Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which statement most accurately explains the mechanism of action (MOA) of β-lactam antibiotics, considering their interaction with bacterial cell walls?
Which statement most accurately explains the mechanism of action (MOA) of β-lactam antibiotics, considering their interaction with bacterial cell walls?
- They inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, disrupting translation.
- They interfere with DNA replication by binding to bacterial DNA gyrase, preventing cell division.
- They disrupt the bacterial cell membrane by inhibiting the synthesis of phospholipids, leading to cell lysis.
- They inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs), preventing transpeptidation and cross-linking of peptidoglycans. (correct)
How does the time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) relate to the effectiveness of β-lactam antibiotics?
How does the time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) relate to the effectiveness of β-lactam antibiotics?
- Efficacy of β-lactams is dependent on achieving high peak concentrations regardless of duration.
- Efficacy of β-lactams is primarily determined by the ratio of maximum concentration to MIC.
- Efficacy of β-lactams is primarily determined by the post-antibiotic effect, not the duration above MIC.
- Efficacy of β-lactams is determined by the duration of time that the drug concentration remains above the MIC. (correct)
Why do different bacteria exhibit varying sensitivities to β-lactam antibiotics?
Why do different bacteria exhibit varying sensitivities to β-lactam antibiotics?
- Due to variations in the rate of active efflux pumps that remove the antibiotic from the bacterial cell.
- Due to differences in the affinity of their Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs) for the β-lactam antibiotic. (correct)
- Due to differences in the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) layer composition, which affects antibiotic penetration.
- Due to the presence or absence of a cell wall structure.
Which statement best describes the bactericidal action of β-lactam antibiotics?
Which statement best describes the bactericidal action of β-lactam antibiotics?
A patient with a severe penicillin allergy requires antibiotic treatment for a serious infection. Considering the metabolic pathways of β-lactams, which of the following β-lactams would be the MOST appropriate to AVOID?
A patient with a severe penicillin allergy requires antibiotic treatment for a serious infection. Considering the metabolic pathways of β-lactams, which of the following β-lactams would be the MOST appropriate to AVOID?
Why are beta-lactam antibiotics often administered frequently?
Why are beta-lactam antibiotics often administered frequently?
Which mechanism allows bacteria to resist beta-lactam antibiotics?
Which mechanism allows bacteria to resist beta-lactam antibiotics?
How do beta-lactamase inhibitors counteract bacterial resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics?
How do beta-lactamase inhibitors counteract bacterial resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics?
A patient has a severe infection caused by a beta-lactamase-producing bacterium. The physician prescribes a beta-lactam antibiotic in combination with a beta-lactamase inhibitor. What is a limitation of this strategy?
A patient has a severe infection caused by a beta-lactamase-producing bacterium. The physician prescribes a beta-lactam antibiotic in combination with a beta-lactamase inhibitor. What is a limitation of this strategy?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the classification and spectrum of activity of penicillins?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the classification and spectrum of activity of penicillins?
A patient is diagnosed with a Treponema pallidum (syphilis) infection. Which penicillin formulation is most appropriate for intramuscular administration, providing prolonged duration of action?
A patient is diagnosed with a Treponema pallidum (syphilis) infection. Which penicillin formulation is most appropriate for intramuscular administration, providing prolonged duration of action?
A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires treatment for a complicated intra-abdominal infection involving Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor combination would be most appropriate, assuming cross-reactivity is a concern?
A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires treatment for a complicated intra-abdominal infection involving Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor combination would be most appropriate, assuming cross-reactivity is a concern?
A community outbreak of methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) skin infections is identified. Which oral penicillin derivative would be most effective for treating these infections?
A community outbreak of methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) skin infections is identified. Which oral penicillin derivative would be most effective for treating these infections?
A patient has developed a severe infection with a Gram-positive bacteria that is resistant to multiple antibiotics. Considering the mechanisms of action for quinolones, which modification to these drugs would MOST likely improve their efficacy against this resistant strain?
A patient has developed a severe infection with a Gram-positive bacteria that is resistant to multiple antibiotics. Considering the mechanisms of action for quinolones, which modification to these drugs would MOST likely improve their efficacy against this resistant strain?
A researcher is investigating the structure-activity relationship of quinolones. Which alteration to the basic quinolone structure would be MOST likely to enhance its activity against Gram-positive bacteria, while maintaining a broad spectrum of activity?
A researcher is investigating the structure-activity relationship of quinolones. Which alteration to the basic quinolone structure would be MOST likely to enhance its activity against Gram-positive bacteria, while maintaining a broad spectrum of activity?
A patient is prescribed a quinolone antibiotic, but also takes antacids containing aluminum and magnesium. How do these antacids MOST significantly impact the efficacy of the quinolone?
A patient is prescribed a quinolone antibiotic, but also takes antacids containing aluminum and magnesium. How do these antacids MOST significantly impact the efficacy of the quinolone?
A patient undergoing quinolone therapy reports experiencing tendinitis. Considering the potential mechanisms involved, which of the following factors would MOST likely increase the risk of quinolone-induced tendinitis?
A patient undergoing quinolone therapy reports experiencing tendinitis. Considering the potential mechanisms involved, which of the following factors would MOST likely increase the risk of quinolone-induced tendinitis?
A new quinolone drug is being developed. Which structural modification would be LEAST likely to reduce the risk of QT prolongation, a known side effect of some quinolones?
A new quinolone drug is being developed. Which structural modification would be LEAST likely to reduce the risk of QT prolongation, a known side effect of some quinolones?
Which of the following statements best describes the key difference between first and second-generation cephalosporins?
Which of the following statements best describes the key difference between first and second-generation cephalosporins?
A patient presents with a polymicrobial intra-abdominal infection. Considering the spectrum of activity and specific anaerobic coverage, which second-generation cephalosporin would be most appropriate?
A patient presents with a polymicrobial intra-abdominal infection. Considering the spectrum of activity and specific anaerobic coverage, which second-generation cephalosporin would be most appropriate?
A patient is diagnosed with a complicated UTI caused by a gram-negative organism known to produce AMP-C beta-lactamases. Which third-generation cephalosporin would be the LEAST reliable choice for empiric treatment, assuming resistance patterns are unknown?
A patient is diagnosed with a complicated UTI caused by a gram-negative organism known to produce AMP-C beta-lactamases. Which third-generation cephalosporin would be the LEAST reliable choice for empiric treatment, assuming resistance patterns are unknown?
A patient has a severe penicillin allergy and requires treatment for meningitis caused by a penicillin-resistant organism. Which of the following cephalosporins would be the MOST appropriate choice, considering both efficacy and CNS penetration?
A patient has a severe penicillin allergy and requires treatment for meningitis caused by a penicillin-resistant organism. Which of the following cephalosporins would be the MOST appropriate choice, considering both efficacy and CNS penetration?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the activity of ureidopenicillins?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the activity of ureidopenicillins?
A hospital pharmacy is facing a shortage of cefazolin. Which of the following first-generation cephalosporins would be the MOST suitable oral alternative for treating a patient with a skin infection caused by MSSA, assuming the patient can tolerate oral medication?
A hospital pharmacy is facing a shortage of cefazolin. Which of the following first-generation cephalosporins would be the MOST suitable oral alternative for treating a patient with a skin infection caused by MSSA, assuming the patient can tolerate oral medication?
A patient with a history of multiple hospitalizations and antibiotic use develops a severe hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). Sputum cultures reveal a gram-negative organism with suspected Extended-Spectrum Beta-Lactamase (ESBL) production. Which of the following cephalosporins would be the LEAST appropriate empiric choice?
A patient with a history of multiple hospitalizations and antibiotic use develops a severe hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). Sputum cultures reveal a gram-negative organism with suspected Extended-Spectrum Beta-Lactamase (ESBL) production. Which of the following cephalosporins would be the LEAST appropriate empiric choice?
A patient is prescribed an antibiotic that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes. This mechanism of action directly enhances the effectiveness of which of the following antibiotics against beta-lactamase producing strains of E. coli?
A patient is prescribed an antibiotic that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes. This mechanism of action directly enhances the effectiveness of which of the following antibiotics against beta-lactamase producing strains of E. coli?
What is the primary mechanism by which antibiotics exert a proconvulsant effect in susceptible individuals?
What is the primary mechanism by which antibiotics exert a proconvulsant effect in susceptible individuals?
Which statement accurately reflects the utility of carbapenems in treating bacterial infections?
Which statement accurately reflects the utility of carbapenems in treating bacterial infections?
Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to contribute to antimicrobial-associated QT interval prolongation?
Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to contribute to antimicrobial-associated QT interval prolongation?
A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires treatment for a gram-negative bacterial infection. Which of the following antibiotics would be most appropriate, considering its spectrum of activity and safety profile?
A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires treatment for a gram-negative bacterial infection. Which of the following antibiotics would be most appropriate, considering its spectrum of activity and safety profile?
A patient is diagnosed with a complex polymicrobial infection following a hospital stay. The isolated bacteria include MSSA (Methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus), Enterobacter species, and ESBL-producing E. coli. Considering the need for broad-spectrum coverage, which of the following antibiotics would be the MOST appropriate initial choice?
A patient is diagnosed with a complex polymicrobial infection following a hospital stay. The isolated bacteria include MSSA (Methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus), Enterobacter species, and ESBL-producing E. coli. Considering the need for broad-spectrum coverage, which of the following antibiotics would be the MOST appropriate initial choice?
A patient develops Torsades de Pointes (TdP) while on antibiotic therapy. Analysis reveals the patient is female, has a history of heart disease, and is also hypokalemic. Which antibiotic class is MOST implicated in causing TdP based on post-marketing reports?
A patient develops Torsades de Pointes (TdP) while on antibiotic therapy. Analysis reveals the patient is female, has a history of heart disease, and is also hypokalemic. Which antibiotic class is MOST implicated in causing TdP based on post-marketing reports?
Which of the following strategies is LEAST effective in mitigating the risk of QT prolongation in patients receiving quinolone antibiotics?
Which of the following strategies is LEAST effective in mitigating the risk of QT prolongation in patients receiving quinolone antibiotics?
Which of the following statements regarding cephalosporin antibiotics is MOST accurate?
Which of the following statements regarding cephalosporin antibiotics is MOST accurate?
A patient reports a previous allergic reaction to amoxicillin, characterized by a maculopapular rash that appeared several days after starting the medication. Which of the following statements BEST explains this type of reaction?
A patient reports a previous allergic reaction to amoxicillin, characterized by a maculopapular rash that appeared several days after starting the medication. Which of the following statements BEST explains this type of reaction?
Which of the following antibiotics is generally considered to have the LOWEST risk of QT interval prolongation?
Which of the following antibiotics is generally considered to have the LOWEST risk of QT interval prolongation?
An immunocompromised patient with HIV develops a Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and requires antibiotic treatment. Given the data regarding allergic reactions in specific patient populations, which antibiotic regimen should be approached with heightened vigilance for potential hypersensitivity?
An immunocompromised patient with HIV develops a Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and requires antibiotic treatment. Given the data regarding allergic reactions in specific patient populations, which antibiotic regimen should be approached with heightened vigilance for potential hypersensitivity?
Which of the following scenarios presents the HIGHEST risk of penicillin-induced seizures?
Which of the following scenarios presents the HIGHEST risk of penicillin-induced seizures?
Which of the following statements regarding cross-reactivity among beta-lactam antibiotics is MOST accurate, considering current understanding and best practices?
Which of the following statements regarding cross-reactivity among beta-lactam antibiotics is MOST accurate, considering current understanding and best practices?
A patient on multiple medications, including sotalol, develops a severe infection that necessitates antibiotic treatment. Which antibiotic class should be avoided, if possible, due to increased risk of QT prolongation and potential for Torsades de Pointes?
A patient on multiple medications, including sotalol, develops a severe infection that necessitates antibiotic treatment. Which antibiotic class should be avoided, if possible, due to increased risk of QT prolongation and potential for Torsades de Pointes?
A microbiology lab reports that two gram-negative isolates from the same patient sample demonstrate similar susceptibility patterns, with both being susceptible to ceftazidime. Based on the provided information, which antibiotic would MOST likely exhibit comparable activity against both isolates?
A microbiology lab reports that two gram-negative isolates from the same patient sample demonstrate similar susceptibility patterns, with both being susceptible to ceftazidime. Based on the provided information, which antibiotic would MOST likely exhibit comparable activity against both isolates?
Which of the following factors would be LEAST important to consider when assessing the epileptogenic potential of an antibiotic in a patient?
Which of the following factors would be LEAST important to consider when assessing the epileptogenic potential of an antibiotic in a patient?
Flashcards
β-Lactams MOA
β-Lactams MOA
Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs), blocking transpeptidation (cross-linking).
β-Lactam Classes
β-Lactam Classes
Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams
β-Lactam Efficacy
β-Lactam Efficacy
Time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is the key factor determining effectiveness.
β-Lactam Elimination
β-Lactam Elimination
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β-Lactam Exceptions
β-Lactam Exceptions
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Renal Function & Antibiotics
Renal Function & Antibiotics
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Poor Oral Absorption
Poor Oral Absorption
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Short Half-Life (t1/2)
Short Half-Life (t1/2)
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Antibiotic Resistance Mechanisms
Antibiotic Resistance Mechanisms
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β-Lactamase Inhibitors
β-Lactamase Inhibitors
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Natural Penicillins
Natural Penicillins
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Antistaphylococcal Penicillins
Antistaphylococcal Penicillins
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Aminopenicillins
Aminopenicillins
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Ureidopenicillins
Ureidopenicillins
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Beta-lactamase inhibitors
Beta-lactamase inhibitors
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Cephalosporins
Cephalosporins
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First-generation cephalosporins
First-generation cephalosporins
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Second-generation cephalosporins
Second-generation cephalosporins
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Third-generation cephalosporins
Third-generation cephalosporins
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Ceftazidime
Ceftazidime
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Fourth/Fifth-generation cephalosporins
Fourth/Fifth-generation cephalosporins
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Drug Hypersensitivity
Drug Hypersensitivity
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Quinolones
Quinolones
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Quinolones Mechanism of Action
Quinolones Mechanism of Action
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Quinolones Bioavailability
Quinolones Bioavailability
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Quinolones Spectrum of Activity
Quinolones Spectrum of Activity
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Cefepime (Maxipime®)
Cefepime (Maxipime®)
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Ceftaroline (Teflaro®)
Ceftaroline (Teflaro®)
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Cephalosporin coverage gaps
Cephalosporin coverage gaps
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Carbapenems
Carbapenems
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Aztreonam (Azactam®)
Aztreonam (Azactam®)
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HIV and drug allergies
HIV and drug allergies
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Maculopapular rash
Maculopapular rash
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Beta-lactam cross-reactivity
Beta-lactam cross-reactivity
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QTC Change Definition
QTC Change Definition
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QT Prolongation Risk Factors
QT Prolongation Risk Factors
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Top QT Prolongation Risks
Top QT Prolongation Risks
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Torsades de Pointes (TdP) & Macrolides
Torsades de Pointes (TdP) & Macrolides
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Azithromycin & QT Prolongation
Azithromycin & QT Prolongation
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Quinolones & QT Prolongation
Quinolones & QT Prolongation
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Antibiotics & Seizures
Antibiotics & Seizures
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Proconvulsant Antibiotics
Proconvulsant Antibiotics
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Study Notes
- Antibacterial Pharmacology is covered in Phar506.
Objectives
- Learn the mechanisms of action (MOA) of beta-lactam, quinolone, macrolide, and other antimicrobials.
- Compare the spectrum of activities of beta-lactam, quinolone, and macrolides.
- Understand allergic reactions to antimicrobials and the process of desensitization.
- Review adverse side effects, including seizures and QT prolongation, associated with common antimicrobials.
Beta-Lactams
- Discovered over 75 years ago by Flemming in 1929.
- Belongs to the largest antimicrobial class.
- Includes penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams.
- Features a fused thiazolidine and beta-lactam ring structure, referred to as "house and garage".
- Includes compounds like penicillin, cephalosporin, imipenem, and clavulanate.
- The family tree includes penicillins (1940-), cephalosporins (1948-), cephamycins (1971-), cephabacins (1985-), clavulanic acid (1976-), carbapenems (1976-), nocardicins (1976-), and monobactams (1981-).
Pharmacology
- Mechanism of Action (MOA): Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs), inhibiting transpeptidation (cross-linking).
- Generally bactericidal, except for enterococcus and when cells aren't actively growing.
- Has a faster kill rate compared to vancomycin for streptococcus.
- Efficacy is determined by the time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC), which may require continuous infusion.
- Most are renally eliminated, except nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone, and cefoperazone; watch renal function.
- Most have poor oral absorption.
- Short half-life (t1/2) of less than 2 hours, except ceftriaxone.
- Poor CNS penetration, except ceftriaxone and cefotaxime.
Resistance
- Occurs through 4 general mechanisms:
- Enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic.
- Modification of the target PBP.
- Impaired penetration into the cell.
- Efflux pumps.
- Beta-lactamase production is the most common mechanism of resistance; more than 100 types have been identified.
- Some beta-lactamases are specific to penicillin and not cephalosporins.
- Beta-lactamase inhibitors are added to beta-lactam antibiotics to prevent resistance.
- With enzymatic resistance microbes are paired with a beta-lactamase inhibitor.
- Overcomes resistance mediated by beta-lactamase.
Penicillin Classification
- Natural penicillins, such as penicillin G, benzathine, and VK*.
- Active against staph/strep, but resistance rates.
- Antistaphylococcal penicillins, such as nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin, dicloxacillin*.
- Aminopenicillins, such as ampicillin* and amoxicillin*.
- Carboxypenicillins, such as ticarcillin.
- Ureidopenicillins, such as piperacillin.
- Beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations, such as Amp/clav*, amp/sulb, ticar/clav, and pip/tazo.
- Those marked with * have oral formulations.
Spectrum of Activity
- Penicillins cover streptococci and T. pallidum.
- Antistaphylococcal penicillins: MSSA and strep.
- Aminopenicillins: strep, enterococcus, Listeria, Salmonella sp., Shigella sp., and "wimpy" GNB.
- Carboxy penicillins: more gram-negative including PSAE, E. coli, Proteus sp., Enterobacter sp., and less gram-positive.
- Ureidopenicillins: enhance GNB (PSAE), Serratia, streptococci, and less gram-positive.
- Beta-lactamase inhibitors: cover beta-lactamase producing strains of E.coli, Proteus sp., MSSA, H.flu, Neisseria, and Bacteroides sp.
Cephalosporins
- Introduced in the 1960s.
- Categorized into "generations," a classification based on spectrum of activity.
- More stable against beta-lactamases, thus having a broader spectrum of activity.
- Not active against most Extended-Spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL's), enterococci, and Listeria.
- Cephalosporins are not indicated for enterococci, Listeria monocytogenes, and atypical respiratory pathogens (Legionella, Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila spp.).
- General structure consists of an Acyl Side Chain, Beta-Lactam Ring, and Dihydrothiazine Ring.
First Generation Cephalosporins
- Activity is narrow, mostly gram-positive cocci, mostly treats skin infections.
- Active against S. aureus (MSSA), streptococci, E. coli, and Klebsiella.
- Useful for skin and skin-structure infections, surgical prophylaxis, UTIs, and endocarditis.
- Includes cefazolin (Ancef®), cephalexin* (Keflex®), and cefadroxil* (Duricef®).
- Those marked with * have oral formulations.
Second Generation Cephalosporins
- Enhanced gram-negative and anaerobic activity while retaining gram-positve coverage.
- Active against H. influenza (penicillin resistant), M.catarralis, and Neisseria sp., Bacteroides sp. (including B. frag.).
- Used for colorectal, urogenital, and lower/upper respiratory tract infections.
- Includes cefotetan, cefoxitin, cefmetazole, and cefuroxime (Ceftin®*).
- Cefoxitin covers anaerobes below the waist.
- Used for polymicrobial infections such as intra-abdominal and gynecologic infections.
- Those marked with * have oral formulations.
Third Generation Cephalosporins
- Enhanced activity against Gram-negative organisms and less against Gram-positive and anaerobes.
- Variable activity to AMP-C hydrolysis (Serratia, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Citrobacter, Enterobacter – "SPACE bugs").
- Effective against NGPR (now DOC), meningitis (PRP), gram-negative sepsis/UTI/RTI (HAP), and SSTI.
- Only ceftazidime has activity against PSAE (“Tasmanian Devil").
- Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime are used to treat meningitis since they have good CNS penetration.
- Primarily broad-spectrum against gram-negative.
- Ceftazidime (Fortaz®) has more stability against SPACE bugs.
- Third generation cephalosporins include ceftriaxone (Rocephin®), cefdinir (Omnicef®), cefixime (Suprax®), cefotaxime (Claforan®).
-
- indicates oral formulation.
Fourth and Fifth Generation Cephalosporins
- Active against both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.
- Effective against MSSA, strep, Enterobacteriaceae, Citrobacter, and Enterobacter.
- Not effective against Stenotrophomonas and Burkholderia.
- Provide some stability against ESBL and Amp-C producers.
- Cefepime (Maxipime®) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin.
- Ceftaroline (Teflaro®) is a fifth-generation, similar to cefepime but is effective against MRSA.
Carbapenems
- Called "Bazooka" for having wide coverage.
- Has a broad spectrum - active against MSSA, strep, Enterobacteriaceae, Citrobacter sp., Enterobacter sp., Stenotrophomonas, Burkholderia sp., and ESBL producers.
- Include Imipenem (Primixim®), meropenem (Merrem®), ertapenem (Invanz®) doripenem (Doribax®).
- Imipenem and meropenem have similar spectrums (mero>PSAE, imi>enterococcus).
- Ertapenem covers Psedomonas aeruginosa (PSAE) or enterococcus.
- They are all the "drug of choice" for ESBL's and inducible Amp-C producers.
- Effective against Polymicrobial infections, HAP (not dori/erta), and meningitis (mero).
Monobactams
- Has a broad-spectrum, only active against gram-negative bacteria.
- Has similar gram-negative activity to ceftazidime.
- Reserved for penicillin allergic patients.
- "Garage" only structure.
- Aztreonam (Azactam®) – IV only.
Allergic Reactions - Antimicrobials
- Cross-reactivity % is the percentage likelihood that an allergy to one agent will also mean allergy to another agent.
- Drug surveillance data indicates that 2.2% of cutaneous drug reactions are due to amoxicillin, ampicillin, or Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.
- Maculopapular rash is the most common reaction, occurring days to weeks (delayed) and appearing in minutes to hours (immediate).
- Risk is higher for those with immune dysfunctions.
Allergic Reactions – Beta-Lactams
- Crossreactivity was overestimated due to partial contamination from manufacturing practices.
- This can overestimate accuracy if the patients reports it as an allergy.
- Could be to do with impurities in manufacture.
- Cross-reactivity between different beta-Lactams appears to be between 1 and 10%.
- Cross-reactivity appears higher in those individuals w/ more serious reactions. This may cause:
- 10% in those with hives rash.
- 20% in those with Hives.
- 40 to 50% in those with anaphylaxis.
- Aztreonam is missing reactive “house portion", therefore it is reserved for those w/ serious allergy.
- Meropenem is safer than Imipenem.
Antimicrobial Desensitization
- A safe procedure that allows the administration of antibiotics (abx) to patients with severe allergic reactions (e.g., hives, anaphylaxis).
- Utilized for Type I, IgE mediated hypersensitivity.
- Process converts hyperactive state to tolerant.
- Desensitization can be performed if the reaction is a type I IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
- Abx dose started at 1/10,000 to 1/100,000 of the full dose.
- Abx and infusion concentrations increase over time.
- Slow degranulation produces low or undetectable levels of inflammatory mediators.
Quinolones
- Derivatives of nalidixic acid and cinoxacin.
- Original compounds are fluorinated to improve activity.
- Inhibit Topoisomerase (gram -) and DNA gyrase (gram +).
- All have high PO bioavailability if the patients have a functioning gut.
- Activity covers both gram (-) and gram (+) newer agents.
- Bactericidal against susceptible bugs.
- List of drugs goes of the market:
- Temafloxacin – gone (G)
- Grepafloxacin – gone (C)
- Sparfloxacin – gone (P/C)
- Trovafloxacin (Trovan®) – gone (H)
- Lomefloxacin – gone (P)
- Clinafloxacin – gone (P)
- Gatilfoxacin is also gone.
Quinolone Spectrum
- All cover Enterobacteriaceae, Neisseria sp., Moraxella sp., and Haemophilus sp..
- Good against Gram Negative bugs.
- MSSA, pneumococci covered by levofloxacin, moxi, gemiflox(S. pneumonia not Cipro)
- Moxi+Gemifloxacin does not cover PEudomonas
- Cipro is only effective against Levofloxacin
- Moxifloxacin – Good anaerobes
- Covers Atypicals
- Cipro does NOT cover strep pneumo
Quinolone Indications
- Used in:
- CAP- Levo, Moxi, Gemi
- Hap/VAP- Levo and cipro
- NO MOXI or GEMI
- Intraabdominal Moxifloxacin only
- STI- Levo and Moxi
- UTI Cipro Levo
- Now Gonorrhea second line
- Mycobacterium
Precautions
- Arthropathy/tendonopathy that is seen only in juvenile subjects
- Increased risk in failure, renal transplant over 50 steroid use
- Achillies tendon is what usually snaps in this Rx.
- It takes 1–2 months rest for healing.
- QT Prolong
- Glucose Homeostasis
- CNS affects you by hearing, HA and Dizzyness.
- Phototoxicity in over 1% of the agents.
- Binds with divalent cations and decreases effectiveness requires doze separation
Macrolides
- Includes erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin and telithromycin.
- Erythromycin is the initial Rx from this class.
- Most common Rx ends in “-mycin”
- Erythromycin (initial macrolide)
- Acid liable
- GI intolerance
- Erythromycin (initial macrolide)
- Narrow Spectrum
- Low doze use as prokenetic agent. - Can be long lasting esp. azithro, Penatrates pulmonary tissue.
- Macrolides (erythromycin/clarithromycin) and moxifloxacin appear at highest risk for arrhythmia.
Macrolides and ketolides Spectrum
- Gram (+)
- Gram (-) No active activity against “gut bugs.” Has excellent atypicals. M.Avium
Macrolides Use Cases
- Use in respiratory infections
- Sinusitis/Cap and pharyngitis.
- Mycobacterium Avuim
- Skin and Skin Structure
- STD's
- Anti inflammatory.
Macrolide Monitoring Parameters
- Drug interactions only with azithro
- GI Intolerannce
- Ototoxicity but usually heard with high doze of erythro
- Monitor for:
- QT prolongation
- Erythro more clatirth more telith and azith,
- Hepatic functions.
QTC Prolongation
Seen with macrolides, quinolones, azole Most information comes from after market surveillance Difficult to define a QTC Change is there. Many cases are due to multiple RX 65% due to the Female Sex, 53% with heart Disease. Zelter due to noncardiac reports. Macrolides are 77% of a market share. Concurrent RX and old age can all cause issues.
Seizures
RX can cause these due ti GABA
- The Rx attack the GABA Symptoms Proconvulsant cause for Seizures
- PCN
- Cephalosporin’s
- Carbapenems
- Quinlones Side effects Kidney cause because the kidney are removing the RX. Those under the age of 7 months do have a greater time
Risks of Seizures
Those over 60s. History of CNS disorder. Cardiopulmonary. To reduce the chances
- Lower the dose, space the RX
- Add Benzo’s to reduce the issues
- Remember risk factors with your patient and adjust RX
Newer Gram RX’s
- New - Vancomycin - Azolid. Also know as “Vitimin L)
- These are for those with MRSA VRE VISA and GISO -Dalbivanchin- Once a weak RX for MRSA
- The newer Gram - (Negative) are used with “turn back time.” - Cefepime or Avibactam
Review of Rx’s
- PCN rx and why
- Those that are used for specific types of ailments.
- Always Check kidney functions. – Renal is extremely important - Cross reactivity
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