Untitled 3.pdf Biology Past Paper PDF

**Which of the following is a part of the second line of defence against microorganisms?** a. Gastric aci b. Phagocytes c. Sebum d. Cilia **Examples of rst line of defense include** a. cilia, mucous and lysozymes b. mucous, tears and neutrophils c...

**Which of the following is a part of the second line of defence against microorganisms?** a. Gastric aci b. Phagocytes c. Sebum d. Cilia **Examples of rst line of defense include** a. cilia, mucous and lysozymes b. mucous, tears and neutrophils c. sebum, sweat and macrophages d. lysozymes, vasodilation and in ammation **Saliva and tears contain this enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.** a. Salivase b. Lysozymes c. Amylase d. Sebum **The in ammatory response is characterised by** a. attraction of erythrocytes to the injured site. b. increased vascular permeability to serum proteins in the in amed area. c. vasoconstriction of local capillaries. d. resorption of interstitial uid into the bloodstream. **The aetiology (cause) of the acute in ammatory response could include** a. dust, bites and infection b. vasodilation, histamine and prostaglandins c. neutrophils, histamine and phagocytosis d. pain, heat and swelling **One of the ways in which normal ora bene t the host is by:** a. providing nutrients for the growth of microorganisms b. inhibiting the growth of harmful microorganisms c. inhibiting the production of substances harmful to the host d. maintaining optimum gastric pH fl fi fl fl fl fl fi fl  **Examples of second lines of defence include** a. gastric acid b. lysozymes c. sebum d. natural killer cells **Which nonspeci c defence cell specialises in attacking early cancer cells and virus-infected cells?** a. Natural killer cells b. Macrophages c. Mast cells d. Neutrophils **A chemical released by virus-infected cells to protect uninfected cells is called** a. interferons b. keratin c. complement d. lysozymes **The main phagocytic cells in the body are** a. macrophages and lymphocytes. b. macrophages and neutrophils. c. neutrophils and basophils. d. macrophages and natural killer (NK) cells. **Which of the following belongs to the proliferative phase of wound healing?** a. Remodelling of collagen to increase tissue strength b. Vasoconstriction to stop bleeding c. Acute in ammatory response d. Formation of new epithelial tissue **Swelling from Acute In ammatory Response (AIR) is due to** a. migration of white blood cells into injured site due to chemotaxis b. leakage of uid into surrounding tissue due to increased permeability of blood vessels c. leakage of uid into surrounding tissue due to vasoconstriction of damaged blood vessels d. migration of red blood cells into injured site due to chemotaxis fl fl fl fi fl **Which type of microorganism produces endospores?** a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Prions **Bacteria can be classi ed as gram positive (+) or gram negative (-) based on** a. cell wall structure b. cell shape and size c. disease it causes d. nuclear material type **Which of the following is described as a mutated protein which is responsible for Mad Cow disease and Creutzfeldt-Jakobs disease?** a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Protozoa d. Prion **Which of the following microorganisms has the characteristics of possessing a cell wall and the absence of a nucleus?** a. Fungus b. Bacteria c. Protozoa d. Virus **Which of the following microorganisms can only reproduce by invading a host cell?** a. Fungus b. Virus c. Prion d. Protozoa **Which of the following structures are used by bacteria for attachment to a surface?** a. Glycocalyx b. Ribosomes c. Fimbriae fi d. Flagella **Which of the following microorganisms can be described as consisting of nuclear material surrounded by a capsid and needs to invade a host cell to replicate?** a. Virus b. Protozoa c. Bacteria d. Prion **An opportunistic infection is** a. an infection that does not produce any recognisable signs and symptoms b. an infection acquired only in a healthcare facility c. an infection caused by organisms that do not normally cause disease but can under certain conditions d. an infection that can only occur from an exogenous source **An example of an endogenous infection would be** a. an infection which relates to some genetic abnormality b. an infection caused by organisms from the person's own gastrointestinal tract c. an infection of a surgical wound with organisms from another patient d. a lung infection in which the causative organisms are inhaled **A healthcare associated infection is** a. an infection that does not produce any recognisable signs and symptoms b. an infection that can only occur from an exogenous source c. an infection acquired only in a healthcare facility d. an infection caused by organisms that do not normally cause disease but can under certain conditions **Vancomycin-resistant enterococci** a. are resistant to vancomycin but not to other drugs b. don’t survive well in the hospital environment c. can cause surgical wound infections d. most often cause infections in healthy people **A superbug is a microorganism which** a. is better at causing disease b. is able to mutate very quickly c. is only found in hospitals d. is resistant to multiple types of antibiotics **A healthcare acquired infection (HAI) is one which is** a. caused by normal ora of the nose b. present in a patient at the time of hospitalisation c. readily treated with antibiotics d. acquired whilst in a healthcare facility **Which body site is most commonly associated with a hospital-acquired infection?** a. Lower respiratory tract b. Urinary tract c. Surgical site d. Skin **Which of the following are the most common causes of hospital-acquired infections?** a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Blood borne-viruses d. Gastrointestinal viruses **Methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA) most commonly colonises** a. the liver b. the bladder c. the lungs d. the nose **A subclinical infection is** a. an infection caused by organisms that do not normally cause disease but can under certain conditions b. an infection acquired only in a healthcare facility c. an infection that can only occur from an exogenous source d. an infection that does not produce any recognisable signs and symptoms **The study of the use, e ects and mode of action of drugs is** a. pharmacokinetics fl ff  b. pharmacogenetics c. pharmacodynamics d. pharmacology **Transdermal administration is most appropriately administered** a. in the form of a patch b. using a needle and syringe c. orally d. using a suppository **Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of** a. bioavailability b. potency c. toxicity d. e cacy **The most e ective barrier to drug absorption is the** a. stomach lining b. placenta c. skin d. blood-brain **A drug with a high receptor a nity would be** a. always antagonistic b. more potent c. less e cacious d. partially agonistic **In the 20th century the most common source of drugs was** a. from fungi b. by genetic engineering c. from plants d. made synthetically **Microsomes for drug metabolism are found in the** a. cells lining the stomach ffi ffi ff ffi  b. cells of the liver c. cells lining the colon wall d. cells of the kidney tubules **Polypharmacy is more common in patients** a. with increasing age b. after surgery c. who are female d. when prescribed by a naturopath **The half-life of morphine is 3 hours. A 25 mg dose is administered at 10 a.m. How much will remain in the body by 4 p.m.?** a. 12.5 mg b. 6.25 mg c. 50 mg d. 3.125 mg **The extent of a drug’s protein binding determines its** a. bioavailability b. potency c. solubility d. pharmacology **The e ectiveness of parenteral administration of a drug is compromised** a. when aseptic techniques are used for administration b. by poor vascularisation at the site of administration c. when IV administration allows instantaneous release of the drug d. when optimal dosage is used for administration **Rectal administration is most appropriately administered** a. by pessary b. as a suppository **Which of the following is a part of the second line of defence against microorganisms?** b. Phagocytes **Examples of rst line of defense include** ff fi  a. cilia, mucous and lysozymes **Saliva and tears contain this enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.** b. Lysozymes **The in ammatory response is characterised by** b. increased vascular permeability to serum proteins in the in amed area. **The aetiology (cause) of the acute in ammatory response could include** a. dust, bites and infection **One of the ways in which normal ora bene t the host is by:** b. inhibiting the growth of harmful microorganisms **Examples of second lines of defence include** d. natural killer cells **Which nonspeci c defence cell specialises in attacking early cancer cells and virus-infected cells?** a. Natural killer cells **A chemical released by virus-infected cells to protect uninfected cells is called** a. interferons **The main phagocytic cells in the body are** b. macrophages and neutrophils. **Which of the following belongs to the proliferative phase of wound healing?** d. Formation of new epithelial tissue **Swelling from Acute In ammatory Response (AIR) is due to** b. leakage of uid into surrounding tissue due to increased permeability of blood vessels **Which type of microorganism produces endospores?** b. Bacteria **Bacteria can be classi ed as gram positive (+) or gram negative (-) based on** a. cell wall structure **Which of the following is described as a mutated protein which is responsible for Mad Cow disease and Creutzfeldt-Jakobs disease?** d. Prion **Which of the following microorganisms has the characteristics of possessing a cell wall and the absence of a nucleus?** b. Bacteria fl fl fi fi fl fl fl fi fl **Which of the following microorganisms can only reproduce by invading a host cell?** b. Virus **Which of the following structures are used by bacteria for attachment to a surface?** c. Fimbriae **Which of the following microorganisms can be described as consisting of nuclear material surrounded by a capsid and needs to invade a host cell to replicate?** a. Virus **An opportunistic infection is** c. an infection caused by organisms that do not normally cause disease but can under certain conditions **An example of an endogenous infection would be** b. an infection caused by organisms from the person's own gastrointestinal tract **A healthcare associated infection is** c. an infection acquired only in a healthcare facility **Vancomycin-resistant enterococci** c. can cause surgical wound infections **A superbug is a microorganism which** d. is resistant to multiple types of antibiotics **A healthcare acquired infection (HAI) is one which is** d. acquired whilst in a healthcare facility **Which body site is most commonly associated with a hospital-acquired infection?** b. Urinary tract **Which of the following are the most common causes of hospital-acquired infections?** a. Bacteria **Methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA) most commonly colonises** d. the nose **A subclinical infection is** d. an infection that does not produce any recognisable signs and symptoms **The study of the use, e ects and mode of action of drugs is** d. pharmacology **Transdermal administration is most appropriately administered** ff  a. in the form of a patch **Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of** c. toxicity **The most e ective barrier to drug absorption is the** c. skin **A drug with a high receptor a nity would be** b. more potent **In the 20th century the most common source of drugs was** d. made synthetically **Microsomes for drug metabolism are found in the** b. cells of the liver **Polypharmacy is more common in patients** a. with increasing age **The half-life of morphine is 3 hours. A 25 mg dose is administered at 10 a.m. How much will remain in the body by 4 p.m.?** b. 6.25 mg **The extent of a drug’s protein binding determines its** a. bioavailability **The e ectiveness of parenteral administration of a drug is compromised** b. by poor vascularisation at the site of administration **Rectal administration is most appropriately administered** b. as a suppository The scientist credited with proposing the germ theory of disease was a. Robert Koch b. Joseph Lister c. Robert Hooke d. Louis Pasteur The infectious substance of a prion is a. glycoprotein b. RNA ff ff ffi  c. DNA d. protein Which of the following possess its genetic material surrounded by a nuclear envelope? a. Prion b. Protozoa c. Virus d. Bacteria Who was the scientist that was the rst to use the term "cell"? a. Joseph Lister b. Anton van Leeuwenhoek c. Robert Hooke d. Louis Pasteur Cell appendages used for bacteria to attach to surfaces is a. spikes b. cilia c. mbriae d. agella Which one of the following statements is true for viral replication? a. Virus must invade a host cell in order to replicate. b. Virus undergoes replication by budding. c. Virus only needs a source of oxygen to replicate. d. Virus can only replicate in a moist environment. Which one of the following statements is true for viral replication? a. Virus must invade a host cell in order to replicate. b. Virus undergoes replication by budding. c. Virus only needs a source of oxygen to replicate. d. Virus can only replicate in a moist environment. A major di erence between human body cells and procaryotic cells is a. human body cells have a cell wall and procaryotic cells do not. b. human cells lack a true nucleus but procaryotic cells do. fi fl ff fi  c. procaryotic cells have a cell wall and human body cells do not. d. procaryotic cells have organelles and human body cells do not. When Acute In ammatory Response (AIR) is activated in response to tissue injury, which white blood cell enters the injured site to engulf pathogens and dead cells? a. Mast cells b. Neutrophils c. Lymphocytes d. Erythrocytes When Acute In ammatory Response (AIR) is activated in response to tissue injury, which white blood cell enters the injured site to engulf pathogens and dead cells? a. Mast cells b. Neutrophils c. Lymphocytes d. Erythrocytes During the in ammatory process vasodilation accounts for which of the following signs of in ammation? a. swelling and redness b. Heat and pain c. Redness and heat d. Redness and pain Which antimicrobial protein is present in saliva and tears? a. Interferons b. Lysozymes c. Complement system d. Histamine Which of the following wound healing events is a feature of the In ammatory phase? a. Vasoconstriction to decrease blood ow in the injured tissue. b. Repeating laying of collagen in the new tissue to increase tissue strength. c. Fibroblasts invade the site and secrete collagen into the tissue. d. Growth of new capillaries within the tissue to restore vascular supply. The innate defence system is always prepared to protect the body a. from viruses only fl fl fl fl fl fl  b. from temperature changes c. from bacteria only d. from all foreign substances Which of the following are the body's second line of defence? a. Natural killer cells and phagocytes b. Mucous membranes and leukocytes c. in ammation and skin d. Skin and macrophages An important innate defence mechanism in the urinary tract is/are a. erythrocytes b. normal urine ow c. glomerular ltration d. antibodies Isolating an infected person to prevent the spread of the infectious agent is to break the chain of infection at the a. portal of entry b. mode of transmission c. portal of exit d. source In the chain of infection, the mode of transmission refers to a. the process by which microorganisms are transfered from a reservoir or source to a susceptible host. b. the opening by which microorganisms enter the susceptible host. c. the opening by which microorganisms exit the infected host. d. the process by which microorganisms multiple within the new host to cause an infection. If a person acquires an infection by handling a contaminated telephone, it is termed a. mechanical transmission b. indirect contact transmission c. direct contact transmission d. vehicle transmission The place where a pathogen resides in the chain of infection is called the fl fi fl a. mode of transmission b. portal of entry c. reservoir d. portal of exit A mode of transmission that involves insects transmitting the pathogen from one host to another is a. common vehicle transmission b. vector transmission c. indirect contact transmission d. airbourne transmission An inanimate contaminated object that can transmit disease is called a a. virus b. vector c. pathogen d. fomite The process of synthesising a protein from a mRNA template is termed a. translation b. transcription c. transformation d. signaling The RNA used as a template to synthesise a protein on a ribosome is called a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. cRNA Which of the following is the mode of action for Penicillin? a. Inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis. b. Inhibits cell wall synthesis c. Inhibits bacterial metabolic processes. d. Inhibits protein synthesis on ribosomes. a. Trimethoprim b. Penicillin c. Tetracycline d. Metronidazole What are probiotics? a. Bacteria that have developed resistance to normal antibiotics b. A range of narrow spectrum antibiotics used to kill bacteria c. Bacteria that promote good health in the digestive system d. Selective carbohydrates eaten to promote good bacterial growth in the digestive system The process of copying information from a strand of DNA to produce mRNA is termed  a. transcription b. mitosis c. translation d. signaling The RNA generated from one of the DNA strands is called a. tRNA b. cRNA c. mRNA d. rRNA In a disc di usion test, used to assess which antibiotic is most e ective in inhibiting bacterial growth, the clear area around a disc represent the susceptibility of the microorganism to the antibiotic. This area is also known as the zone of a. inhibition b. resistance c. susceptibility d. restriction Protein synthesis takes place on a. lysosomes b. mitochondria c. golgi apparatus d. ribosomes How are antibiotics that block the synthesis of folic acid able to maintain selective toxicity? a. The process by which human cells synthesis folic acid is di erent to bacteria. b. Human cells do not transport the antibiotic into the cytoplasm while the bacteria does. c. Bacteria must synthesis folic acid while humans acquire it from their diet. d. Humans do not need folic acid while bacteria do. The ability for a drug to kill or inhibit the microorganism responsible for the disease without causing harm to the host cells is termed a. Therapeutic index b. bioavailability c. selective toxicity d. bacteriostatic An antibiotic that has the ability to inhibit replication of the microorganism so the host's immune system can kill the microorganism is termed a. bioavailability b. bactericidal c. bacteriostatic d. prophylactic Why are antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis at ribosomes able to have selective toxicity? a. Human ribosomes are di erent to bacterial ribosomes b. The antibiotic is destroyed by enzymes produced by the human cells c. Bacteria absorb all the antibiotic leaving none left for the human cell d. Human cells do not have ribosomes2 The following questions already exist in the list: **The scientist credited with proposing the germ theory of disease was** a. Robert Koch b. Joseph Lister c. Robert Hooke ff ff ff ff  d. Louis Pasteur --- **The infectious substance of a prion is** a. glycoprotein b. RNA c. DNA d. protein --- **Who was the scientist that was the rst to use the term "cell"?** a. Joseph Lister b. Anton van Leeuwenhoek c. Robert Hooke d. Louis Pasteur --- **Cell appendages used for bacteria to attach to surfaces is** a. spikes b. cilia c. mbriae d. agella --- **Which one of the following statements is true for viral replication?** a. Virus must invade a host cell in order to replicate. b. Virus undergoes replication by budding. c. Virus only needs a source of oxygen to replicate. d. Virus can only replicate in a moist environment. --- **A major di erence between human body cells and procaryotic cells is** a. human body cells have a cell wall and procaryotic cells do not. b. human cells lack a true nucleus but procaryotic cells do. c. procaryotic cells have a cell wall and human body cells do not. fi fl ff fi  d. procaryotic cells have organelles and human body cells do not. --- **When Acute In ammatory Response (AIR) is activated in response to tissue injury, which white blood cell enters the injured site to engulf pathogens and dead cells?** a. Mast cells b. Neutrophils c. Lymphocytes d. Erythrocytes --- **During the in ammatory process vasodilation accounts for which of the following signs of in ammation?** a. swelling and redness b. Heat and pain c. Redness and heat d. Redness and pain --- **Which antimicrobial protein is present in saliva and tears?** a. Interferons b. Lysozymes c. Complement system d. Histamine --- **The innate defence system is always prepared to protect the body** a. from viruses only b. from temperature changes c. from bacteria only d. from all foreign substances --- **Which of the following are the body's second line of defence?** a. Natural killer cells and phagocytes b. Mucous membranes and leukocytes fl fl fl  c. in ammation and skin d. Skin and macrophages --- **An important innate defence mechanism in the urinary tract is/are** a. erythrocytes b. normal urine ow c. glomerular ltration d. antibodies --- **Isolating an infected person to prevent the spread of the infectious agent is to break the chain of infection at the** a. portal of entry b. mode of transmission c. portal of exit d. source --- **In the chain of infection, the mode of transmission refers to** a. the process by which microorganisms are transferred from a reservoir or source to a susceptible host. b. the opening by which microorganisms enter the susceptible host. c. the opening by which microorganisms exit the infected host. d. the process by which microorganisms multiply within the new host to cause an infection. What information will a serology report provide? - a. Resistance your body has developed to any antibiotics - b. Best suited antibiotics to treat an infection - c. The microorganism causing an infection - d. Presence of speci c antibodies in the blood Which cells of the speci c immune system does the human immunode ciency virus (HIV) destroy? - a. Helper T cells - b. CD8 cells - c. Antigen presenting cells - d. Plasma cells B and T lymphocytes originate in the fl fi fl fi fi fi  - a. thymus - b. red bone marrow - c. spleen - d. liver The proteins secreted by plasma cells are called - a. histamine - b. antibodies - c. cytokines - d. antigens T lymphocytes are involved in - a. nonspecifc immunity - b. humoral immunity - c. innate immunity - d. cell mediated immunity The secretion of antibodies by lymphocyte B cells provides - a. humoral immunity - b. cell mediated immunity - c. innate immunity - d. passive immunity What is the role of CD 8 cells? - a. A toxic attack on antigen associated invading cells - b. To release cytokines that activate the immune system - c. To secrete antibodies - d. To stimulate non-speci c killer cells to attack invading cells All of the following cells belong to the speci c immune system **except** - a. antigen presenting cells - b. natural killer cells - c. memory B cells - d. cytotoxic T cells An elderly person that develops shingles would have been previously exposed to which disease? - a. Chicken pox - b. Measles virus - c. Whooping cough - d. In uenza virus Vaccinating a person is an example of - a. active arti cial immunity - b. passive arti cial immunity - c. passive natural immunity - d. active natural immunity Plasma cells and memory cells both belong to - a. humoral immune response - b. cell mediated immune response - c. innate immune response - d. nonspeci c immune response fl fi fi fi fi fi  The two categories of lymphocytes are - a. platelets and macrophages - b. B and T cells - c. antibodies and T cells - d. leukocytes and erythrocytes Antibodies acquired by a baby during breast feeding is an example of - a. active natural immunity - b. passive natural immunity - c. passive arti cial immunity - d. active arti cial immunity Which of the following is an example of active natural immunity? - a. Becoming infected by the bacteria that causes whooping cough - b. Vaccination against chicken pox - c. Injection of antibodies against hepatitis A - d. Antibodies acquired during breast feeding Cytotoxic T cells and memory cells both belong to - a. humoral immune response - b. nonspeci c immune response - c. innate immune response - d. cell mediated immune response Maturation of B lymphocytes takes place in the - a. liver - b. thymus - c. thyroid gland - d. red bone marrow What is the role of helper T cells? - a. To secrete antibodies - b. A toxic attack on antigen associated invading cells - c. To digest and present the antigen to the immune system - d. To release cytokines that activate the immune system Another name for adaptive immunity is - a. innate defence system - b. speci c immunity - c. nonspeci c immunity - d. rst line of defence Maturation of T lymphocytes takes place in the - a. thyroid gland - b. thymus - c. red bone marrow - d. liver Cell mediated immune response involves - a. B lymphocytes fi fi fi fi fi fi  - b. T lymphocytes - c. neutrophils - d. natural killer cells What is produced as part of the humoral immune response? - a. Lysozymes - b. Antibodies - c. Platelets - d. Antigens Which of the following is an example of active arti cial immunity? - a. Injection of antibodies against hepatitis A - b. Vaccination against chicken pox - c. Becoming infected by the bacteria that causes whooping cough - d. Antibodies acquired during breast feeding Activated helper T cells release molecules called - a. cytokines - b. histamine - c. antigens - d. antibodies Which of the following is classi ed as a primary lymphoid organ? a. Spleen b. Tonsils c. Peyer's patches d. Red bone marrow Lymph enters a lymph node via a. lymphatic trunks b. e erent lymphatic vessels c. lymphatic ducts d. a erent lymphatic vessels The large cluster of lymph nodes located in the neck region are called a. inguinal nodes b. cervical nodes c. thyroid nodes d. axillary nodes When lymph nodes trap foreign cells they will a. shrink in size b. swell in size c. multiply in number d. remain normal is size and number Which of the following body regions will the right lymphatic duct drain? a. Left side of head b. Right side of head c. Left lower limb d. Right lower limb The composition of lymph di ers to that of blood in that lymph has a a. higher percentage of sugars b. higher percentage of proteins c. lower percentage of lipids d. higher percentage of fats ff ff ff fi fi  In the sequence of lymphatic drainage, lymphatic trunks will drain into lymphatic a. ducts b. capillaries c. nodes d. veins Collections of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) that protect mucosal surfaces include all of the following EXCEPT a. Peyer's patches b. thymus c. tonsils d. appendix The uid present within the lymphatic system is called a. plasma b. lymph c. blood d. interstitial uid The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following body areas EXCEPT a. left upper limb b. left lower limb c. right upper limb d. right lower limb The large cluster of lymph nodes located in the groin region are called a. axillary nodes b. cervical nodes c. pelvic nodes d. inguinal nodes All of the following are normal components of lymph EXCEPT a. red blood cells b. water c. fat d. proteins Which of the following organs lters lymph? a. Spleen b. Lymph nodes c. Tonsils d. Thymus The specialised lymphatic vessels present within villi of small intestines, that serve to absorb digested fats are called a. microvilli b. Peyer's patches c. lacteals d. appendix All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system EXCEPT a. transportation of dietary fats b. drainage of excess interstitial uid c. transportation of dietary sugars d. carrying out immune responses Lymphoid tissue associated with the digestive tract include all of the following EXEPT a. Islets of Langerhans b. tonsils fl fl fi fl  c. Peyer's patches d. appendix Lymphoid tissue present at the entrance of the pharynx are called a. appendix b. Peyer's patches c. tonsils d. thymus Lymph nodes swell when exposed to foreign cells due to a. cells in the node becoming cancerous b. lymphocytes increasing in number c. the foreign cell multiplying in number and overtaking the node d. uid build up within the nodes fl