Microbiology Test Questions (Supplement) PDF

MICROBIOLOGY TEST QUESTIONS (SUPPLEMENT) BACTERIOLOGY 1. Staphylococci are: - a. Gram-positive - b. acid-alcohol resistant - c. Gram-negative - d. not stained by Gram 2. Which statements are not true: - a. staphylococci are motile - b. staphylococci are non-motile - c. stap...

MICROBIOLOGY TEST QUESTIONS (SUPPLEMENT) BACTERIOLOGY 1. Staphylococci are: - a. Gram-positive - b. acid-alcohol resistant - c. Gram-negative - d. not stained by Gram 2. Which statements are not true: - a. staphylococci are motile - b. staphylococci are non-motile - c. staphylococci are spore-forming bacteria - d. staphylococci are facultative anaerobes 3. Which statement is true: - a. staphylococci group into chain-like formations - b. staphylococci group into rod-like formations - c. staphylococci group into grape-like formations - d. staphylococci group into necklace-like formations 4. Staphylococci are: - a. filamentous in shape - b. concave in shape - c. spherical in shape - d. rod-shaped - e. spiral in shape 5. For staphylococci, the following statements are true: - a. coagulase-positive - b. coagulase-negative - c. catalase-positive - d. catalase-negative 6. Match the appropriate type of staphylococci according to their ability to produce the enzyme coagulase: - S. aureus coagulase-negative - S. epidermidis coagulase-negative - S. intermedius coagulase-positive - S. saprophyticus coagulase-positive 7. Coagulase-positive types of staphylococci are: - a. pathogenic - b. non-pathogenic - c. conditionally pathogenic - d. conditionally non-pathogenic 8. Which statements are true: - a. all types of staphylococci secrete catalase, which converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen - b. all types of staphylococci secrete coagulase, present in both bound and free form - c. all types of staphylococci have protein A, capsule, glycocalyx - d. peptidoglycan is present in both coagulase-positive and coagulase-negative strains - e. glycocalyx is present in both coagulase-positive and coagulase-negative strains 9. Which statements are true: - a. the catalase test is used to differentiate staphylococci from meningococci - b. staphylococci are catalase-positive, as are streptococci - c. meningococci produce catalase - d. the catalase test is used to differentiate staphylococci from gonococci - e. the catalase test is used to differentiate staphylococci from streptococci 10. Which statements are true: - a. the catalase test is performed on a slide - b. erythrocytes can give a false positive catalase reaction - c. as a sign of a negative catalase reaction on the slide, gas bubbles form - d. 3% H₂O₂ is used for the catalase test 11. Which statements are not true: - a. protein A is present in the cell wall of many strains of S. aureus - b. protein A has an anti-phagocytic function - c. protein A binds to the Fc fragment of IgG3 - d. protein A does not bind to IgG 12. Which statements are true: - a. some strains of S. aureus have a capsule that inhibits phagocytosis - b. most strains of S. aureus have a clumping factor on the cell wall surface - c. the glycocalyx of S. aureus has an anti-phagocytic function - d. the clumping factor is synonymous with bound coagulase 13. Which statements about the coagulase test are true: - a. a positive reaction for bound coagulase is considered to be the absence of aggregate formation at the site of the test - b. a negative reaction for bound coagulase is considered to be the absence of aggregate formation at the site of the test - c. in the test for free coagulase, the appearance of a solid clot in the test tube indicates a positive reaction - d. in the test for free coagulase, the appearance of a solid clot in the test tube indicates a negative reaction 14. Which statements are not true: - a. bound coagulase is present in the culture filtrate of pathogenic staphylococci - b. the coagulase test is used to differentiate S. aureus from S. epidermidis - c. the bound coagulase test is performed on a slide - d. the coagulase test is used to differentiate S. aureus from S. saprophyticus - e. the free coagulase test is not considered the reference test for identifying S. aureus 15. Which statements are true: - a. S. aureus, unlike S. epidermidis, has the ability to ferment mannitol - b. S. epidermidis, unlike S. saprophyticus, is sensitive to novobiocin - c. S. aureus produces DNase and thermostable endonuclease - d. S. aureus is resistant to novobiocin 16. Which statement is true: - a. colonies of S. aureus are rough, non-glossy, concave, and red-stained - b. colonies of S. aureus are smooth, glossy, slimy, convex, and golden-yellow stained - c. colonies of S. aureus are never surrounded by a zone of β-hemolysis - d. colonies of S. aureus cannot grow on mannitol salt agar due to the high concentration of salt 17. Lysogenic strains of S. aureus produce the following toxins: - a. streptolysin O - b. enterotoxin - c. streptolysin S - d. exfoliatin - e. TSST-1 - f. tetanospasmin 18. Which statements about staphylococcal hemolysins are true: - a. alpha hemolysin lyses erythrocytes and damages platelets - b. alpha hemolysin has a strong effect on the smooth muscle of blood vessels - c. delta hemolysin is not produced by staphylococci - d. beta hemolysin breaks down sphingomyelin - e. beta hemolysin does not break down sphingomyelin 19. Match the S. aureus toxins with the disease they cause: - enterotoxin staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome - exfoliatin staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome - TSST-1 staphylococcal food poisoning 20. The incubation period for staphylococcal food poisoning is: - a. 2-6 hours - b. 12-24 hours - c. 24-48 hours - d. 48-72 hours 21. Which statements are true: - a. enterotoxin is thermolabile - b. enterotoxin causes food poisoning - c. enterotoxin is ingested with food - d. enterotoxin acts on the vomiting center - e. enterotoxin is most commonly found in dairy and meat products 22. S. aureus is present on the nasal and pharyngeal mucosa of: - a. 1-2% of healthy people - b. 5-10% of healthy people - c. 15-20% of healthy people - d. 40-50% of healthy people 23. In staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, lesions occur: - a. only on the mucosa - b. only on the skin - c. on both the skin and mucosa - d. either on the skin or mucosa 24. S. aureus causes two groups of diseases in humans: ________________ and _______________ 25. Which statement is true: - a. pyogenic diseases caused by S. aureus affect only the skin - b. pyogenic diseases caused by S. aureus affect only the mucosa - c. pyogenic diseases caused by S. aureus do not affect the skin and mucosa - d. pyogenic diseases caused by S. aureus affect the skin, mucosa, deep tissues, and organs 26. Which statements are true: - a. infections with S. epidermidis occur in cases of colonization of synthetic implants - b. the glycocalyx of S. epidermidis enables its adherence to artificial valves, catheters - c. S. epidermidis is a conditionally pathogenic bacterium - d. S. epidermidis is part of the normal human flora on the skin and mucous membranes 27. Which statements are not true: - a. S. saprophyticus has the ability to adhere to the mucosa of the urinary tract in young women - b. S. saprophyticus is not a conditionally pathogenic bacterium - c. S. saprophyticus is not considered a uropathogenic bacterium - d. S. saprophyticus causes opportunistic infections in immunocompromised individuals 28. Which pyogenic skin diseases are caused by S. aureus: - a. furuncles - b. carbuncles - c. urticaria - d. folliculitis - e. impetigo 29. Match the type of staphylococcus with the disease it causes: - S. aureus cellulitis - Lysogenic strains of S. aureus staphylococcal food poisoning - S. saprophyticus intravenous catheter infections - S. epidermidis urinary tract infections in young women 30. Which statements are not true: - a. S. aureus cannot cause sepsis - b. S. aureus cannot cause folliculitis - c. S. aureus can cause the formation of furuncles - d. S. aureus can cause cellulitis 31. Which statement about furuncle is true: - a. furuncle is not caused by S. aureus - b. furuncle is a necrotic pyogenic infection of the skin - c. furuncle is caused by S. pyogenes - d. furuncle is an inflammatory disease of the dermis and hypodermis 32. A carbuncle consists of a group of _______________ 33. Which statements are true: - a. S. aureus can cause pneumonia, meningitis - b. S. aureus can cause scarlet fever - c. S. aureus can cause enterocolitis after prolonged antibiotic use - d. S. aureus can cause osteomyelitis with necrosis of bone tissue - e. S. aureus can cause conjunctivitis 34. Which statements about staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS) are true: - a. STSS is caused by pyrogenic toxin - b. STSS is not a multisystem disease - c. STSS is a multisystem disease - d. STSS can recur - e. STSS is caused by enterotoxin A 35. Which statement is not true: - a. S. aureus can cause erysipelas - b. S. aureus can cause endocarditis - c. S. aureus can cause endocarditis - d. S. aureus can cause abscesses in internal organs 36. Which statements are true: - a. we can detect S. aureus toxins in patient material - b. detection of staphylococcal toxins is based on immunological methods - c. staphylococcal toxins are detected by indirect immunoagglutination - d. staphylococcal toxins are detected by the gel immunodiffusion test 37. Bacteriological diagnosis of diseases caused by staphylococci is based on their: - ___________ characteristics - __________ characteristics - ___________ characteristics - ___________ characteristics 38. Which statements are true: - a. staphylococci show resistance to a large number of antibiotics - b. staphylococci have the ability to produce β-lactamase - c. staphylococci are highly sensitive to β-lactam antibiotics - d. vancomycin is the most effective drug in the treatment of staphylococcal infections 39. Which statements are true: - a. staphylococcus can be resistant to penicillinase-resistant penicillins - b. methicillin-resistant staphylococcal strains are sensitive to β-lactam antibiotics - c. there are methicillin-resistant strains of S. aureus and S. epidermidis - d. resistance to methicillin is observed in a small number of S. epidermidis 40. Which statements are not true: - a. after identifying staphylococci, an antibiogram should be performed - b. after identifying staphylococci, an antibiogram is unnecessary - c. an antibiogram is performed only for coagulase-positive staphylococci - d. an antibiogram is performed only for coagulase-negative staphylococci 41. Which statements are not true: - a. to distinguish S. aureus from S. saprophyticus, methicillin is included in the antibiogram - b. to distinguish S. epidermidis from S. aureus, novobiocin is included in the antibiogram - c. to distinguish S. epidermidis from S. saprophyticus, methicillin is included in the antibiogram - d. to distinguish S. epidermidis from S. saprophyticus, vancomycin is included in the antibiogram 42. Which statement is true: - a. streptococci are divided into groups based on group-specific polysaccharide S - b. streptococci are classified based on their ability to hemolyze blood agar into α, β, and γ hemolytic - c. there are no non-hemolytic streptococci - d. streptococci are divided into groups based on group-specific proteins (M, T, R) 43. Streptococci are divided into groups based on group-specific polysaccharide C: - a. 2 groups - b. 5 groups - c. 10 groups - d. 15 groups - e. over 20 groups 44. What shapes can hemolytic streptococci have: - a. spherical - b. filamentous - c. concave - d. spiral - e. candle flame 45. S. pyogenes is: - a. filamentous - b. concave - c. rod-shaped - d. spiral - e. spherical 46. S. pyogenes is: - a. acid-fast resistant bacterium - b. Gram-positive - c. Gram-negative - d. does not stain by Gram 47. Which statements are not true: - a. S. pyogenes is motile - b. S. pyogenes is non-motile - c. S. pyogenes is sporogenic - d. S. pyogenes is asporogenic 48. Which statement is true: - a. S. pyogenes groups in clusters - b. S. pyogenes groups in chains - c. S. pyogenes does not tend to group - d. S. pyogenes groups as diplococci 49. Which statements about the streptococcal capsule are true: - a. the capsule is a significant virulence factor of streptococci - b. the capsule has an antiphagocytic function - c. the capsule is present in all streptococci - d. the capsule consists of fimbriae 50. Which statements about the capsule of S. pyogenes are true: - a. the capsule has pronounced antigenic properties due to its composition - b. the capsule consists of hyaluronic acid - c. capsule synthesis is a genotypically and phenotypically unstable characteristic - d. the amount of capsular substance varies from strain to strain 51. Which statements about the fimbriae of S. pyogenes are true: - a. fimbriae are extensions of the cell wall that cover the surface of the bacterium - b. fimbriae are built by lipoteichoic acid and M protein - c. fimbriae are important for virulence - d. fimbriae have an antiphagocytic function 52. Which statements about the fimbriae of S. pyogenes are not true: - a. fimbriae are cytoplasmic extensions - b. fimbriae are capsular extensions - c. fimbriae prevent the adherence of the bacterium to specific receptors - d. lipoteichoic acid is important for the binding of the bacterium to epithelial cells 53. Which statements about the M protein of S. pyogenes are true: - a. M protein is an important virulence factor of S. pyogenes - b. M-positive and M-negative types of S. pyogenes do not differ in virulence - c. M protein has an antiphagocytic function - d. M protein is an excellent antigen 54. Which statements about erythrogenic toxin are true: - a. erythrogenic toxin is produced by lysogenic strains of S. pyogenes - b. there are several antigenically different types of toxin - c. an important type of erythrogenic toxin is streptolysin - d. erythrogenic toxin is important in the pathogenesis of purulent angina 55. **S. pyogenes** produces two hemolysins: - ……………….. - ………………... 56. Which statements are true: - a. Streptolysin O is active in the oxidized state - b. Streptolysin O is a good antigen - c. Streptolysin O is oxygen-sensitive - d. Streptolysin O leads to the production of ASO antibodies 57. Which statements are not true: - a. Streptolysin O has cardiotoxic effects - b. Streptolysin O is a weak antigen - c. Streptolysin O, unlike Streptolysin S, stimulates antibody production - d. Streptolysin O causes stronger hemolysis than Streptolysin S 58. Which statements are true: - a. Streptolysin S is a good antigen - b. Streptolysin S stimulates antibody production - c. Streptolysin S causes beta hemolysis on blood agar - d. Streptolysin S acts toxically on polymorphonuclear leukocytes 59. **S. pyogenes** causes diseases that can be classified into three groups: - _________________ - __________________ - ___________________ 60. What skin diseases can **S. pyogenes** cause: - a. Impetigo - b. Erysipelas - c. Carbuncle - d. Pityriasis - e. Pyoderma - f. Cellulitis 61. Which diseases can **S. pyogenes** cause: - a. Scalded skin syndrome - b. Scarlet fever - c. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome - d. Erysipelas - e. Acute glomerulonephritis - f. Rheumatic fever 62. Which diseases can **S. pyogenes** cause: - a. Erythema nodosum - b. Dental caries - c. Chorea minor - d. Impetigo - e. Pelvic inflammatory disease - f. Otitis media 63. Which statements about streptococcal angina are not true: - a. It is caused by beta-hemolytic streptococcus group A - b. In the pathogenesis of angina, the erythrogenic toxin plays an important role - c. The pathological process begins with the adherence of virulent strains to fibronectin - d. Virulent strains remain on the tissue surface without the possibility of penetrating it 64. Match the pathogen and the disease: - S. pneumoniae Dental caries - S. agalactiae Angina - S. pyogenes Neonatal sepsis - S. mutans Meningitis 65. Which statements about scarlet fever are true: - a. Scarlet fever is caused only by strains of **S. pyogenes** that produce erythrogenic toxin - b. Scarlet fever is caused by all strains of **S. pyogenes** - c. In scarlet fever, signs of general intoxication appear - d. In scarlet fever, skin changes appear 66. Which statements are not true: - a. In the pathogenesis of streptococcal toxic shock syndrome, erythrogenic toxin plays an important role - b. In the pathogenesis of streptococcal toxic shock syndrome, erythrogenic toxin does not play an important role - c. In the pathogenesis of streptococcal toxic shock syndrome, cytokines do not play an important role - d. In the pathogenesis of streptococcal toxic shock syndrome, cytokines play an important role 67. Which diseases from the listed ones belong to post-streptococcal sequelae: a. rheumatic fever b. scarlet fever c. erysipelas d. acute glomerulonephritis e. impetigo f. chorea minor 68. Which statements about rheumatic fever are correct: a. rheumatic fever is a post-streptococcal sequel b. antigenic mimicry is important in the pathogenesis of rheumatic fever c. rheumatic fever damages heart valves d. rheumatic fever does not show a tendency to recur 69. Which statements about acute glomerulonephritis are not correct: a. acute glomerulonephritis does not show a tendency to recur b. crossed antigenic reactivity is involved in the pathogenesis of acute glomerulonephritis c. acute glomerulonephritis does not belong to non-suppurative sequelae d. acute glomerulonephritis does not belong to sterile sequelae 70. Which statements about acute glomerulonephritis are correct: a. acute glomerulonephritis is a post-streptococcal sequel b. immune complexes are involved in the pathogenesis of acute glomerulonephritis c. acute glomerulonephritis shows a tendency to recur d. acute glomerulonephritis can progress to chronic glomerulonephritis 71. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. in broth, the multiplication of S. pyogenes is accompanied by the phenomenon of negative geotaxis b. S. pyogenes forms colonies on blood agar resembling dewdrops c. S. pyogenes forms colonies on blood agar surrounded by a zone of β hemolysis d. S. pyogenes forms colonies on blood agar surrounded by a zone of γ hemolysis 72. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. in broth, the multiplication of S. pyogenes is accompanied by the phenomenon of positive geotaxis b. S. pyogenes forms colonies on blood agar surrounded by a zone of α hemolysis c. S. pyogenes forms flattened colonies on blood agar with a central depression d. S. pyogenes forms flattened colonies on blood agar with black centers 73. Which statements among the following are correct: a. catalase test is used to differentiate S. pyogenes from S. aureus b. catalase test is used to differentiate staphylococci from meningococci c. catalase test is used to differentiate staphylococci from streptococci d. catalase test is used to differentiate S. pyogenes from S. agalactiae 74. Which tests can be used for the bacteriological diagnosis of streptococcal diseases: a. catalase test b. coagulase test c. ASO test d. optochin test e. oxidase test 75. For the diagnosis of post-streptococcal sequelae, the ASO test is performed, and the borderline titer is: a. around 10 ASO/ml b. around 50 ASO/ml c. around 100 ASO/ml d. around 200 ASO/ml e. around 500 ASO/ml 76. For the diagnosis of post-streptococcal sequelae, the following tests are performed: a. ASO test b. catalase test c. bacitracin test d. anti-DNase test e. antistreptokinase 77. Which statements among the following are correct: a. S. agalactiae colonizes the urogenital tract of humans b. S. agalactiae colonizes the respiratory tract of humans c. S. agalactiae is beta-hemolytic streptococcus d. S. agalactiae is non-hemolytic streptococcus 78. S. agalactiae is: a. acid-alcohol resistant bacterium b. Gram-positive c. Gram-negative d. not Gram-stainable 79. Which statements among the following are correct: a. S. agalactiae is asporogenous b. S. agalactiae is non-motile c. S. agalactiae is sporogenous d. S. agalactiae is motile 80. Which statement among the following is correct: a. S. agalactiae forms clusters b. S. agalactiae forms chains c. S. agalactiae does not tend to group d. S. agalactiae forms diplococci 81. List three significant diseases in newborns caused by S. agalactiae: ______________ ______________ ______________ 82. Which statements among the following are correct: a. S. agalactiae can cause neonatal sepsis b. S. agalactiae can cause infections in adults c. S. agalactiae can cause puerperal sepsis in mothers d. S. agalactiae can colonize birth canals 83. Which tests are specific for the final identification of S. agalactiae: a. sodium hippurate hydrolysis test b. catalase test c. coagulase test d. CAMP test e. ASO test 84. Which statements among the following are correct: a. S. agalactiae is CAMP positive b. S. agalactiae is CAMP negative c. S. agalactiae is catalase positive d. S. agalactiae is catalase negative 85. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. S. agalactiae hydrolyzes sodium hippurate b. S. agalactiae is CAMP negative c. S. agalactiae is catalase negative d. S. agalactiae does not hydrolyze sodium hippurate 86. In the antibiotic susceptibility test (antibiogram), S. agalactiae shows: a. sensitivity to trimethoprim and bacitracin b. sensitivity to trimethoprim and resistance to bacitracin c. sensitivity to bacitracin and resistance to trimethoprim d. resistance to trimethoprim and bacitracin 87. Which statements among the following are correct: a. S. agalactiae is more resistant to penicillin than S. pyogenes b. S. agalactiae is more susceptible to penicillin than S. pyogenes c. Penicillin is the drug of choice for treating infections caused by S. agalactiae d. The drug of choice for treating infections caused by S. agalactiae is an antibiotic 88. Match the type of streptococcus with the group it belongs to: - S. agalactiae: Group B - S. faecalis: Group D - S. pyogenes: Group A - S. mutans: Viridans 89. Which of the following species of streptococci do not belong to viridans streptococci: a. S. salivarius b. S. faecalis c. S. mitis d. S. pneumoniae 90. Match the type of streptococcus with the hemolysis it exhibits on blood agar: - S. agalactiae: beta hemolysis - S. pneumoniae: alpha hemolysis - S. faecalis: alpha hemolysis - S. pyogenes: beta hemolysis 91. Beta hemolysis on blood agar appears as: a. a clear zone around the colony b. a white zone around the colony c. a transparent zone around the colony d. a yellow zone around the colony 92. Alpha hemolysis on blood agar appears as: a. a green zone around the colony b. a white zone around the colony c. a transparent zone around the colony d. a blue zone around the colony 93. Gamma hemolysis on blood agar appears as: a. a green zone around the colony b. a yellow zone around the colony c. a transparent zone around the colony d. absence of a zone around the colony 94. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Viridans streptococci colonize the human oral mucosa b. Viridans streptococci bind to the same receptor in the oral cavity as Candida albicans c. Viridans streptococci cause dental caries d. Viridans streptococci are strictly pathogenic bacteria 95. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. Viridans streptococci bind to a different receptor in the oral cavity than Candida albicans b. Viridans streptococci are opportunistic infection agents c. Viridans streptococci can cause suppurative collections in organs d. Viridans streptococci facilitate colonization of the oral mucosa by pathogenic bacteria 96. Enterococci belong to which family: a. Enterobacteriaceae b. Micrococcaceae c. Streptococcaceae 97. Enterococci are: a. Gram-positive b. Gram-negative c. not Gram-stainable d. acid-alcohol resistant bacteria 98. Which statement among the following is correct: a. all enterococci are non-motile b. all enterococci are motile c. enterococci are mostly non-motile, but there are motile representatives d. enterococci are mostly motile, but there are non-motile representatives 99. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. enterococci are rarely found in nature b. enterococci are the most resistant among the group of streptococci c. enterococci are strictly pathogenic bacteria d. enterococci are conditionally pathogenic bacteria 100. Which statements among the following are correct: a. enterococci serve as indicators of fecal contamination of water b. enterococci are the most sensitive among the group of streptococci c. enterococci are part of the normal flora of humans d. enterococci can cause subacute systemic infections 101. Name the two most significant species of enterococci: ______________ and ______________ 102. Which diseases can enterococci cause: a. endocarditis b. sepsis c. abscesses of various organs and tissues d. erysipelas 103. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. enterococci rarely cause nosocomial infections b. enterococci can cause bacteremia in newborns c. enterococci do not cause meningitis in newborns d. enterococci can be transmitted through hospital instruments 104. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Enterococci produce enterocins that act stimulatively on L. monocytogenes b. Enterococci produce enterocins that act inhibitory on L. monocytogenes c. Enterococci produce enterocins that act stimulatively on S. pneumoniae d. Enterococci produce enterocins that act inhibitory on S. pneumoniae 105. Match the bacterium with the substance it produces: - S. agalactiae erythrogenic toxin C - S. aureus enterocin - S. faecalis enterotoxin F - S. pyogenes streptocin B 106. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Enterococci are very sensitive to penicillins b. Enterococci are very resistant to penicillins c. Enterococci may have a low level of resistance to aminoglycosides d. Enterococci may have a high level of resistance to aminoglycosides 107. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Strains of S. faecalis can produce beta-lactamase b. Strains of S. faecalis cannot produce beta-lactamase c. Strains of S. faecalis can be resistant to vancomycin d. Strains of S. faecalis can be resistant to aminoglycosides 108. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Enterococci show sensitivity to trimethoprim in the antibiogram b. Enterococci show resistance to trimethoprim in the antibiogram c. Trimethoprim is effective in treating enterococcal infections d. Trimethoprim is not effective in treating enterococcal infections 109. Pneumococcus belongs to the genus: a. Haemophilus b. Neisseria c. Staphylococcus d. Streptococcus 110. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Pneumococcus is strictly pathogenic bacteria b. Pneumococcus is an obligate human parasite c. Pneumococcus is an obligate animal parasite d. Pneumococcus is a conditionally pathogenic bacteria 111. S. pneumoniae is: a. cocci b. bacillus c. diplococcus d. spiral 112. What is the shape of S. pneumoniae? a. lancet-shaped b. rod-shaped c. spiral d. spherical 113. S. pneumoniae is: a. acid-alcohol resistant bacteria b. Gram-positive c. Gram-negative d. not Gram-stainable 114. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. S. pneumoniae is motile b. S. pneumoniae is non-motile c. S. pneumoniae is sporogenic d. S. pneumoniae is asporogenic 115. Which statement among the following is correct: a. S. pneumoniae forms chains b. S. pneumoniae forms spirals c. S. pneumoniae does not tend to form groups d. S. pneumoniae forms pairs 116. Which statements about pneumococci are correct: a. virulent strains possess a capsule b. virulent strains do not possess a capsule c. virulent strains possess a capsule that surrounds individual bacteria d. virulent strains possess a capsule that surrounds pairs of bacteria 117. Virulent strains of pneumococci are labeled as: a. S types b. R types c. D types d. M types 118. Avirulent strains of pneumococci are labeled as: a. S types b. D types c. R types d. M types 119. Which statements about the capsule of pneumococci are correct: a. the capsule is a virulence factor b. the capsule is a carrier of group specificity c. synthesis of the capsule is genetically encoded d. "capsular lysis" reaction is significant for pneumococcal serotyping 120. Which statements about the capsule of pneumococci are correct: a. the capsule is a carrier of type specificity b. synthesis of the capsule is not genetically encoded c. the capsule has an antiphagocytic function d. there is a capsular antigen 121. What substance is the capsule of pneumococci made of: a. protein b. polysaccharide c. lipid d. lipoprotein 122. Which of the following antigens can exist in pneumococci: a. T antigen b. M antigen c. C antigen d. R antigen 123. The carrier of group specificity in pneumococci is: a. capsular antigen b. S antigen c. R antigen d. M antigen 124. Which statements among the following are correct: a. C antigen is a somatic antigen of pneumococci b. C antigen precipitates with C-reactive protein c. C-reactive proteins are indicators of acute pneumococcal inflammatory processes d. C-reactive proteins are found in the serum of patients with rheumatic fever 125. Significant virulence factors of pneumococci are: a. exotoxin b. endotoxin c. capsule d. IgA1 protease 126. List four diseases caused by pneumococci: - ______________ - ______________ - ______________ - ______________ 127. Bacteremia occurring during pneumococcal pneumonia can have three serious consequences: - ______________ - ______________ - ______________ 128. Bacteriological diagnosis of diseases caused by S. pneumoniae is based on its: - __________________ - __________________ - __________________ - __________________ 129. Which statements among the following are correct: a. In direct preparation from clinical material, virulent strains of S. pneumoniae appear as diplococci without capsules b. In direct preparation from clinical material, virulent strains of S. pneumoniae appear as diplococci surrounded by capsules c. In culture preparation, virulent strains of S. pneumoniae appear as diplococci surrounded by capsules d. In culture preparation, virulent strains of S. pneumoniae appear as diplococci without capsules 130. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Pneumococcus colonies on blood agar are surrounded by alpha hemolysis zone b. Pneumococcus colonies on blood agar are surrounded by beta hemolysis zone c. Pneumococcus colonies on blood agar are surrounded by gamma hemolysis zone d. Pneumococcus colonies on blood agar are surrounded by delta hemolysis zone 131. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Pneumococcus colonies change their appearance over time on blood agar b. In broth, pneumococcus causes diffuse turbidity that clarifies over time c. In broth, pneumococcus forms transparent colonies that become cloudy over time d. Pneumococcus colonies do not change their appearance over time 132. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. On blood agar, S colonies of pneumococcus are smooth, with straight edges and alpha hemolysis zone b. On blood agar, S colonies of pneumococcus are smooth, with straight edges and beta hemolysis zone c. On blood agar, R colonies of pneumococcus are rough, with uneven edges and alpha hemolysis zone d. On blood agar, R colonies of pneumococcus are rough, with uneven edges and beta hemolysis zone 133. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Pneumococcus colonies on blood agar become cloudy and convex over time b. Pneumococcus colonies on blood agar become transparent and convex over time c. Pneumococcus colonies on blood agar become flattened with central indentation over time d. Pneumococcus colonies on blood agar become cloudy with central indentation over time 134. Which statements among the following are correct: a. During growth, S. pneumoniae culture activates autolysis b. Autolysin is an enzyme of the capsule of S. pneumoniae c. Throughout most of the life cycle, autolysin of S. pneumoniae is active d. Autolysin clarifies the culture of S. pneumoniae in broth 135. Match the bacterium to the presence of catalase enzyme: - N. meningitidis: catalase negative - S. agalactiae: catalase positive - S. epidermidis: catalase negative - S. pneumoniae: catalase positive 136. List four tests for distinguishing S. pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci: - __________________ - __________________ - __________________ - __________________ 137. Which statements among the following are correct: a. S. pneumoniae grows in the presence of optochin b. S. pneumoniae does not grow in the presence of optochin c. Other alpha-hemolytic streptococci grow in the presence of optochin d. Other alpha-hemolytic streptococci do not grow in the presence of optochin 138. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. S. pneumoniae grows at 41ºC b. S. pneumoniae does not grow at 41ºC c. Other alpha-hemolytic streptococci grow at 41ºC d. Other alpha-hemolytic streptococci do not grow at 41ºC 139. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. S. pneumoniae ferments inulin b. S. pneumoniae does not ferment inulin c. Other alpha-hemolytic streptococci ferment inulin d. Other alpha-hemolytic streptococci do not ferment inulin 140. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Spontaneous autolysis test is used for serotyping S. pneumoniae b. DOC lysis test is used for serotyping S. pneumoniae c. Capsule swelling test is used for serotyping S. pneumoniae d. Coagglutination test on a plate is used for serotyping S. pneumoniae 141. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Capsule swelling test is performed for serotyping S. pneumoniae from clinical material b. Capsule swelling test is performed for serotyping S. pneumoniae from culture c. Capsule swelling test leads to enlargement of the capsule d. Capsule swelling test is synonymous with visualization test of the capsule 142. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Capsule swelling test is the most specific method for typing pneumococci b. Micro-precipitation occurs in the capsule during the capsule swelling test c. Capsule swelling test is performed with polyvalent serum d. Capsule swelling test is performed with monovalent serum 143. Which statements among the following are correct: a. S. pneumoniae produces beta-lactamase b. S. pneumoniae does not produce beta-lactamase c. Resistance of S. pneumoniae to penicillin occurs due to a change in PBP structure d. Resistance of S. pneumoniae to penicillin occurs due to plasmids 144. Drugs to which S. pneumoniae can exhibit resistance include: a. Penicillin G b. Tetracyclines c. Erythromycin d. Chloramphenicol 145. Which statements among the following are not correct: a. Antibiotic susceptibility testing is unnecessary after isolation and identification of pneumococci b. Antibiotic susceptibility testing is necessary after isolation and identification of pneumococci c. There is a vaccine against pneumococcal infections d. There is no vaccine against pneumococcal infections 146. Human pathogenic bacteria from the genus Neisseria are: - ________________ - ________________ 147. What is the shape of N. gonorrhoeae: a. Concave b. Rod-shaped c. Lancet-shaped d. Spiral e. Kidney-shaped 148. N. gonorrhoeae is: a. Acid-fast resistant bacterium b. Gram-positive c. Gram-negative d. Not stained by Gram stain 149. Which statements among the following are correct: a. N. gonorrhoeae is motile b. N. gonorrhoeae is non-motile c. N. gonorrhoeae is sporogenic d. N. gonorrhoeae is asporogenic 150. Which statement among the following is correct: a. Gonococci group in clusters b. Gonococci group in spirals c. Gonococci group in chains d. Gonococci group in pairs 151. Which of the following are included in the surface structure of gonococci: a. Fimbriae b. Protein I c. Protein II d. Protein IV e. LPS 152. Which statements among the following are correct: a. Gonococcus can change its antigenic structure only in vitro b. Gonococcus can change its antigenic structure only in vivo c. Gonococcus can change its antigenic structure both in vitro and in vivo d. Gonococcus cannot change its antigenic structure 153. Which statements among the following are correct: a. All strains of gonococci possess a capsule b. All strains of gonococci possess fimbriae c. Only virulent strains of gonococci possess a capsule d. Only virulent strains of gonococci possess fimbriae 154. Which statements about fimbriae of gonococci are not correct: a. Heterogeneity of fimbrial antigens has been determined b. Homogeneity of fimbrial antigens has been determined c. Fimbriae are important for the virulence of gonococci d. Fimbriae are not related to the virulence of gonococci 155. Which statements about fimbriae of gonococci are correct: a. They have a lipopolysaccharide structure b. They have antigenic properties c. They have a role in adhering gonococci to host cells d. They have an antiphagocytic function 156. Based on Por protein (Protein I) of the cell membrane, gonococci are divided into: a. 2 serogroups b. 5 serogroups c. 7 serogroups d. 10 serogroups 157. Within the Pro A serogroup, there are: a. 6 Por A serotypes b. 15 Por A serotypes c. 18 Por A serotypes d. 28 Por A serotypes 158. Within the Pro B serogroup, there are: a. 6 Por B serotypes b. 15 Por B serotypes c. 18 Por B serotypes d. 28 Por B serotypes 159. Which statements about Opa protein (protein II) are correct: a. It has a role in inter-colony adherence of gonococci b. It has antigenic properties c. It plays a role in attaching gonococci to host cells d. Gonococci possess a mechanism to change Opa proteins 160. Which statements are not correct: a. Gonococci rarely change their antigenic structure compared to other bacteria b. Gonococci frequently change their antigenic structure compared to other bacteria c. Mechanism of pilin change differs from mechanism of Opa protein change d. Mechanism of pilin change is the same as mechanism of Opa protein change 161. Mucosal surfaces with which epithelium type are most susceptible to gonococcal infection: a. Squamous epithelium b. Columnar epithelium c. Stratified squamous epithelium d. Mesenchymal epithelium 162. Which statements are correct: a. Asymptomatic gonorrhea is more common in women than in men b. Asymptomatic gonorrhea is more common in men than in women c. Asymptomatic gonorrhea is more common in homosexual men than in heterosexual men d. Asymptomatic gonorrhea is more common in heterosexual men than in homosexual men 163. Which diseases are caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae: a. Ophthalmia neonatorum b. Pseudomembranous pharyngitis c. Pelvic inflammatory disease d. Proctitis 164. Which statements are correct: a. Gonococcus causes local infections b. Gonococcus causes disseminated infections c. Gonococcus causes sexually transmitted disease d. Gonococcus causes non-sexually transmitted disease 165. Which statements are correct: a. After adherence to target epithelium, gonococcus passes through intercellular space into subepithelial tissue b. After adherence to target epithelium, gonococcus does not pass through intercellular space into subepithelial tissue c. Gonococcus has the ability of per continuitatem spread to adjacent tissues d. Gonococcus has the ability of hematogenous spread to distant tissues 166. Match the pathogen to the disease: - N. gonorrhoeae Syphilis - T. pallidum Lymphogranuloma venereum - H. ducreyi Gonorrhea - C. trachomatis Chancroid 167. Involvement of gonococcal infection of the cervix, endometrium, ovaries, and adnexal tissue in women is called: a. PID b. PIB c. PIM d. PIK 168. Which statements about gonorrhea are correct: a. In men, it manifests as purulent urethritis that may progress to chronic inflammation and fibrosis b. In men, it manifests as purulent urethritis that may progress to chronic inflammation with the development of urethral strictures c. In men, it manifests as purulent urethritis with the possibility of spreading to the epididymis d. In men, it manifests as purulent urethritis without the possibility of spreading to the epididymis 169. In disseminated gonorrhea, which of the following may occur: a. Skin rash b. Suppurative arthritis c. Bacteremia d. Endocarditis 170. Which statement is correct: a. Neonatal ophthalmia is an eye infection of the mother during childbirth b. Neonatal ophthalmia is an eye infection of the mother after childbirth c. Neonatal ophthalmia is an eye infection of the pregnant woman d. Neonatal ophthalmia is an eye infection of the newborn 171. Prevention of neonatal ophthalmia is achieved through: a. Crem's drops b. Crede's drops c. Creg's drops d. Cren's drops 172. Specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea in men can be taken from: - ___________________ - ___________________ 173. Specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea in women can be taken from: - _____________ - _____________ - _____________ 174. Extrusion of gonococci from polymorphonuclear leukocytes during phagocytosis is called _____________. 175. Which statements are correct: a. On direct smear, gonococci appear as intraleukocytic Gram-positive diplococci. b. On direct smear, gonococci appear as intraleukocytic Gram-negative diplococci. c. In chronic gonorrhea, finding extraleukocytic localization of gonococci is rare. d. In chronic gonorrhea, finding extraleukocytic localization of gonococci is common. 176. During cultivation of gonococci, we distinguish: a. 5 types of colonies b. 6 types of colonies c. 7 types of colonies d. 8 types of colonies e. 9 types of colonies 177. Which statements about gonococcal colonies are not correct: a. T1 colonies are formed by virulent strains. b. T1 colonies are formed by avirulent strains. c. T2 colonies are formed by virulent strains. d. T2 colonies are formed by avirulent strains. 178. Which statements about gonococcal colonies are correct: a. T2 colonies are formed by virulent strains. b. T2 colonies are formed by avirulent strains. c. T3 colonies are formed by virulent strains. d. T3 colonies are formed by avirulent strains. 179. Match the type of gonococcal colony with the corresponding characteristic: T1 smaller T2 mucoid T3 larger T4 flat T5 raised 180. Which statements are correct: a. Gonococci are catalase-positive. b. Gonococci are catalase-negative. c. Gonococci are oxidase-positive. d. Gonococci are oxidase-negative. 181. Match the Neisseria species to the corresponding sugar fermentation capability so that each species is linked to only one characteristic: N. gonorrhoeae - glucose-positive N. meningitidis - maltose-negative N. lactamica - lactose-positive N. subflava - maltose-positive 182. Which of the following sugars does N. gonorrhoeae ferment: a. Glucose b. Maltose c. Lactose d. Dextrose 183. Which of the following sugars does N. gonorrhoeae not ferment: a. Maltose b. Lactose c. Fructose d. Sucrose 184. Which statements are not correct: a. For each isolated strain of gonococcus, an antibiogram is performed. b. For each isolated strain of gonococcus, an antibiogram is not performed. c. Acute uncomplicated gonorrhea is treated with a single dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone + doxycycline. d. In recent years, there has been an increased sensitivity of gonococci to penicillins and tetracyclines. 185. What is the shape of N. meningitidis: a. Concave b. Rod-shaped c. Coffee bean d. Lanceolate e. Spiral 186. N. meningitidis is: a. Acid-fast resistant bacterium b. Gram-positive c. Gram-negative d. Not stained by Gram stain 187. Which statements about N. meningitidis are correct: a. N. meningitidis is motile. b. N. meningitidis is non-motile. c. N. meningitidis is asporogenous. d. N. meningitidis is sporogenous. 188. Which statement is correct: a. Meningococci cluster in clusters. b. Meningococci cluster in spirals. c. Meningococci cluster in chains. d. Meningococci cluster in pairs. 189. Based on capsular and protein antigens, meningococci are divided into: a. 3 serogroups b. 4 serogroups c. 7 serogroups d. 13 serogroups 190. Which statements are correct: a. Outer membrane proteins of meningococci are labeled as LPS. b. Outer membrane proteins of meningococci are divided into classes. c. Outer membrane proteins of meningococci are responsible for serotype specificity. d. Outer membrane proteins are present in all strains of meningococci. 191. Which of the following groups of meningococci does not possess a capsule: a. A b. B c. Y d. W-135 192. Which of the following groups of meningococci are the most significant agents of epidemic forms of disease: a. A b. B c. C d. W-135 193. Which of the following groups of meningococci are most significant for endemic occurrence of disease: a. A b. B c. C d. W-135 194. Which statements are correct: a. Meningococci are naturally pathogenic for humans and other mammals. b. Meningococci are naturally pathogenic only for humans. c. Meningococci can be part of transient flora in humans. d. Meningococci always cause infection if present on a person. 195. The capsule of meningococci is composed of which substance: a. Protein b. Polysaccharide c. Lipid d. Lipoprotein 196. Which are significant virulence factors of meningococci: a. Exotoxin b. Fimbriae c. Capsule d. IgA1 protease 197. Unlike endotoxins of other bacteria, meningococcal endotoxin has a specific affinity for __________________ and __________________. 198. Which statements are correct: a. Meningococcemia mainly occurs in younger populations. b. Meningococcemia mainly occurs in older populations. c. Meningococcemia is characterized by petechiae on the skin. d. Meningococcemia is characterized by suffusions on mucous membranes. 199. The most important autopsy finding in fulminant meningococcal sepsis is: a. Hemorrhagic necrosis of the lungs b. Hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal glands c. Hemorrhagic necrosis of the kidneys d. Hemorrhagic necrosis of the meninges 200. Which statements are correct: a. During meningococcemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation occurs. b. Meningococcal endotoxin is responsible for most toxic effects present in meningococcal infection. c. Meningococcal exotoxin is responsible for most toxic effects present in meningococcal infection. d. Meningococcal LPS is responsible for most toxic effects present in meningococcal infection. 201. Which statements are correct: a. Meningococcal meningitis is often associated with meningococcemia. b. Meningococcal meningitis is rarely associated with meningococcemia. c. Meningococcal meningitis is often associated with fulminant forms of meningococcemia. d. Meningococcal meningitis is rarely associated with fulminant forms of meningococcemia. 202. Hematogenous dissemination of meningococci is facilitated by the absence of antibodies of class ______________ and deficiency of fractions ______________________. 203. Which statements are not correct: a. Meningococci are easily phagocytosed in the presence of specific opsonins. b. Meningococci are poorly phagocytosed regardless of the presence of specific opsonins. c. Defects in phagocytosis facilitate hematogenous dissemination. d. Defects in phagocytosis have no effect on hematogenous dissemination. 204. Meningococcal meningitis is: a. Serous inflammation of the meninges b. Catarrhal inflammation of the meninges c. Purulent inflammation of the meninges d. Fibrinous inflammation of the meninges 205. Which statements are correct: a. Meningococci are very resistant to environmental factors. b. Meningococci are very sensitive to environmental factors. c. Meningococci are most commonly transmitted by droplets. d. Meningococci are most commonly transmitted indirectly. 206. Which statements are not correct: a. On direct smear, meningococci appear as intraleukocytic and extraleukocytic Gram-positive diplococci. b. On direct smear, meningococci appear as intraleukocytic and extraleukocytic Gram-negative diplococci. c. Changes in shape, size, arrangement, and intensity of staining of meningococci are observed on culture preparation. d. Meningococci have the same morphological properties on culture preparation and direct smear. 207. The correct statement regarding cultivation of meningococci is: a. Blood agar plates are supplemented with antibiotics when seeding blood. b. Cerebrospinal fluid agar plates are supplemented with antibiotics when seeding. c. Nasopharyngeal swab agar plates are supplemented with antibiotics when seeding. d. Blood, cerebrospinal fluid, or nasopharyngeal swab agar plates are always supplemented with antibiotics when seeding. 208. Inhibitors of growth added to nasopharyngeal swab agar plates are: ________________ and ________________. 209. Which statements are correct: a. Colonies of meningococci are considerably smaller than colonies of gonococci. b. Colonies of meningococci are considerably larger than colonies of gonococci. c. Extended incubation leads to autolysis of meningococcal colonies. d. Colonies of acapsular meningococci are mucoid. 210. Which statements are correct: a. Meningococci are catalase positive b. Meningococci are catalase negative c. Meningococci are oxidase positive d. Meningococci are oxidase negative 211. Which of the following sugars does N. meningitidis ferment: a. Glucose b. Dextrose c. Maltose d. Lactose 212. Which of the following sugars does N. meningitidis not ferment: a. Maltose b. Lactose c. Fructose d. Sucrose 213. Which statements are correct: a. Antibiotic susceptibility testing is performed for every isolated strain of meningococci. b. Antibiotic susceptibility testing is not performed for every isolated strain of meningococci. c. In recent years, there has been an increase in sensitivity of gonococci to penicillins. d. Penicillin G is the drug of choice for the majority of meningococcal diseases. 214. M. catarrhalis is: a. Acid-alcohol resistant bacteria b. Gram positive c. Gram negative d. Not classified by Gram staining 215. Which statements are correct: a. Moraxella catarrhalis is strictly pathogenic to humans. b. Moraxella catarrhalis is part of the normal flora of humans. c. Moraxella catarrhalis is significant as a causative agent in immunocompromised patients. d. Moraxella catarrhalis causes bronchitis, pneumonia. 216. Which of the following diseases can Moraxella catarrhalis cause: a. Bronchitis b. Otitis media c. Conjunctivitis d. Pneumonia 217. Which statements are correct: a. Moraxella catarrhalis ferments carbohydrates. b. Moraxella catarrhalis does not ferment carbohydrates. c. Moraxella catarrhalis produces DNase. d. Moraxella catarrhalis does not produce DNase. 218. Which statement is correct: a. Moraxella catarrhalis synthesizes butyrate-lactase. b. Moraxella catarrhalis synthesizes butyrate-esterase. c. Moraxella catarrhalis synthesizes butyrate-phosphatase. d. Moraxella catarrhalis synthesizes butyrate-sucrase. 219. Kingella kingae is: a. Gram positive b. Gram negative c. Oxidase positive d. Oxidase negative 220. Which statements are correct: a. Kingella kingae is strictly pathogenic to humans. b. Kingella kingae is part of the normal flora of humans. c. Kingella kingae is often resistant to antibiotics. d. Kingella kingae is rarely resistant to antibiotics. 221. K. kingae is characterized by causing infections: ______________ ______________ ______________ 222. Acinetobacter is: a. Gram positive b. Gram negative c. Oxidase positive d. Oxidase negative 223. In bacteremias caused by Acinetobacter, __________________ are almost always the source of infection. 224. What is the shape of Haemophilus influenzae: a. Concave b. Rod-shaped c. Coffee bean shaped d. Lancet shaped e. Spiral 225. H. influenzae is: a. Not classified by Gram staining b. Acid-alcohol resistant c. Gram positive d. Gram negative 226. Which statements are not correct: a. H. influenzae is motile b. H. influenzae is non-motile c. H. influenzae is asporogenous d. H. influenzae is sporogenous 227. Which statements are correct: a. Non-encapsulated forms of H. influenzae are part of the normal flora of humans. b. Non-encapsulated forms of H. influenzae are not part of the normal flora of humans. c. Non-encapsulated forms of H. influenzae possess somatic antigen. d. Non-encapsulated forms of H. influenzae possess endotoxin. 228. Encapsulated forms of H. influenzae are classified based on capsular antigen into: a. Types a, b, and c b. Types a, b, c, and d c. Types a, b, c, d, and e d. Types a, b, c, d, e, and f 229. Which type of H. influenzae is an important cause of severe infections? a. Type a b. Type b c. Type c d. Type d e. Type e f. Type f 230. Which statements are correct: a. H. influenzae produces exotoxin b. H. influenzae contains endotoxin c. The capsule of H. influenzae has antiphagocytic function d. The capsule of H. influenzae does not have antiphagocytic function 231. H. influenzae type b is one of the most common causes of bacterial ________________ in children aged 5 months to 5 years. 232. Among the following diseases, H. influenzae type b is one of the most common bacterial causes of: a. Acute sinusitis b. Meningitis in children c. Meningitis in adults d. Otitis media e. Septic arthritis 233. Which statements are correct: a. Non-encapsulated strains of H. influenzae form colonies that show iridescence on agar plates. b. Encapsulated strains of H. influenzae form colonies that show iridescence on agar plates. c. Colonies of H. influenzae are surrounded by a zone of hemolysis on blood agar. d. Colonies of H. influenzae are not surrounded by a zone of hemolysis on blood agar. 234. Which statements are correct: a. Factor X is required for the cultivation of H. influenzae. b. Factor V is required for the cultivation of H. influenzae. c. H. influenzae ferments carbohydrates well. d. The "capsule swelling" test is used for typing H. influenzae. e. Satellite phenomenon is associated with the growth of H. influenzae. 235. Which statements are correct: a. Meningitis in children caused by H. influenzae type b is treated with Haemophilus b conjugate vaccine. b. Meningitis in children caused by H. influenzae type b is treated with high doses of antibiotics. c. All strains of H. influenzae type b produce beta-lactamase. d. Some strains of H. influenzae type b produce beta-lactamase. 236. Match the type of Haemophilus with the disease it causes: - H. influenzae Soft chancre - H. ducreyi Endocarditis - H. aegyptius Contagious conjunctivitis - H. aphrophilus Otitis media 237. Which statement is correct: a. Soft chancre is transmitted through dirty hands. b. Soft chancre is transmitted through droplet transmission. c. Soft chancre is transmitted through water. d. Soft chancre is transmitted through sexual contact. 238. Which statements are correct: a. Bordetella pertussis shows bipolar staining with Ziehl-Neelsen stain. b. Bordetella pertussis shows bipolar staining with toluidine blue. c. Bordetella pertussis is Gram positive coccobacillus. d. Bordetella pertussis is Gram negative coccobacillus. 239. Which statements are correct: a. B. pertussis is motile. b. B. pertussis is non-motile. c. B. pertussis is asporogenous. d. B. pertussis is sporogenous. 240. Among the listed antigens, B. pertussis possesses: a. V antigens b. O antigen c. Fimbrial antigens d. X antigen e. K antigens 241. Which statements are correct: a. B. pertussis produces exotoxins. b. B. pertussis possesses endotoxin. c. B. pertussis possesses fimbriae. d. B. pertussis invades the bloodstream. 242. List four virulence factors of B. pertussis: __________________ __________________ __________________ __________________ 243. Which statements are correct: a. B. pertussis multiplies on the epithelial surface of the trachea and impairs ciliary activity. b. B. pertussis releases toxins that cause lymphocytosis. c. B. pertussis causes necrosis of the epithelium of the trachea and bronchi. d. B. pertussis causes convulsions in children. 244. Match the pathogen to the disease: - Bordetella pertussis: Undulant fever - Brucella melitensis: Lyme disease - Borrelia burgdorferi: Soft chancre - Haemophilus ducreyi: Whooping cough 245. Which statements are not correct: a. Bordetella pertussis is a disease with a high contagion index. b. Bordetella pertussis is a disease with a low contagion index. c. Bordetella pertussis is quite sensitive to environmental influences. d. Bordetella pertussis is quite resistant to environmental influences. 246. Which statements are correct: a. Pertussis is treated with erythromycin. b. Pertussis is treated with tetracyclines. c. Immunization against pertussis is achieved with MMR vaccine. d. Pertussis vaccination is mandatory. 247. Which statement about brucellae is correct: a. Brucellae are Gram-negative coccobacilli without fimbriae but with flagella. b. Brucellae are Gram-negative coccobacilli without flagella but with fimbriae. c. Brucellae are Gram-negative coccobacilli with both flagella and fimbriae. d. Brucellae are Gram-negative coccobacilli without flagella and fimbriae. 248. Which statements are correct: a. Brucellae are motile. b. Brucellae are non-motile. c. Brucellae are asporogenous. d. Brucellae are sporogenous. 249. Which statements are correct: a. Brucellae are obligate parasites of humans but not animals. b. Brucellae are obligate parasites of both humans and animals. c. In the infected organism, brucellae mainly live as intracellular parasites. d. In the infected organism, brucellae mainly live as extracellular parasites. 250. Which statements are correct: a. Brucellae enter the human body through contaminated animal milk. b. Brucellae enter the human body through broken skin. c. Brucellae enter the human lymphatic system. d. Brucellae enter the human bloodstream. 251. Which statements are correct: a. Brucellae only cause acute infections in humans. b. Brucellae only cause chronic infections in humans. c. Brucellae cause the formation of granulomas in parenchymal organs of humans. d. Brucellae cause the formation of granulomas in lymph nodes of humans. 252. All Brucella cultures should be observed and subcultured for at least ____ weeks before a negative result can be reported. 253. Based on which characteristics can we differentiate the four species of Brucella that occur in humans: a. Microscopic b. Cultural c. Biochemical d. Antigenic 254. The IgG agglutinin titer in the agglutination test indicating active brucellosis is greater than: a. 1:20 b. 1:40 c. 1:80 d. 1:160 255. For the treatment of brucellosis, the combined therapy of streptomycin and ___________ has proven to be the best. 256. Which statements are correct: a. Legionella pneumophila stains blue with Gimenez stain. b. Legionella pneumophila stains red with Gimenez stain. c. Legionella pneumophila is Gram-positive. d. Legionella pneumophila is Gram-negative. 257. Which statements are correct: a. Legionella pneumophila possesses flagella. b. Legionella pneumophila does not possess flagella. c. Legionella pneumophila is sporogenous. d. Legionella pneumophila is asporogenous. 258. Which statements are correct: a. Legionella produces proteases. b. Legionella produces toxins. c. Legionella produces DNase. d. Legionella produces RNase. 259. Which statements are not correct: a. L. pneumophila grows in human phagocytes. b. L. pneumophila multiplies in macrophage phagosomes. c. L. pneumophila cannot multiply in macrophage phagosomes. d. L. pneumophila is easily eliminated by human phagocytes. 260. For intracellular growth of L. pneumophila, the presence of ___________ is necessary. 261. Which statements are correct: a. L. pneumophila often causes asymptomatic infections in humans. b. L. pneumophila is transmitted from person to person. c. L. pneumophila causes Pontiac fever. d. L. pneumophila causes lobar pneumonia. 262. For the treatment of Legionnaires' disease, the drug of choice is: a. Penicillin b. Aminoglycoside c. Cephalosporin d. Erythromycin 263. Which statements are correct about Francisella: a. Francisella are Gram-positive bacilli. b. Francisella are Gram-negative bacilli. c. Francisella are intracellular parasites. d. Francisella are not intracellular parasites. 264. Which statements are correct: a. Francisella are motile. b. Francisella are non-motile. c. Francisella are asporogenous. d. Francisella are sporogenous. 265. Which types of Francisella exist: a. Type A weakly virulent for humans. b. Type B highly virulent for humans. c. Type C highly virulent for humans. d. Type B weakly virulent for humans. e. Type A highly virulent for humans. 266. Which statements are correct: a. F. tularensis has a capsule. b. F. tularensis is weakly infectious. c. F. tularensis can penetrate intact skin. d. F. tularensis can be transmitted by arthropods. 267. Which statements are correct: a. F. tularensis is highly infectious. b. F. tularensis cannot penetrate intact skin. c. F. tularensis can be transmitted by inhalation. d. F. tularensis can be transmitted by food. 268. F. tularensis shows resistance to: a. Streptomycin b. Chloramphenicol c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline 269. Which statements are correct: a. Pasteurella causes diseases in humans. b. Pasteurella does not cause diseases in humans. c. Pasteurella causes diseases in animals. d. Pasteurella does not cause diseases in animals. 270. Which statements are correct: a. Bartonella are Gram-positive bacilli. b. Bartonella are Gram-negative bacilli. c. Pasteurella are Gram-positive bacilli. d. Pasteurella are Gram-negative bacilli. 271. Which of the following diseases are caused by bacteria from the genus Bartonella: a. Bacillary angiomatosis b. Tularemia c. Cat scratch disease d. Lyme disease 272. Match the causative agent with the disease: - Legionella pneumophila: Malta fever - Bartonella bacilliformis: Relapsing fever - Brucella melitensis: Oroya fever - Borrelia recurrentis: Pontiac fever 273. Which of the following answers is correct: a. The genus Bacillus is a Gram-positive diplobacillus. b. The genus Bacillus is a Gram-negative bacillus. c. The genus Bacillus is a Gram-positive bacillus. 274. Which statements are not correct: a. Bacillus anthracis is a sporogenous bacterium. b. Bacillus anthracis is the only strictly pathogenic bacterium of this genus. c. Bacillus anthracis secretes a potent enterotoxin. 275. The following are used for monitoring sterilization (circle the correct answers): a. Bacillus subtilis spores b. Bacillus cereus spores c. Bacillus anthracis spores 276. Which of the following statements is correct: a. The spore of Bacillus anthracis is centrally located in the motile bacillus. b. The spore of Bacillus anthracis is centrally located in the non-motile bacillus. c. The spore of Bacillus anthracis is located at the thickened ends of the bacillus. 277. Circle the correct answers: a. Bacillus anthracis has a bamboo cane appearance. b. Bacillus anthracis grows on special nutrient media. c. Bacillus anthracis is hemolytic. 278. On solid nutrient media, Bacillus anthracis forms (select the correct answer): a. Large, flat, shiny colonies. b. Small, shiny, flat colonies. c. Large colonies with serrated edges and a grooved surface. 279. Circle the correct answer: a. Bacillus anthracis has capsular and somatic antigens. b. Bacillus anthracis has somatic antigens. c. Bacillus anthracis does not possess a capsule. 280. For the definitive identification of anthrax bacillus, the following biochemical characteristic is used (select the correct answer): a. Reduction of methylene blue. b. Glucose breakdown. c. Slow liquefaction of gelatin (phenomenon of inverted fir tree). 281. Match the causative agent with the disease: - Bacillus cereus: Anthrax - Bacillus subtilis: Conjunctivitis - Bacillus anthracis: Gastroenteritis 282. Bacillus anthracis secretes (circle the correct answer): a. Enterotoxin b. Toxic complex c. Neurotoxin d. Binary toxin 283. Which of the following statements are correct: - Gastrointestinal anthrax occurs by ingestion of anthrax spores. - Pulmonary anthrax occurs by inhalation of anthrax spores. - Gastrointestinal anthrax occurs by ingestion of vegetative forms of the bacillus. 284. The disease caused by Bacillus cereus is: - Infection - Intoxication - Toxi-infection 285. The toxic complex of Bacillus anthracis consists of: - Protective antigen and lethal factor - Edema factor, toxic factor, and protective antigen - Lethal factor and edema factor - Edema factor, protective antigen, and lethal factor 286. The test used to differentiate B. anthracis from B. cereus is: - Thermoprecipitation test - Phage typing test - Sensitivity to γ phage 287. The vaccine against anthrax is: - a. Killed vaccine - b. Live, attenuated vaccine - c. Acellular vaccine containing protective antigen 288. In veterinary diagnostics for anthrax, the following reaction is used: - a. Roemberg reaction - b. Schick reaction - c. Ascoli reaction 289. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is (circle the correct answer): - Gram-positive, sporogenic, non-motile bacillus - Gram-negative, asporogenic, non-motile, aerobic bacillus - Gram-positive, non-motile, asporogenic bacillus 290. Which of the following statements are not correct: - C. diphtheriae is motile, has spores, lacks a capsule - C. diphtheriae is motile, lacks a capsule, does not form spores - C. diphtheriae is non-motile, lacks a capsule, does not form spores 291. By staining according to Neisser, C. diphtheriae bacteria display ________________ granules. 292. Ernest-Babes granules of C. diphtheriae (circle the correct answer) are: - Significant for dividing C. diphtheriae into biotypes - Polymerized phosphates and serve as energy deposits - Nutrient vacuoles - Necessary for reproduction 293. C. diphtheriae is cultured on (circle the correct answer): - a. All nutrient media - b. Loeffler's medium - c. Both of the above answers are correct - d. None of the above answers are correct 294. Circle the correct answers: - a. Growth of C. diphtheriae on Loeffler's medium yields 3 biotypes of bacilli - b. On Loeffler's medium, C. diphtheriae grows faster than other throat bacteria - c. Potassium tellurite medium is used to divide C. diphtheriae into 3 biotypes 295. Which of the following statements is correct: - a. C. diphtheriae type gravis produces small, white, flattened colonies - b. C. diphtheriae type gravis produces small, shiny, black colonies with flattened edges - c. C. diphtheriae type gravis produces large, gray-black colonies with a ridged surface and jagged edges 296. The virulence factor of C. diphtheriae is: - a. Capsule - b. Cord factor - c. M protein - d. Hyaluronidase 297. C. diphtheriae secretes (circle the correct answer): - a. Strong endotoxin of glycoprotein nature - b. Strong exotoxin of polypeptide nature - c. Strong exotoxin of lipid nature 298. Circle the correct answers: - a. The toxin of C. diphtheriae consists of 2 fragments labeled as A and B - b. The toxin of C. diphtheriae inhibits the synthesis of eukaryotic cell proteins with fragment B - c. The toxin of C. diphtheriae inhibits the synthesis of eukaryotic cell proteins with fragment A - d. The toxin of C. diphtheriae enters the eukaryotic cell with its fragment B 299. Which of the following answers is not correct: - a. Diphtheria is a local disease of the nasopharynx characterized by pseudomembranes - b. Diphtheria is an invasive disease - c. Diphtheria is a mild disease characterized by easily removable whitish deposits - d. C. diphtheriae penetrates tissues and enters the bloodstream causing systemic disease 300. Production of C. diphtheriae toxin in vivo is demonstrated by: - a. Elek's test - b. Schick test - c. Romer's test 301. Production of C. diphtheriae toxin in vitro is demonstrated by: - a. Romer's test - b. Elek's test - c. Schick test 302. A positive Romer's test is described as: - a. Phenomenon of inverted fir tree - b. Phenomenon of cocarde - c. Phenomenon of pancake 303. Production of C. diphtheriae toxin is influenced by: - a. Magnesium-phosphate - b. Iron - c. Nicotinic acid 304. The vaccine against diphtheria contains: - a. Toxoid/anatoxin - b. Dead bacillus - c. Live attenuated bacillus - d. Protein antigens of the bacillus cell wall 305. The gene for production of C. diphtheriae toxin is located on: - a. Plasmid - b. Chromosome - c. Transposon - d. Bacteriophage 306. The toxin of C. diphtheriae is produced by: - a. All strains - b. Only C. diphtheriae type gravis - c. Only C. diphtheriae type mitis - d. Only strains of C. diphtheriae infected with bacteriophage 307. Invasion of the nasopharyngeal epithelium during C. diphtheriae infection is carried out by: - a. Only toxigenic strains - b. Only non-toxigenic strains - c. Only C. diphtheriae type gravis - d. Toxigenic and non-toxigenic strains of C. diphtheriae 308. Immunity status to C. diphtheriae can be examined by: - a. Elek's test - b. Romer's test - c. Schick test 309. Difteroids are (circle the correct answers): - a. Conditionally pathogenic bacteria - b. Pathogenic bacteria - c. Bacteria that constitute the normal flora of the respiratory tract mucosa 310. C. minutissimum is characterized by the appearance of plaques that fluoresce: - a. Metallic-blue color - b. Golden-yellow color - c. Coral-red color 311. To which of the following groups of bacteria does the genus Bacteroides belong: - a. Gram-positive bacilli - b. Enterobacteria - c. Gram-negative bacilli 312. Fusobacterium is: - a. Aerobic bacillus - b. Facultatively anaerobic bacillus - c. Strictly anaerobic bacillus 313. The most significant pathogenic species of the genus Bacteroides is: - a. Bacteroides vulgatus - b. Bacteroides fragilis - c. Bacteroides uniformis 314. Circle the correct answers: - a. Bacteroides is an anaerobic, sporogenic bacillus - b. Bacteroides fragilis is indole negative - c. Bacteroides species are non-motile bacilli - d. Bacteroides is an asporogenic bacillus 315. Which of the following phenomena does B. fragilis exhibit on blood agar: - a. It exhibits β-hemolysis zone - b. It exhibits α-hemolysis zone - c. It does not perform hemolysis, i.e., it is anhemolytic 316. The cultural characteristic of B. fragilis is: - a. Colonies are round, whitish, with ring formations in the center - b. Colonies are round, convex, gray, with concentric vugular markings in the center - c. Colonies are hemolytic, rough, greenish 317. The main characteristic of B. fragilis is: - a. Formation of black colonies - b. Resistance to bile - c. Production of indole 318. On the antibiogram, B. fragilis shows the following characteristics (circle the correct answers): - a. B. fragilis is sensitive to penicillin preparations - b. B. fragilis is resistant to penicillin preparations - c. B. fragilis is resistant to rifampin - d. B. fragilis is sensitive to rifampin 319. Which of the following from the genus Bacteroides possesses a capsule: - a. B. ovatus - b. B. fragilis - c. B. vulgatus 320. Circle the correct answer: - a. B. fragilis grows slower in the presence of bile - b. B. fragilis grows faster in the presence of bile - c. B. fragilis from liquid media often possesses vacuoles - d. B. fragilis from liquid media does not possess vacuoles 321. The genus Porphyromonas belongs to which group: - a. Saccharolytic bacilli - b. Asaccharolytic bacilli - c. Moderately saccharolytic bacilli 322. Porphyromonas is: - a. Depigmented bacterium - b. Pigmented bacterium 323. Which pigment does Porphyromonas produce: - a. Greenish exopigment - b. Reddish endopigment - c. It does not produce pigment 324. What distinguishes the genus Prevotella from the genus Porphyromonas: - a. Fermentation of glucose - b. Non-fermentation of glucose - c. Resistance to bile - d. Sensitivity to bile 325. The main metabolic product of Fusobacterium is _______________. 326. What characteristics does the genus Porphyromonas possess: - a. Inhibition in the presence of bile - b. Production of indole - c. Formation of brown-black colonies - d. Non-fermentation of glucose 327. Which of the following bacilli from the genus Fusobacterium differs in rifampin resistance: - a. Fusobacterium nucleatum - b. Fusobacterium necrophorum - c. Fusobacterium mortiferum 328. According to the antibiogram, Fusobacterium varium is: - a. Resistant to aminoglycosides - b. Resistant to cephalosporins - c. Resistant to penicillin G - d. Resistant to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole 329. Which of the following clinical signs characterize Fusobacterium infection (list the correct answers): - a. Gas in tissues - b. Blood-tinged mucoid secretion at the site of infection - c. Purulent infection - d. Foul odor at the site of infection 330. On which medium are genera Fusobacterium and Bacteroides cultured: - a. On selective medium with added kanamycin - b. On blood agar with added novobiocin - c. On MacConkey agar - d. On SS agar 331. "Zone of temporary agranulocytosis" is a phenomenon created by: - a. Difteroids - b. C. diphtheriae - c. Listeria monocytogenes - d. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae 332. Listeria monocytogenes is (circle the correct answer): - a. Gram-positive, sporogenic, non-motile bacillus - b. Gram-negative, asporogenic, non-motile bacillus - c. Gram-negative, sporogenic, non-motile bacillus - d. Gram-positive, asporogenic, motile bacillus 333. Listeria monocytogenes grows on __________________________ nutrient medium. 334. On blood agar, Listeria monocytogenes gives (circle the correct answer): - a. Smooth, whitish, shiny colonies with a zone of β hemolysis - b. Smooth, shiny, non-hemolytic colonies - c. Large, whitish, corrugated colonies with a zone of α hemolysis 335. Listeria monocytogenes is: - a. Catalase positive - b. Catalase negative - c. Produces gas during sugar fermentation - d. Does not produce gas during sugar fermentation 336. Biochemically, Listeria monocytogenes exhibits the following characteristics (circle the correct answer): - a. Ferments glucose, maltose, does not ferment mannitol and produces gas - b. Ferments glucose, maltose, does not ferment mannitol and inulin, and produces gas - c. Ferments glucose, maltose, decomposes esculin, does not ferment mannitol and inulin, and does not produce gas 337. Diagnosis of Listeriosis is based on isolating the causative agent from (list the correct answers): - a. Urine - b. Stool - c. Blood - d. Cerebrospinal fluid 338. Listeria monocytogenes is the causative agent of (list the correct answers): - a. Gastroenteritis - b. Meningitis and encephalitis - c. Granulomatosis infantiseptica 339. Circle the correct answer: - a. L. monocytogenes crosses the placenta - b. L. monocytogenes does not cross the placenta 340. Listeria monocytogenes is: - a. Resistant to low temperatures - b. Sensitive to low temperatures - c. Can actively multiply at 4°C - d. Cannot actively multiply at 4°C 341. L. monocytogenes invades epithelial cells through: - a. Pili - b. Internalin proteins - c. M protein 342. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is: - a. Gram-positive, non-motile, asporogenic bacillus - b. Gram-positive, motile, asporogenic bacillus - c. Gram-negative, asporogenic, non-motile bacillus 343. Biochemically, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is: - a. Catalase positive - b. Catalase negative 344. Culturally, E. rhusiopathiae gives (circle the correct answers): - a. Smooth colonies in short chains - b. Rough colonies in long filamentous forms - c. Smooth colonies in long chains, with a zone of β hemolysis 345. Human infections caused by E. rhusiopathiae occur by: - a. Ingesting bacilli through the digestive tract - b. Penetration of bacilli through damaged skin 346. Which of the following statements are not correct: - a. Strictly anaerobic bacteria possess a cytochrome system for oxygen metabolism - b. Strictly anaerobic bacteria lack superoxide dismutase enzyme - c. Strictly anaerobic bacteria lack a cytochrome system for oxygen metabolism - d. Strictly anaerobic bacteria possess enzymes for degradation of superoxide free radicals 347. Obligatory anaerobic bacteria (circle the correct answers): - a. Possess catalase and SOD enzymes - b. Do not possess catalase and SOD enzymes - c. Degrade H2O2 - d. Do not degrade H2O2 348. Capnophilic bacteria are (select the correct answer): - a. Bacteria that tolerate oxygen - b. Bacteria that grow poorly on the surface of nutrient media in the presence of oxygen - c. Bacteria that require carbon dioxide for growth 349. Bacteroides species are: - a. Anaerobic, Gram-negative, asporogenic bacilli - b. Aerobic, Gram-negative, asporogenic bacilli - c. Anaerobic, Gram-positive, asporogenic bacilli 350. Prevotella melaninogenica is: - a. Gram-negative, sporogenic, aerobic bacillus - b. Gram-positive, anaerobic, asporogenic bacillus - c. Gram-negative, asporogenic, anaerobic coccobacillus 351. Porphyromonas species are Gram-negative, _____________ bacilli. 352. One of the basic biochemical characteristics of Fusobacterium species is: - a. Sugar degradation to acids - b. Mannitol fermentation - c. Threonine degradation to acids - d. Inulin fermentation 353. Circle the correct answer: - a. Actinomyces is Gram-negative, anaerobic bacillus - b. Actinomyces is Gram-positive, aerobic bacillus - c. Actinomyces is Gram-positive, anaerobic bacillus 354. Lactic acid, a metabolic product of Lactobacillus, maintains (circle the correct answers): - a. Low pH of the vagina - b. High pH of the vagina - c. Constitutes normal vaginal microflora - d. Does not constitute normal vaginal microflora 355. Match the pathogen to the disease: - Bacteroides fragilis acne - Clostridium difficile peritonitis - Propionibacterium acnes pseudomembranous colitis - Fusobacterium osteomyelitis 356. Which of the following enzymes plays an important role in tissue damage and destruction in anaerobic bacterial infections: - a. Superoxide dismutase enzyme - b. Cytochrome oxidase enzyme - c. Heparinase enzyme - d. Collagenase enzyme 357. The virulence factor of Bacteroides is: - a. Lipoteichoic acid - b. M protein and lipoteichoic acid - c. Capsular polysaccharide - d. Peptidoglycan 358. Regarding the genus Bacteroides (circle the correct answers): - a. Produces exotoxins - b. Releases endotoxin - c. Does not produce toxins at all - d. Produces enzymes 359. Actinomyces are: - a. Gram-negative bacilli with granular filaments - b. Gram-positive bacilli with granular filaments - c. Not stained by Gram staining 360. Actinomycosis is a disease characterized by: - a. Basal granules composed of numerous filaments - b. Acidic "sulfur granules" composed of filaments 361. Initial changes in actinomycosis occur in: - a. Lungs - b. Digestive tract - c. Facial and neck skin - d. CNS 362. Actinomyces israelii is sensitive to (circle the correct answers): - a. Amphotericin B - b. Penicillin G - c. Corticosteroids - d. Erythromycin 363. Nocardia asteroides is (circle the correct answer): - a. Grows on all nutrient media giving colonies shaped like S - b. Grows on specialized nutrient media giving S-shaped colonies - c. Grows on all nutrient media giving colonies shaped like R - d. Grows on specialized nutrient media giving D-shaped colonies 364. Which of the following statements are not correct: - a. Nocardia asteroides is a Gram-positive bacillus that does not form "sulfur granules" - b. Nocardia asteroides is a Gram-positive bacillus that forms "sulfur granules" - c. Nocardia asteroides is a Gram-negative bacillus that does not form "sulfur granules" - d. Nocardia asteroides is a Gram-negative bacillus that forms "sulfur granules" 365. In the treatment of nocardiosis, the following are used: - a. Penicillin G and erythromycin - b. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole - c. Isoniazid - d. Salbutamol 366. The following genera of bacteria belong to the family Enterobacteriaceae (choose the correct answer): a. Escherichia, Shigella, Salmonella, Corynebacterium, Klebsiella, Proteus, and others b. Corynebacterium, Klebsiella, Moraxella, Enterobacter, Salmonella, Proteus, Escherichia, etc. c. Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Serratia, Shigella, Salmonella, Escherichia, Proteus, etc. 367. The biochemical characteristics of the family Enterobacteriaceae include the following accurate statement: a. Reduction of nitrate to nitrite, fermentation of glucose to acids, positive oxidase b. Reduction of nitrate to nitrite, incomplete fermentation of glucose, negative oxidase c. Reduction of nitrate to nitrite, complete fermentation of glucose to acids and gas, positive oxidase 368. Which bacterium from the family Enterobacteriaceae always has a capsule? Enterobacter Klebsiella Morganella Pseudomonas aeruginosa 369. To differentiate Salmonella and Shigella from other enterobacteria in stool culture, the following medium is used: Endo agar TSI agar (Triple Sugar Iron) Thayer-Martin medium Chocolate agar 370. The common characteristic of most species of "coliform bacilli" is that they: a. Ferment lactose b. Do not ferment lactose c. Produce H2S d. Do not produce H2S 371. "Coliform bacteria" act antagonistically against other pathogenic bacteria by secreting ____________. 372. Salmonella on TSI agar produces (choose the correct answer): Alkaline slant and butt Acidic slant and alkaline butt Acidic slant and butt Alkaline slant and acidic butt 373. Proteus, Providencia, and Morganella on TSI agar give (choose the correct answer): a. Acidic slant and yellow color b. Acidic slant and red color c. Alkaline slant and red color d. Alkaline slant and yellow color 374. Escherichia coli is biochemically (choose the correct answer): a. Indole positive, does not ferment mannitol, does not produce gas b. Indole positive, ferments mannitol, produces gas c. Indole negative, ferments mannitol, produces gas 375. Which E. coli antigen is responsible for cross-virulence with N. meningitidis? a. Somatic O antigen b. Capsular K1 antigen c. Flagellar H antigen 376. Which of the following answers is correct: a. E. coli is Gram-negative, aerobic, non-motile b. E. coli is Gram-positive, aerobic, motile c. E. coli is Gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, non-motile d. None of the provided answers is correct 377. On Endo agar, E. coli forms (provide the correct answer): a. Colorless, lactose-negative colonies with a metallic sheen b. Pink, lactose-negative colonies with a metallic sheen c. Red-green, lactose-positive colonies with a metallic sheen 378. Colonies of E. coli on nutrient media are: a. S-form b. R-form c. L-form d. M-form 379. The Voges-Proskauer test is used for the biochemical testing of ____________. 380. Choose the correct answer: a. The "O" antigen of E. coli is a thermolabile glycolipopolypeptide b. The "O" antigen of E. coli is a thermostable protein c. The "O" antigen of E. coli is a thermostable glycolipopolypeptide 381. Which E. coli antigen has the highest pathogenic potential? a. "O" antigen b. "H" antigen c. "K" antigen 382. The "O" antigen of E. coli is (choose the correct answer): a. Endotoxin, lipopolysaccharide b. Endotoxin, protein c. Exotoxin, lipopolysaccharide d. Exotoxin, protein 383. With which group of streptococci does E. coli cause meningitis in infants: a. Streptococcus group A b. Streptococcus group B c. Streptococcus group C d. Streptococcus group D 384. Match enterobacteria with the bacteriocins they produce: - Pseudomonas produces marcescin - E. coli produces pyocyanin - Serratia produces colicin 385. In enterocytes, enterotoxigenic E. coli leads to an increase in: a. Adenosine triphosphate b. Adenine dinucleotide diphosphate c. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate d. Adenosine diphosphate 386. Enterotoxigenic E. coli binds (choose the correct answer): a. B subunit of enterotoxin to A component of epithelial cells of the small intestine b. A subunit of enterotoxin to G1 ganglioside of epithelial cells of the large intestine c. B subunit of enterotoxin to G1 ganglioside of epithelial cells of the small intestine d. A subunit of enterotoxin to B component of epithelial cells of the small intestine 387. Enterotoxin of enterotoxigenic E. coli (choose the correct statements): a. Activates guanylate cyclase with subunit A b. Activates guanylate cyclase with subunit B c. Activates adenylate cyclase with subunit A d. Production of enterotoxin is plasmid-encoded 388. Detection of E. coli enterotoxin is performed: a. By cultivation on blood agar b. By cultivation on Endo agar c. By cultivation in cell culture 389. Colonization factors of E. coli are detected: a. In vivo in white mice b. By ELISA test c. By hemagglutination method 390. Enteropathogenic strains of E. coli produce the following toxins: a. Thermostable exotoxin b. Vero-toxin c. Thermolabile exotoxin d. Shiga-like toxin 391. Invasiveness of enteroinvasive strains of E. coli is demonstrated (choose the correct answers): a. In vitro on Hep-2 cell culture b. In vitro on CHO-ovarian cells of hamster c. In vivo by Sereny test on guinea pig eye d. By modified Elek test 392. Which of the following statements are correct: a. Vero toxin of enterohemorrhagic E. coli activates guanylate cyclase b. Vero toxin of enterohemorrhagic E. coli activates adenylate cyclase c. Vero toxin of enterohemorrhagic E. coli inhibits protein synthesis d. Production of Vero toxin of enterohemorrhagic E. coli is encoded by a plasmid e. Production of Vero toxin of enterohemorrhagic E. coli is encoded by a phage 393. Culturally, Klebsiella forms (provide the correct answer): a. Smooth, shiny, large, lactose-negative colonies b. Large, confluent, gray colonies, lactose-positive c. Large, smooth, shiny, confluent colonies, lactose-positive 394. Which of the following statements regarding the biochemical activity of Klebsiella bacteria are not correct: a. Ferments sugars without gas production, citrate positive, gives positive Voges-Proskauer test b. Ferments sugars with gas and acid production, citrate positive, gives positive Voges-Proskauer test c. Ferments sugars with gas and acid production, citrate negative, gives positive Voges-Proskauer test 395. Two species of Klebsiella are significant for humans: a. Kl. Pneumoniae and Kl. Ozaenae b. Kl. Pneumoniae and Kl. Oxytoca c. Kl. Pneumoniae and Kl. Rhinoscleromatis d. Kl. Pneumoniae and Kl. terrigena 396. Klebsiella pneumoniae subspecies ozaenae is the causative agent of which of the following diseases: a. Fetid progressive hypertrophy of nasal mucosa b. Acute hypertrophy of nasal mucous membrane c. Fetid chronic atrophy of nasal mucosa d. Chronic lobular pneumonia 397. Klebsiella pneumoniae subspecies rhinoscleromatis is the causative agent of: a. Hemorrhagic necrosis in the lungs b. Destructive atrophy of nasal mucosa characterized by foul odor c. Destructive granuloma of nasal mucosa with appearance of tumorous formations 398. Klebsiella forms a capsule that is composed of: a. Glycolipid b. Glycoprotein c. Polysaccharide d. Lipid 399. Identification of the capsule of Klebsiella bacteria is performed: a. Culturally on differential nutrient media b. With specific antiserum c. By biochemical identification tests 400. Serratia is biochemically (choose the correct answer): a. Citrate positive, does not produce DNase, gives alkaline slant on triple sugar agar b. Citrate positive, produces DNase, gives alkaline slant on triple sugar agar c. Citrate positive, produces DNase, gives alkaline butt and acidic slant 401. Serratia marcescens culture typically produces: a. Yellowish colonies due to endopigment formation b. Pink colonies due to endopigment formation c. Pink colonies due to exopigment secretion d. Yellowish colonies due to exopigment secretion 402. Serratia marcescens is on the antibiotic susceptibility test: a. Multiresistant to cephalosporins b. Sensitive to β-lactam antibiotics c. Multiresistant to β-lactam antibiotics d. Sensitive to aminoglycosides 403. Which of the following enterobacteria are significant for humans: a. Hafnia tarda and Edwardsiella tarda b. Hafnia tarda and Edwardsiella alvei c. Hafnia alvei and Edwardiella tarda 404. Which of the following bacteria from the genus Enterobacter spp. are the most common causes of nosocomial infections: a. Enterobacter cloacae b. Enterobacter aerogenes c. Enterobacter agglomerans d. Enterobacter sakazakii 405. Some strains of Citrobacter spp. are biochemically very similar to: a. Shigellae b. Morganellae c. Salmonellae d. Klebsiellae 406. Which of the following bacteria uses citrate as a source of carbon: a. Escherichia coli b. Proteus mirabilis c. Citrobacter d. Serratia 407. Morganella morganii is biochemically: a. Urease negative, slow lactose fermenter, deaminates phenylalanine b. Urease positive, slow lactose fermenter, does not deaminate phenylalanine c. Urease positive, slow lactose fermenter, deaminates phenylalanine 408. Which of the following statements is correct: a. Providencia is a Gram-positive coccobacillus, motile, facultative anaerobe b. Providencia is a Gram-negative coccobacillus, motile, facultative anaerobe c. Providencia is a Gram-negative coccobacillus, non-motile, facultative anaerobe 409. Morphologically and culturally, Proteus is: a. Gram-negative, asporogenic, encapsulated bacillus with pronounced peritrichal flagella b. Gram-positive, asporogenic bacillus, non-encapsulated, with pronounced peritrichal flagella c. Gram-negative, asporogenic bacillus, non-encapsulated, with pronounced peritrichal flagella 410. Which of the following biochemical characteristics of Proteus is not correct: a. Urease positive, rapid lactose fermenter, glucose negative, alkaline slant b. Urease positive, slow lactose fermenter, glucose positive, alkaline slant 411. Proteus shares specific polysaccharides with which strain of Rickettsia: a. Proteus mirabilis (OX strains) b. Proteus vulgaris (OX strains) c. Proteus vulgaris (OY strains) d. Proteus mirabilis (OY strains) 412. In urinary infections caused by Proteus, urine is: a. Acidic b. Neutral c. Alkaline 413. Which of the following cultural characteristics are correct for Proteus: a. Wavy, concentric, gray-white colonies with swarming phenomenon b. Smell of linden c. Mucosity and confluency of colonies d. Ammonia smell 414. Similarity of __________ antigens between Proteus vulgaris and rickettsiae is demonstrated by __________ reaction of agglutination. 415. Proteus vulgaris is (choose the correct answers): a. Resistant to penicillin b. Sensitive to cephalosporins c. Resistant to cephalosporins d. Resistant to aminoglycosides e. None of the above 416. Proteus mirabilis is (choose the correct answers): a. Sensitive to amphotericin B b. Sensitive to aminoglycosides c. Sensitive to ampicillin d. None of the above 417. The genus Pseudomonas is divided into species that belong to groups based on (choose the correct answers): a. Production of pigment b. Biochemical characteristics c. Homology of ribosomal ribonucleic acid (rRNA) d. Antigenic structure 418. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is: a. Strictly pathogenic bacterium b. Opportunistic pathogenic bacterium 419. To which group does Pseudomonas aeruginosa belong: a. rRNA group II b. rRNA group I c. rRNA group IV d. rRNA group III 420. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is: a. Gram-negative, strictly pathogenic bacterium b. Gram-positive, strictly pathogenic bacterium c. Gram-positive, opportunistic pathogenic bacterium d. Gram-negative, opportunistic pathogenic bacterium 421. Which of the following statements is correct: a. P. aeruginosa is an anaerobic bacterium b. P. aeruginosa is a facultative aerobic bacterium c. P. aeruginosa is an aerobic bacterium 422. Which of the following cultural characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not correct: a. Colonies are large, individual, with characteristic exopigment secretion, broth becomes turbid with flakes b. Colonies are small, confluent, non-hemolytic on blood agar, broth remains clear c. Colonies are large, confluent, β-hemolytic on blood agar, broth diffusely turbid Here are the translations for the remaining questions from Serbian to English: 423. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is (choose the correct answer): a. Gram-negative, non-motile, non-spore-forming, non-capsulated b. Gram-positive, non-motile, non-spore-forming, capsulated c. Gram-negative, motile, non-spore-forming, non-capsulated d. Gram-positive, motile, encapsulated, non-spore-forming 424. Identification of P. aeruginosa is based on (choose the correct answers): a. Colony morphology, negative oxidase test, characteristic pigment b. Colony morphology, positive oxidase test, characteristic pigment c. Characteristic ammonia smell, lactose fermentation, positive indole and citrate test d. Characteristic linden smell, growth at 42 °C, lactose fermentation 425. Which of the following diseases is caused by the endotoxin of P. aeruginosa: a. Erythema, edema, and hemorrhages b. Necrosis of the cornea c. Piose enterocolitis 426. Pseudomonas aeruginosa secretes: a. Exopigments pyocyanin, fluorescein, pyoverdin, pyorubin b. Endopigments pyocyanin, fluorescein, pyoverdin, pyorubin 427. The mechanism of action of the exotoxins of P. aeruginosa is: a. Inhibition of protein synthesis b. Hydrolysis of lecithin c. Increase in cAMP concentration 428. Pseudomonas putrefaciens is: a. Glucose-fermenting bacterium b. Non-glucose-fermenting bacterium c. The only glucose-fermenting bacterium in the genus Pseudomonas 429. Which of the following virulence factors is not possessed by P. aeruginosa: a. Phospholipase b. Elastase c. Hyaluronidase d. Hemolysin 430. On an antibiogram, Pseudomonas aeruginosa shows (choose the incorrect answers): a. Sensitivity to novobiocin b. Resistance to aminoglycosides and penicillins c. Sensitivity to third-generation cephalosporins d. Multiresistance 431. Ecthyma gangrenosum (hemorrhagic skin necrosis) is an infection caused by: a. Proteus vulgaris b. Proteus mirabilis c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Pseudomonas putida 432. Pseudomonas putrefaciens: a. Produces H2S and is oxidase-negative b. Does not produce H2S and is oxidase-negative c. Is the only Pseudomonas species that produces H2S and is oxidase-positive 433. Pseudomonas pseudomallei is: a. Gram-negative, aerobic, motile bacillus b. Gram-negative, anaerobic, non-motile bacillus c. Gram-positive, aerobic, non-motile bacillus 434. Cultural characteristic of Pseudomonas pseudomallei is: a. Does not grow on blood agar, grows at 42°C b. Grows rapidly on blood agar, grows at 25°C c. Grows slowly on blood agar, grows at 42°C 435. Which of the following species of Pseudomonas is non-motile: a. Pseudomonas mallei b. Pseudomonas pseudomallei c. Pseudomonas putida d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 436. Match the causative agent with the disease: Pseudomonas mallei Glanders Pseudomonas pseudomallei Cystic fibrosis Pseudomonas cepacia Nosocomial infections Pseudomonas aeruginosa Sakaguchi 437. Pseudomonas mallei on blood agar: a. Grows giving greenish colonies b. Does not grow on blood agar c. Grows giving gray-white colonies 438. Pseudomonas mallei is morphologically: a. Gram-positive, motile, aerobic coccobacillus b. Gram-negative, aerobic, motile bacillus c. Gram-negative, non-motile, aerobic bacillus 439. On solid nutrient media, Pseudomonas pseudomallei: a. Forms smooth and shiny colonies, has a pus-like odor b. Forms smooth and shiny colonies, has a linden odor c. Forms umbilicated colonies, has a pus-like odor 440. The diagnosis of glanders, a disease caused by Pseudomonas mallei, is made based on: a. Immunofluorescence test b. Immunofluorescence test and isolation of the pathogen from lesions c. Rise in agglutinin titer and isolation of the pathogen from lesions 441. Xanthomonas maltophilia belongs to which genus: a. Moraxella b. Pseudomonas c. Proteus d. None of the above 442. Xanthomonas maltophilia secretes: a. Green pigment b. Fluorescein c. Yellow pigment d. Pyocyanin 443. Colonies of Xanthomonas maltophilia are: a. Rough on blood agar, yellow in color, smell like pus b. Rough on blood agar, greenish in color, smell like ammonia c. Rough on blood agar, fluorescent-blue in color, smell like ammonia d. Rough on blood agar, greenish in color, smell like linden 444. According to the antibiogram, Xanthomonas maltophilia is: a. Sensitive to cephalosporins and resistant to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and penicillins b. Resistant to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and sensitive to cephalosporins and penicillins c. Resistant to penicillins and sensitive to aminoglycosides and cephalosporins d. Sensitive to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and resistant to cephalosporins and penicillins e. Resistant only to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole 445. By which characteristic do Acinetobacter and Neisseria differ: a. Neisseria is oxidase-positive, while Acinetobacter is oxidase-negative b. Neisseria is oxidase-negative, while Acinetobacter is oxidase-positive 446. Which of the following Shigella do not ferment lactose (select the correct answers): a. Shigella flexneri b. Shigella boydii c. Shigella sonnei d. Shigella dysenteriae 447. Fermentation of glucose is performed by (select the correct answer): a. Only Shigella dysenteriae b. Only Shigella boydii c. Only Shigella flexneri d. All Shigella species perform glucose fermentation 448. Which biochemical characteristic is most commonly used to differentiate Shigella from other Enterobacteriaceae: a. Mannitol fermentation b. Glucose fermentation c. Oxidase test d. Lactose fermentation 449. Shigella dysenteriae belongs to: a. Subgroup B b. Subgroup A c. Subgroup C d. Subgroup D 450. Shigella from subgroup B are: a. Lactose-positive, mannitol-negative b. Lactose-negative, mannitol-positive c. Lactose-negative, mannitol-negative d. Lactose-positive, mannitol-positive 451. Shigella from subgroup A are: a. Lactose-positive, mannitol-positive b. Lactose-negative, mannitol-negative c. Lactose-positive, mannitol-negative d. Lactose-negative, mannitol-positive 452. On nutrient media, Shigella forms: a. Raised, confluent, lactose-positive, translucent colonies b. Raised, individual, lactose-positive, tra