Botany XII Past Paper PDF

7. Refer the following figure represent global Botany - Section A biodiversity. Identify A-E and choose the correct 1. Microorganisms are used during which stage option. of the purification of the sewage water? IlrMlr...

7. Refer the following figure represent global Botany - Section A biodiversity. Identify A-E and choose the correct 1. Microorganisms are used during which stage option. of the purification of the sewage water? IlrMlrle1>'8!es I IVenebrates I !l'larUI ~ @-© (1) Primary treatment (2) Secondary treatment (3) None of the above (4) Both (1) and (2) 2. When both male and female flowers are A B C D E present on the same plant, then plant is said to (1) Birds Reptiles Algae Molluscs Mosses be: (2) Mammals Birds Lichens Molluscs Mosses 1. Bisexual 2. Monoecious (3) Birds Amphibians Mosses Insects Algae 3. Unisexual (4) Birds Reptiles Algae Insects Mosses 4. Dioecious 3. An important biofertilizer in paddy fields is : 8. Statins used for lowering blood-cholesterol 1. Azospirillum level are extracted from: 2. Azotobacter (1) Algae 3.Anabaena (2) Bacteria 4. Rhizobium (3) Virus (4) Yeast 4. Double fertilisation is exhibited by (1) gymnosperms 9. Which of the following serve as biofertilizer (2) algae in paddy fields? (3) fungi (1) Bacteria (4) angiosperms (2) Yeast (3) Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) S. An example of ex situ conservation is (4) Fungi 1. National Park 2. Seed Bank 10. Following is the sewage treatment. In which 3. Wildlife Sanctuary of the following options, correct word for all 4. Sacred Grove the four numbers (1, 2, 3 and 4) are indicated: ,.....,_,___ I --........._,_......,....,._ l!!ls--i~t!: ~j-➔...-....,:,,...,----- ,,........,~;,---, 6. Which one of the following expanded forms of the following acronyms is correct? ' 1. UNEP - United Nations Environmental Policy (1) 1 - Large aeration tanks; 2 - Chemically 2. EPA - Environmental Pollution Agency agitation; 3 - High; 4 - Anaerobic 3. IUCN - International Union for Conservation (2) 1 - Large aeration tanks; 2 - Mechanically of Nature and Natural Resources agitation; 3 - Low; 4 - Anaerobic 4. IPCC - International Panel for Climate change (3) 1 - Large aeration tanks; 2 - Mechanically agitation; 3 - Low; 4 - Aerobic (4) 1 - Large aeration tanks; 2 - Mechanically agitation; 3 - High; 4 - Anaerobic Page: 1 11. The reasons behind conserving biodiversity 14. Diagram given below shows stages in can be group into categories which include : embryogenesis in a typical dicot (Capsella). A. Narrowly utilitarian Identify structures A to D respectively: B. Broadly utilitarian C. Ethical D. Not utilitarian A (1) A, B (2) A, B, C D (3) B, C (4) D Heart-shaped Embryo C 12. _._,...,...:---- GlobularEmbryo MalureEmbfyo 1. Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons 2. Hypophysis, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons 3. Suspensor, Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledons 4. Suspensor, Radicule, Plumule, Hypocotyls 15. Lactic Acid Bacteria grow in The above given diagram is an enlarged view of (1) Milk one microsporangium of a mature anther. (2) Curd Identify A, B and C (3) Water (1) A - Middle layer, B - Endothecium, C - (4) Juice Tapetum (2) A - Endothecium, B - Tapetum, C - Middle layer (3) A - Endothecium, B - Middle layer, C - 16. Which of the following is not facilitated by Tapetum LAB? (4) A - Tapetum, B - Middle layer, C - Endothecium (1) Increasing nutritional quality (2) Increasing vitamin B12 in curd 13. In double fertilization total number of male (3) Checking disease causing microbes in nuclei and total number of female nuclei intestine involved are: ( 4) Conversion of milk to curd (1) 3, 2 respectively (2) 2, 3 respectively (3) 2, 2 respectively (4) 3, 3 respectively 17. Which of the following show the competitive inhibition in the pathway of cholesterol synthesis? (1) Statins (2) Cyclosporin A (3) Streptokinase (4) Citrate Page: 2 18. The result of sedimentation results in 23. Which of the following is not recently settled solids which is known as extincted subspecies of tiger? (1) Effluent (1) Bali (2) Primary sludge (2) Javan (3) Activator (3) Caspian (4) Both Band C (4) Sumata 19. To get rid of Aphids which of the following 24. Which of the following is not an example of is used? Alien species for our ecosystems? (1) Beetle with red and black markings (1) Carrot Grass (2) Ladybird (2) Indigenous catfishes (3) Dragonflies (3) Lantana (4) Both 1 and 2 (4) Eichhornia 20. Biodiversity, this term 25. Which of the following is not the problem regarding in situ approach that has been (1) Was given by Edward Wilson addressed by eminent conservationists? (2) Was popularized by Edward Wilson (3) Was given by Paul Ehrlich (1) The conflict between development and (4) Was popularized by Paul Ehrlich conservation (2) Unrealistic and economically not feasible to conserve all their biological wealth (3) The number of species waiting to be saved 21. According to Species-Area relationship- from extinction far exceeds the conservation resources available (1) Within a region, species richness increased (4) Human Intrusion is the major cause of its with increasing explored area, but only up to a failure limit (2) Within a region, species evenness increased with an increasing explored area without limit (3) Within a region, species diversity increases 26. Choose the correct option with respect to with increasing area. the function of the germ pore. (4) Both (1) and (2) 1. It allows growth of pollen tube 2. It allows water absorption in seed 3. It helps dehiscence of pollen grain 4. More than one option is correct 22. Which of the following cannot be the reason for the stability of biological community? 27. In monoecious plants like castor and maize 1. Autogamy and allogamy are not prevented (1) More species 2. Geitonogamy is prevented (2) Not much variations in productivity (3) Resistant to occasional disturbances made 3. Autogamy is not prevented 4. Geitonogamy is not prevented by nature only (4) Resilient to occasional disturbances made by nature and man Page:3 28. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for 33. Different varieties of cheese are known by the production of biogas from the dung of their characteristic texture, flavour and taste ruminant animals include the: that is due to? 1. Halophiles 2. Thermoacidophiles 1. Flavouring agent used 3. Methanogens 4. Eubacteria 2. Living agent used 3. It is inherent quality 4. Arise due to molecular interaction between 29. Pollen grains can be stored for several years chemicals in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of 1.-196°C 34. Which of the given is the major cause of 2. -80°C species extinction? 3.-120°C 1.Pollution 4. -160°C 2. Coextinction 3. Habitat loss 30. Which fungus is an important source for the 4. Alien species production of citric acid?.... 1.Aspergillus niger 2.Aspergillus flavus !!~r=:at~~:;of~:i;:~ p~~~~~t 3. Trichodermapolysporum 4. Trichodermaharzial'\Wlcrobe Product r:;~;:?e use 1. Saccharomyces Methanol Rum 31. Match each item in Column I [Bio-control 2. Streptococcus Streptokinase agent] with the pest/pathogen in Column II and Blood-cholesterol lowering agent select the correct answer from the codes given 3. Monascus Statins Clot below: buster COLUMN I COLUMN II 4. Trichoderma Cyclosporin A A. Ladybird a. Aphids Organ transplantation B. Dragonflies b. Mosquitoes C. Bacillus thuringiensis c. Butterfly caterpillars D. Trichoderma d. Fungi Botany - Section B 36. Pollination by water is Codes 1. Limited to about 30 families of dicots 2. Very common in flowering plants A B C D 3. More common in monocots than dicots 1. a b C d 4. More common abiotic method of pollination 2. b a C d 37. During microsporogenesis 3. a b d C 1. Microspore tetrad is developed by meiosis in 4. b a d C sporogenous tissue 2. Pollen grains are developed by mitosis in sporogenous tissue 32. Which of the following is false about 3. Microspore develops into the male xenogamy? gametophyte 1. It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther 4. Male gametes are produced by pollen grain to stigma of another plant of the same species. 2. It produces genetic variation 3. It is genetically and ecologically (= functionally) cross pollination. 4. It occurs in cleistogamous flowers Page:4 38. Choose the correct match with respect to 42. Arrange the following regions of angiosperm microsporangium from the exterior to the 1. Microsporanigum - ovule; Megasporangiurn - innermost. female gametophyte A. Endothecium 2. Megasporangiurn - ovule; Embryo sac - B.Tapetum female gametophyte C. Middle layers 3. Megasporangiurn - female gametophyte; D. Epidermis Embryo sac - ovule E. Sporogenous tissue 4. Nucellus male Choose the correct answer from the options gametophyte; Megasporangium - ovule given below: 1.D>A>C>B>E 39. 2. D>C>A>B>E Assertion No enzyme that degrades 3.E>B>C>A>D (A): sporopollenin is so far known. 4. E>C>A>B>D It is one of the most resistant Reason (R):.. f 43. Given below are two statements: organic matena 1o megaspore. Species confined to a particular Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the Statements region and are not found 1· correct explanation of (A) I: anywhere else are called endemic species Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the 2 Statement Keystone species are usually · correct explanation of (A) II: abundant in an ecosystem 3. (A) is True, (R) is False In the light of the above statements, choose the 4. (A) is False and (R) is False most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are 40. Regarding pollen grains: correct I. Exine is made up of sporopollenin 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are II Generative cell is bigger than the vegetative incorrect · cell 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is m Generative cell divides meiotically to incorrect · produce male gametes 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 1. Only I is correct correct 2. Only I and III are correct 3. Only II is correct 4. I, II and m are correct 41. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation? 1.Cryopreservation 2. In vitro fertilization 3. National Parks 4.Micropropagation Page:5 44. To ensure that only the desired pollens fall 47. Mark the correct match on the stigma in artificial hybridization process: Wildlife sanctuaries in _ 1 90. the female flower buds of plant producing · India a. unisexual flower need not be bagged. On-site 2. Sacred groves b· there is no need to emasculate unisexual conservation · flowers of selected female parent. Rajasthan and 3. Western Ghat. emasculated flowers are to be bagged M.O c. immediately after cross pollination. 4. National park in India -448 d· emasculated flowers are to be bagged after · removal of anthers. e· bisexual flowers, showing protogyny are 48. Read the following statements : · never selected for cross. A. India has a greater ecosystem diversity than Choose the correct answer from the options Norway. given below: B. According to the IUCN (2004), the total 1. (a), (b) and (c) only number of plant and animal species described 2. (b), (c) and (d) only so far is slightly more than 15 million 3. (b), (c) and (e) only 1. Both (A) & (B) are correct 4. (a), (d) and (e) only 2. Only (B) is correct 3. Both (A) & (8) are incorrect 45. How many statement(s) among the 4. Only (A) is correct following are true for embryo sac of a typical angiosperm? 49. Examine the figure given below and select (i) It represents female gametophyte right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and (ii) Three cells grouped together at micropylar d. Correctlyidentify end constitute antipodal cells (iii) A typical embryo sac is 8-celled 7 nucleate at maturity (iv) Filiform apparatus at micropylar end guide the entry of pollen tube 1.Four 2.One 3. Two 4.Three 46. In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich compared the rivets in an airplane to 1. species within a 2. genetic diversity a b C d genus 3. ecosystem genera within a 4. family 1. Endothecium Tapetum :c~o:ri:~.:i:e 2· Tapetum E d th. n ° Microspore Middle ecmm mother cell layers 3. Endothecium Middle Tapetum Microspore 1ayers mother cell 4· En d thecium °. Microspore mother cell Middle layers Tapetum Page:6 50. Secondary treatment of sewage 54. Which one of the following acts as a 1. Removes grit and large pieces of organic physiological barrier to the entry of matter microorganisms 2. Involves shredding, churning, filtration and in human body? sedimentation 1. Tears 3. Does not require aeration 2. Monocytes 4. Involves microbial digestion of organic 3.Skin matter 4. Epithelium of urogenital tract 55. Ringworm in humans is caused by Zoology - Section A 1. bacteria 51. The pathogens responsible for causing 2. fungi elephantiasis are transmitted to a healthy 3. nematodes person through: 4. viruses 1. Droplet 2. Female mosquito vector 56. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation 3. Contaminated food and water therapy to treat 4. Sexual contact 1. Enlarged prostrate gland 2. Gall bladder stones by breaking them 52. Ringworm in humans can be caused by 3. Certain types of cancer infection with all the following except: 4. Kidney stones. 1. Microsporum 2. Taenia 57. Which of the following cannot be the 3. Trichophyton parasites of intestine? 4. Epidermophyton (1) Tapeworm 53. The receptors for the drug shown below are (2) Pinworm located in: (3) Virus (4) Threadworm HO 58. Identify the correct statement regarding typhoid fever in human beings: 1. It is caused by a pathogenic protozoan Salmonella typhi H 2. The pathogen remains confined to the small intestine HO',,. · 3. Widal test can confirm the infection very early in the disease 1. CNS and CVS 4. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in 2. CVS and GIT severe cases 3. CNS and GIT 4. CNS and PNS Page:7 59. Chemicals produced by virus-infected 66. Dependence on drugs can be cells that alert neighboring cells to prepare a 1. Tendency of the body to manifest a defense are called: characteristic and pleasant withdrawal syndrome if the regular dose is discontinued (1) antibodies 2. Characterised by anxiety, shakiness, (2) interferons nausea, and sweating (3) cytokines 3. Something which leads to follow all social (4) antigens norms for all sufficient funds 4. There will be no social adjustment problems ultimately 60. What does health mean? 67. Maturation oflymphocytes takes place in 1. Absence of disease 2. Physical fitness (1) thymus 3. State of complete physiological, mental and (2) Bone marrow social well being (3) Liver 4. State of complete physical, mental and (4) Both 1 and 2 social well being 61. The symptoms of common cold last for 1. Generally 1 day 68. Recombination DNA technology has allowed 2. Generally 2-3 days the production of _A_ of pathogen in bacteria 3. Usually, At maximum of 14 days or yeast. Here A is :- 4. Usually 3-7 days 1. Pro-toxin. 2. Anti-bodies. 62. Gambusia is a..... introduced to feed on..... 3. Antigenic polypeptide. 1. Mosquito, larvae 4. Antigenic polysaccharide. 2. Fish, mosquito-larvae 3. Frog species, mosquito of stagnant water 69. Odd one out? 4. Snail, Protozoan 1. PMNL-neutrophils. 2. Monocytes. 63.. During transplantation, which immunity 3. Natural killer cells. causes rejection? 4. Interferons. 1. Humoral immunity 2. CMI 70. Which of the following drugs has a potent 3. Innate immunity stimulating action of central nervous system? 4. Antibody mediated immunity 1. Morphine 2. Cocaine 64. When a quick immune response is required, 3. Barbiturate we administer which kind of immunization? 4.Benzodiazepine 1. Active 2. Passive 71. In which disease does mosquito transmitted 3. Both depending on the pathogen pathogen cause chronic inflammation of 4. Generally active sometimes passive lymphatic vessels? 1. Elephantiasis 65. Allergies could be because of 2. Ascariasis 1. Protected environment provided in early 3. Ringworm disease life 4. Amoebiasis 2. Modern day lifestyle 3. More sensitivity to the environment 4. All of these Page:8 72. HIV that causes AIDS first starts destroying: 78. Chill and high fever recurring in malaria 1. B-lymphocytes coincide with: 2. leucocytes 1. Injection of sporozoites into the human blood 3. thrombocytes 2. Multiplication of malarial parasite in the 4. helper T-lymphocytes liver cells 3. Release of hemozoin by ruptured RBCs 73. Diseases are broadly grouped into 4. Multiplication of malarial parasites in human infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the RBCs list given below, identify the infectious diseases. i. Cancer ii. Influenza 79. A drug that would not be helpful in the iii. Allergy iv. Smallpox treatment of allergies is: Options: 1. Antibiotics 2. Antihistaminics 1. i and ii 2. ii and iii 3. Steroids 4. Adrenaline 3. iii and iv 4. ii and iv 80. Cannabinoid receptors are principally 74. The disease chikungunya is transmitted by: located in the brain but they also have side effects on: 1. house fly 2.Aedes mosquito 1. GIT 2. CVS 3. cockroach 4. female Anopheles 3. Liver 4. Lungs 75. Which of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm? 81. Steroid abuse in males does not cause: 1. Decrease in size of the prostate 1. Microsporum 2. Trichophyton 2. Acne 3. Epidermophyton 4. Macrosporum 3.Breastenlargement 4. Reduction of testicle size 76. Consider the following two statements: 82. Hashish and marijuana are hallucinogenic I: Most parasites are pathogens. substances extracted from II· Pathogens have to adapt to life within the 1 Papaver somniferum · environment of the host. 2 Cannabis sativa 3 Erythroxylon 1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I 4 Claviceps purpura Both I and II are correct but II does not 2 83. Cancer cells show the following feature(s) · explain I except 3. Only I is correct 1. Metastasis 4. Only II is correct 2. Apoptosis 3. Contact inhibition 4. Both 2 & 3 77. Rhinovirus does not affect: 1. Lungs 2. Nose 84. Entamoeba histolytica causes 3. Pharynx 4. Larynx 1 Chicken pox 2 Tetanus 3 Dysentery 4 Elephantiasis Page: 9 85. Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted 89. Identify the wrong statement with a through reference to immunity. 1 Insect bite When ready-made antibodies are directly 2 Bird droppings 1 · given, it is called "Passive immunity". 3 Sweat _Active immunity is quick and gives a full 4 Food or water contaminated with faecal 2 response. matter Foetus receives some antibodies from the 3 · mother, it is an example of passive immunity Zoology - Section B When exposed to antigen(living or dead) 4. antibodies are produced in the host's body. It 86. From the following explanation, which of is called "Active immunity the following is/are related with bone marrow and thymus? a. Immature lymphocyte differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes. 90. Histamine is secreted by: b. Provide micro environment for the 1. Mast cells 2. Fibroblast development and maturation ofT-lymphocyte. 3. Histiocytes 4. Plasma cells c. Provide the sites for interaction of lymphocyte with the antigen. d. Act as a filter of the blood by trapping blood 91. Which of the following is the correct borne microorganisms. description of the relation between T cells and 1 a, b, c, d B cells? 2a,b 3 a only Both are processed in bone marrow and 4 a, b, c 1 · respond to antigen from thymus 2. T cells help B cells produce antibodies 87. Which of the following is chemically B cells increase the phagocytic capabilities of diacetylmorphine a white odourless, bitter 3'T cells crystalline compound? 1 Cocaine While B cells are involved in first response to 2 Heroin 4. an antigen, T cells respond to subsequent 3 Charas encounters with the same antigen 4 Amphetamines 88. Which of the following statements is not 92. The disease Elephantiasis or Filariasis: true regarding active acquired immunity :- 1. is transmitted by contaminated food and 1. It is species non specific water. 2. It is antigen specific 2. is caused by a pathogenic flatworm. 3. It shows slow but long lasting effect 3. causes chronic inflammation of the lymph 4. It is used in prophylaxis vessels. 4. causes intestinal obstruction leading to swelling of abdomen, especially in children. Page:10 93. Match the pathogens that can cause disease 96. Consider the given statements and select the in humans in COLUMN I with their correct option that contains the correct set of biological names in COLUMN II and select the statements. correct match from the codes given: Hippocrates considered health as a state of COLUMN I COLUMN II (a) body and mind where there was a balance a. Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenza of certain 'humors'. b. Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton Willian Harvey proved the 'good humor' c. Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti hypothesis of health by using an (b) experimental method and the d. Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica demonstration of normal body temperature in persons with blackbile. (a) (b) (c) (d) Earlier, it was thought that persons with 1. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (c) 'blackbile' belonged to hot personality and 2. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) would have fevers. 3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 1. (a), (b), and (c) 4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 2. Only (a) 3. (a) and (c) 4. (a) and (b) 94. The active form of protozoa causing amoebic dysentery feeds upon 97. Different types of barriers of innate 1. Erythrocytes only immunity prevent the entry of microbes within 2. Mucosa and submucosa of duodenum the body of mammals. It includes 3. Erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of a.Skin colon b. Macrophages and T-helper cells 4. Mucosa and submucosa of colon only c. HCI in stomach d. Secretion of lacrimal glands 95. Which of the following is incorrect with Select the option with correct set. respect to the given figure? 1. a, band c OH 2. a, c and d 3. a, band d 4. b, c andd 1. Receptors present principally in brain 2. Generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion 3. Abused by some sportspersons 4. Make a person more wakeful, alert and cause excitement Page: 11 98. Consider the figure given below and read 100. the statements given w.r.t. it. A person who met with road accident is likely to develop tetanus. He is immunised by administering 1. Weakened germs 2. Dead germs 3. Preformed antibodies 4. Wide spectrum antibodies Chemistry - Section (a) The active chemicals are present in flower A tops as well as in the resins of the plant whose 101. Which is the correct representation for the leaf is depicted. Nernst equation? (b) Ganja, coke and marijuana can be produced o 0.059 l [oxidant ) 1. E RP -- ERP +--og--- n [ reductant ) from it. _ 0.059 [ oxidant ) (c) The chemicals extracted from the plant, 2· Eop - EOP 0 - -n-log [ reductant) when consumed, affect the brain activity and cause changes in mood, behaviour, etc. E - Eo 0.059 1 [ reductant) 3. OP - OP+ n og [oxidant) 1. Statements (a) and (b) are correct while statement (c) is incorrect. 4. All of the above 2. Statements (a) and (c) are correct while statement (b) incorrect. 102. The lowest boiling point, if concentration is 3. Statements (a) and (b) are incorrect while fixed at 0.1 M in aqueous solution, is given by statement (c) is correct. which of the following solutions? 4. Statements (b) and (c) are incorrect while a. KzSO 4 statement (a) is correct. b.NaCl c. Urea 99. d. Glucose As rti (A)· Bone marrow and thymus are 1. a, b se on · primary lymphoid organs. 2.b,c 3. C, d These are the organs, to which 4.d,a matured lymphocytes migrate, Reason (R): interact with antigens and then 103. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make proliferate to become effector cells. 'salt-bridge' because: 1. velocity of K+ is greater than that of N03 Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 2. velocity of N03 is greater than that of K+ 1 · correct explanation of (A). 3. Velocities of both K+ and N03 are nearly the Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the same 2 · correct explanation of (A). 4. KNO3 is highly soluble in water 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Page:12 104. The standard reduction potential for 109. Consider the chemical reaction, Fe2 + I Fe and Sn2+ I Sn electrodes are -0.44 V and N2(g)+3H2(g) ➔ 2 NHa(g) -0.14 V respectively. For the cell reaction, The rate of this reaction can be expressed in Fe2 + + Sn..... Fe + Sn2+, the standard Emf is - terms of time derivative of concentration of 1. +0.30V N2 (g), H2(g) and NHa(g). 2. 0.58 V The correct relationship amongest the rate 3. +0.58 V expressions is: 4. -0.30V -d[N2] 1 d[H2 ] 1 d [NH3] (1) Rate= dt _3_d_t- - 2 dt - d[N2] 3d [H2 ] 2d[NH3 ] 105. Standard Reduction electrode potential of Rate = dt dt dt three metals X, Y, and Z are -1.2 V, +0.5 V and -3 d[N2] 1 d [H2] 1 d [NH3 ] V respectively. The reducing power of these (3) Rate = ~ = 3 -d-t- = 2 dt metals will be : -d[N2] d[H2] d[NH3 ] X>Z 2. Z > X > Y 3. X>Y > Z 4. Y > Z > X 110. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is4 x 10- 3 sec- 1. At a reactant concentration of 0.02 M, the rate of reaction would be: 106. During an electrolysis experiment, if a 100 5 1 3 1 mA current is passed through a solution of 1. 8 x 10- M sec- 2. 4 x 10- M sec- AgNO 3 for 30 minutes, how many coulombs of 3. 2 x 10- 1 M sec- 1 4. 4 x 10- 1 M sec- 1 electricity will be consumed? 1.108 C 2.18000 C 111. From the plot of log k vs 1(f, following 3.180 C parameter can be calculated: 4. 3000 C 1. Activation energy. 2. Rate constant of reaction. 107. A hydrogen gas electrode is made by 3. Order of reaction. dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCI of 4. Activation energy as well as the frequency pH = 10 and by passing hydrogen gas around factor. the platinum wire at 1 atm pressure. The oxidation potential of the electrode would be: 112. 20g of naphthoic acid (C11H8 O2) dissolved 1. 0.059V in 50g of benzene (Kr=1.72 K Kg mol"1) shows a 2. 0.59V 3. 00.118 V depression in freezing point of 2K The Vant 4.1.18 V Hoff factor is? 1. 0.5 2. 0.1 108. A zero order reaction is one: 1. in which reactants do not react 3.2 2. in which one of the reactants is in large 4· 3 excess 113. The total vapor of a solution of liquid A 3. whose rate does not change with time 4. whose rate increases with time and liquid B is 600 torr. The mole fraction of component A in the liquid phase is 0.7 and in the vapor phase is 0.35. The vapor pressure of pure A and B are respectively (1) 300 torr, 130 torr (2) 1300 torr, 130 torr (3) 300 torr, 1300 torr (4) 300 torr, 300 torr Page:13  0 114. What will be the value of ~G for the 119. Half-life period of a first order reaction is rection Cu+2 + Fe ~ Fe+2 + Cu , ~386s. The specific rate constant of the reaction li IB Eo = + 0. 34 V and E o = - 0. 44 T5.0 ~ X 10-3s-1 cu+2/eu Fe+ 21Fe 2. 0.5 X 10-Zs-1 3. 0.5 X 10-3s-l (1) -65.62 KJ 4. 5.0 X 10-ZS-l (2) -75.27 KJ (3) -150.54 KJ 120. For the reaction A+B ➔products, it is (4) +150.54 KJ observed that 115. The van't Hoff factor [i] for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte (1) On doubling the initial concentration of A barium hydroxide is? only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and (1) 0 On doubling the initial concentrations of (2) 1 (2) both A and B, there is a change by a factor (3) 2 of 8 in that rate of the reaction (4) 3 The rate of this reaction is, given by 116. The activation energy of a reaction can be 1. rate = k[A]2 [BJ determined from the slope of the graph 2. rate= k[A][B] 2 between: 3. rate = k[A]2 [B] 2 1. lnKvsT 4. rate= k[A][B] K 2. ln T vs T 1 3. lnKvs T T 1 121. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 ➔2NH 3 , li 4. In K vs T d[NH3 ]/dt = 2x10-4 mol 1-1s-1, the value of- 117. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, d[Hz]/dt would be which one will exhibit the largest freezing 1. 3x10 4 mol 1-1s-1 point depression? 1. KCl 2. 4x10 4 mol 1-1s-1 2. C6H12O6 3. 6x10 4 mol 1-1s-1 3. Alz(SO~3 4. lx10 4 mol 1-1s-1 4. K 2SO4 122. A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH3) 5(NO2)Cl freezes at 118. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g -0.00732°C. Number of moles of ions which 1 mor1) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of mol of ionic compound produc~s on being sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will dissolved in water will be Ckr-1.86 C/ m) be: 1.2 1 (Kr for water = 1.86 K kg mor ) 2.3 3.4 1. -0.372 °C 4.1 2. 0.372 °C 3. 0.572 °C 4. -0.572 °C Page:14 123. A hypothetical electrochemical cell is 129. When the concentration of reactant was shown below A 1 A+ (xM)l l B+ (yM) 1 B made 4 times rate of reaction becomes 8 times. The Emf measured is +0.20 v.The cell reaction The order of reaction with respect to that is:- reactant is (1) A++ B-+ A+B+ 1.2 2.3 (2) A+ + e- -+ A ; B+ + e- -+ B 3.1 (3) the cell reaction cannot be predicted 4.1.5 (4)A+B+-+ A++B 130. The rate of a reaction increases 4-fold 124. Osmotic pressure is 0.0821 atm at a when concentration of reactant is increased 16 temperature of 300 K. Find concentration in times. mole/litre [Roorkee 1990] If the rate of reaction is 4 x 10-6 mol 1-1s-1 when (1) 0.033 (2) 0.066 concentration of the reactant is 4 x 104 mol 1-1, the rate constant of the reaction will be : (3) 0.33 X 10-2 1. 2 x 10-4 ml/2 1-112 s-1 (4) 3 2. 1 X 10-2 S-l 4 12 12 1 125. The molal b.p. constant for water is 3. 4 x 10 mor l 1- / s- 0.513° C kgmoz- 1 When 0.1 mole of sugar is 4. 25 mor 1 min-1 1 dissolved in 200 g of water, the solution boils under a pressure of 1 atm at 131. The kinetic data for the reaction: 2A + B2 -+ (1) 100.513°C 2AB are as given below (2) 100.0513°C [A]/mol 1-1 [B2]/mol 1-1 Rate/mol 1-1s-1 (3) 100.256°C (4) 101.025°C 0.5 1.0 2.5 X 10-3 1.0 1.0 5.0 X 10-3 126. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture 0.5 2.0 1 X 10-Z of water and ethyl alcohol is less than that of the theoretical value of a water and alcohol The order of reaction with respect to A mixture. Hence, the mixture shows: and B2 is, respectively: 1. That solution is highly saturated 2. Positive deviation from Raoult's law 1. 1 and 2 2. 2 and 1 3. Negative deviation from Raoult's law 4. Nothing can be inferred 3. 1 and 1 4. 2 and 2 127. Value of Am00 for SrC12 in water at 25°C 132. In a first-order reaction A-+ products, the from the following data: concentration of the reactant decreases to 6.25 ( Cone. (mol/lt) 0.25 1) 1 2 1 % of its initial value in 80 minutes. The value of ( Am (Q- cm mol- ) 260 250) the rate constant, if the initial concentration is 1.270 0.2 mole/litre, will be: 2.260 1. 2. 17 x 10-2 min- 1 3.250 2. 3. 46 x 10-2 min- 1 4.255 3. 3. 46 x 10-3 min- 1 3 1 128. The effect of a catalyst in a chemical 4. 2. 16 x 10- min- reaction is to change the 1. Acivation energy. 2. Equilibrium concentration. 3. Heat of reaction. 4. Final products. Page:15 133. The rate of reaction triples when the 137. The standard oxidation potentials of temperature changes from 20°C to 50°C. The Cu/Cu2+and energy of activation for the reaction will be: cu+ /Cu 2+ are- 0. 34V and- 0.16 V 1. 28.81 kJ mol- 1 2. 38.51 kJ mol- 1 respectively. The standard electrode potential 3. 18.81 kJ mo1- 1 4. 8.31 kJ mor 1 of Cu+ /Cu would be: 1. 0.18V 2. 0.52V 134. Two substances A and B are present such 3. 0.82V that [Ao] = 4[Bo] and half life of A is 5 4. 0.49V minute and that of B is 15 minute. If they start decaying at the same 138. The specific conductivity of a solution time following first order kinetics how much depends upon : time later will the concentration of both of 1. Number of ions as well as mobility of ions. them would be same. (1) 15 minute 2. Number of ions per cc or (cm3) of solution. (2) 10 minute 3. Number of ions per cc or (cm3) as well as (3) 5 minute mobilities of ions. (4) 12 minute 4. Mobilities of ions. 135. Calculate the maximum work that can be 139. Calculate the useful work of the reaction obtained from the Daniell cell given below - Ag( 8 ) + ½Cl 2 (g) ➔ AgCl( s) Zn(s) I Zn2+ (aq) II Cu2+ (aq) I Cu(s). Given, that E cz2 ;cz- = + 1. 36 V, E AgCl/ Ag,Cl- = 0. 22 V 0 0 Gi~en O Ezn2+;zn = -O. 76 V and Ecu2+/cu = +O. 34 V If P012 = 1 atm and T = 298 K (1) - 212300 J (1) 110 kJ/mol (2)- 202100 J (2) 220 kJ/mol (3) - 513100 J (3) 55 kJ/mol (4)- 232120 J (4) 1000 kJ/mol 140. The correct order of ionic mobility of ions in an aqueous solution is: Chemistry - Section 1. K+> Na+> Rb+> Cs+ B 2. Cs+> Rb+> K+> Na+ 3. Rb+> K+> Cs+> Na+ 136. Calculate the e.m.f. for the following cell 4. Na+> K+> Rb+> Cs+ reaction: Fe 2+ + Zn ➔ Zn2+ + Fe The standard potentials 141. If the rate constant for a first order E 0 ,for the half reactions are as reaction is k, the time (t) required for the Zn ➔ Zn2+ + 2e; E 0 = +0.76 V completion of 99% of the reaction is given by: Fe ➔ Fe 2+ + 2e; E 0 = +0.41 V 1. t = 2.303/k 1. -0.35 V 2. t = 0.693/k 2. + 0.35 V 3. t = 6.909/k 3. + 1.17V 4. t = 4.606/k 4. -1.17V Page:16 142. A 500 g toothpaste sample has 0.4 g 146. The graph among the following that fluoride concentration. The fluoride represents Henry's Law is - concentration in terms of ppm will be - 1. 200 ppm 2. 400 ppm 1. 3. 500 ppm 4. 800 ppm LogM 143. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to a change in: Log P 1. heat of reaction 2. threshold energy 2. 3. collision frequency L 4. activation energy 144. Molten sodium chloride conducts Log M electricity due to the presence of: 1. Free ions. 2. Free molecules. Log P 3. Free electrons. 3. 4. Atoms of sodium and chlorine. 145. When a saturated solution of sodium LogM chloride is heated, it (1) becomes remains saturated (2) becomes unsaturated Log P (3) becomes supersaturated 4. (4) achieves equilibrium state Log M LogP 147. When a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a solvent. The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to (1) Molar fraction of solute (2) Molar fraction of solvent (3) Concentration of the solute in grams per liter (4) Concentration of the solute in gram per 100 mL. Page: 17 148. The number of moles of sodium hydroxide 153. An electron is moving around the nucleus present in 2.5 L and 0.5 M aqueous solution will of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius be ➔ (1) 1.25 r. The Coulomb force F on electron is (Where (2) 0.5 K- _l_) - 47rco (3) 12.5 e2 A (1)-K-r r3 (4) 5 (2) Ker3 2 i 149. The vant Hoff factor 'i' accounts for e2--t 1. the extent of dissociation of solute (3)-K- r r3 Ke2 r 2 2. the extent of dissolution of solute (4) 3. the degree of decomposition of solution r 4. degree of solubilization of solute 154. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in 150. The azeotropic mixture of water and between two charged plates as shown. The lines ethanol boils at 78.15 °c. When this mixture is of force look like distilled, it is possible to obtain- 1. Pure H20 2. Pure C2 H5 0H jjg j( ii~i( 3. Pure H2 0 as well as pure C2HOH A B 4. Neither H2 0 nor C2 H5 0H in their pure state Physics - Section A C D 151. Three charges 4q, Q, and q are in a (1)A straight line in the position of 0, l/2, and l (2) B respectively. The resultant force on q will be (3) C zero if Q equal to: (4)D 1.-q 2.-2q 155. A hollow insulated conducting sphere is - q 3.-y given a positive charge of 10µC. What will be 4.4q the electric field at the centre of the sphere if its radius is 2 meters (1) Zero 152. Two particles of equal mass m and charge 2 q are placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not (2) 5 µcm- (3) 20 µcm- 2 ! experience any net force. The value of is: (4) s µcm- 2 1.l 2.fi 3 re -v~ 4. v'41r.soG Page:18 156. Three identical positive point charges, as 159. A cube of si~e l is placed in a uniform field shown are placed at the vertices of an isosceles E, where E = Ei. The net electric flux through right-angled triangle. Which of the numbered the cube is vectors coincides in direction with the electric (1) Zero field at the mid-point M of the hypotenuse? (2) l2E (3) 4l2E (4) 6l2E 160. The electric flux for Gaussian surface A that encloses the charged particles in free space is (given q1 =-14 nC, q2 = 78.85 nC, q3 =- 56 nC) ---Gaussian 1. 1 surface A 2.2 3.3 - - - Gaussian 4.4 surface B 157. The figures below show regular hexagons, with charges at the vertices. In which of the (1) 103 Nm2 c-1 following cases the electric field at the centre is (2) 103 CN1 m-2 not zero? (3) 6.32 x 103 Nm2 c-1 q q ~ ---~ q~ --- ~ - q (4) 6.32 x 103 CN1 m-2 ,, '' ,.'... q~ - ~ q 161. Two equal charges q of opposite sign q ~- '.~ q q ~ - --- ~ q q-~----d·- q separated by a distance 2a constitute an electric dipole of dipole moment p. If P is a point at a (1) (2) 2q distance r from the centre of the dipole and the 2:.~---~...2q... ~---~/ line joining the centre of the dipole to this point makes an angle 8 with the axis of the dipole, q~ (I 2q q ~.. -~ q '' '. , then the potential at P is given by (r » 2a) (Where p = 2qa) 2q~ ---- ~ 2q 2q ~ ----~ q (1) V = p cos0 (3) (4) 4rrEor 2 (1) 1 ( 2) V = p cos 0 4rrEor (2) 2 ( 3) V = psin 0 (3) 3 4rrEor (4) 4 (4 ) V = p cos0 2rrEor2 158. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to 162. The charge on 500 cc of water due to the cylinder axis. The total flux for the surface protons will be: of the cylinder is given by 1. 6.0 x 1027 C (1) 21rR2 E 2. 2.67 x 107 C 2 (2) 1rR / E 3. 6 x 1023 C 2 (3) (1rR -1rR) / E 4. 1.67 x 1023 C (4) Zero Page:19 163. Three positive charges of equal value q are 167. The distance between charges 5 x 10-11 C placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. and -2.7 x 10-11 C is 0.2 m. The distance at The resulting lines of force should be sketched which a third charge should be placed in order asin that it will not experience any force along the I ~~ line joining the two charges is (?~~ /u"--- c2> ~~~ (1) 0.44m (2) 0.65 m (1) I (3) 0.556 m ~ (4) 0.350 m ~ ~ (3) /}Jl~t" (4) 168. If identical charges (-q) are placed at each corner of a cube of side b, then electric potential energy of charge (+q) which is placed 164. An electric dipole is situated in an electric at centre of the cube will be - field of uniform intensity E whose dipole BJ2q2 moment is p and moment of inertia is I. If the (1) 41l"eob dipole is displaced slightly from the (2) - 8v'2q2 equilibrium position, then the angular 'l!"eob frequency of its oscillations is? (3) - 4v'2q2 pE) 1/2 'll"eob 1. ( I (4) - 4q2 J3°1l"eob pE)3/2 2. ( I 169. Equipotential surfaces associated with an....!....) 1/2 electric field which is increasing in magnitude 3. ( pE along the x-direction are _!!__)1/2 (1) Planes parallel to yz-plane 4· ( IE (2) Planes parallel to xy-plane (3) Planes parallel to xz-plane 165. A conductor with a positive charge: (4) Coaxial cylinders of increasing radii around 1. is always at +ve potential. the x-axis 2. is always at zero potential. 3. is always at negative potential. 170. Figure shows three points A , B and C in a ➔ 4. may be at +ve, zero or -ve potential. region of uniform electric field E. The line AB is perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. Then which of the following holds good. 166. Kinetic energy of an electron accelerated Where VA, VB and Vc represent the electric in a potential difference of 100 Vis potential at points A, B and C respectively (1) 1.6 10-l? j X (2) 1.6 X 1021 J At (3) 1.6 x 10- 29 J (4) 1.6 x 10- 34 J 8 ··············.. C (1) VA = Vs = Ve (2) VA = Vs > Ve (3) VA = Vs < Ve (4) VA > Vs = Ve Page:20 171. A hollow metallic sphere of radius R is 176. The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor given a charge Q. Then the potential at the with no dielectric substance but with a centre is- separation of 0.4 cm is 2 µF. The separation is (1) Zero reduced to half and it is filled with a dielectric 1 (2) -4?l"Eo -. R Q substance of value 2.8. The final capacity of the capacitor is (3) _1__ 2Q (1) 11.2 µF 41reo R 1 Q (2) 15.6 µF (4) 41reo 2R (3) 19.2 µF (4) 22.4 µF 172. The energy stored in a condenser of capacity C which has been raised to a potential 177. A charge of 40 µC is given to a capacitor Vis given by - having capacitance C = 10 µF. The stored energy (1) ½CV in ergs is (1) 80 X 10-6 c2>.!.cv 2 2 (2) 800 (3) CV (3) 80 (4) 8000 1 (4) 2VC 178. Four capacitors each of capacity 3 µF are 173. parallel plate condenser has a connected as shown in the adjoining figure. The A capacitance SO µF in air and 110 µF when ratio of equivalent capacitance between A and immersed in an oil. The dielectric constant 'k' of B and between A and C will be: the oil is A B (1) 0.45 (2) 0.55 (3) 1.10 (4) 2.20 174. 1000 small water drops each of radius r and charge q coalesce together to form one spherical drop. The potential of the big drop is larger than that of the smaller drop by a factor C of 1.4: 3 (1) 1000 2.3:4 (2) 100 3. 2:3 (3) 10 4.3:2 (4) 1 179. 2 µF capacitance has potential difference 175. Force of attraction between the plates of a across its two terminals 200 volts. It is parallel plate capacitor whose dielectric disconnected with battery and then another constant is K will be - uncharged capacitance is connected in parallel q2 to it, then P.D. becomes 20 volts. Then the (1) 2eoAK capacity of another capacitance will be 2 (2)-q- (1) 2 µF eoAK (2) 4 µF q ( 3) 2eoA (3) 18 µF q2 (4) 10 µF (4) 2eoA2 K Page:21 180. Suppose the charge of a proton and an 184. Four metallic plates each with a surface electron differ slightly. One of them is -e and area of one side A are placed at a distance d the other is (e +.:::le). If the net of electrostatic from each other. The plates are connected as force and gravitational force between two shown in the circuit diagram. Then the hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much capacitance of the system between a and b is greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then.:::le is of the order: [Given the mass of hydrogen, mh = 1.67 x 10- 27 kg] 2 1. 10- C° 2. 10-23 C 3. 10-37 C 4. 10-47 C 181. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian (1) 3EoA d spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is ( 2) 2EoA doubled, then the outward electric flux will d 1. be reduced to half ( ) 2E0A 3 2. remain the same 3d 3. be doubled (4) 3E0A 2d 4. increase four times 185. Figure shows three circular arcs, each of 182. A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance radius R and total charge as indicated. The net C. If it is equally filled with parallel layers of electric potential at the centre of curvature is - materials of dielectric constants K 1 and K 2 , its +Q 1. K1 2. :~ic capacity becomes C1. The ratio of C1 to C is: + K2 2 -2Q 183. A piece of cloud is having area 25 x 106 m 2 and an electric potential of 105 volts. If the height of cloud is 0. 75 km, then find the energy of the electric field between the 1 _Q_ earth and the cloud will be: 21rEoR 1. 250 J 2 2- 2. 759 J. 41rE0R 3.1225 J 3 ~ 1rEoR 4.1475 J 4 ~ 7rEoR Page:22  189. When 2 point charges +q and +3q, held at a Physics - Section B 7 distance r from each other are released, they 186. A ball of mass 1 g and charge 10- C have an acceleration of a and 2a respectively. moves from a point A whose potential is 500 V When we distribute the total charge equally to a point B whose potential is zero. If the between them, keep them at the same distance speed of the ball at A is 0. 51 m/s, its speed at as the original and release them, their point B will be: accelerations now would be: 1. 2a and4a 1. 0.6 m / s 2. 6 m / s 4a Ba 2. 3 and 3 3. 2 m / s 4. 4 m / s 9a 9a 3. 4 and 2 4. 32a and 34a 187. Three-point charges + q, -2q and +q are placed at points (x=0, y=a, z=0), (x=0, y=0, z=0) and (x=a, y=O, z=0), respectively. The magnitude 190. Two charges 2 µC and 8 µC are separated and direction of the electric dipole moment by 6 cm. The neutral point is at: vector of this charge assembly are: 1. 4 cm from 2 µC. 2. 2 cm from 2 µC. 1. y'2qa along +y direction 3. 2 cm from 8 µC. 4. 3 cm from 8 µC. 2. y'2qa along the line joining points (x=0, y= 0, z=0)and(x=a,y=a,z=0) qa along the line joining points (x=0, y=0, 3 191. Which of the following is incorrect about · z=0) and (x=a, y=a, z=0) the electrostatic field lines? 4. y'2qa along +x direction 1. These can be never be closed curves 2. On a conducting surface, the lines are perpendicular 188. The electric potential due to an infinite 3. They can pass through a conductor sheet of 4. If the lines are equispaced and parallel to positive charge density u at a point located at one another, then the field is uniform a perpendicular distance Z from the sheet is : (Assume VO to be the potential at the surface of sheet) 192. A cube of side a has a charge q at each of 1. Vo its vertices. The net electric field intensity at its o-Z center is: 2. V O - 7cj" o-Z ( r is the distance between a corner and the 3· V O + 2eo center and k = 1/4rre0 ) o-Z 1. Zero 4. V o- - 2eo 2. k;r 3. k l~q r 6 4. k q r Page:23 193. Two charges are placed at a certain 197. A point charge is placed at the center of the distance apart in the air. If a glass slab is spherical Gaussian surface. The electric flux introduced between them, then the force through the surface is changed if the: between the two charges will sphere is replaced by a cube of the same 1. Become zero 1 ·volume. 2. Decrease 2. sphere is replaced by a cube of half volume. 3. Increase charge is moved off-centre in the original 4. Remain the same 3· sphere. 194. Two charges q and 4q are separated by a 4 charge is moved just outside the original distance r. The neutral point(in between the · sphere. line joining the charges) is at a distance: 1. ffrom q 198. Given below are two statements: 2. 32r fr om q Statement Air is more elastic than iron. 3. 2r from q I: 4. r from 4q Statement Elasticity is directly proportional II: to Bulk modulus. 195. A positron and a proton are projected normally into a uniform electric field with 1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. equal kinetic energy. The trajectory followed by 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. them are 1. Circular with equal radius 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 2. Elliptical with the same major and minor 4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false. axis 3. Parabolic with the identical trajectory 4. Hyperbolic with the identical trajectory 199. A circuit has section AB as shown in figure. The emf of the cell is 10 V. The potential difference VAB= 5 V. The charge on the 196. Charge distribution at three vertices of an capacitor C1 is: equilateral of side is shown in the figure. The 5V net electric dipole moment of the system is y A ------1 ~ ~ ~ B C1 = 1µF 10V C2 = 2µF 1.10 µC2. 5 µC 3. 15 µC 4. Can't be determine +2q +2q 200. A short electric dipole has a dipole 1. 2v'3qaJ moment of 16 x 10-9 C-m. The electric 2. - 2v'3qaJ potential due to the dipole at a point at a 3. 2v'3qaJ + 2v'3qaJ distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole 4. - 2v'3qaJ - 2v'3qaJ situated on a line making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is: ( 4;co = 9 x 109 N-m2 / C 2) 1. 200 V 2. 400 V 3.zero 4.50V Page:24