UPSC CSE Prelims Polity Questions (1979-2019) PDF

INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 1. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in (c) 2 and 4 only the Constitution of India during the prime membership of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Ans. (c) (b) L...

INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 1. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in (c) 2 and 4 only the Constitution of India during the prime membership of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Ans. (c) (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri 3. Consider the following statements: (c) Indira Gandhi 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution (d) Morarji Desai of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond Ans. (a) judicial review. 2. Consider the following 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down statements: the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence 1. The United Nations Convention against of the judiciary. Corruption (UNCAC) has a "protocol against the smuggling of Migrants by Land, Which of the statements given above is/are Sea and Air". correct? 2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally (a) 1 only binding global anti-corruption instrument. (b) 2 only 3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational organized (c) Both 1and 2 Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to (b) Neither 1 nor 2 their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. Ans. (b) 4. The United Nations office on Drugs and 4. consider the following statements : Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. 1. The motion to impeach a judge of the supreme court of India cannot be rejected by Which of the following statements given the speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the above are correct? Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. (a) 1 and 3 only 2. The constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 1  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) and proved misbehaviour' of the judges of (b) The Supreme Court of India is not the Supreme Court of India. constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the parliament. 3. The details of the process of the impeachment of the judges of the Supreme (c) In the event of grave financial crises in Court of India are given in the judges the country, the President of India can (Inquiry) Act, 1968. declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the cabinet. 4. If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken up for voting, the law requires (d) State Legislatures can not make laws on the motion to be backed by each house of certain matters without the concurrence of the parliament and supported by a majority the Union legislature. of total membership of that house and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that Ans. (b) House present and voting. 6. Consider the following Which of the statements given above is/are statements: correct? 1. The Parliament (Prevention of (a) 1 and 2 Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of (b) 3 only 'Office of Profit'. (c) 3 and 4 only 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. (d) 1,3 and 4 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined Ans. (c) in the Constitution of India. 5. With reference to the constitution of Which of the following statements given India, prohibition or limitations or above is/are correct? provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations (a) 1 and 2 only on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of (b) 3 only the following? (c) 2 and 3 only (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commision of India while discharging its (d) 1,2 and 3 duties can not be challenged in any court of law. Ans. (a) - 2  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 7. Under which schedule of the 9. With reference to the legislative Constitution of India can the transfer of Assembly of a state in India, consider the tribal land to private parties for mining following Statements: be declared null and void? 1. The Governor makes a customary address (a) Third Schedule to Members of the house at the commencement of the first session of the (b) Fifth Schedule year. (c) Ninth Schedule 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on the particular matter, it follows the (d) Twelfth Schedule lok Sabha rule on that matter. Ans. (b) (a) 1 only 8. Consider the following statements (b) 2 only about particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (c) Both 1and 2 1. PVTGs reside in 18 states and one union (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Territory. Ans. a 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 10. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the 3. There are 92 PVTGs officially notified in person of one's choice? the country so far. (a) Article 19 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. (b) Article 21 Which of the statements given above are (c) Article 25 correct? (d) Article 29 (a) 1,2 and 3 Ans. (b) (b) 2,3 and 4 11. Consider the following statements: (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1,3 and 4 1. As per recent amendment to the India Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the Ans. (c) 3  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) right to fell the bamboos grown on the forest (b) 2 only areas. (c) Both 1and 2 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. Ans. (c) 3. The Scheduled Tribes and other 13. Consider the following Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of statements: Forest Rights) Act , 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be Which of the following statements given patented in India. above is/are correct? 2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property (a) 1 and 2 only Appellate Board. (b) 2 and 3 only 3. Plant Varieties are not eligible to the patented in India. (c) 3 only Which of the statements given above is/ are (d) 1, 2 and 3 correct? Ans. (b) (a) 1 and 3 only 12. With reference to the Constitution of (b) 2 and 3 only India, consider the following statements: (c) 3 only 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction (d) 1,2, and 3 to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. Ans. (c) 2. An amendment to the Constitution of 14. Which one of the following suggested India cannot be called into question by the that the Governor should be an eminent Supreme Court of India. person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense Which of the statements given above is/ are political links or should not have taken correct? part in politics in the recent past? (a) 1 only (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) 4  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (b) Rajamannar Committee(1969) (d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983) guarantee by the Government of Indi(a) (d) National Commission to Review the Ans. (c) Working of the Constitution(2000) 17. In the federation established by The Ans. (c) Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary Power were given to the 15. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the (a) Federal Legislature most appropriate definition of liberty? (b) Governor General (a) Protection against the tyranny of (c) Provincial Legislature political rulers (d) Provincial Governors (b) Absence of restraint Ans. (b) (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes 18. Right to Privacy is protected as an (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following Ans. (d) in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above 16. Regarding Money Bill, which of the statement? following statements is not correct? (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution (a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of imposition, abolition, remission, alteration State Policy in Part IV or regulation of any tax. (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed (b) A Money Bill has provisions for the in Part. III custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of Indi(a) (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Ans. (c) Contingency Fund of Indi(a) 5  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 19. International Labour Organization's 1. No criminal proceedings shall be Conventions 138 and 182 are related instituted against the Governor of a State to any court during his term of office. (a) Child labour 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished (b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to during his term of office. global climate change Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Regulation of food prices and food correct? security (a) 1 only (d) Gender parity at the workplace (b) 2 only Ans. (a) (c) Both 1and 2 20. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following (d) Neither 1 nor 2 statements: Ans. (c) 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 22. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes Sabha is more than the value of the vote of and reports to the House whether the MPs of the Rajya Sabh powers to make regulations, rules, sub- rules, by-laws, et(c) conferred by the Which of the statements given above is/are Constitution or delegated by the Correct? Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such (a) 1 only delegation ? (b) 2 only (a) Committee on Government Assurances (c) Both 1and 2 (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation (d) Neither 1 or 2 (c) Rules Committee Ans. (a) (d) Business Advisory Committee 21. Consider the following Ans. (b) statements: 6  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 23. Consider the following (d) Neither 1 nor 2 statements: Ans. (a) 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to 25. If the President of India exercises his be a member of the Assembly. power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is State, then dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately. (a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolve(d) Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the (a) 1 only authority of the Parliament. (b) 2 only (c) Article 19 is suspended in that State. (c) Both 1and 2 (d) the President can make laws relating to that State (d) Neither 1 nor 2. Ans. (b) Ans. (a) 26. Consider the following 24. Consider the following statements: statements: 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest 1. The Parliament of India can place a party in the opposition was the Swatantra particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Party. Constitution of Indi(a) 2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Opposition" was recognized for the first Schedule cannot be examined by any court time in 1969. and no judgement can be made on it. 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have Which of the statements given above is/are a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot correct? be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. (a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only correct? (c) Both 1and 2 (a) 1 and 3 only 7  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) Ans. (b) 29. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity 27. Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary law and liberty? men and women. (a) if there are more laws, there is less (b) the methods for strengthening executive liberty. leadership. (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty. (c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision. (c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people. (d) a band of dedicated party workers. (d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is Ans. (a) in danger. 30. One of the implications of equality in Ans. (b) society is the absence of 28. Which of the following are regarded (a) Privileges as the main features of the "Rule of Law" ? (b) Restraints 1. Limitation of powers (c) Competition 2. Equality before law (d) Ideology 3. People's responsibility to the Government Ans. (a) 4. Liberty and civil rights 31. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Select the correct answer using the code Constitution of India? given below: (a) Liberty of thought (a) 1 and 3 only (b) Economic liberty (b) 2 and 4 only 8  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (c) Liberty of expression (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Liberty of belief Ans. (c) Ans. (b) 34. Which one of the following statements is correct? 32. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which (a) Rights are claims of the State against the of the following? citizens. (a) The Preamble (b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State. (b) The Fundamental Rights (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy the State. (d) The Fundamental Duties (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many. Ans. (a) Ans. (c) 33. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the 35. Which of the following statements Constitution of India? is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. Abolition of untouchability 2. They are correlative to legal duties. 3. Protection of the interests of minorities Select the correct answer using the code 4. Prohibition of employment of children in given below: factories and mines (a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Both 1and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 4 only Ans. (d) 9  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 36. In the context of India, which one of 2. executive function. the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties? Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Rights are correlative with Duties. (a) 1 only (b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties. (b) 2 only (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the (c) Both 1and 2 advancement of the personality of the citizen. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the Ans. (d) stability of the State. 39. Which of the following are not Ans. (a) necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a 37. Which principle among the 'following State? was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative the Constitution? Assembly (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in and women the State (b) Participation of workers in the 3. Dissolution of the local bodies management of industries Select the correct answer using the code (c) Right to work, education and public given below: assistance (a) 1 and 2 only (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers (b) 1and 3 only Ans. (b) (c) 2 and 3 only 38. Consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3 With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Ans. (b) Policy constitute limitations upon 40. Which one of the following is not a 1. legislative function. feature of Indian federalism? 10  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (a) There is an independent judiciary in 43. Out of the following statements, India. choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of (b) Powers have been clearly divided Government: between the Centre and the States. (a) An arrangement for minimizing the (c) The federating units have been given criticism against the Government whose unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha. responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all. (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units. (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose Ans. (d) responsibilities are increasing day by day. 41. Local self-government can be best (c) A mechanism of parliamentary explained as an exercise in democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the (a) Federalism people. (b) Democratic decentralization (d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over (c) Administrative delegation the people is in a state of decline. (d) Direct democracy Ans. (c) Ans. (b) 44. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council 42. The main advantage of the of Ministers through. parliamentary form of government is that 1. Adjournment motion (a) the executive and independently. 2. Question hour (b) it provides continuity of policy and is 3. Supplementary questions more efficient. Select the correct answer using the code (c) the executive remains responsible to the given below: legislature. (a) 1 only (d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election (b) 2 and 3 only.Ans. (c) (c) 1 and 3 only 11  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are Ans. (d) assented to by the President. 45. With reference to the Parliament of (d) the power of the Judiciary to review its India, consider the following statements: own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases. 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented Ans. (a) by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President 47. For election to the Lok Sabha, a of India. nomination paper can be filed by 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been (a) anyone residing in India. passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. (b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. (a) 1 only (d) any citizen of India. (b) 2 only Ans. (c) (c) Both 1and 2 48. Consider the following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at 46. In India, Judicial Review implies least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce 2. According to the provisions laid down in upon the constitutionality of laws and the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the executive orders. Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition. (b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Which of the statements given above is/are Legislatures. correct? (a) 1 only 12  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (b) 2 only (d) 3 only (c) Both 1and 2 Ans. (d) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 51. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State Ans. (d) List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the 49. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership (a) Fundamental Right (b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than (b) Natural Right twothirds of its total membership (c) Constitutional Right (c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership (d) Legal Right (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less Ans. (c) than twothirds of its members present and voting. 50. Consider the following statements: Ans. (d) 1. The Election Commission of India is a 52. With reference to the Gram fivemember body. Nyayalaya Act‘ which of the following statements is/ are correct? 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can general elections and by-elections. hear only civil cases and not criminal cases. 3. Election Commission resolves the 2. The Act allows local social activities as disputes relating to splits/mergers of mediators/reconciliators. recognized political parties. Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are given below: correct? (a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only 13  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only Ans. (b) (c) Both 1and 2 53. Which of the following statements (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is/are correct? Ans. (b) 1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation 55. Consider the following statements: 2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall 1. The Chief Secretary in a State is not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha appointed by the Governor of that State Select the correct answer using the codes 2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed given below: tenure (a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (c) Both 1and 2 (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1and 2 Ans. (b) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 54. Consider the following statements: Ans. (d) 1. The minimum age prescribed for any 56. With reference to the Union person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 Government consider the following years. statements. 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature 1. The Department of Revenue is dissolution continues only for the remainder responsible for the preparation of Union period. Budget that is presented to the parliament Which of the statements given above is/are 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the correct? Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India. (a) 1 only 14  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 3. All the disbursements made from Public Which of the statements given above is/are Account also need the Authorization from correct? the Parliament of India (a) 1 only Which of the following statements given above is/ are correct? (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 only Ans. (d) (d) 1, 2 and 3 59. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of Ans. (c) India? 57. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule (a) The President of India and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to (b) The Prime Minister of India (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes (c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat (b) determine the boundaries between states (d) The Supreme Court of India (c) determine the powers, authorities, and Ans. (d) responsibilities of Panchayats 60. The fundamental object of Panchayati (d) protect the interests of all the border Raj system is to ensure which among the States following? Ans. (a) 1. People‘s participation in development 58. Consider the following statements: 2. Political accountability 3. Democratic decentralization 1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the 4. Financial mobilization Legislative Assembly of that particular state. Select the correct answer using the code 2. The Governor of a state nominates the given below Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only 15  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (b) 2 and 4 only (b) Directive Principles of State Policy (c) 1 and 3 only (c) Fundamental Rights (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Seventh Schedule Ans. (c) Ans. (b) 61. To uphold and protect the Sovereignty 64. Consider the following statements Unity and Integrity of India‖ is a : provision made in the 1. The RajyaSabha has no power either to (a) Preamble of the Constitution reject or to amend a Money Bill (b) Directive Principles of State Policy 2. The RajyaSabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. (c) Fundamental Rights 3. The RajyaSabha cannot discuss the (d) Fundamental Duties Annual Financial Statement. Ans. (d) Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 62. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the (a) 1 only (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the (b) 1 and 2 only people (c) 2 and 3 only (b) Parliament can amend the constitution (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) RajyaSabha cannot be dissolved Ans. (b) (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha 65. Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles Ans. (d) of State Policy: 63. The ideal of ―Welfare State‖ in the 1. The Principles spell out the socio- Indian Constitution is enshrined in its economic democracy in the country 2. The provisions contained in these (a) Preamble Principles are not enforceable by any court. 16  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Which of the statements given below are (b) three-fourths majority of member present correct? and voting (a) 1 only (c) two-thirds majority of the House (b) 2 only (d) absolute majority of the House (c) Both 1 & 2 Ans. (a) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 68. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which Ans. (c) 66. Consider the following 1. places effective restrictions on individual statements: liberty in the interest of State Authority 1. The Executive Power of the union of 2. places effective restrictions on the India is vested in the Prime Minister. Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1and 2 (c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) Ans. (d) 69. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains 67. When a bill is referred to a joint provisions regarding anti-defection? sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by (a) Second Schedule (a) a simple majority of member present and voting (b) Fifth Schedule (c) Eighth Schedule 17  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (d) Tenth Schedule Ans. (b) Ans. (d) 72. Which of the following is / are the function/ functions of the Cabinet 70. Which of the following are associated Secretariat? with Planning‘ in India? 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet 1. The Finance Commission Meetings 2. The National Development Council 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development Select the correct answer using the code given below. 5. The Parliament (a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (c) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 5 only Ans. (c) (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 73. Consider the following statements: Ans. (c) 1. The President shall make rules for the 71. In the Constitution of India, more convenient transaction of the business promotion of international peace and of the Government of India, and for the security is included in the allocation among Ministers of the said business. (a) Preamble to the Constitution 2. All executive actions of the Government (b) Directive Principles of State Policy of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. (c) Fundamental Duties Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Ninth Schedule correct? 18  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (a) 1 only (a) the President of India (b) 2 only (b) the Parliament (c) Both 1and 2 (c) the Chief Justice of India (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) the Law Commission Ans. (a) Ans. (b) 74. Which of the following are the 76. Consider the following statements discretionary powers given to the regarding a No-Confidence Motion in Governor of a State? India: 1. Sending a report to the President of India 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence for imposing the President‘s rule Motion in the Constitution of India. 2. Appointing the Ministers 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the Which of the statements given above is / are President of India correct? 4. Making the rules to conduct the business (a) 1 only of the State Government (b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Both 1and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1and 3 only Ans. (c) (c) 2, 3 and 4 only 77. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) (a) The Committee on Public Accounts 75. The power to increase the number of (b) The Committee on Estimates judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings 19  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (d) The Committee on Petitions 80. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Ans. (b) Sabha? 78. The power of the Supreme Court of (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with India to decide disputes between the the Bill, accepting or not accepting the Centre and the States falls under recommendations of the Rajya Sabha its (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill (a) advisory jurisdiction further (b) appellate jurisdiction. (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration (c) original jurisdiction (d) The President may call a joint sitting for (d) writ jurisdiction passing the Bill Ans. (c) Ans. (a) 79. Which one of the following statements 81. Consider the following statements: is correct? Attorney General of India can (a) In India, the same person cannot be 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok appointed as Governor for two or more Sabha States at the same time 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok (b) The Judges of the High Court of the Sabha States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of 3. speak in the Lok Sabha the Supreme Court are appointed by the President 4. vote in the Lok Sabha (c) No procedure has been laid down in the Which of the statements given above is/are Constitution of India for the removal of a correct? Governor from his/her post (a) 1 only (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is (b) 2 and 4 appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support (c) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) (d) 1 and 3 only 20  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Ans. (c) 84. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the 82. Consider the following statements: Constitution? 1. National Development Council 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a 2. Planning Commission bill in the Lok Sabha only. 3. Zonal Councils 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Select the correct answer using the codes Constitution, the amendment also requires to given below. be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India. (a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only correct? (c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only Ans. (d) (c) Both 1and 2 85. Under the Scheduled Tribes and (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, Ans. (d) who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and 83. The Parliament can make any law for extent of individual or community forest whole or any part of India for rights or both? implementing international treaties (a) State Forest Department (a) with the consent of all the States (b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner (b) with the consent of the majority of States (c) Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandai Revenue Officer (c) with the consent of the States concerned (d) Gram Sabha (d) without the consent of any State Ans. (d) Ans. (d) 21  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 86. The Government enacted the (d) None of the above Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the Ans. (b) following is not identified as its objective? 89. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied (a) To provide self-governance institutionally in parliamentary government? (b) To recognize traditional rights 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal the Parliament. areas 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy (d) To free tribal people from exploitation confidence in the Parliament. Ans. (c) 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. 87. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are Select the correct answer using the codes fundamental for the governance of the given below. country? (a) 1 and 2 only (a) Fundamental Rights (b) 3 only (b) Fundamental Duties (c) 2 and 3 only (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties Ans. (a) Ans. (c) 90. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public 88. Economic Justice‘ the objectives of Accounts Constitution has been provided in 1. consists of not more than 25 Members of (a) the Preamble and Fundamental Rights the Lok Sabha (b) the Preamble and the Directive 2. scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts Principles of State Policy of Government (c) the Fundamental Rights and the 3. of the Auditor examines the report Directive Principles of State Policy Comptroller and General of India 22  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Which of the statements given above is / are 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre correct? shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. (a) 1 only 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office (b) 2 and 3 only during the pleasure of the President of India. (c) 3 only 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for (d) 1, 2 and 3 Legislation. Ans. (b) Which of the Statements given above is/are correct? 91. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only 1. National Development Council is an (b) 2 and 3 only organ of the Planning Commission. (c) 1 and 3 only 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of (d) 1,2 and 3 India. Ans. (b) 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of 93. With reference to National Legal preparation of plans for economic Services Authority, consider the following development and social justice. statements: Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Its objective is to provide free and correct? competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal (a) 1 only opportunity. (b) 2 and 3 only 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal (c) 1 and 3 only programmes and schemes throughout the country. (d) 1,2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is / are Ans. (b) correct? 92. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only 23  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (b) 2 only 4. Chief Ministers of the States (c) Both 1and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only Ans. (c) (b) 1, 3 and 4 only 94. Consider the following statements: (c) 2 and 4 only 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. Ans. (b) 2. While the nominated members of the two 96. In India other than ensuring that Houses of the Parliament have no voting public funds are used efficiently and for right in the presidential election, they have intended purpose what is the importance the right to vote in the election of the Vice of the office of the CAG? President. 1. CAG exercises exchequer control on Which of the statements given above is/are behalf of the Parliament when the President correct? of India declares national emergency/financial emergency (a) 1 only 2. CAG reports on the execution of projects (b) 2 only or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts (c) Both 1and 2 Committee (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press Ans. (b) charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. 95. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? 4. While dealing with audit and accounting of govt. companies. CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who 1. The Prime Minister 2. The Chairman, violate the law. Finance Commission Which of the above are correct? 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet (a) 1, 3 and 4 only 24  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (b) 2 only (b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must (c) 2 and 3 only become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) must be a member of one of the Houses Ans. (c) of the parliament 97. With reference to the Delimitation (d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha Commission, consider the following statements: Ans. (a) 1. The orders of the Delimitation 99. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha Commission cannot be challenged in a Court and Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of of Law. the parliament during the passage of 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha 1. Ordinary legislation or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. 2. Money bill Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Constitution Amendment bill correct? Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 1 only given below: (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (c) Both 1and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only Ans. (c) (d) 1,2 and 3 98. The Prime Minister of India, at the Ans. (a) time of his/her appointment 100. According to the Constitution of (a) need not necessarily be a member of one India, it is the duty of the President of of the Houses of the Parliament but must India to cause to be laid before the become a member of one of the Houses Parliament which of the following? within six months 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission 25  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 2. The Report of the Public Accounts (c) 1, 3 and 4 only Committee (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General Ans. (c) 4. The Report of the National Commission 102. How do District Rural Development for the Scheduled CastesSelect the correct Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction answer the using the codes given below: of rural poverty in India? (a) 1 only 1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the (b) 2 and 4 only country. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only 2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the cause of poverty and (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures. Ans. (c) 3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter 101. Which of the following is/are among departmental coordination and cooperation the fundamental Duties of citizens laid for effective implementation of anti- poverty down in the Indian Constitution? programmes. 1. To preserve the rich heritage of our 4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective composite culture utilisation of the funds intended for anti- poverty programme. 2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry (a) 1, 2 and 3 only 4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres (b) 3 and 4 only of individual and collective activity. (c)4 only Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 only Ans. (b) (b) 2 only 103. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled 26  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Areas) Act, 1996 what is the role/ power 4. All appointments of officers and staffs of of Gram Sabha? the SC are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India 1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the scheduled area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce (a) 1 and 3 only 3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is (b) 3 and 4 only required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the (c)4 only scheduled areas. (d) 1,2,3 and 4 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Ans. (a) (a) 1 only 105. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with (b) 1 and 2 only which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? (c) 2 and 3 only 1. Right to healthy environment, construed (d) 1,2 and 3 as a part of Right to life under Article 21 Ans. (b) 2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for 104. What is the provision to safeguard the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under the autonomy of the Supreme Court of Article 275(1) India? 3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as 1. While appointing the Supreme Court mentioned under Article 243 (A) judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 2. The SC judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only (a) 1 only 3. The salaries of judges are charged on the (b) 2 and 3 only Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 27  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Ans. (a) (d) None 106. In the Parliament of India, the Ans. (d) purpose of an adjournment motion is 108. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State (a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of of urgent public importance India: (b) to let opposition members collect 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform information from the ministers civil code (c) to allow a reduction of specific amount 2. Organising village Panchayats in demand for grant 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas (d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the 4. Securing for all the workers reasonable part of some members leisure and cultural opportunities. Ans. (a) Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive 107. Consider the following statements: Principles of State Policy? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only 1. Union territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha (b) 2 and 3 only 2. It is within the purview of the Chief (c) 1, 3 and 4 only Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. According to the constitution of India, Ans. (d) Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only 109. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha speaker consider the following Which of the statements given above is/are statements: correct? 1. He/She holds the office during the (a) 1 Only pleasure of the President (b) 2 and 3 2. He/She need not be a member of the house at the time of his/her election but has (c) 1and 3 only 28  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) to become a member of the House within six (c) 1 and 3 only months from the date of his/her election (d) 1,2 and 3 3. If he/she intends to resign the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Ans. (c) Deputy Speaker. 111. Which of the following special Which of the above statements given above powers have been conferred on the Rajya is/are correct? Sabha by the Constitution of India? (a) 1 and 2 only (a) To change the existing territory of a State (b) 3 only and to change the name of a State (c) 1,2 and 3 (b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List (d) None and to create one or more All India Services Ans. (b) (c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of 110. With reference to consumer‘s rights / the President after his/her retirement privileges under the provision of law in India which of the following statements (d) To determine the functions of the correct? Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners. 1. Consumer are empowered to take samples for food testing Ans. (b) 2. When consumer files a complaint in any 112. Which of the following are included consumer forum, no fee is required to be in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme paid. Court? 3. In case of death of consumer, his/her legal 1. A dispute between the Government of heir can file a complaint in the consumer India and one or more States forum on his/her behalf. 2. A dispute regarding elections to either Select the correct answer using the codes House of the parliament or that of given below Legislature of a State (a) 1 only 3. A dispute between the Government of India and Union Territory (b) 2 and 3 only 4. A dispute between two or more States. 29  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Select the correct answer using the codes 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement given below: before the Parliament (a) 1 and 2 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the (b) 2 and 3 Appropriation Bill (c) 1 and 4 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote onaccount (d) 3 and 4 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of Ans. (c) programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure 113. Which of the following provisions of by a Parliamentary Budget Office. the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament 1. Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 5. Seventh Schedule (c) 3, 4 and 5 only Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (a) 1 and 2 only Ans. (d) (b) 3, 4 and 5 only 115. What is the difference between ―vote-on account‖ and ―interim budget‖ (c) 1, 2 and 5 only ? (d) 1, 2, 34 and 5 1. The provision of a ―vote-on-account‘‘ is used by a regular government, while an Ans. (c) ―interim budget‘‘ is a provision used by a caretaker government. 114. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over 2. A ―vote-on-account‘‘ only deals with the public finance in India? expenditure in government budget, while an ―interim budget‘‘ includes both expenditure and receipts. 30  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Which of the statements given above is/are (2) Right to equal access to public service correct? (3) Right to food (a) 1 only Which of the above is/are Human (b) 2only Right/Human Rights under ―Universal Declaration of Human Rights‘‘? (c) Both 1and 2 (a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1and 2 only Ans. (b) (c) 3 only 116. Consider the following statements: In India, a metropolitan planning (d) 1, 2 and 3 committee: Ans. (d) 1. Is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India. 118. The Constitution (Seventy-third amendment) act, 1992, which aims at 2. Prepares the draft development plans for promoting the Panchayati Raj metropolitan area. Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? 3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing government sponsored (1) Constitution of District Planning schemes in the metropolitan area. Committees Which of the statements given above is/are (2) State Election Commissions to conduct correct? all Panchayat elections (a) 1 and 2 only (3) Establishment of State Finance Commission (b) 2 only State the correct answer using the codes (c) 1 and 3 only given below: (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only Ans. (a) (b) 2 and 3 only 117. Consider the following: (c) 2 and 3 only (1) Right to education (d) 1,2 and 3 31  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Ans. (c) Which of the statements give above is/are correct? 119. India is home to lakhs of person with disabilities, what are the benefits (a) 1 only available to them under the law? (b) 2 and 3 only (1) Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools (c) 1 and 3 only (2) Preferential allotment of land for setting (d) 1, 2 and 3 up business Ans. (c) (3) Ramps in public buildings 121. All revenues received by the Union Which of the statements given above is/are Government by way of taxes and other correct? receipts for the conducts of Government business are credited to the (a) 1 only (a) Contingency fund of India (b) 1and 2 only (b) Public account (c) 1 and 3 only (c) Consolidated fund of India (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Deposits and advances fund Ans. (d) Ans. (c) 120. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a 122. The authorization for the withdrawal national minority, what special of funds from the consolidated fund of advantages it is entitled to ? India must come from 1. It can establish and administer exclusive (a) The President of India educational institutions. (b) The Parliament of India 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community (c) The Prime Minister of India to Lok Sabha. (d) The Union Finance Minister 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime minister‘s 15- point programme. Ans. (b) 32  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 123. Under the constitution of India, (c) It ensures transparency in financial which one of the following is not a administration fundamental duty? (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) (a) To vote in public elections given above is correct in his context (b) To develop the scientific temper Ans. (d) (c) To safeguard public property 126. Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the (d) To abide the Constitution and respect its President of India on matters of law or fact ideals Ans. (a) 1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest). 124. When the annual budget is not passed by the lok sabha? 2. if he seeks such an advice. (a) The budget is modified and presented 3. only if the matters relate to the again Fundamental Rights of the citizens. (b) The budget is referred to the Rajya Which of the statements given above is/are Sabha for suggestions correct? (c) The union finance minister is asked to (a) 1 only resign (b) 2 only (d) The prime minister submits the resignation of council of ministers (c) 3only Ans. (d) (d) 1 and 2 125. With reference to the Finance Ans. (b) Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct? 127. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: (a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development 1. Fundamental Rights (b) It facilities the proper distribution of 2. Fundamental Duties finances among the public section undertakings 3. Directive Principles of State Policy 33  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Which of the above provision of the (c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either Constitution of India is/ are fulfilled by serving or retired judicial officers only and National Social Assistance Programme not any other person launched by Government of India? (d) None of the statements given above is (a) 1 only correct (b) 3 only Ans. (d) (c) 1 and 3 only 130. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in (d) 1, 2 and 3 India, which one of the following statements is not correct? Ans. (b) (a) A State Government can establish more 128. The ―Instrument of Instructions‖ than one District Forum in a district if it contained in the Government of India Act deems fit 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as (b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman (a) Fundamental Rights (c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or (b) Directive Principles of State Policy services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs (c) Extent of executive power of State (d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a (d) Conduct of business of the Government District Forum by the State Government as a of India representative of the interests of the consumers in general Ans. (b) Ans. (c) 129. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is 131. Which one of the following is correct? responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to Parliament? settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court (a) Department of Revenue (b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which (b) Department of Economic Affairs are civil and not criminal in nature (c) Department of Financial Services 34  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (d) Department of Expenditure (c) 6 months Ans. (b) (d) 1 year 132. Which one of the following Ans. (c) authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles 135. In India, the first Municipal for determining the taxes and duties Corporation was set up in which one which may be appropriated by the among the following? Panchayats in that particular State ? (a) Calcutta (a) District Planning Committees (b) Madras (b) State Finance Commission (c) Bombay (c) Finance Ministry of that State (d) Delhi (d) Panchayati RajMinistry of that State Ans. (b) Ans. (b) 136. Consider the following statements: 133. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the 1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently Finance Commission to be laid before the Administrator of Chandigarh each House of Parliament? 2. The Governor of Kerala is‘ concurrently (a) The President of India the Administrator of Lakshadweep (b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) The Prime Minister of India (a) 1 only (d) The Union Finance Minister (b) 2 only Ans. (a) (c) Both 1and 2 134. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 month Ans. (a) (b) 3 months 35  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 137. With reference to Lok Adalats, (d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements: Ans. (d) 1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no 139. Which one of the following appeal lies against thereto before any court. Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including 2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not the Prime Minister, in the Council of covered under Lok Adalat. Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the Which of the statements given above is/ are House of the People? correct? (a) 90th (a) 1 only (b) 91st (b) 2 only (c) 92nd (c) Both 1and 2 (d) 93rd (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) Ans. (a) 140. With reference to Union 138. Consider the following statements: Government, consider the following statements: 1. The Advocate General of a State in India 1. The Constitution of India provides that all is appointed by the President of India upon Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the the recommendation of the Governor of the sitting members of Lok Sabha only. concerned State. 2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates 2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, under the direction of the Ministry of High Courts have original, appellate and Parliamentary Affairs. advisory jurisdiction at the State level. Which of the statements given above is/ are Which of the above statements is/are correct? correct? (a) 1 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1and 2 (c) Both 1and 2 36  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only Ans. (d) (c) Both 1and 2 141. With reference to Union Government (d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements: Ans. (b) 1. The Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are created by the 143. Who among the following have held Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet the office of the Vice President of India? Secretary. 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a 1. Mohammad Hidayatullah Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister. 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed Which of the statements given above is/ are 3. Neelam Sanjiva correct? 4. Shankar Dayal Sharma (a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only given below: (c) Both 1and 2 (a) 1,2,3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 4 only Ans. (b) (c) 2 and 3 only 142. Consider the following (d) 3 and 4 only statements: Ans. (b) 1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Minister ship of 144. Department of Border Management Lal Bahadur Shastri. is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries? 2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams. (a) Ministry of Defence Which of the statements given above is are (b) Ministry Of Home Affairs correct? (c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport (a) 1 only and Highways 37  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) (d) Ministry of Environment and Forests (a) Police Reforms Ans. (b) (b) Tax Reforms 145. Which schedule of the Constitution (c) Reforms in Technical Education of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of (d) Administrative Reforms Scheduled Areas in several States? Ans. (d) (a) Third 148. Which of the following is/are (b) Fifth included in the Directive Principles of State policy? (c) Seventh 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and (d) Ninth forced labour Ans. (b) 2. Prohibition of Consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks 146. Under which one of the following and of other drugs which are injurious to Constitution Amendments Acts, four health languages were added to the languages under the Eighth schedule of the Select the correct answer using the code Constitution of India, thereby raising given below: their number to 22? (a) 1 Only (a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act (b) 2 Only (b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act (c) Both 1and 2 Only (c) Constitution (Ninety-second (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Amendment) Act Ans. (b) (d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act 149. Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India Provides that Ans. (c) 147. For which one of following reforms 1. The Legislative Assembly of each State was a Commission set up under the shall consist of not more than 450 members Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the chosen by direct election from territorial Government of India? constituencies in the State 38  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) 2. A person shall not be qualified to be Which of the statements given above is/are chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative correct? Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age (a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only correct? (c) Both 1and 2 (a) 1 Only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 Only Ans. (b) (c) Both 1and 2 152. How many high Courts in India have (d) Neither 1 nor 2 jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)? Ans. (b) (a) 2 150. Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha (b) 3 constituency? (c)4 (a) Kangra (d) 5 (b) Ladakh Ans. (b) (c) Kachchh 153. Which of the following Constitution (d) Bhilwara Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in Ans. (b) a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok 151. Consider the following statements Sabha and the total numbers of members : of the Legislative Assembly of that state, respectively ? 1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India. (a) 91st 2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as (b) 93rd one of the progenitors of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial (c) 95th system. (d) 97th 39  INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS FOR IAS PRELIMS EXAM (1979 -2019) Ans. (a) (d) V.P. Menon 154. Consider the following statements in Ans. (d) respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India: 156. Consider the following statements: 1. A Proclamation of financial emergency 1. The Chairman of the Committee on issued shall cease to operate at the expiration Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of two months, unless before the expiration of the Lok Sabha. of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both houses of Parliament. 2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members 2. If any proclamation of financial of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons emergency is in operation, it is competent of industry and trade. for the president of India to issue directions for the reduction ofsalaries and allowances Which of the statements given above is/are of all or any class of persons serving in correct? connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court (a) 1 only and the High Courts. (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Both 1and 2 (a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only Ans. (a) (c) Both 1and 2 157. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (d) Neither 1 nor