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1. A class B fire extinguisher: A) is to be used on fires involving cooking oils, trans-fats, or fats in cooking appliances and are typically found in restaurant and cafeteria kitchens. B) is to be used on fires involving combustible materials such as paper, wood, cardboard, and most plastics....

1. A class B fire extinguisher: A) is to be used on fires involving cooking oils, trans-fats, or fats in cooking appliances and are typically found in restaurant and cafeteria kitchens. B) is to be used on fires involving combustible materials such as paper, wood, cardboard, and most plastics. C) is to be used on fires involving chemicals such as combustibles metals, such as magnesium, titanium, potassium and sodium. D) is to be used on fires involving flammable of combustible liquids such as gasoline, kerosene, grease and oil. Unit 1 page 16 2. Which of the following types of fire extinguishers should be used on electrical fires: A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C Unit 1 page 16 D) Class D 3. Which of the following statements is true? A) workers do not have to wear hard hats on a job site, even if instructed not to do so by employer B) workers must wear the protective clothing that the employer instructs them to wear on the job site C) Workers do not have to be aware of the contents of the occupational health and safety act. D) Unnecessary running or rough or boisterous conduct on job sites is NOT prohibited by the occupational health and safety act 4. Which of the following regulates workplace safety: A) The Province of Ontario Unit 1 page 11 B) The Natural Gas and Propane Installation Code C) The Federal Government D) The National Building Code 5. An employer of a Gas Technician is: A) responsible for ensuring the technician are appropriately certified B) not responsible for ensuring that safety instruction is provided to workers C) responsible for ensuring that workers arrive safely on the jobsite D) responsible for providing all safety clothing to workers 6. Why should garbage and debris be removed from a job site: A) to present a neat appearance B) to prevent possible slips, trips or fells C) to reduce the possibility of tool loss in debris D) to reduce the likelihood of rodents on the job site 7. A class D fire extinguisher A) is to be used on fires involving electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring circuit breakers and outlets B) is to be used on fires involving combustible materials such as paper, wood, cardboard, and most plastics. C) is to be used on fires involving chemicals such as combustibles metals, such as magnesium, titanium, potassium and sodium. D) is to be used on fires involving cooking oils, trans-fats, or fats in cooking appliances and are typically found in restaurant and cafeteria kitchens. 8. A class A fire extinguisher A) is to be used on fires involving chemicals such as combustibles metals, such as magnesium, titanium, potassium and sodium. B) is to be used on fires involving combustible materials such as paper, wood, cardboard, and most plastics. C) is to be used on fires involving flammable of combustible liquids such as gasoline, kerosene, grease and oil. D) is to be used on fires involving cooking oils, trans-fats, or fats in cooking appliances and are typically found in restaurant and cafeteria kitchens. 9. A class C fire extinguisher A) is to be used on fires involving combustible materials such as paper, wood, cardboard, and most Plastics B) is to be used on fires involving electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring circuit breakers and outlets Unit 1 page 16 C) is to be used on fires involving flammable of combustible liquids such as gasoline, kerosene, grease and oil. D) is to be used on fires involving chemicals such as combustibles metals, such as magnesium, titanium, potassium and sodium. 10. Where should the nozzle of the fire extinguisher be pointed: A) at the base of the fire Unit 1 page 18 B) at the centre of the fire C) at the top of the fire D) at the side of the fire 11. To determine the indicated gas pressure on a “simple” or traditional water-filled “U” tube manometer. A) read the amount of water column displaced on the pressure side B) read the amount of water column displaced on the atmospheric side C) read the amount of water column displaced on the pressure side and add it to the amount displaced on the atmospheric side D) read the amount of water column displaced on the pressure side and substract it from the amount displaced on the atmospheric side 12. Convert 40° C to Fahrenheit: A) 4.04°F B) 40 °F C) 94 °F D) l04°F 13. A foot has ________inches and a meter has ___centimeters. A) 12 inches, 100 centimeters B) 10 inches, 100 centimeters C) 100 inches, 12 centimeters D) 10 inches, 100 centimeter 14. Sheathing on copper wire should be removed with: A) knife B) pliers C) side cutters D) a wire stripper 15. A reading of 7.0" w.c equals: A) ¼ psig B) ½ psig C) ¾ psig D) 1 psig 16. How should an electric drill be disconnected? A) by pulling on the drills cord B) by pulling the plug at the outlet C) by using a pair of insulated channel lock pliers D) with the chuck key 17. What type of fastener is used to join two electrical wires: A) electrical bounding clamp B) BX connector C) wire nut (marrette) D) electrical tape. 18. Lag shield anchors are generally used to anchor fasteners into: A) steel B) wood C) plastic D) concrete 19. What is the volume of a room measuring 16' x 12' x 7' A) 84 square feet B) 192 cubic feet C) 1344 cubic feet D) 16,128 square feet 20. A carbide tipped bit is used to drill into: A) stainless steel B) wood C) plastic D) concrete 21. The heat content of 1 cubic foot of natural gas is approximately: A) 1,000 Btu B) 2,520 Btu C) 10,000 Btu D) 25,000 Btu 22. Which substance is inert and passes through the combustion zone absorbing heat during the combustion process? A) carbon dioxide B) ethyl mercaptan C) oxygen D) nitrogen 23. The relative density propane vapour is: A) equal to the relative density of air B) 2 times the relative density of air C) 1 ½ times the relative density of air Also named Specific Gravity. Code book page 255 D) 3 times the relative density of air 24. The theoretical boiling point of natural gas at atmospheric pressure is: A) -258°F (-162°C) B) -44°F (-42°C) C) 0°F (-18°C) D) 32°F (0°C) 25. The minimum amount of air required for complete combustion to burn 1 cubic foot (0.028 cu. m.) of propane is approximately: A) 5.0 cu. ft. (0.14 cu. m.) B) 10.0 cu. ft. (0.28 cu. m.) C) 12.0 cu. ft. (0.34 cu. m.) D) 25.0 cu. ft. (0.71 cu. m.) 26. The specific gravity of natural gas is: A) greater than that of air B) less than that of air C) the same as that of propane D) greater than that of propane 27. The specific gravity of natural gas is: A) 0.55 B) 1.00 C) 1.50 D) 2.00 28. Which of the following are characteristics of carbon monoxide: A) colourless, tasteless B) odorless, combustible C) lighter than air and extremely toxic D) all of the listed choices 29. Propane is a: A) manufactured gas B) hydrocarbon C) distillate fuel D) naphthalene fuel 30. The ignition temperature of propane is in the range of: A) 920° F – 1020° F (493° C - 549° C) B) 920° C – 1020° C (1688° F - 1868° C) C) 1210° F – 1260° F (654° C - 682° C) D) 1210° C – 1260° C (2210° F - 2300° F) 31. The heat content of 1 cubic foot propane is approximately: A) 1,000 Btu B) 2,500 Btu C) 10,000 Btu D 25,000 Btu 32. If a natural gas flame is adjusted to produce more than 11.9% carbon dioxide: A) Carbon monoxide may be produced B) Combustion efficiency will fluctuate C) The flame will be very noisy and will lift off of the burner D) It there will be little overall effecting 33. When propane changes from a liquid to a vapour, it expands and its volume increases by: A) 5 times B) 17 times C) 185 times D) 270 times 34. The lower and upper flammable limits of propane in air are: A) 2.0%-11.0% B) 2.4%-9.5% C) 4.0%-14.0% D) 5.5%-14.5% 35. When cylinders are being transported, they shall be secured: A) vertically with chains and straps and a relief valve, in a well-ventilated space B) in an upright position with chain and straps and a relief valve, in a well-ventilated space C) in an upright position, in a well-ventilated location with the relief valve communicating with the vapour space only D) in an upright position, in a well-ventilated location with the relief valve communicating with the liquid space only. 36. The specific gravity of propane vapour is: A) greater than that of air Code book page 255 B) less than that of air C) the same as that of natural gas D) less than that of natural gas 37. By definition, the specific gravity of a gas (vapour) is the: A) weight of the gas as compared to the weight of air B) weight of the gas as compared to the weight of an equal volume of air On line C) volume of the gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of air D) volume of the gas as compared to the weight of air 38. Which of the following are symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning: A) headaches, nausea B) dizziness, confusion C) rapid heart rate, death D) all of the listed choices 39. Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen are: A) explosive gases B) inert gases C) neutralizes D) toxins 40. Carbon monoxide is: A) an inert gas which is heavier than air B) an inert gas which is lighter than air C) a toxic gas which is combustible Stanford Module 3 page 36 D) a toxic gas which is non-combustible 41. Which burner supplies combustion air with a mechanical device such as a fan or blower at sufficient pressure to overcome the resistance of the burner and the appliance: A) mechanical burner B) fan assisted burner C) high pressure burner D) forced draft burner Code book Definitions page 8 42. A valve train is: A) combination of valves and regulators piped and wired in series B) combination of valves, controls, piping and tubing, downstream from the appliance manifold by which gas is controlled C) combination of valves, controls, piping and tubing, upstream from the appliance manifold by which gas is controlled Code book Definitions page 17 D) combination of valves configured such that gas can be controlled in a number of different ways 43. What is the term for that part of a venting system that conducts the flue gases from the flue collar of an appliance to a chimney or vent, and may include a draft control device A) double wall vent B) double acting vent C) vent connector Code book Definitions page 18 D) draft connector 44. Which word describes the phrase "acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction": A) certified B) licensed C) approved Stanford Module 4 page 28 D) endorsed 45. Which of the following is covered in the B149.1 Natural Gas and Propane installation code: A) installation of feedstock gas in chemical plants B) installation of venting systems Ontario Regulation 212/01 clause 2. (2) page 2 C) petroleum refineries D) gas distribution pipelines 46. What is a Category II Appliance: A) an appliance that operates with a non-positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of less than 17% Code book Definitions page 6 B) an appliance with a power burner C) an appliance requiring a separate combustion air supply D) an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss not less than 17% 47. Venting and air supply requirements are in section ____ of the B 149.1 Code. A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 8 Code book page 83 48. What is the name of the part of a piping or tubing system which conveys gas from the main supply piping, tubing, or header to an appliance or appliances: A) header B) branch line C) gas main D) individual feed line 49. Gas piping codes are in section ______ of the B l 49.1 code. A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 9 50. The requalification of refillable propane cylinders used in Ontario must be done in accordance with the procedures for cylinders as established be (the): A) Transport Canada Unit 4 page 4 and Code book 9.2.4 page 108 B) Compressed Gas Association C) Propane Gas Association D) Ontario Propane Association 51. Which term is used to describe an appliance intended to supply hot liquid or vapour for space heating, processing, or power purposes: A) water heater B) commercial water heater C) space heater D) boiler code book B 149. 1 definition page 7 52. Which type of appliance does not have the flue gases mixed with the medium being heated: A) direct-fired appliance B) non vented space heater C) immersion appliance D) indirect fired appliance Code book Definitions page 13 53. What action shall a person holding a gas technician certificate take, if an installation does not conform to the requirements of the Gaseous Fuels Regulations but doesn’t present an immediate hazard: A) the person shall immediately turn off the supply of gas to the appliance B) the person shall turn off the supply of gas to the appliance and lock the gas meter C) the person shall notify the distributor and the owner in writing of the condition D) the person shall inform the owner 54. Which code expression describes a building used in connection with production process work, or with storage or warehousing: A) warehouse C) utility building C) process building D) industrial building Code book Definitions page 7 55. The B 149. 1 Code is used to determine: A) the best method to clean gas appliances B) the input of gas appliances C) requirements for installing gas appliances D) the gas pressure for gas entering a house 56. The installation of gas-burning appliances in manufactured homes shall be in accordance with: A) CSA Standard Z240.4.1 Natural Gas and Propane installation Code B) CSA Standard Z240.4.2 C) CSA Standard B139 D) CSA Standard B149.1 57. When in the B149. 1 Code book will a person find the tables required to size a natural gas piping system made of Schedule 40 pipe and that is to to be operated at a pressure of 7” in w.c. (1.75kPa) up to 14 in w.c., based on a pressure drop of 1” w.c. (250 Pa): A) Annex A, table A.1 A.1 (M) B) Annex A, table A.2 A.2 (M) C) Annex A, table A.8 A.8 (M) D) Annex A, table A.9 A.9 (M) 58. Which of the following code expressions describes a building used by a gathering of persons for civic, political, travel, religious, social, educational, recreational, or like purposes, or for the consumption of food and drink: A) commercial building B) assembly building Code book Definitions page 7 C) industrial building D) care or detention occupancy building 59. Is the holder of a valid G.2 certificate certified to work on the carburetion system of a propane powered highway vehicle: A) yes B) no Ontario regulation 215/01 G2 certificate. Clause 21 page 7 C) yes, but only up lo the fuel lock-ott D) no, unless under the direct supervision of a Class "A" mechanic 60. Which type of draft is produced by a device downstream of the combustion zone of an appliance: A) pre draft B) forced draft C) induced draft Code book Definitions page 9 D) atmospheric draft 61. Which code expression is used to describe a structure used in connection with direct trade or service to the public: A) service building B) industrial building C) commercial building Code book Definitions page 7 D) institutional building 62.What code or regulation applies to a propane supplied mobile home that has been converted to a permanent home: A) CAN/CSA-Z240.4.1 B) B149.1 Code book Clause 4.8.2. page 21 C) B149.2 D) National Building Code 63. Instructing the user in the safe and correct operation of newly-installed appliences or equipment is the responsibility of the: A) installation Inspector B) appliance manufacturer C) gas supplier D) appliance installer Code book Clause 4.3.2. page 19 64. What is the expression for a unit, used or intended to be used by persons for whom sleeping accommodation but who are not harbored or detained to receive medical care or are not involuntarily detained: A) residential occupancy B) residential building Code book Definitions page 7 C) bed-sitting room D) non-commercial building 65. Which type of draft is produced by a device upstream of the combustion zone of an appliance: A) pre draft B) forced draft Code book Definitions page 9 C) induced draft D) atmospheric draft 66. Every person commits an offense against the TSS Act who: A) contravenes the Act B) makes a false statement C) fails to comply with an authorization or D) all of the available choices Stanford Module 4 page 20 67. The director may make orders: A) establishing qualifications for inspectors Act 2000 part IV Clause 32 (1) page 25 B) regarding inspections by insurers C) establishing grades of gasoline D) all of the available choices 68. In the case of a fuel related accident, the Director shall: A) order an appropriate investigation Act 2000 part IV Clause 25 (1) page 24 B) supply medical assistance for all injuries C) prepare a cost estimate for the damages D) check the victim's driver's license and proof of insurance. 69. During an inspection by a TSSA inspector, every person shall: A) keep silent B) assist the inspector, but not be responsible to produce anything C) assist the inspector and produce anything where necessary Act 2000 part IV Clause 18 (1) (b) page 19 D) vacate the premises 70. Which type of pilot burns without turndown throughout the entire time the burner is in service, whether the main burner is firing or not? A) continuous pilot Code book Definitions page 15 B) interrupted pilot C) intermittent pilot D) expanding pilot 71. When referring to appliance manufacturer’s instructions, the natural gas and propane installation code: A) recommends that they be left with the owner B) requires that they be kept by the installer for future references C) recommends that they be kept by the installer for future references D) requires that they be left with the end user Code book 4.3.3. page 19 72. What are the pressure test requirements for a piping or tubing installation that is to be supplied with gas at 2 psig (13.8kPa) and that is less than 200 feet (60 m) in length: A) 15 psig (100 kPa) for 15 minutes Code book Table 6.3 page 54 B) 15 psig (100 kPa) for 60 minutes C) 50 psig (340 kPa) for 60 minutes D) 50 psig(100 kPa) for 180 minutes 73. Where the divisional court hears an appeal of a directors ruling, the court decision is: A) subject to appeal to the supreme court of Ontario B) subject to appeal to the ministry of consumer and business services C) final D) subject to appeal to the federal government 74. An interrupted ignition source: A) continues to function during the entire period that the flame is present B) ceases to function after the trial of ignition period Code book Definitions page 15 C) always functions, regardless if there is a call for heat D) is manually activated 75. The maximum fine for an individual found guilty under the Technical Standards and Safety Act is: A) $100.00 B) $25,000.00 C) one year in jail D) $50,000 and/or one year in jail Stanford Module 4 page 20 76. If a heat exchanger is found to be cracked on a residential furnace, a gas technician shall: A) shut off the gas supply and inform the gas distributor of the situation immediately St Module 4 page 32 B) shut off the gas supply and inform the Technical Standards and Safety Authority of the situation immediately C) shut off the gas supply and inform the Ontario Fire Marshal's office of the situation immediately D) shut off the gas supply and inform the Department of Labour of the situation immediately 77. A G.2 Technician: A) may replace a defective residential automatic gas-fired water heater Stanford Module 4 page 26 B) must advise the user of the appliance that a plumber is required to replace the defective water heater C) may recharge an add-on central air conditioner with refrigerant D) may design and install the duct work required for a new installation 78. Which of the following is covered in the B 149.1 Natural Gas and Propane Installation Code: A) marine and pipeline terminals B) underground storage systems C) installation of gas appliances Section 7 page 57 D) propane used on boats 79. What is the term for an appliances which is supplied as a complete until including burner, controls, and integral wiring: A) package unit Code book Definitions page 14 B) unit heater C) combination unit D) boiler 80. if an inspector under the Technical Standards and Safety Act issues an order, or if a Director inspector under the Technical Standards and Safety Act refuses to renew a license, registration or certificate, there is no means of appealing or changing the order or decision. A) True B) False 81. A damper is a: A) device used to keep a gasket moist and malleable B) plate or valve for regulating the flow of air or flue gas Code book Definitions page 9 C) device used to cool and divert flue gases D) fixed flue gas diverter 82. Which type of pilot is supervised by a primary safety control which must sense the presence of the pilot flame prior to gas being admitted to the main burner: A) proved pilot Code book Definitions page 15 B) flame safeguard control C) intermittent pilot D) monitored pilot system 83. Transformers which share a winding or a portion of a winding are called: A) Step down transformers B) Step up transformers C) Auto transformers On line D) Neutral transformers 84. What is the Kilowatt output of an electric heater that has a 240 volt supply and draws 50 amps: Stanford Module 5 page 24 A) 12 P = V x I = 240 V x 50 Amps = 12,000 watts divide by 1000 to convert into Kilowatts B) 120 C) 1,200 D) 12,000 85. The resistance reading across a good fuse will be: A) 0 volts B) 0 ohms C) 0 amps D) infinity 86. On a 120 volt receptacles, the line (hot) connection terminals are: A) grey B) gold C) silver D) green 87. What is the total current in this series circuit? A) 10 Amps B) 3 Amps C) 6 Amps D) 4 Amps IT = VT/RT or ET /RT = 120 V÷ 30 Ω = 4 Amps 88. What is the total resistance in the circuit? A) 30 Ω RT = R₁ + R₂ = 30 Ω B) 200 Ω C) 10 Ω D) 2 Ω 89. What is the voltage drop across R₁? A) 20 Volts B) 40 Volts V₁ = IT X R₁ = 4 Amps X 10 Ω = 40 Volts C) 24 Volts D) 120 Volts 90. What is the voltage drop across R₂? A) 80 Volts V₂ = IT X R₂ = 4 Amps X 20 Ω = 80 Volts B) 5 Volts C) 120 Volts D) 60 Volts 91. What is the total voltage across the circuit? A) 30 Volts B) 120 Volts VT = IT X RT = 4 Amps X 30 Ω = 120 Volts C) 10 Volts D) 240 Volts 92. Which of the following may be used as a neutral wire? A) Black B) White C) Green D) Bare copper 93. Electrical current is measured in: A) volts B) amps C) ohms D) watts 94. The equivalent resistance of two 10 Ohm resistors connected in parallel is: A) 0.1 Ω B) 0.2 Ω C) 5.0 Ω RT = R₁ X R₂ ÷ R₁ + R₂ = 10 Ω X 10 Ω ÷ 10 Ω + 10 Ω = 100 Ω/20 Ω = 5 Ω D) 20.0 Ω this formula only applies for two resistors in parallel circuits 95. One motor horsepower equals approximately ______ watts. A) 340 B) 750 1 horsepower = 1 X 745.7 = 745.7 watts rounding up = 750 watts C) 850 conversion factor 745.7 D) 1000 96. If a circuit is wired so that electrons can flow in only one possible path, the circuit is said to be a/an: A) parallel circuit B) incomplete circuit C) series circuit Stanford Module 5 page 26 D) open circuit 97. Transformers which produce a secondary voltage which is higher than the primary are said to be: A) step down transformers B) step up transformers C) auto transformers D) neutral transformers 98. Which of the following statements is true? A) Direct current electricity alternates polarity (i.e. +/-) regularly B) Direct current flows from the positive terminal to the negative terminal CSA Mod5 Unit2 page 45 C) Batteries supply alternating current (AC) D) Direct current measurements are not polarity sensitive (i.e. black test probe must be on negative terminal) 99. The equivalent resistance of two 10 Ohm resistors connected in series is: A) 0.1 Ω B) 0.2 Ω C) 5.0 Ω D) 20.0 Ω RT = R₁ + R₂ = 20 Ω 100. If the voltage drop across a load in a simple circuit is not the applied voltage, this indicates: A) a poor connection in the circuit B) there is more than one load wired in parallel with the tested load C) the reading is normal D) all of the above 101. In a parallel circuit containing a 3 Ω a 7 Ω and 10 Ω resistor, the current flow is: A) higher through the 3 Ω resistor B) higher through the 7 Ω resistor C) higher through the 10 Ω resistor D) equal through all three resistors 102. Which meter is used to check for continuity? A) amp meter B) ohm meter C) voltmeter D) potentiometer 103. Which of the following wires has the smallest diameter? A) #10 AWG B) #12 AWG C) #14 AWG D) #18 AWG 104. As the current increases in a conductor the magnetic field around the conductor: A) 1ncreases B) decreases C) fluctuates D) remains the same 105. One watt equals _____________Btuh A) 0.34 B) 3.41 C) 3,412 D) 34,120 106. The branch electrical circuit to a heating appliance may be used to supply power to: A) lighting in the furnace room. B) other electrical devices as long as the total amp draw is less than 15 amp. C) accessories necessary for the safe operation of the appliance D) other electrical devices as long as a 20 amp fuse is installed 107. Which of the following wires is rated for the highest current? A) #10 AWG B) #12 AWG C) #14 AWG D) #18 AWG 108. Power is measured in: A) volts B) amps C) ohms D) watts 109. Which statement is correct concerning a parallel circuit? A) The total resistance of the circuit is the sum of each individual resistance in the circuit CSA book Module 5 page 69 B) The total resistance of the circuit will be less than the smallest resistance in the circuit C) The current reading will be the same no matter where it is taken in the circuit D) Voltage drop across each load is less than the voltage supplied 110. For current to flow through a wiring system there must be: A) a difference in electrical pressure between two connected points B) a continuous pathway between two points of flow C) a circuit made of conducting materials D) all of the available choices 111. The total current in a parallel circuit (i. e. taken at source) will be: A) 0 volts B) the supply amperage C) 0 amps D) the sum of the current passing through each branch circuit CSA book Module 5 page 70 112. The resistance reading across a blown fuse will be: A) 0 volts B) 0 ohms C) 0 amps D) infinity 113. Equipment wiring diagrams indicate which of the following? A) supply voltage, wire size from panel, fuse size, internal wiring B) supply voltage, internal wiring, location of controls, field wiring C) supply voltage, fuse size ,type of disconnect switch, factory wiring D) supply voltage, size of control wiring, location of gas valve, factory wiring 114. T F The boiling point of water is 212º F or 100º C 115. A "bill of materials" is a: A) list sent by the manufacturer as a check list of the materials delivered to the site B) purchase order copy indicating the materials which were ordered C) list indicating the materials required to complete an installation (D) list of all the materials used manufacturing the equipment CSA book module 6 page 44 116. Mechanical drawings are used to: A) give the building address, show the equipment location, piping layout, duct sizing and duct layout B) give the building address locate the building on the site, location of adjacent structures, piping layout, and show equipment location C) give the building address, indicate the building size, show its elevations, list the mechanical equipment, and show its location, show all permits D) give the building address, show the owner’s name, installer’s name, permit numbers, the equipment list and the warranty 117. A broken or dotted line on a manufacturer’s wiring diagram normally indicates: A) factory installed wiring B) a white conductor only C) an optional accessory D) field installed wiring Stanford Module 6 page 19 118. To correct a symptom such as a fluctuating flame, a technician should first: A) notify the local utility or fuel supplier B) contact the equipment supplier C) consult the manufacturer's instructions D) exchange the appliance and contact the manufacturer 119. If the scale on a mechanical drawing is 1/8" – 1’0’" then a line measuring 4" in length is actually: A) 32 inches B) 4 feet C) 8 feet D) 32 feet 120. Equipment specifications indicate mainly: A) dimensions required to install the appliance, weight of the equipment, electrical characteristics, size and location of the vent outlet, piping inlet size, model number B) size of building required accommodate the equipment parts list, weight of the equipment, installation clearances, piping outlet size, serial number C) address of installation, required appliance output, electrical characteristics weight of the equipment piping size, model number D) physical dimensions required to install the appliance, weight of the equipment, amount of fuel consumed, CO content of the fuel consumed, electrical characteristics, size and location of the vent outlet 121. Using the graph below on a roof with a 12/12 pitch and no obstructions, the minimum vent height for a natural gas fired appliance is: A) 2 feet B) 4 feet C) 6 feet D) 10 feet 122. Equipment service bulletins are normally issued by the: A) local utility or fuel supplier B) manufacturer C) Technical Standards and Safety Authority D) Canadian Standards Association 123. When asked to remove footwear at the door of a customer, the best approach is: A) to comply and take off your boots and leave them at the door B) to refuse and push past the customer in the interest of safety C) to offer to wear boot covers after explaining that they are safety boots D) to removed your boots and wear slippers instead 124. When listening to a customer’s concern, the best approach is: A) to be sympathetic B) to take notes C) to explain in terms they will understand D) all of the above 125. Of the following list which choices represents a positive customer relation action: A) Using the washing machine as a work bench B) Cleaning up waste created by your actions C) Criticizing their taste in music D) Advising them to call head office for answers 126. The fittings used to protect pipe threads during shipment are not allowed to be used in installations because they: A) are made of steel B) are made with running threads Code book 6.14.3 page 46 C) have no shoulder to put a pipe wrench on D) tighten up too quickly 127. If a gas leak is suspected, the best way to find the location of the gas leak is to: A) install a manometer to determine the rate of loss B) use a soap and water solution to perform a bubble test C) use a lighter match in well-ventilated areas only D) isolate sections of the system and install pressure gauges at each section 128. Unions and swing joints shall NOT be used where piping is to be: A) concealed B) exposed C) a part of a piping extension D) a part of a branch line 129. If the appliance manual shut off valve is in the closed position, movement of the ½ cu. ft. test dial indicates: A) pilot gas is being consumed B) a gas leak at the inlet side of the gas meter C) a gas leak in the line downstream from the gas meter D) the main burner is consuming gas 130. A manual shut off valve used for natural gas shall be: A) a lubricated eccentric type, rated for the pressure or temperature to which it will be subjected. B) a gate type valve rated for the pressure or temperature to which it will be subjected. C) made of stainless steel, rated for the pressure or temperature to which it will be subjected D) a plug, ball or eccentric type rated for the pressure or temperature to which it will be subjected 131. How is a piping system tested after an appliance is connected? A) At 15 psig (103 kPa) for 15 minutes B) At 15 psig (103 kPa) for 60 minutes C) At 50 psig (344 kPa) for 24 hours D) At the normal working pressure of the system for 10 min Using the information given below and Figure 2 of a multiple appliance piping system for natural gas, using schedule 40 steel pipe, answer the following questions -Heater input = 200,000 Btuh each -Duct furnace input = 400,000 Bthh -There are two boilers manifolded together at each location. Each boiler has an Input of 250,000 Btuh 132. The required pipe size for section “A” of the main supply line is A) 2" B) 2 1/2" C) 3" D) 4" 133. The required pipe size for section "E" of the main supply A) 2" B) 2 1/2" C) 3" D) 4" 134. The required pipe size for section 'G' of the main supply line is: A) 1" B) 1 1/4" C) 1 1/2" D) 2" 135. The required pipe size for section 'K' of the main supply line A) 1" B) 1 1/4" C) 1 1/2" D) 2" 136. The required pipe size for section 'B' of the sub-supply line is: A) 1 1/2" B) 2" C) 2 1/2" D) 3" ' 137 The required pipe size for the branch lines supplying the unit heaters is: A) 1" B) 1 1/4" C) 1 1/2" D) 2" 138 The required pipe size for sections 'D' and 'M' supplying the boilers is: A) 1" B) 1 1/4" C) 1 1/2" D) 2" 139. The required pipe size for the branch line supplying the duct furnace is: A) 1" B) 1 1/4" C) 1 1/2" D) 2" 140. A residential central forced air gas furnace heating system works on the principle of drawing: A) cold return air across the burner and expelling it into the conditioned are B) cold air from central areas of the house, then forcing this air across a heat exchanger and back into the house C) cold supply air from central areas of the house then forcing it across a heat exchanger and back into the house through the return air ducts D) conditioned air form outside of the house then forcing it across a heat exchanger and returning it back into the house through the supply air ducts 141. Boilers transfer heat to water through: A) conduction B) radiation C) convection Stanford Module 9 page 33 D) a latent process 142. Which of the following statement is true regarding the venting of gas fired appliances? A) Non-Positive (negative or natural draft) venting for gas fired appliances must have completely sealed joints in vent pipes. B) Positive pressure (power vented) gas fired appliances must have completely sealed joints in vent pipes C) Natural draft appliences are not required to be vented, they draft naturally without venting D) Appliances with positive vent static pressure draw air in from unsealed joints to assist with venting action. 143. What would the likely cause be if orange flashes were evident in a gas flame? A) dust burning in the flame B) carbon dioxide burning in the flame C) hydrogen burning in the flame D) nitrogen burning in the flame 144. Which of the following best describes a thermopile (or powerpile) as used in gas appliances? A) A thermopile or powerpile is a normally closed switch that controls the temperature of the water inside the boiler B) A thermopile or powerpile consist of multiple thermocouples joined together at one end and connected in series to generate more voltage than a single thermocouple. C) A thermopile or powerpile is a control switch used on air heating systems to sense air temperatur e D) A thermopile or powerpile is a flame sensing device which operates on 27-30 millivolts. 145. Atmospheric burners are designed to operate under: A) normal atmospheric pressure with low gas pressure B) high air pressure with low gas pressure C) atmospheric pressure with high gas pressure D) compressed air pressure with high gas pressure 146. The purpose of the high limit switch found on many gas-fired appliances is to: A) establish sate operating temperatures on start up. B) regulate the plenum temperature above a preset minimum. C) shut off the main gas valve should overheating occur. D) turn on the fan motor to cool down the heat exchanger. 147. Decorative appliances to be installed in vented fireplaces mounted on a grate are usually referred as: A) directed vented "wall furnaces” B) vented room heaters C) fireplace D) gas logs 148.Which method of heat transfer is used in a clothes dryer? A) conduction B) radiation C) convection D) thermal 149. What could result if a flame is adjusted with too little primary air? A) flame quenching B) flame dilution C) flame lift D) a luminous flame 150. An indication of excessive primary air is a: A) quenched flame B) lifting flame C) luminous flame D) yellow flame 151. Is the flame patter correct in the following diagram? If not, how would you correct it? A) Pattern is acceptable; no correct needed B) Pattern is not correct; reduce the primary air and/or gas pressure C) Pattern is not correct; drill out the center port D) Pattern is not correct; fully close the air shutter 152. The burner illustrated above is a: A) Atmospheric burner B) Nozzle mix burner C) Premix burner D) Raw gas burner 153. Convection is: A) the transfer of heat by the movement of the fluids Stanford Module 9 page 33 B) the transfer of heat from particle to particle C) the transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves D) the transfer of heat through evaporation 154. A direct vent Appliance: A) vents the products of combustion into the room B) vents to the outdoors and provides combustion air from the outdoors Code book Definitions page 9 C) utilizes a draft hood D) must include barometric control 155. A recessed wall furnace may use which of the following? A) no vent B) "BW" vent Stanford Module 9 page 12 C) "C" vent D) "A" vent 156. A yellow flame at an atmospheric burner could be the result of: A) low gas pressure B) insufficient primary air Stanford Module 3 page 50 C) pilot outage D) excessive primary air 157. Conduction is: A) the transfer of heat by the movement of fluids B) the transfer of heat from particle to particle Stanford Module 9 page 32 C) the transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves D) the transfer of heat through evaporation 158. Infrared heaters may not be used in: A) warehouses B) loading docks C) occupied residences Code book Clause 7.23.1 letter (c) page 75 D) factories 159. An orifice for a propane appliance with the same input as a natural gas appliance is: A) the same size as the natural gas orifice B) smaller than the natural gas orifice Stanford Module 9 page 51 C) larger than the natural gas orifice D) interchangeable with the natural gas orifice 160. What is the TEMPERATURE RISE in a forced warm air furnace? A) the temperature difference between the outdoor air and the return air B) the temperature difference between the supply air and the return air C) the temperature difference between the outdoor air and the supply air D) the temperature difference between the return air and the flue gas 161. Most under fired storage water heaters temperature control utilize: A) liquid-filled capillary tubes B) bimetal sensors C) vapour-filled sensors D) rod and tube sensors Stanford book Module 9 page 25 162. Infrared and tube heaters transfer heat by: A) conduction B) radiation Stanford book Module 9 page 45 C) convection D) a latent process 163. What takes place at the heat exchanger in a forced air furnace? A) gas and air are mixed B) return air is heated C) gas is preheated for combustion D) the flue gases are stored 164. A high intensity surface combustion infrared heater requires: A) no vent B) a class "B" vent B) a class "BW" vent C) a class "C" vent 165. No one may initially activate a 300,000 Btuh input gas appliance connected to a piping system: A) unless the installation is inspected by a TSSA Inspector B) unless the installation is inspected by a G.2 technician or higher C) unless the installation is inspected by a G.3 technician or higher D) unless the installation is inspected by a GP technician or higher