of a substance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the mass balance system if the rate of Z addition is increased?

    <p>A new steady state is reached with a higher concentration of Z</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the mass balance model is false?

    <p>It assumes a variable rate of Z addition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to Boyle's Law, what happens to the volume of a gas when the pressure is increased?

    <p>The volume of the gas decreases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which ventilation occurs, according to the information provided?

    <p>Pressure gradients and Poiseuille's law.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During inspiration, how does the pressure in the alveoli compare to atmospheric pressure?

    <p>The alveolar pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which major muscles contract during expiration, according to the information provided?

    <p>Intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the pleural fluid help transmit force from the muscles that change the volume of the thoracic cavity?

    <p>The pleural fluid acts as a lubricant, allowing the muscles to easily change the volume of the thoracic cavity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the major muscle that contracts during inspiration, according to the information provided?

    <p>Diaphragm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the approximate alveolar ventilation rate mentioned in the text?

    <p>4.4 L/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the concentration of CO2 in the alveoli according to the text?

    <p>40 mm Hg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the concentration of carbon dioxide in the pulmonary arterial blood according to the text?

    <p>45 mm Hg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the cardiac output to the lung mentioned in the text?

    <p>5 L/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the arterial CO2 concentration if ventilation is cut in half to 2.2 L/min?

    <p>It increases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How accurate is the calculation for the effect of hypoventilation on arterial CO2?

    <p>Somewhat inaccurate but not terribly so</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to Laplace's Law, what happens to the tension on the walls of a cylindrical or spherical structure as the radius increases?

    <p>The tension increases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If the pressure inside a cylindrical structure increases, what happens to the tension on the walls according to Laplace's Law?

    <p>The tension increases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the relationship between the thickness of the wall and the tension on the walls, according to Laplace's Law?

    <p>The tension is inversely proportional to the thickness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of an aneurysm, where there is a pathological increase in the diameter of a blood vessel, what impact does this have on the tension or stress across the wall of the vessel?

    <p>The tension increases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following structures in the body are examples of cylindrical or spherical objects that Laplace's Law applies to?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for the relevance of Laplace's Law in the context of the body?

    <p>To understand the tension on the walls of cylindrical or spherical structures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of the increased radius of the ventricle in dilated cardiomyopathy?

    <p>The heart uses more energy to counteract the wall tension when contracting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the relationship between ventilation and blood flow according to the provided information?

    <p>Ventilation and blood flow are directly proportional</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does the calculated arterial CO2 level of 91 mmHg seem inaccurate according to the text?

    <p>A number of other parameters would correct for the rising carbon dioxide levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between glucose and fructose as described in the text?

    <p>Glucose has a linear structure while fructose has a ring structure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of the Archaea domain?

    <p>Use inorganic energy sources like hydrogen sulfide and ammonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phylum of bacteria is known for being deeply branching and thermophilic (heat-loving)?

    <p>Deinococcus-Thermus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a true statement about the rRNA sequence comparison used to construct phylogenetic trees?

    <p>rRNA sequences are more similar between land plants and green algae than between green algae and mammals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following phyla of bacteria is known for containing purple non-sulfur bacteria?

    <p>Proteobacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria?

    <p>They have a thick peptidoglycan layer and no outer membrane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phylum of bacteria is known for containing green sulfur bacteria?

    <p>Chlorobi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phylum of bacteria is known for containing nitrifying bacteria?

    <p>Proteobacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a distinguishing characteristic of purple phototrophs?

    <p>Use sulfur in their metabolism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which group of gram-positive bacteria is known to frequently form endospores?

    <p>Clostridia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Mycoplasmas from other low G+C gram-positive bacteria?

    <p>Lacking cell walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of sugar is typical in the peptidoglycan layer of a Gram-positive cell wall?

    <p>Ribose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which low G+C gram-positive bacteria is characterized by distinctive colonies on agar plates?

    <p>Mycoplasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which group of low G+C gram-positive bacteria can you find members capable of invading white blood cells?

    <p>Listeria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What staining technique is used to identify acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium and Nocardia?

    <p>Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast staining</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial group reproduces by spores at the ends of filaments and has subgroups including Actinomyces, Nocardia, and Streptomyces?

    <p>Actinomycetes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacteria are known for their waxy cell walls that reject crystal violet in Gram staining?

    <p>Nocardia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which group of bacteria consists of rod-shaped species, including C.diptheriae, that reproduce by snapping division seen as V-shapes or pallisades?

    <p>Corynebacterium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterial group exclusively consists of aerobic species that take months to grow on plates and include famous members like M.leprae and M.tuberculosis?

    <p>Myobacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature distinguishes Actinobacteria like Corynebacterium and Mycobacterium from other bacterial groups based on the provided text?

    <p>Branching filaments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it significant that all the representatives of deeply branching bacteria are autotrophic?

    <p>Autotrophs can produce their own food through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis, which allows them to thrive in extreme environments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it significant that many of the deeply branching bacteria live in hot, acidic, anaerobic environments and can withstand high levels of UV radiation?

    <p>These bacteria have adapted to survive in harsh conditions, allowing them to outcompete other organisms in their environment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the color of a phototrophic bacterium's pigment molecule determine the wavelengths it reflects?

    <p>The pigment molecule absorbs all wavelengths except the one it reflects, which determines the color of the bacterium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between cyanobacteria (formerly known as blue-green algae) and other phototrophic bacteria?

    <p>Cyanobacteria are the only phototrophic bacteria that can perform oxygenic photosynthesis, like plants and algae.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the photosynthetic process in cyanobacteria (blue-green algae)?

    <p>Cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen, which is then used to synthesize amino acids and other nitrogen-containing compounds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do the photosynthetic pigments in phototrophic bacteria differ from the photosynthetic pigments found in plants and algae?

    <p>Phototrophic bacteria have a wider range of photosynthetic pigments, including carotenoids and bacteriochlorophylls, which allow them to absorb a broader spectrum of light.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of the thylakoid membranes in phototrophic bacteria?

    <p>The thylakoid membranes in phototrophic bacteria provide a large surface area for the absorption of light energy, which is then used to drive the production of ATP.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way that humans can become infected with diseases according to the passage?

    <p>From contact with asymptomatic carriers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered a 'portal of entry' for pathogens to infect the human body according to the passage?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the skin as a 'microbiotic barrier' according to the information provided?

    <p>To provide a physical barrier against microbe entry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of the mucous membranes in the body according to the passage?

    <p>To be the most common portals of entry for pathogens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between 'contamination' and 'infection' as described in the passage?

    <p>Contamination refers to microbes in or on the body, while infection refers to microbes successfully invading the body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the information provided, which of the following is considered a 'non-living reservoir' for the movement of microbes into human hosts?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes mutualism from other symbiotic relationships?

    <p>Both organisms directly benefit from the interaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of a parasitic relationship mentioned in the text?

    <p>Tapeworm and its host</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which normal microbiota can become opportunistic pathogens?

    <p>Introduction to an unusual site in the body or changes in population</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT listed as a potential source of human diseases in the text?

    <p>Plant sources</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of symbiotic relationships, what does the term 'commensalism' refer to?

    <p>A relationship where one organism benefits and the other is unaffected</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of a mutualistic relationship mentioned in the text?

    <p>Humans and Honeyguides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of enzymes like hyaluronidase and collagenase produced by invasive bacteria?

    <p>To dissolve chemicals and structures in the body's tissues, aiding invasion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the difference between pathogenicity and virulence?

    <p>Pathogenicity refers to the ability to cause disease, while virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of a highly virulent pathogen mentioned in the text?

    <p>Francisella tularensis (rabbit fever)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of coagulase produced by some bacteria?

    <p>To initiate the formation of blood clots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following terms refers to the objective, measurable characteristics of a disease?

    <p>Signs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary distinction between a disease and a syndrome, according to the text?

    <p>A disease is characterized by a single symptom, while a syndrome is a group of symptoms.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of exotoxins produced by bacteria?

    <p>To kill host cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a mechanism by which bacteria can evade phagocytosis?

    <p>Forming a capsule</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of endotoxins released by Gram-negative bacteria?

    <p>Induce fever and inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mode of disease transmission involves the transfer of pathogens through contaminated objects?

    <p>Indirect contact transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of acute infectious diseases?

    <p>Develops rapidly with severe symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mode of disease transmission involves the transfer of pathogens through living organisms?

    <p>Vector transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between subacute disease and latent disease according to the text?

    <p>Subacute disease has shorter durations and milder severities compared to latent disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic distinguishes a contagious disease from a communicable disease?

    <p>Contagious diseases are easily transmitted between hosts, while communicable diseases are not</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus of epidemiology according to the text?

    <p>Epidemiology focuses on the study of where and when diseases occur, and how they spread within populations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between incidence and prevalence of a disease according to the text?

    <p>Incidence measures the number of new cases, while prevalence measures the total number of cases at a given time</p>