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Exam 1 Hematology

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207 Questions

What is the role of Factor VII in the coagulation cascade?

To activate Factor X

Which of the following factors is not a part of the intrinsic pathway?

Factor VII

What is the function of Thromboplastin (Factor III)?

To activate Factor VII

Which factor is responsible for converting fibrinogen to fibrin?

Thrombin

What is the role of High Molecular Weight Kininogen (Fitzgerald Factor)?

To activate Factor XI

Which of the following factors is not a part of the common pathway?

Factor IX

What is the function of Calcium (Factor IV)?

To facilitate clotting factor interactions

Why is there no Factor VI?

It was removed from the classification

What is the primary function of thrombopoietin in the formation of platelets?

Stimulation of megakaryocyte progenitors

What is the average number of platelets released per megakaryocyte cell?

5,000-10,000

Which protein complex on the platelet surface connects to Von Willebrand Factor?

GP Ib-IX

What is the effect of Factor XIII deficiency on coagulation?

Decreased clot strength

Which of the following is NOT a function of platelets?

Releasing erythropoietin

What is the primary function of thromboxane A2 in platelet activation?

Activating other platelets

What is the primary source of thrombopoietin in the body?

Kidney and liver

What is the size of each platelet?

1-3 micrometers

What is released by damaged vessels during the coagulation process?

Tissue Factor and Factor III

What is the function of endothelins released by damaged vessels?

Stimulation of cellular repair

What is the function of thromboxane A2 in the coagulation process?

Stimulation of platelet plug formation

What is the function of Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA) in the fibrinolysis process?

Activation of plasminogen to plasmin

What is the function of Protein C in the coagulation process?

Inhibition of coagulation cascade

What is the function of Antithrombin III in the coagulation process?

Inhibition of coagulation cascade

What is the medical use of rtPA?

Treatment of embolic or thrombotic strokes

What is the contraindication for the use of rtPA?

Hemorrhagic strokes or major bleeds

What is the primary function of PT in coagulation testing?

Evaluating the tissue factor pathway

Which of the following factors is NOT involved in the Common Pathway?

Factor VIII

What is the primary cause of thrombocytopenia due to a genetic mutation?

Thrombocythemia

Which of the following is a symptom of thrombocytosis?

Chest pain

What is the result of a splenectomy on platelet counts?

Increased platelet count

Which of the following is NOT a cause of thrombocytosis?

Bone marrow suppression

What is the primary mechanism of reactive thrombocytosis?

Overproduction of thrombopoietin

Which of the following vitamin K-dependent factors is NOT involved in the coagulation cascade?

Protein C

What is a potential cause of increased thrombogenesis in smokers?

Increased inflammation

In a patient with a history of nosebleeds and bloody stool, what is a likely diagnosis given a prolonged PTT and low Factor VIII levels?

Hemophilia A

What is the normal range for Factor VIII levels?

50-100% of normal

What is the threshold for platelet count above which treatment is usually necessary?

1,000,000/μL

What is the effect of increased EPO on TPO receptors?

Stimulation of TPO receptors

What percentage of normal should Factor VIII levels be raised to before procedures?

50% of normal

What is the primary stimulator of the myeloid lineage?

Stem Cell Factor

What stimulates the progression to the lymphocytic lineage in MPPs?

Interleukin 7

What is required for the development of lymphocytic dendritic cells?

Multiple factors including interleukins 1, 3, 4, and 7, Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha, and Flt-3 ligand

What stimulates the differentiation of the common myeloid progenitor into the erythrocyte-megakaryocyte lineage?

Interleukin 3, Stem Cell Factor, and Thrombopoietin

What stimulates the differentiation of monocyte progenitor cells into mature monocytes?

Monocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor

What stimulates the differentiation of basophil progenitors into basophils or mast cells?

Stem Cell Factor

What is the role of deoxyhemoglobin in carbon dioxide transport?

Transporting CO2 in the plasma

What is the result of iron oxidation in hemoglobin?

Formation of methemoglobin

What stimulates the differentiation of eosinophil progenitors into eosinophils?

Interleukin 5

What is the function of cytochrome b5 reductase?

Reducing the iron back to its ferrous state

What stimulates the differentiation of neutrophil progenitors into mature neutrophils?

Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor

What would happen to ferritin levels in a patient with iron deficiency?

Levels would decrease

What is the effect of iron deficiency on transferrin?

Transferrin levels would increase

What is the definition of Total Iron Binding Capacity?

Amount of iron needed to bind all of the transferrin

What is apoferritin?

A protein without iron

What is the effect of a congenital absence of Cytochrome B5 reductase?

Increased production of methemoglobin

What percentage of circulating leukocytes are made up of neutrophils?

40-60%

What is the purpose of the granules in neutrophils and eosinophils?

To contain digestive enzymes and cytotoxic proteins

What is the primary stimulus for eosinophils to release their granular contents?

Parasites, allergens, and cancer cells

What is the percentage of circulating leukocytes made up of eosinophils?

2-4%

What is the function of eosinophils in response to parasites, allergens, and cancer cells?

To release nitric oxide and cytotoxins

What is a common function of neutrophils and eosinophils?

To migrate to the source of a noxious stimulus and release their granular contents

What is the primary function of the osteoblastic niche in the bone marrow?

Storing dormant hematopoietic stem cells

Which of the following types of cells are granulocytes?

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

Why are erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes referred to as 'formed elements'?

Because they do not have a nucleus

What type of cells line the vasculature in the vascular niche?

Sinusoidal endothelial cells

What is the environment in which hematopoietic stem cells are influenced by several factors, elements, and enzymes?

Vascular niche

What is the primary location of hematopoietic stem cells?

Bone marrow

What is the term for red blood cells that are larger than normal?

Macrocytosis

What is the calculation for mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)?

Hemoglobin divided by RBC count

What is the term for red blood cells that have a low concentration of hemoglobin?

Hypochromia

What is the shape of red blood cells that are flexible and able to move through tiny spaces and vessels?

Flexible and biconcave

What is the calculation for mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)?

MCH divided by MCV

What is the term for abnormal red blood cell shapes?

All of the above

What is the result of a low MCHC in red blood cells?

Hypochromia

What is the name of the subject's red blood cells in Problem 2, based on the MCV and MCHC values?

Normocytic and normochromic

What triggers the activation of C1 in the classical pathway of the complement system?

Binding to the antigen-antibody complex

What is the primary function of C3 convertase in the classical pathway?

Breaking C3 into C3a and C3b

What is the final product of the classical pathway of the complement system?

C5b6789

What is the role of kinins in the immune response?

Causing pain, vasodilation, and increased vascular permeability

What is the function of prostaglandins in the immune response?

Increasing vascular permeability and attracting neutrophils

What is the source of C-Reactive Protein in the immune response?

The liver

Which type of white blood cells nonspecifically go after microorganisms in natural immunity?

Neutrophils, mast cells, and macrophages

What is the function of interleukins in natural immunity?

To stimulate the proliferation and maturation of lymphocytes

What is the function of lysozymes in natural immunity?

To disrupt bacterial cell walls

What is the role of complement in natural immunity?

To disrupt bacterial cell walls, trigger phagocytosis, and induce inflammation

What is the function of tumor necrosis factors in natural immunity?

To stimulate the proliferation of dendritic cells and stimulate acute inflammation

What is the function of transforming growth factor beta in natural immunity?

To promote wound healing

What type of barriers are part of natural immunity?

Physical barriers

What is the overall function of natural immunity?

To keep the body pathogen-free through nonspecific mechanisms

What is the primary trigger for the Alternative Pathway of the Complement System?

Bacterial endotoxins, yeast cell wall antigens, and cobra venom

What is the function of Factor C3bBb in the Alternative Pathway?

To act as a C3 convertase

Which of the following pathways relies on Mannose-Binding Lectin (MBL)?

Lectin Mannose Pathway

What is the final step of the Complement System that forms the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?

C5b combines with C6-9 to form the MAC

What is the role of Factor C3b in the Alternative Pathway?

To combine with Factor B to form C3bBb

What is the relationship between Factor C3b and the Classical Pathway?

Factor C3b can come from the Classical Pathway or be spontaneously hydrolyzed from C3

What is the function of Mannose Binding Lectin Associated Serine Protease (MASP)?

To join with MBL and activate C4 into C4a, C4b, and C2 into C2a, and C2b

What is the final step for C5 in the Lectin Mannose Pathway?

C5b6789 formation

What is the function of C4b and C2a together?

To form C3 convertase of the Lectin Mannose Pathway

What is the function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?

To rupture bacterial cell walls

What is the function of macrophages in natural immunity?

To phagocytose many bacteria and damaged cells and secrete toxic enzymes that kill bacteria

What type of cells reside in the mucosa, skin, spleen, and lymph nodes?

Dendritic cells

What is the function of C5a?

To attract neutrophils and macrophages to an area of concern

What is the function of C3b?

To activate neutrophils and macrophages to phagocytose pathogens

Which cells are capable of phagocytosis and presenting antigens to T-cells?

Kupffer Cells

What is the primary function of Natural Killer Cells?

To kill virus-containing cells

What is the primary mechanism of Humoral Immunity?

Production and secretion of antibodies by B cells

What is the result of an antigen binding to the B-Cell receptor on a B lymphocyte?

The cell will begin proliferating and producing antibodies

What is the primary function of Mast Cells?

To increase vascular permeability

What is the primary mechanism of Cell-mediated Immunity?

Activation of phagocytes and antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

Which cells are part of natural immunity?

Natural Killer Cells, Eosinophils, and Basophils

What is the primary function of Eosinophils?

To release substances toxic to parasites

What is the normal range for Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) of red blood cells?

80-100 fL

What is the most common cause of low hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)?

All of the above

What is the term for the formation of stacked red blood cells?

Rouleaux formation

What is the normal range for Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)?

33-36 g/dL

What is a common cause of microcytic anemia?

All of the above

What is a rare cause of hyperchromic anemia?

Increased plasma opacity

What is the characteristic of red blood cells in patients with alpha thalassemia?

Microcytic hypochromic

What is the name of the tetrameric beta-globin protein found in Hemoglobin H disease?

Hemoglobin H

What is the treatment for alpha thalassemia major?

Bone marrow transplant or chronic transfusions

What is the characteristic of patients with beta thalassemia intermedia?

Severe microcytic anemia with hemoglobin around 7 g/dL

What is the effect of frequent transfusions in patients with alpha thalassemia?

Iron overload

What is a complication of Hemoglobin H disease?

Hepatosplenomegaly

What is the characteristic of hemoglobin in patients with alpha thalassemia?

Unstable hemoglobin formation

Why do patients with alpha thalassemia trait not require extensive treatment?

They have mild anemia or no anemia

What is the result of defective protoporphyrin IX in heme synthesis?

Defective iron utilization and hemoglobin production

What is the most common acquired form of sideroblastic anemia?

Idiopathic Refractory Sideroblastic Anemia (IRSA)

What is the characteristic of the presenting anemia in acquired sideroblastic anemia?

Macrocytic

What is a common medication that can cause sideroblastic anemia?

Isoniazid

What is the gold standard diagnosis for sideroblastic anemia?

Prussian blue stain and identification of ring sideroblasts

What is the most common hereditary form of sideroblastic anemia?

X-linked sideroblastic anemia

What is the effect of sideroblastic anemia on hemoglobin production?

Decreased hemoglobin production

What is the characteristic of iron labs in sideroblastic anemia?

High ferritin and transferrin saturation

What is the recommended hemoglobin level for patients with anemia of kidney disease?

Less than or equal to 11.5 g/dL

What is the first step in managing acute blood loss anemia?

Find the source of the bleeding

What is the characteristic of erythropoietin levels in acute blood loss anemia?

Increased

What is the characteristic of red blood cell count in acute blood loss anemia?

Decreased

What is the characteristic of reticulocyte count in acute blood loss anemia?

High

What is the characteristic of anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease?

Normocytic

What is the indication for ESA therapy in patients with chronic kidney disease?

Hemoglobin less than 10 g/dL

What is the characteristic of echinocytes?

Regular, round, and central pallor

What is the primary function of Vitamin B12 in the creation of Red Blood Cells?

To produce tetrahydrofolate (THF) for DNA synthesis

Which of the following is a common cause of Cobalamin deficiency?

Anorexia or strict vegan diet

What is the recommended initial therapy for all forms of Sideroblastic anemia?

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) therapy

What is the function of Intrinsic Factor (IF) in the body?

To aid in the uptake of Vitamin B12 in the distal ileum

What is the result of a lack of treatment in Sideroblastic anemia?

Iron overload

What is the function of Vitamin B12 in the body?

As a coenzyme for many different reactions

What is the prognosis for Sideroblastic anemia related to?

Severity and risk of iron overload

What is the role of Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) in Sideroblastic anemia?

As an initial therapy for all forms of Sideroblastic anemia

What is the characteristic of primary anemias?

Normocytic anemia with low reticulocyte count and pancytopenia

What is the gold standard of diagnosis for aplastic anemia?

Bone marrow biopsy

What is the usual cause of purely red cell aplasia or hypoplasia?

All of the above

What is the characteristic of inherited forms of aplastic anemia?

Presenting in the first decade of life

What is the characteristic of acquired forms of aplastic anemia?

Due to autoimmune cytotoxic T-cells

What is the primary mechanism of marrow hypoplasia?

Autoimmune response to hematopoietic stem cells

What is the term for a bone marrow that is either devoid of stem cells or contains very few?

Aplastic

What is the characteristic of patients with aplastic anemia?

Low reticulocyte count and pancytopenia

At what age do myelodysplastic syndromes primarily occur?

Over 60 years

What is the main characteristic of myelodysplastic syndromes?

Ineffective hematopoiesis and peripheral cytopenia

What is the most common cause of myelodysplastic syndromes?

Idiopathic

What is a common finding on CBC and peripheral smear in myelodysplastic syndromes?

Macrocytosis and nucleated RBCs

What is important to rule out in the diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndromes?

Drug-induced cytopenia and B12/folate deficiency

What is the characteristic of bone marrow in myelodysplastic syndromes?

The bone marrow makes cells that either die in the bone marrow or shortly after entering the bloodstream

What is the primary cause of acquired Aplastic Anemia?

Drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics and sulfonamides

What is the diagnostic test for Fanconi Anemia?

Chromosome breakage testing

What is the primary presentation of Aplastic Anemia?

Anemia, bleeding, and infection

What is the treatment for Aplastic Anemia in patients over 50 years old?

Immunosuppression with antithymosite globulin, cyclophosphamide, and prednisone

What is the role of Eltrombopag in Aplastic Anemia?

Stimulating platelet production

What is the characteristic of Fanconi Anemia?

Autosomal recessive inheritance and congenital defects

What is the differential diagnosis for Aplastic Anemia?

Myelodysplastic Syndromes, Large granular lymphocytic leukemia, and Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

What is the only permanent cure for Fanconi Anemia?

Allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT)

What is the effect of smoking on thrombogenesis?

Increased thrombogenesis due to increased inflammation

What would be the next step in evaluating a patient with a history of nosebleeds and bloody stool, normal platelet count, and prolonged PTT?

Order a factor VIII level

What is the threshold for platelet count above which treatment is usually necessary?

1,000,000/μL

What percentage of normal should Factor VIII levels be raised to before procedures?

80%

What is the effect of increased EPO on TPO receptors?

Stimulated

What is a common cause of thrombocytosis?

Smoking

Which of the following coagulation pathways is evaluated by PT?

Tissue factor pathway

What is the result of a splenectomy on platelet counts?

Increased platelet count

Which of the following vitamin K-dependent factors is involved in the coagulation cascade?

Factor II, VII, IX, and X

What is the normal range for platelet count?

150,000 to 450,000

What is the primary mechanism of reactive thrombocytosis?

Overproduction of thrombopoietin

Which of the following is a symptom of thrombocytopenia?

Petechial hemorrhages

What is the primary function of PTT in coagulation testing?

Evaluate the contact activation pathway

What is the term for a platelet count above 450,000?

Thrombocytosis

Which of the following is released by damaged vessels to stimulate cellular repair?

Endothelins

What is the primary function of Protein C in the coagulation process?

To break down Factors Va and VIIIa

Which of the following inhibitors of coagulation targets proteases of the Contact Activation pathway?

Antithrombin III

What is the medical use of rtPA?

To treat embolic or thrombotic strokes

What is the contraindication for the use of rtPA?

Hemorrhagic strokes

What can reverse the action of tPA?

Aminocaproic Acid

What is the result of a Protein C deficiency?

Coagulation disorders

What is the role of thrombomodulin in the coagulation process?

To convert Protein C to its active form

What stimulates the formation of the Erythrocyte-Megakaryocyte lineage?

Thrombopoietin (TPO) and Stem Cell Factor (CSF)

What is the primary function of platelet phospholipids in coagulation?

To initiate thrombin formation

What is the primary function of platelet IIb/IIIa protein in coagulation?

To increase the binding of platelets to fibrinogen

What is the size of each platelet?

3 micrometers

What stimulates the controlled fragmentation of megakaryocytes to release platelets?

Thrombopoietin (TPO)

What is the function of Von Willebrand Factor in platelet activation?

To connect platelets to damaged blood vessels

What is the effect of Factor XIII deficiency on coagulation?

It weakens the clot

What is the role of Factor XII in the coagulation cascade?

Activating prekallikrein

Which factor is responsible for converting prothrombin to thrombin?

Factor X

What is the primary function of the 'Tenase' complex?

Activating Factor X

Which of the following factors is involved in the extrinsic pathway?

Factor VII

What is the role of Factor V in the coagulation cascade?

Accelerating the formation of the 'Tenase' complex

Which factor is responsible for the formation of a stable fibrin clot?

Factor XIII

What is the role of the 'Tenase' complex in the coagulation cascade?

Activating Factor X

Which factor is activated by the Fletcher factor (prekallikrein)?

Factor XII

Study Notes

Hematologic System

  • The hematologic system includes the formation of the Erythrocyte-Megakaryocyte lineage (EMk) which differentiates into erythrocyte progenitors and Megakaryocyte progenitors through stimulation by thrombopoietin (TPO) and Stem Cell Factor (CSF).
  • Thrombopoietin stimulates the controlled fragmentation of megakaryocytes, resulting in the release of >1000 platelets per cell (avg 5-10k).

Platelets

  • Each platelet is ~3 micrometers in size.
  • Platelets stick to damaged blood vessels using a glycoprotein called Von Willebrand Factor, which connects to a protein complex on the platelet surface called GP Ib-IX.
  • Platelets secrete ADP, thromboxane A2, and serotonin, which activate other platelets to become sticky and join in.
  • Platelet IIb/IIIa protein increases the binding of platelets to fibrinogen and thus platelets sticking together.

Coagulation Cascade

  • The coagulation cascade involves multiple factors, including:
    • Fitzgerald Factor (High molecular weight kininogen)
    • Fletcher Factor (Prekallikrein)
    • Thromboplastin
    • Factor I (Fibrinogen)
    • Factor II (Prothrombin)
    • Factor III (Tissue Thromboplastin)
    • Factor IV (Calcium)
    • Factor V (Proaccelerin)
    • Factor VII (Proconvertin)
    • Factor VIII (Antihemophilic factor A)
    • Factor IX (Antihemophilic factor B)
    • Factor X (Stuart factor)
    • Factor XI (Antihemophilic factor C)
    • Factor XII (Hageman factor)

Coagulation Pathways

  • There are two main coagulation pathways:
    • Tissue Factor Pathway: Factors I, II, V, VII, X
    • Contact Activation Pathway: Factors I, II, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII
    • Common Pathway: I, II, V, X

Inhibitors of Coagulation

  • Thrombin binds to thrombomodulin on the surface of endothelial cells and converts Protein C to its active form.
  • Protein C, along with Protein S, its cofactor, serve many functions of anticoagulation, including:
    • Breakdown of Factor Va
    • Breakdown of Factor VIIIa
    • Blocking the inhibition of TPA
  • Antithrombin III, sometimes simply called antithrombin, mainly targets proteases of the Contact Activation pathway: Factor IX, Factor X, Factor XI, and Factor II.

Thrombocytopenia and Thrombocytosis

  • Thrombocytopenia: a platelet count of less than 150,000, symptoms include petechial hemorrhages, excessive bleeding, easy bruising, and sometimes fatigue.
  • Thrombocytosis or thrombocythemia: a platelet count of above 450,000, symptoms include chest pain, claudication, syncope, thrombosis, and may also cause petechial hemorrhages or purpura.

Case Study

  • A 1-year-old baby presents with a lifetime history of nosebleeds and bloody stool, and a PT is normal, PTT is prolonged, and Factor VIII levels return at 18% of normal.
  • The diagnosis is likely Hemophilia A, and Factor VIII levels should be raised to 50-100% of normal before procedures.

Hematopoiesis

  • Hematopoietic stem cells become multi-potent progenitors, which lack self-renewal capacity
  • Interleukin 7 stimulates progression to lymphocytic lineage
  • Stem Cell Factor primarily stimulates myeloid lineage
  • Thrombopoietin stimulates platelet development

Lymphoid Lineage

  • Common lymphoid progenitor differentiates into B-cell progenitor and T/NK cell progenitors
  • Interleukin 4 stimulates B-cell growth
  • Interleukin 2 stimulates T-cell growth
  • Interleukin 15 stimulates Natural Killer cell growth
  • Lymphocytic dendritic cells require multiple factors, including interleukins, Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha, and Flt-3 ligand

Myeloid Lineage

  • Common myeloid progenitor differentiates into granulocyte-macrophage and Erythrocyte-Megakaryocyte lineages
  • Granulocyte-macrophage lineage is stimulated by Stem Cell Factor and granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor
  • Erythrocyte-Megakaryocyte lineage is stimulated by interleukin 3, Stem Cell Factor, and thrombopoietin

Formed Elements

  • Hematopoietic stem cells reside in bone marrow niches: osteoblastic and vascular
  • There are three formed elements in the blood: erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

Leukocytes

  • Neutrophils: 40-60% of circulating leukocytes, first responders, engage in phagocytosis, contain digestive enzymes and cytotoxic proteins
  • Eosinophils: 2-4% of circulating leukocytes, named due to eosin staining, release granular contents, activated in response to parasites, allergens, and cancer cells

Erythrocytes

  • Red blood cell size is measured by mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
  • MCV is calculated as Hematocrit divided by RBC count
  • Macrocytosis: high MCV, microcytosis: low MCV
  • Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) measures hemoglobin amount
  • MCH is calculated by Hemoglobin divided by RBCs
  • Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) measures hemoglobin concentration within the cell
  • Hypochromia: low MCHC, hyperchromia: high MCHC

Iron

  • Heme groups contain iron atoms, essential for oxygen binding
  • Ferritin stores excess iron inside cells, produced in response to iron presence
  • Transferrin mediates iron transport in the plasma
  • Iron deficiency affects ferritin and transferrin levels
  • Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) measures iron needed to bind all transferrin

Natural Immunity

  • Physical barriers: acidity in the stomach, skin barriers, and mucosal linings
  • Certain white blood cells: neutrophils, mast cells, and macrophages that nonspecifically target microorganisms
  • Cytokines:
    • Interleukins: stimulate lymphocyte proliferation and maturation in response to pathogens
    • Interferons: kill viruses and activate macrophages to kill phagocytosed organisms
    • Colony-stimulating factors: stimulate granulocyte, monocyte, and macrophage proliferation and maturation
    • Tumor necrosis factors: stimulate dendritic cell proliferation and acute inflammation
    • TGF-beta: promotes wound healing
  • Lysozymes: enzymes that cleave bacterial cell walls
  • Complement system:
    • Small liver-produced proteins that circulate as inactive precursors (zymogens)
    • Activated complement proteins trigger pathways leading to bacterial cell wall disruption, phagocytosis, and inflammation
  • Mannose-binding lectin (MBL) pathway:
    • MBL binds to mannose and glucose residues on bacterial cell walls
    • Activates Mannose Binding Lectin Associated Serine Protease (MASP)
    • MBL and MASP join to activate C4, C2, and C3 convertase

Complement System

  • Classical pathway:
    • Triggered by antigen-antibody complex
    • C1 activates C4, which is then cleaved into C4a and C4b
    • C14b and C2a combine to form C3 convertase
    • C3 convertase breaks C3 into C3a and C3b
    • C5 convertase forms and breaks C5 into C5a and C5b
    • MAC (C5b6789) forms and ruptures bacterial cell walls
  • Alternative pathway:
    • Triggered by bacterial endotoxins, yeast cell wall antigens, and cobra venom
    • Factor C3b combines with Factor B, activating an open site on Factor B
    • Factor C3bBb forms and acts as C3 convertase
  • Lectin Mannose pathway:
    • Relies on MBL synthesized in the liver
    • Activates C4, C2, and C3 convertase
    • Forms MAC (C5b6789)

Functions of Complement System

  • Cell lysis: MAC ruptures bacterial cell walls
  • Opsonization: C3b activates neutrophils and macrophages to phagocytose pathogens
  • Chemotaxis: C5a attracts neutrophils and macrophages to areas of concern
  • Mast cell activation: C3a, C4a, and C5a activate mast cells to release histamine and serotonin

Macrophages

  • Phagocytose many bacteria and damaged cells
  • Secrete toxic enzymes that kill bacteria
  • Can form granulomas in chronic inflammation
  • Microglia are brain phagocytic cells that regenerate from the yolk sac

Dendritic Cells

  • Reside in mucosa, skin, spleen, and lymph nodes
  • Present antigens to T-cells to activate them
  • Capable of phagocytosis

Eosinophils

  • Release substances toxic to parasites

Basophils

  • Release heparin, histamine, and serotonin to increase vascular permeability

Mast Cells

  • Release similar substances to basophils
  • Can phagocytose and present antigens

Natural Killer Cells

  • Lymphocyte-like cells that kill virus-containing cells
  • Express activation receptors that recognize virus-infected cells and tumor cells without requiring prior immune recognition

Anemia Learning Objectives

  • Compare and contrast various anemias according to pathophysiology
  • Differentiate the etiology, clinical presentation, diagnostic evaluation, and management of anemias
  • Test the intrinsic and extrinsic causes of hemolysis
  • Debate the etiology and management of the causes of normocytic anemia
  • Use a pragmatic approach to patients with anemia
  • Relate the history, physical examination, and testing of anemia in patients
  • Illustrate general principles regarding treatment of anemias
  • Differentiate the anemias relating to blood loss, including both acute and chronic
  • Differentiate the autoimmune hemolytic anemias

Marrow Hypoplasia

  • Primary anemias tend to be normocytic, but patients have a low reticulocyte count and pancytopenia
  • Bone marrow biopsy is the gold standard of diagnosis
  • Patients who have purely red cell aplasia/hypoplasia generally have a T-cell autoimmunity, or some other direct toxicity to erythrocyte precursors

Aplastic Anemia

  • Inherited forms usually present in the first decade of life, occurring due to abnormal ribosomal biogenesis, DNA repair, or telomere length
  • Acquired forms are extremely rare but usually due to autoimmune cytotoxic T-cells targeting the hematopoietic stem cells
  • Drugs associated with acquired AA are beta-lactam antibiotics, sulfonamides, NSAIDs, anticonvulsants, gold salts, and antithyroid medications
  • Diagnosis is confirmed by bone marrow aspirate, biopsy, iron stain, and flow cytometry
  • It is important to differentiate this from other conditions that may cause pancytopenia, such as Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS), Large granular lymphocytic leukemia, and Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
  • Treatment for those who are younger and who have a suitable donor is allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT)
  • For those who are over the age of 50, or in whom no suitable donor is found, treatment is immunosuppression with antithymosite globulin, cyclophosphamide, and prednisone
  • EPO stimulates erythrocyte formation
  • Eltrombopag is a bone marrow stimulant that may be used in patients ineligible for HSCT who have chronically low platelets

Fanconi Anemia

  • The most frequently reported syndrome of bone marrow failure
  • Often presents with congenital defects such as a short stature, developmental delay, and underlying endocrinopathies
  • Primarily autosomal recessive, Fanconi typically presents as a pancytopenia, often around the age of 3-5
  • Diagnosis is made by chromosome breakage testing
  • The only permanent cure is HSCT, though some patients may respond to hematopoietic growth factors
  • Most patients eventually develop AML or other cancers

Myelodysplastic Syndromes

  • Primarily occur in patients over the age of 60, with the average age of diagnosis being 71
  • Characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis and peripheral cytopenia
  • Most cases are idiopathic, with the remainder due to exposure to an alkylating agent or radiation
  • Patients with MDS often die due to complications of bone marrow failure or progression to acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
  • CBC and peripheral smear will show pancytopenia and dysplastic findings, with macrocytosis or nucleated RBCs as common findings
  • It is important to rule out drug-induced cytopenia and B12/folate deficiency
  • There are six current classifications: MDS with multilineage dysplasia (MDS-MLD), etc.

Anemia and EPO

  • In some cases of anemia, increased EPO stimulates TPO receptors, which may lead to increased thrombopoiesis.
  • This is not uncommon in iron deficiency anemia.

Smoking and Thrombogenesis

  • Smoking causes increased inflammation, leading to increased thrombogenesis.
  • Smokers have increased levels of von Willebrand factor, resulting in significant hypercoagulability.
  • No treatment is needed unless platelets exceed 1,000,000/μL.

Case Study: 1-year-old Baby with Nosebleeds and Bloody Stool

  • The patient presents with a lifetime history of nosebleeds and bloody stool, which is concerning for a bleeding disorder.
  • Initial workup includes PT/PTT, CBC, and platelet count, which returns normal, except for a prolonged PTT.
  • Differential diagnosis includes a coagulation factor deficiency, such as hemophilia A or B.
  • Factor VIII levels return at 18% of normal, which is consistent with hemophilia A.
  • Factor VIII levels should be raised to 80-100% of normal before procedures.

Platelets and Thrombopoietin

  • Thrombopoietin stimulates the formation of the Erythrocyte-Megakaryocyte lineage (EMk).
  • EMk cells differentiate into Megakaryocyte progenitors, which undergo controlled fragmentation, releasing 1,000-5,000 platelets per cell.
  • Thrombopoietin is released by the kidney and liver in response to low platelets.

Platelet Function

  • Platelets stick to damaged blood vessels using von Willebrand Factor, which connects to a protein complex on the platelet surface called GP Ib-IX.
  • Platelets secrete ADP, thromboxane A2, and serotonin, which activate other platelets to become sticky and join in.
  • Platelet IIb/IIIa protein increases the binding of platelets to fibrinogen, leading to platelet aggregation.

The Coagulation Cascade

  • The coagulation cascade involves the following factors:
  • Factor I (Fibrinogen)
  • Factor II (Prothrombin)
  • Factor III (Tissue Thromboplastin)
  • Factor IV (Calcium)
  • Factor V (Proaccelerin)
  • Factor VII (Proconvertin)
  • Factor VIII (Antihemophilic factor A)
  • Factor IX (Antihemophilic factor B)
  • Factor X (Stuart factor)
  • Factor XI (Antihemophilic factor C)
  • Factor XII (Hageman factor)
  • There is no Factor VI.

Coagulation Pathways

  • The coagulation cascade involves two pathways: the Tissue Factor pathway and the Contact Activation pathway.
  • The Tissue Factor pathway involves Factors III, VII, IX, and X.
  • The Contact Activation pathway involves Factors I, II, VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII.

Steps to Hemostasis

  • The steps to hemostasis include:
    1. Vessel constriction and release of Tissue Factor and Factor III.
    2. Platelet adhesion and activation, releasing thromboxane A2 and ADP.
    3. Coagulation cascade activation.
    4. Fibrinolysis, mainly caused by plasmin, which begins to cleave the fibrin mesh.

Inhibitors of Coagulation

  • Thrombin binds to thrombomodulin on the surface of endothelial cells, converting Protein C to its active form.
  • Protein C, along with Protein S, serves as an anticoagulant, breaking down Factors Va and VIIIa, and blocking the inhibition of TPA.
  • Antithrombin III targets proteases of the Contact Activation pathway, including Factors IX, X, and XI.
  • Heparin enhances the activity of Antithrombin III.

PT/PTT

  • PT evaluates the Tissue Factor pathway.
  • PTT evaluates the Contact Activation pathway.
  • INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a measure of the PT, used to standardize results.

Vitamin K

  • Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of coagulation factors, including Factors II, VII, IX, and X.
  • A deficiency in Vitamin K may cause a reduction in the production of these factors.

Thrombocytopenia and Thrombocytosis

  • Thrombocytopenia is defined as a platelet count <150,000, characterized by petechial hemorrhages, excessive bleeding, easy bruising, and fatigue.
  • Causes include bone marrow suppression, immune disorders, and infections.
  • Thrombocytosis is defined as a platelet count >450,000, characterized by chest pain, claudication, syncope, thrombosis, and petechial hemorrhages.
  • Causes include anemia, infections, cancers, and genetic mutations.

Platelet Function Disorders

  • Various platelet function disorders include:
  • Bernard-Soulier Disease
  • Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura
  • Gray Platelet Syndrome
  • Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome
  • Thrombocytopenia with Absent Radius syndrome
  • Heřmanský–Pudlák Syndrome
  • Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
  • Glanzmann’s Thromboasthenia

This quiz assesses your understanding of anemia and its effects on coagulation, including the role of EPO and TPO receptors, and the impact of smoking on thrombogenesis and hypercoagulability.

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