Beta-Lactam Antibiotics: mechanism and resistance
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Which statement most accurately explains the mechanism of action (MOA) of β-lactam antibiotics, considering their interaction with bacterial cell walls?

  • They inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, disrupting translation.
  • They interfere with DNA replication by binding to bacterial DNA gyrase, preventing cell division.
  • They disrupt the bacterial cell membrane by inhibiting the synthesis of phospholipids, leading to cell lysis.
  • They inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs), preventing transpeptidation and cross-linking of peptidoglycans. (correct)

How does the time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) relate to the effectiveness of β-lactam antibiotics?

  • Efficacy of β-lactams is dependent on achieving high peak concentrations regardless of duration.
  • Efficacy of β-lactams is primarily determined by the ratio of maximum concentration to MIC.
  • Efficacy of β-lactams is primarily determined by the post-antibiotic effect, not the duration above MIC.
  • Efficacy of β-lactams is determined by the duration of time that the drug concentration remains above the MIC. (correct)

Why do different bacteria exhibit varying sensitivities to β-lactam antibiotics?

  • Due to variations in the rate of active efflux pumps that remove the antibiotic from the bacterial cell.
  • Due to differences in the affinity of their Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs) for the β-lactam antibiotic. (correct)
  • Due to differences in the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) layer composition, which affects antibiotic penetration.
  • Due to the presence or absence of a cell wall structure.

Which statement best describes the bactericidal action of β-lactam antibiotics?

<p>They are bactericidal against most bacteria, particularly those that are actively growing, but are not bactericidal against enterococcus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a severe penicillin allergy requires antibiotic treatment for a serious infection. Considering the metabolic pathways of β-lactams, which of the following β-lactams would be the MOST appropriate to AVOID?

<p>Aztreonam, because it has a monobactam structure and is less likely to cross-react with penicillin antibodies; may be safe to administer. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are beta-lactam antibiotics often administered frequently?

<p>To maintain therapeutic drug levels due to their characteristically short half-life, typically less than 2 hours. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism allows bacteria to resist beta-lactam antibiotics?

<p>Enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic via beta-lactamase production. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do beta-lactamase inhibitors counteract bacterial resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics?

<p>By preventing the enzymatic breakdown of beta-lactam antibiotics by beta-lactamase enzymes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a severe infection caused by a beta-lactamase-producing bacterium. The physician prescribes a beta-lactam antibiotic in combination with a beta-lactamase inhibitor. What is a limitation of this strategy?

<p>The beta-lactamase inhibitor may become saturated and ineffective if the bacterium overproduces beta-lactamase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the classification and spectrum of activity of penicillins?

<p>Aminopenicillins have an expanded spectrum of activity compared to natural penicillins, including coverage against <em>Listeria</em>. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a Treponema pallidum (syphilis) infection. Which penicillin formulation is most appropriate for intramuscular administration, providing prolonged duration of action?

<p>Benzathine penicillin G (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires treatment for a complicated intra-abdominal infection involving Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor combination would be most appropriate, assuming cross-reactivity is a concern?

<p>Piperacillin/tazobactam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A community outbreak of methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) skin infections is identified. Which oral penicillin derivative would be most effective for treating these infections?

<p>Dicloxacillin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has developed a severe infection with a Gram-positive bacteria that is resistant to multiple antibiotics. Considering the mechanisms of action for quinolones, which modification to these drugs would MOST likely improve their efficacy against this resistant strain?

<p>Designing the quinolone to have a higher affinity for bacterial DNA gyrase or topoisomerase IV. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating the structure-activity relationship of quinolones. Which alteration to the basic quinolone structure would be MOST likely to enhance its activity against Gram-positive bacteria, while maintaining a broad spectrum of activity?

<p>Adding a fluorine atom at the C-6 position to improve topoisomerase binding and increase the drug's half-life. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a quinolone antibiotic, but also takes antacids containing aluminum and magnesium. How do these antacids MOST significantly impact the efficacy of the quinolone?

<p>They chelate with the quinolone in the gastrointestinal tract, decreasing its absorption. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing quinolone therapy reports experiencing tendinitis. Considering the potential mechanisms involved, which of the following factors would MOST likely increase the risk of quinolone-induced tendinitis?

<p>Concomitant use of corticosteroids, which may weaken tendon structure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A new quinolone drug is being developed. Which structural modification would be LEAST likely to reduce the risk of QT prolongation, a known side effect of some quinolones?

<p>Introducing a bulky lipophilic group at the N-1 position to enhance drug efflux. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the key difference between first and second-generation cephalosporins?

<p>Second-generation cephalosporins exhibit enhanced activity against gram-negative bacteria and anaerobes, while first-generation cephalosporins are primarily effective against gram-positive cocci. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a polymicrobial intra-abdominal infection. Considering the spectrum of activity and specific anaerobic coverage, which second-generation cephalosporin would be most appropriate?

<p>Cefotetan (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a complicated UTI caused by a gram-negative organism known to produce AMP-C beta-lactamases. Which third-generation cephalosporin would be the LEAST reliable choice for empiric treatment, assuming resistance patterns are unknown?

<p>Ceftriaxone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a severe penicillin allergy and requires treatment for meningitis caused by a penicillin-resistant organism. Which of the following cephalosporins would be the MOST appropriate choice, considering both efficacy and CNS penetration?

<p>Ceftriaxone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the activity of ureidopenicillins?

<p>Ureidopenicillins have enhanced activity against gram-negative bacteria, including <em>Pseudomonas aeruginosa</em> (PSAE), but are less effective against gram-positive bacteria. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A hospital pharmacy is facing a shortage of cefazolin. Which of the following first-generation cephalosporins would be the MOST suitable oral alternative for treating a patient with a skin infection caused by MSSA, assuming the patient can tolerate oral medication?

<p>Cephalexin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of multiple hospitalizations and antibiotic use develops a severe hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). Sputum cultures reveal a gram-negative organism with suspected Extended-Spectrum Beta-Lactamase (ESBL) production. Which of the following cephalosporins would be the LEAST appropriate empiric choice?

<p>Ceftriaxone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed an antibiotic that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes. This mechanism of action directly enhances the effectiveness of which of the following antibiotics against beta-lactamase producing strains of E. coli?

<p>Amoxicillin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which antibiotics exert a proconvulsant effect in susceptible individuals?

<p>Antagonism of GABAA receptors, reducing inhibitory neurotransmission in the brain. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately reflects the utility of carbapenems in treating bacterial infections?

<p>Carbapenems are often the drug of choice for infections caused by ESBL (Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamase) and inducible Amp-C producers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to contribute to antimicrobial-associated QT interval prolongation?

<p>Administration of a short course of a low-dose non-interacting antibiotic. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires treatment for a gram-negative bacterial infection. Which of the following antibiotics would be most appropriate, considering its spectrum of activity and safety profile?

<p>Aztreonam (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a complex polymicrobial infection following a hospital stay. The isolated bacteria include MSSA (Methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus), Enterobacter species, and ESBL-producing E. coli. Considering the need for broad-spectrum coverage, which of the following antibiotics would be the MOST appropriate initial choice?

<p>Meropenem (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops Torsades de Pointes (TdP) while on antibiotic therapy. Analysis reveals the patient is female, has a history of heart disease, and is also hypokalemic. Which antibiotic class is MOST implicated in causing TdP based on post-marketing reports?

<p>Macrolides (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following strategies is LEAST effective in mitigating the risk of QT prolongation in patients receiving quinolone antibiotics?

<p>Ensuring adequate hydration to promote renal clearance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding cephalosporin antibiotics is MOST accurate?

<p>Cephalosporins, as a class, lack activity against enterococci, <em>Listeria monocytogenes</em>, and atypical respiratory pathogens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a previous allergic reaction to amoxicillin, characterized by a maculopapular rash that appeared several days after starting the medication. Which of the following statements BEST explains this type of reaction?

<p>The delayed onset suggests a T-cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antibiotics is generally considered to have the LOWEST risk of QT interval prolongation?

<p>Azithromycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An immunocompromised patient with HIV develops a Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and requires antibiotic treatment. Given the data regarding allergic reactions in specific patient populations, which antibiotic regimen should be approached with heightened vigilance for potential hypersensitivity?

<p>Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios presents the HIGHEST risk of penicillin-induced seizures?

<p>An elderly patient with renal insufficiency receiving high-dose intravenous penicillin for a severe systemic infection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding cross-reactivity among beta-lactam antibiotics is MOST accurate, considering current understanding and best practices?

<p>Previous estimates of beta-lactam cross-reactivity were likely overestimated due to manufacturing impurities and potential inaccuracies in patient-reported allergy histories. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on multiple medications, including sotalol, develops a severe infection that necessitates antibiotic treatment. Which antibiotic class should be avoided, if possible, due to increased risk of QT prolongation and potential for Torsades de Pointes?

<p>Macrolides (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A microbiology lab reports that two gram-negative isolates from the same patient sample demonstrate similar susceptibility patterns, with both being susceptible to ceftazidime. Based on the provided information, which antibiotic would MOST likely exhibit comparable activity against both isolates?

<p>Aztreonam (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors would be LEAST important to consider when assessing the epileptogenic potential of an antibiotic in a patient?

<p>The cost of the antibiotic and its availability on the hospital formulary. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

β-Lactams MOA

Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs), blocking transpeptidation (cross-linking).

β-Lactam Classes

Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams

β-Lactam Efficacy

Time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is the key factor determining effectiveness.

β-Lactam Elimination

Most β-Lactams are primarily eliminated through the kidneys.

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β-Lactam Exceptions

Nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone, and cefoperazone

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Renal Function & Antibiotics

Monitor this organ's function due to excretion of the antibiotic.

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Poor Oral Absorption

Many have this issue, limiting oral use.

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Short Half-Life (t1/2)

Most have a short duration of action in the body, requiring frequent dosing.

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Antibiotic Resistance Mechanisms

Enzymatic inactivation, target modification, impaired penetration, and efflux pumps.

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β-Lactamase Inhibitors

Strategy to overcome resistance: Pair an antimicrobial with a beta-lactamase inhibitor to prevent the bacteria from breaking down the antibiotic.

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Natural Penicillins

Penicillin G, benzathine, and VK.

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Antistaphylococcal Penicillins

Nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin, dicloxacillin.

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Aminopenicillins

Ampicillin and amoxicillin.

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Ureidopenicillins

Enhanced Gram-Negative Bacteria (GNB) coverage, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa (PSAE). Less effective against Gram-positive bacteria.

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Beta-lactamase inhibitors

Counteract beta-lactamase producing bacteria, effective against strains of E. coli, Proteus sp., MSSA, H.flu, Neisseria, and Bacteroides sp.

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Cephalosporins

Classified into generations based loosely on their spectrum of activity. More stable against beta-lactamases, broader spectrum.

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First-generation cephalosporins

Narrow activity, primarily against Gram-positive cocci. Used for skin infections, surgical prophylaxis, UTI, and endocarditis.

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Second-generation cephalosporins

Enhanced Gram-negative and anaerobic activity, while retaining some Gram-positive coverage. Effective against H. influenzae and Bacteroides.

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Third-generation cephalosporins

Enhanced Gram-negative activity, less Gram-positive and anaerobic activity. Variable activity against AMP-C hydrolysis. Treat NGPR, meningitis, and sepsis.

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Ceftazidime

Primarily broad-spectrum Gram-negative coverage. Increased stability against SPACE bugs.

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Fourth/Fifth-generation cephalosporins

Good Gram-negative AND Gram-positive activity. Effective against MSSA, strep, Enterobacteriaceae, Citrobacter, and Enterobacter.

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Drug Hypersensitivity

Restoring sensitivity by stopping a drug for a period of time.

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Quinolones

They are a class of antibiotics derived from nalidixic acid and cinoxacin.

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Quinolones Mechanism of Action

Inhibition of topoisomerase in gram-negative bacteria and DNA gyrase in gram-positive bacteria.

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Quinolones Bioavailability

Generally high if the gut is functioning properly, allowing for oral administration.

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Quinolones Spectrum of Activity

Enterobacteriaceae, Neisseria sp., Moraxella sp., Haemophilus sp. and some gram (+) such as MSSA

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Cefepime (Maxipime®)

4th generation cephalosporin active against Stenotrophomonas, Burkholderia, and some ESBL/Amp-C producers.

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Ceftaroline (Teflaro®)

5th generation cephalosporin; Like cefepime but also covers MRSA.

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Cephalosporin coverage gaps

Cephalosporins generally lack activity against enterococci, Listeria, and atypical respiratory pathogens.

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Carbapenems

Broadest spectrum antibiotics, effective against MSSA, strep, Enterobacteriaceae, ESBL producers, and some gram-negatives. Ertapenem does NOT cover Pseudomonas or Enterococcus.

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Aztreonam (Azactam®)

Gram-negative activity similar to ceftazidime; Reserved for penicillin-allergic patients.

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HIV and drug allergies

Hypersensitivity reactions more frequent in HIV patients, often to Bactrim.

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Maculopapular rash

Common cutaneous reaction to amoxicillin, ampicillin, or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.

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Beta-lactam cross-reactivity

True beta-lactam cross-reactivity is lower than previously thought due to past manufacturing impurities.

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QTC Change Definition

Change in QTC interval, difficult to define due to individual susceptibility.

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QT Prolongation Risk Factors

Multiple risk factors present, with patients often having 2 or more.

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Top QT Prolongation Risks

Female sex (64.5%), Heart disease (52.6%), Hypokalemia (30.6%), Drug interactions/excess dose.

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Torsades de Pointes (TdP) & Macrolides

Macrolides account for a large percentage. Often multifactorial involving other QT prolonging agents, electrolyte abnormalities, advanced age, or cardiac disease.

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Azithromycin & QT Prolongation

Appears safest macrolide due to no P450 interactions.

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Quinolones & QT Prolongation

Moxifloxacin has the most testing data; Moxifloxacin > Levofloxacin, Cipro appears the safest.

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Antibiotics & Seizures

Involves alterations in GABA activity, with antibiotics antagonizing GABAA.

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Proconvulsant Antibiotics

Characterized by myoclonus, confusion, twitching, etc. Includes penicillins, cephalosporins, aztreonam, carbapenems, fluoroquinolones. Penicillin most studied.

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Study Notes

  • Antibacterial Pharmacology is covered in Phar506.

Objectives

  • Learn the mechanisms of action (MOA) of beta-lactam, quinolone, macrolide, and other antimicrobials.
  • Compare the spectrum of activities of beta-lactam, quinolone, and macrolides.
  • Understand allergic reactions to antimicrobials and the process of desensitization.
  • Review adverse side effects, including seizures and QT prolongation, associated with common antimicrobials.

Beta-Lactams

  • Discovered over 75 years ago by Flemming in 1929.
  • Belongs to the largest antimicrobial class.
  • Includes penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams.
  • Features a fused thiazolidine and beta-lactam ring structure, referred to as "house and garage".
  • Includes compounds like penicillin, cephalosporin, imipenem, and clavulanate.
  • The family tree includes penicillins (1940-), cephalosporins (1948-), cephamycins (1971-), cephabacins (1985-), clavulanic acid (1976-), carbapenems (1976-), nocardicins (1976-), and monobactams (1981-).

Pharmacology

  • Mechanism of Action (MOA): Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs), inhibiting transpeptidation (cross-linking).
  • Generally bactericidal, except for enterococcus and when cells aren't actively growing.
  • Has a faster kill rate compared to vancomycin for streptococcus.
  • Efficacy is determined by the time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC), which may require continuous infusion.
  • Most are renally eliminated, except nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone, and cefoperazone; watch renal function.
  • Most have poor oral absorption.
  • Short half-life (t1/2) of less than 2 hours, except ceftriaxone.
  • Poor CNS penetration, except ceftriaxone and cefotaxime.

Resistance

  • Occurs through 4 general mechanisms:
    • Enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic.
    • Modification of the target PBP.
    • Impaired penetration into the cell.
    • Efflux pumps.
  • Beta-lactamase production is the most common mechanism of resistance; more than 100 types have been identified.
  • Some beta-lactamases are specific to penicillin and not cephalosporins.
  • Beta-lactamase inhibitors are added to beta-lactam antibiotics to prevent resistance.
  • With enzymatic resistance microbes are paired with a beta-lactamase inhibitor.
  • Overcomes resistance mediated by beta-lactamase.

Penicillin Classification

  • Natural penicillins, such as penicillin G, benzathine, and VK*.
    • Active against staph/strep, but resistance rates.
  • Antistaphylococcal penicillins, such as nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin, dicloxacillin*.
  • Aminopenicillins, such as ampicillin* and amoxicillin*.
  • Carboxypenicillins, such as ticarcillin.
  • Ureidopenicillins, such as piperacillin.
  • Beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations, such as Amp/clav*, amp/sulb, ticar/clav, and pip/tazo.
  • Those marked with * have oral formulations.

Spectrum of Activity

  • Penicillins cover streptococci and T. pallidum.
  • Antistaphylococcal penicillins: MSSA and strep.
  • Aminopenicillins: strep, enterococcus, Listeria, Salmonella sp., Shigella sp., and "wimpy" GNB.
  • Carboxy penicillins: more gram-negative including PSAE, E. coli, Proteus sp., Enterobacter sp., and less gram-positive.
  • Ureidopenicillins: enhance GNB (PSAE), Serratia, streptococci, and less gram-positive.
  • Beta-lactamase inhibitors: cover beta-lactamase producing strains of E.coli, Proteus sp., MSSA, H.flu, Neisseria, and Bacteroides sp.

Cephalosporins

  • Introduced in the 1960s.
  • Categorized into "generations," a classification based on spectrum of activity.
  • More stable against beta-lactamases, thus having a broader spectrum of activity.
  • Not active against most Extended-Spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL's), enterococci, and Listeria.
  • Cephalosporins are not indicated for enterococci, Listeria monocytogenes, and atypical respiratory pathogens (Legionella, Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila spp.).
  • General structure consists of an Acyl Side Chain, Beta-Lactam Ring, and Dihydrothiazine Ring.

First Generation Cephalosporins

  • Activity is narrow, mostly gram-positive cocci, mostly treats skin infections.
  • Active against S. aureus (MSSA), streptococci, E. coli, and Klebsiella.
  • Useful for skin and skin-structure infections, surgical prophylaxis, UTIs, and endocarditis.
  • Includes cefazolin (Ancef®), cephalexin* (Keflex®), and cefadroxil* (Duricef®).
  • Those marked with * have oral formulations.

Second Generation Cephalosporins

  • Enhanced gram-negative and anaerobic activity while retaining gram-positve coverage.
  • Active against H. influenza (penicillin resistant), M.catarralis, and Neisseria sp., Bacteroides sp. (including B. frag.).
  • Used for colorectal, urogenital, and lower/upper respiratory tract infections.
  • Includes cefotetan, cefoxitin, cefmetazole, and cefuroxime (Ceftin®*).
  • Cefoxitin covers anaerobes below the waist.
  • Used for polymicrobial infections such as intra-abdominal and gynecologic infections.
  • Those marked with * have oral formulations.

Third Generation Cephalosporins

  • Enhanced activity against Gram-negative organisms and less against Gram-positive and anaerobes.
  • Variable activity to AMP-C hydrolysis (Serratia, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Citrobacter, Enterobacter – "SPACE bugs").
  • Effective against NGPR (now DOC), meningitis (PRP), gram-negative sepsis/UTI/RTI (HAP), and SSTI.
  • Only ceftazidime has activity against PSAE (“Tasmanian Devil").
  • Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime are used to treat meningitis since they have good CNS penetration.
  • Primarily broad-spectrum against gram-negative.
  • Ceftazidime (Fortaz®) has more stability against SPACE bugs.
  • Third generation cephalosporins include ceftriaxone (Rocephin®), cefdinir (Omnicef®), cefixime (Suprax®), cefotaxime (Claforan®).
    • indicates oral formulation.

Fourth and Fifth Generation Cephalosporins

  • Active against both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.
  • Effective against MSSA, strep, Enterobacteriaceae, Citrobacter, and Enterobacter.
  • Not effective against Stenotrophomonas and Burkholderia.
  • Provide some stability against ESBL and Amp-C producers.
  • Cefepime (Maxipime®) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin.
  • Ceftaroline (Teflaro®) is a fifth-generation, similar to cefepime but is effective against MRSA.

Carbapenems

  • Called "Bazooka" for having wide coverage.
  • Has a broad spectrum - active against MSSA, strep, Enterobacteriaceae, Citrobacter sp., Enterobacter sp., Stenotrophomonas, Burkholderia sp., and ESBL producers.
  • Include Imipenem (Primixim®), meropenem (Merrem®), ertapenem (Invanz®) doripenem (Doribax®).
  • Imipenem and meropenem have similar spectrums (mero>PSAE, imi>enterococcus).
  • Ertapenem covers Psedomonas aeruginosa (PSAE) or enterococcus.
  • They are all the "drug of choice" for ESBL's and inducible Amp-C producers.
  • Effective against Polymicrobial infections, HAP (not dori/erta), and meningitis (mero).

Monobactams

  • Has a broad-spectrum, only active against gram-negative bacteria.
  • Has similar gram-negative activity to ceftazidime.
  • Reserved for penicillin allergic patients.
  • "Garage" only structure.
  • Aztreonam (Azactam®) – IV only.

Allergic Reactions - Antimicrobials

  • Cross-reactivity % is the percentage likelihood that an allergy to one agent will also mean allergy to another agent.
  • Drug surveillance data indicates that 2.2% of cutaneous drug reactions are due to amoxicillin, ampicillin, or Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.
  • Maculopapular rash is the most common reaction, occurring days to weeks (delayed) and appearing in minutes to hours (immediate).
  • Risk is higher for those with immune dysfunctions.

Allergic Reactions – Beta-Lactams

  • Crossreactivity was overestimated due to partial contamination from manufacturing practices.
    • This can overestimate accuracy if the patients reports it as an allergy.
    • Could be to do with impurities in manufacture.
  • Cross-reactivity between different beta-Lactams appears to be between 1 and 10%.
  • Cross-reactivity appears higher in those individuals w/ more serious reactions. This may cause:
  • 10% in those with hives rash.
  • 20% in those with Hives.
  • 40 to 50% in those with anaphylaxis.
  • Aztreonam is missing reactive “house portion", therefore it is reserved for those w/ serious allergy.
  • Meropenem is safer than Imipenem.

Antimicrobial Desensitization

  • A safe procedure that allows the administration of antibiotics (abx) to patients with severe allergic reactions (e.g., hives, anaphylaxis).
  • Utilized for Type I, IgE mediated hypersensitivity.
    • Process converts hyperactive state to tolerant.
  • Desensitization can be performed if the reaction is a type I IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
  • Abx dose started at 1/10,000 to 1/100,000 of the full dose.
  • Abx and infusion concentrations increase over time.
  • Slow degranulation produces low or undetectable levels of inflammatory mediators.

Quinolones

  • Derivatives of nalidixic acid and cinoxacin.
  • Original compounds are fluorinated to improve activity.
  • Inhibit Topoisomerase (gram -) and DNA gyrase (gram +).
  • All have high PO bioavailability if the patients have a functioning gut.
  • Activity covers both gram (-) and gram (+) newer agents.
  • Bactericidal against susceptible bugs.
  • List of drugs goes of the market:
    • Temafloxacin – gone (G)
    • Grepafloxacin – gone (C)
    • Sparfloxacin – gone (P/C)
    • Trovafloxacin (Trovan®) – gone (H)
    • Lomefloxacin – gone (P)
    • Clinafloxacin – gone (P)
    • Gatilfoxacin is also gone.

Quinolone Spectrum

  • All cover Enterobacteriaceae, Neisseria sp., Moraxella sp., and Haemophilus sp..
  • Good against Gram Negative bugs.
  • MSSA, pneumococci covered by levofloxacin, moxi, gemiflox(S. pneumonia not Cipro)
  • Moxi+Gemifloxacin does not cover PEudomonas
  • Cipro is only effective against Levofloxacin
  • Moxifloxacin – Good anaerobes
  • Covers Atypicals
  • Cipro does NOT cover strep pneumo

Quinolone Indications

  • Used in:
  • CAP- Levo, Moxi, Gemi
  • Hap/VAP- Levo and cipro
  • NO MOXI or GEMI
  • Intraabdominal Moxifloxacin only
  • STI- Levo and Moxi
  • UTI Cipro Levo
  • Now Gonorrhea second line
  • Mycobacterium

Precautions

  • Arthropathy/tendonopathy that is seen only in juvenile subjects
  • Increased risk in failure, renal transplant over 50 steroid use
  • Achillies tendon is what usually snaps in this Rx.
  • It takes 1–2 months rest for healing.
  • QT Prolong
  • Glucose Homeostasis
  • CNS affects you by hearing, HA and Dizzyness.
  • Phototoxicity in over 1% of the agents.
  • Binds with divalent cations and decreases effectiveness requires doze separation

Macrolides

  • Includes erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin and telithromycin.
    • Erythromycin is the initial Rx from this class.
  • Most common Rx ends in “-mycin”
    • Erythromycin (initial macrolide)
      • Acid liable
      • GI intolerance
  • Narrow Spectrum
  • Low doze use as prokenetic agent. - Can be long lasting esp. azithro, Penatrates pulmonary tissue.
  • Macrolides (erythromycin/clarithromycin) and moxifloxacin appear at highest risk for arrhythmia.

Macrolides and ketolides Spectrum

  • Gram (+)
  • Gram (-) No active activity against “gut bugs.” Has excellent atypicals. M.Avium

Macrolides Use Cases

  • Use in respiratory infections
  • Sinusitis/Cap and pharyngitis.
  • Mycobacterium Avuim
  • Skin and Skin Structure
  • STD's
  • Anti inflammatory.

Macrolide Monitoring Parameters

  • Drug interactions only with azithro
  • GI Intolerannce
  • Ototoxicity but usually heard with high doze of erythro
  • Monitor for:
  • QT prolongation
  • Erythro more clatirth more telith and azith,
  • Hepatic functions.

QTC Prolongation

Seen with macrolides, quinolones, azole Most information comes from after market surveillance Difficult to define a QTC Change is there. Many cases are due to multiple RX 65% due to the Female Sex, 53% with heart Disease. Zelter due to noncardiac reports. Macrolides are 77% of a market share. Concurrent RX and old age can all cause issues.

Seizures

RX can cause these due ti GABA

  • The Rx attack the GABA Symptoms Proconvulsant cause for Seizures
  • PCN
  • Cephalosporin’s
  • Carbapenems
  • Quinlones Side effects Kidney cause because the kidney are removing the RX. Those under the age of 7 months do have a greater time

Risks of Seizures

Those over 60s. History of CNS disorder. Cardiopulmonary. To reduce the chances

  • Lower the dose, space the RX
  • Add Benzo’s to reduce the issues
  • Remember risk factors with your patient and adjust RX

Newer Gram RX’s

  • New - Vancomycin - Azolid. Also know as “Vitimin L)
  • These are for those with MRSA VRE VISA and GISO -Dalbivanchin- Once a weak RX for MRSA
  • The newer Gram - (Negative) are used with “turn back time.” - Cefepime or Avibactam

Review of Rx’s

  • PCN rx and why
  • Those that are used for specific types of ailments.
  • Always Check kidney functions. – Renal is extremely important - Cross reactivity

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