Test Bank For Microbiology: A Systems Approach (PDF)

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A hypothesis must be tested many times before it can be considered a theory. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2) Many chronic medical conditions have been found to be associ...

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A hypothesis must be tested many times before it can be considered a theory. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2) Many chronic medical conditions have been found to be associated with microbial agents. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3) All bacteria and archaea are microorganisms, but only some eukaryotes are microorganisms. ⊚ true ⊚ false 4) The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured. ⊚ true ⊚ false 5) Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom. ⊚ true ⊚ false 6) The names of the three proposed domains are: Bacteria, Protista, and Eukarya. ⊚ true ⊚ false Version 1 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) Microorganisms are best defined as organisms that _______. A) cause human disease B) lack a cell nucleus C) are infectious particles D) are too small to be seen with the unaided eye E) can only be found growing in laboratories 8) Which of the following are not considered microorganisms? A) Mosquitoes B) Protozoa C) Bacteria D) Viruses E) Fungi 9) Helminths are ______. A) bacteria B) protozoa C) molds D) parasitic worms E) infectious particles 10) Among these types of microorganisms, the ______ arenoncellular. Version 1 2  A) viruses B) helminths C) protozoans D) bacteria 11) Studies of the immune response to an infection caused by microorganisms would be performed by a/an _______. A) hypersensitivity specialist B) epidemiologist C) immunologist D) geomicrobiologist 12) Which of the following pairs of career descriptions and work tasks is not correctly matched? A) Industrial microbiologist -- manipulate bacterial strains to be less pathogenic B) Agricultural microbiologist -- identify bacterial causes of crop disease C) Public health microbiologist -- track the incidence of AIDS in a population D) Medical microbiologist -- identify the cause of a bladder infection at a hospital lab 13) A scientist who studies the influence of microbes in the formation of caves is called a/an ______. A) geomicrobiologist B) astrobiologist C) epidemiologist D) immunologist 14) Astrobiology is considered a sub-discipline of microbiology because _______. Version 1 3  A) life elsewhere in the universe is likely to be microbial B) microbes are known to exist on other planets C) all extraterrestrials known are microbial D) only microbes can reproduce under the extreme conditions in outer space 15) Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow? A) Thermal hot springs warmed by heat from earth's interior B) Formation of greenhouse gases, CO 2 and methane C) Digestion of complex carbohydrates in animal diets D) Decomposition of dead matter and wastes 16) The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called ______. A) decomposers B) prokaryotes C) pathogens D) eukaryotes E) fermenters 17) The majority of oxygen in earth's atmosphere is a product of photosynthesis by ______. A) microorganisms B) rain forests C) agricultural lands D) green plants 18) The three cell types discussed, eukaryotes, archaea, and bacteria, all derived from ______. Version 1 4  A) a common ancestral cell B) photosynthetic bacteria C) archaea D) cells with a true nucleus 19) The first cells appeared about _____ billion years ago. A) 5 B) 4 C) 3.5 D) 2 E) 1 20) Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time? A) Morphology B) Phylogeny C) Evolution D) Genetics E) Transformation 21) When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms, the process is called ______. A) bioremediation B) genetic engineering C) epidemiology D) immunology E) taxonomy 22) Which activity is an example of biotechnology? Version 1 5  A) Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors B) A microbiologist using the microscope to view bacteria C) Egyptians usingmoldy bread on wounds D) Escherichia coli producing human insulin E) Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community 23) Which of the following is a traditional human use of microorganisms? A) Baking bread B) Treating water and sewage C) Mass-producing antibiotics D) Cleaning up oil spills 24) Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of ______. A) biotechnology B) bioremediation C) decomposition D) immunology E) epidemiology 25) Disease-causing microorganisms are called ______. A) decomposers B) bacteria C) pathogens D) eukaryotes E) fermenters 26) The number one worldwide infectious diseases are ______. Version 1 6  A) AIDS-related diseases B) diarrheal diseases C) malaria and other protozoan diseases D) measles and other rash diseases E) respiratory diseases 27) The incidence of deaths from communicable disease is ______ in the United States compared to the entire world. A) less B) greater C) about the same 28) In which way are bacteria and eukaryotes the same? A) Contain membrane-bound organelles B) Possess a cell membrane C) Contain a nucleus to hold DNA D) Always have a cell wall for rigidity 29) In which way are archaea and eukaryotesthe same? A) Contain membrane-bound organelles B) Have similar ssu rRNA sequences C) Contain mitochondria for energy production D) Possess RNA instead of DNA 30) Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? Version 1 7  A) Cause human disease B) Lack a nucleus C) Cannot be seen without a microscope D) Contain genetic material E) Lack cell structure 31) Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering? A) Viruses B) Bacteria C) Parasites D) Fungi E) Yeasts 32) Eukaryotic cells are larger than bacterial or archaeal cells; allcells are larger than macromolecules. Where do viruses fit on this scale? A) Viruses are larger than eukaryotic cells. B) Viruses are smaller than eukaryotic cells, but larger than bacterial or archaeal cells. C) Viruses are smaller than bacterial or archaeal cells, but larger than macromolecules. D) Viruses are smaller than macromolecules. 33) In general, eukaryotic cells are about ______ times larger than bacterial or archaeal cells. A) 2 B) 10 C) 50 D) 1000 34) Archaealcells are about ______ bacterial cells. Version 1 8  A) the same size as B) ten times larger than C) ten times smaller than 35) Which of the following historical microbiologists is incorrectly paired with his contribution to the science? A) Francesco Redi: tested spontaneous generation with meat exposed to the air or covered with cloth B) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek:made and used quality magnifying lenses to observe and record microorganisms C) Louis Pasteur: demonstrated that anthrax was caused by a bacterium D) Joseph Lister: promoted disinfecting hands and air prior to surgery 36) In the experiments constructed by Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation, swan- necked flasks were used. Why was this shape of flask used in this experiment? A) The glass necks needed to be open to the air, yet constructed so that bacteria would settle in the lowest part of the neck. B) These flask shapes were the easiest and cheapest to produce. C) The shape of the glass neck allowed the bacteria into the flask and then into the media, but air could not enter. D) Because the glass necks were stretched out, the heat used to sterilize the medium inside of the flask could not kill the bacteria in the neck. 37) Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that ______. A) microbes are found on dust particles B) a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease C) life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms D) a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom E) microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills Version 1 9 38) Which of the following is NOT a recent discovery that has had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology? A) Restriction enzymes B) PCR technique C) Human microbiome project D) Small RNAs E) All are significant discoveries. 39) The sum total of all the microbes in a certain environment is termed the ______. A) microbiome B) biofilm C) microbial niche D) domain E) phylogeny 40) Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method? A) Belief in a preconceived idea B) Formulation ofa hypothesis C) Systematic observation D) Laboratory experimentation E) Development of a theory 41) Experimentation _______. A) is designed to refute an hypothesis B) is designed to support an hypothesis C) provides a means to gather subjective data D) provides a means to gather objective data E) is the first step in the scientific method Version 1 10 42) The scientific method includes all of the following except ______. A) hypothesis B) experimentation C) observation D) publication 43) Caring for patients infected with a new virus requires safety precautions for medical personnel. Choosing appropriate procedures is an example of a/an ______ process. A) deductive B) inductive C) hypothetical D) pathogenic 44) Sterile is best described as ______. A) pathogen-free B) absence of spores C) absence of any life forms and viral particles D) pasteurized E) homogenized 45) Taxonomy does not involve ______. A) nomenclature B) classification C) identification D) a common name Version 1 11 46) Which scientific field is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms? A) Nomenclature B) Taxonomy C) Phylogeny D) Pathology E) Epidemiology 47) The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called ______. A) classification B) identification C) nomenclature D) experimentation E) biotechnology 48) Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? A) Species B) Phylum C) Kingdom D) Genus E) Family 49) The smallest and most significant taxon is a ______. A) genus B) species C) kingdom D) family E) phylum Version 1 12 50) Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right). A) Family, order, class B) Family, genus, species C) Genus, species, family D) Class, phylum, order E) Kingdom, domain, phylum 51) A mnemonic for remembering the taxonomic levels from Domain to Species is "Dear King Phillip Came Over for Good Soup." The word "came" here is a reminder of the taxonomic level of ______. A) class B) category C) chain D) colony E) culture 52) Which of the following is a scientific name? A) Gram-positive streptococcus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Anthrax D) Streptobacilli 53) When assigning a scientific name to an organism, _______. A) the species name is capitalized B) the species name is placed first C) the species name can be abbreviated D) both genus and species names are capitalized E) both genus and species names are italicized or underlined Version 1 13 54) Which scientific name is written correctly? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) staphylococcus aureus C) Staphylococcus Aureus D) Staphylococcusaureus E) S. aureus 55) A diagram of the three domains (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) proceeding from the Last CommonAncestor would show Archaea _______. A) as the original cells from which the others derived B) branching off the Domain Eukarya C) branching off the Domain Bacteria 56) Analysis of the small subunit rRNAs from all organisms in the three current domains suggests that _______. A) the eukaryotes arose from prokaryotes B) the Archaea are more closely related to bacteria than eukaryotes C) all modern and extinct organisms on earth arose from a common ancestor D) bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes are not related 57) The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called ______. A) biotechnology B) genetics C) recombinant DNA D) phylogeny E) taxonomy Version 1 14 58) A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on _______. A) determining evolutionary relatedness B) bioremediation C) recombinant DNA D) nomenclature E) determining if that species is the cause of a new disease 59) Trees of life that illustrate the phylogenetic relationships of all organisms were traditionally based on ______; newer methods for determining phylogeny rely on ______. A) morphology; nucleic acid sequences B) nucleic acid sequences; morphology C) morphology; virology D) morphology; nutritional requirements E) nucleic acid sequences; microbiomes Version 1 15 Answer Key Test name: Microbiology1 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) D 8) A 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) E Version 1 16 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) E 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) E Refer to the text and read about the recent discoveries that have had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology. 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) E 54) D Version 1 17 55) B 56) C Refer to "Systems of Presenting a Universal Tree of Life" for a discussion of the ssu rRNAs and their role in taxonomy. 57) D 58) A 59) A Version 1 18 Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2) Water molecules are nonpolar molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3) Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false 4) A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation. ⊚ true ⊚ false 5) The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present. ⊚ true ⊚ false 6) If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B. ⊚ true ⊚ false 7) The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group. Version 1 1  ⊚ true ⊚ false 8) All proteins are enzymes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 9) Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false 10) The most important outcome of polypeptide intrachain bonding and folding is the unique shape of the protein. ⊚ true ⊚ false 11) A new organism was identified that contained arsenic in place of phosphate in its DNA double helix structure.Based upon this information alone, it can be determined that this change will greatly alter the information encoded by this genetic material. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 12) An atom has gained an electron; it has been ______. A) oxidized B) reduced C) ionized D) deionized E) neutralized Version 1 2 13) Anything that occupies space and has mass is called ______. A) atomic B) living C) matter D) energy E) space 14) The electrons of an atom are _______. A) always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom B) found in the nucleus C) used to determine atomic number D) positively charged E) moving in pathways called orbitals 15) The electrons of an atom are _______. A) always equal to the number of protons B) used to determine the atomic weight C) carrying a positive charge D) used to determine the atomic number E) always in full orbitals 16) All of the following pertain to the atom Carbon-14 except it _______. A) has 6 protons B) has 6 electrons C) has 14 neutrons D) is an isotope of carbon Version 1 3 17) The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the ______. A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) protons and neutrons E) protons and electrons 18) What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 18 E) 32 19) What is the maximum number of electrons in the first energy shell of an atom? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 18 E) 32 20) Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core, which is referred to as its ______. A) valence number B) isotope C) nucleus D) center of gravity Version 1 4 21) The valence number is the _______. A) number of protons B) number of neutrons C) atomic weight D) number of electrons in the innermost orbital E) number of electrons in the outermost orbital 22) Two or more atoms bonded together are called a(n) ______. A) ion B) isotope C) element D) electrolyte E) molecule 23) What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur (S) atom? Its atomic number is 16. A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 16 E) 32 24) Polar molecules _______. A) have an equal charge distribution B) have an unequal charge distribution C) are insoluble in water D) always contain carbon E) always involve oxygen Version 1 5 25) Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms. A) carbon B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) hydrogen E) phosphorous 26) C 6H 12O 6 +C 6H 12O 6 →C 12 H 22O 11 +H 2O represents _______. A) the formation of a peptide bond B) a decomposition reaction C) a denaturation reaction D) the formation of a polysaccharide E) a dehydration synthesis 27) Substances that release ions when dissolved in water and conduct electricity are ______. A) covalent B) nonpolar C) electrons D) electrolytes E) solvents 28) A capillary tube is used to acquire a small blood sample for CBC (complete blood count) analysis. Suction is not required to transfer the blood from the fingertip prick to the tube in part due to _______. Version 1 6  A) ionic bonding between the water molecules B) cohesive forces between the glass particles of the tube and the water molecules C) covalent bonding between the water molecules D) adhesive forces between the water molecules and the glass particles of the tube 29) Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded _______. A) identical atoms B) carbon atoms C) ions D) atoms of different electronegativity E) atoms of identical electronegativity 30) Covalent bonds _______. A) result from losing electrons B) are always polar C) are always nonpolar D) result from sharing electrons E) result from gaining electrons 31) Cations are _______. A) charged subatomic particles B) atoms that have gained electrons C) atoms that have gained neutrons D) capable of forming ionic bonds with anions E) atoms without protons 32) A reaction where an electron is lost is called ______. Version 1 7  A) oxidation B) reduction C) ionization D) decomposition E) dissolution 33) Ionic bonds _______. A) result from sharing electrons B) result from transferring electrons C) result from like charge attraction D) are the weakest chemical bonds E) always involve carbon 34) Hydrogen bonds _______. A) result from attractive forces between molecules with polar covalent bonds B) result from attractive forces between molecules with polar ionic bonds C) result from attractive forces between molecules with nonpolar covalent bonds D) result from attractive forces between molecules with nonpolar ionic bonds E) are the strongest bonds between molecules 35) Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called ______. A) cations B) anions C) ions D) isotopes 36) Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction? Version 1 8  A) AB → A + B B) A + B → AB C) AB + XY → AY +XB D) AB + XY ↔ AY +XB 37) Which of the following represents a reversible reaction? A) AB → A + B B) A + B → AB C) AB + XY → AY +XB D) AB + XY ↔ AY +XB 38) Ionic compounds _______. A) are hydrophobic B) are hydrophilic C) are acidic in solution D) are basic in solution E) always form salts in solution 39) The important solvent associated with living things is ______. A) carbon dioxide B) sodium chloride C) ethyl alcohol D) benzene E) water 40) In the cell cytoplasm, molecules of ATP are a ______. Version 1 9  A) solute B) solvent 41) Burning coal produces sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere. When combined with rain that falls into bodies of water, this leads to _______. A) an increase in pH level of the water B) a greater concentration of OH- ions in the water C) a decrease in the pH level of the water D) no change in the pH level of the water 42) Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7 _______. A) is more basic B) has no OH - ions C) has more H + ions D) has a higher pH 43) Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7 is _______. A) 2 times more acidic B) 20 times more acidic C) 20 times more basic D) 100 times more acidic E) 100 times more basic 44) One techniquefor staining bacteria for viewing under the microscope is called theGram stain.In this technique, alcohol is used as a decolorizer because it degrades the outer membrane found insome bacteria.What chemical component of the cell does alcohol affect? Version 1 10  A) Protein B) Carbohydrate C) Lipid D) Nucleic acids 45) What type of bond is formed by dehydration synthesis between two amino acids? A) Glycosidic B) Ester C) Peptide D) Disulfide E) Phosphate 46) The purine ______always hydrogen bonds with the pyrimidine ______ indouble-stranded DNA. A) guanine;cytosine B) cytosine;guanine C) adenine;guanine D) thymine;guanine 47) In what way would life be different if the element carbon was absent? A) There would be no organic compounds. B) There would be no inorganic compounds. C) Life would not exist in any shape or form. D) The concept of pH would not exist. 48) A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose? Version 1 11  A) Amino acids B) Hydrogen and oxygen atoms C) Nitrogen and phosphorus D) Fatty acids E) Carbon atoms 49) Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound in which it is typically found? A) Phosphate - carbohydrates B) Sulfhydryl - proteins C) Amino - proteins D) Hydroxyl - alcohols E) Carboxyl - fatty acids 50) Most biochemical macromolecules are polymers, which are chains of ______. A) hydrophobic molecules B) electrolytic molecules C) repeating monomers D) repeating carbohydrates E) hydrogen bonds 51) All of the following are monosaccharides except ______. A) glucose B) glycogen C) fructose D) deoxyribose 52) Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds? Version 1 12  A) Triglycerides B) Monosaccharides C) Polypeptides D) Polysaccharides E) ATP 53) Starch is the primary storage food for all of the following except ______. A) green plants B) algae C) animals D) some fungi 54) Select the statement that most accurately reflects the process of plant material digestion in humans. A) It is a very efficient process the produces very little undigested material in feces. B) It is a process that is dependent upon enzyme (cellulase) production by gut microbiota. C) It requires the action of enzymes called kinases. D) It is linked to the digestion of glycogen. 55) All of the following are lipids except ______. A) cholesterol B) starch C) phospholipid D) wax E) triglyceride 56) What part of a phospholipid comprises the hydrophobic tail? Version 1 13  A) Fatty acids B) Glycerol C) Phosphate D) Alcohol E) Hydroxyl 57) A fat is called _______ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single-bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens. A) unsaturated B) polyunsaturated C) monounsaturated D) saturated 58) The building blocks of an enzyme are ______. A) nucleotides B) glycerol and fatty acids C) monosaccharides D) phosphate, glycerol, and fatty acids E) amino acids 59) An amino acid contains all of the following except a/an ______. A) amino group B) carboxyl group C) variable R group D) α carbon E) phosphate 60) An example of an amphipathic molecule found in living cells is ______. Version 1 14  A) glucose B) phospholipid C) protein D) nucleic acid E) ATP 61) The lipid group that serves as energy storage molecules is the ______. A) prostaglandins B) waxes C) phospholipids D) steroids E) triglycerides 62) All of the following are polysaccharides except ______. A) dextran in some bacterial slime layers B) agar used to make solid culture media C) a cell's glycocalyx D) cellulose in certain cell walls E) sterols in cell membranes 63) The lipid group that is the major component of cell membranes is the ______. A) prostaglandins B) waxes C) phospholipids D) steroids E) triglycerides 64) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding protein structure? Version 1 15  A) The interaction between various R groups of amino acids determines the primary structure of a protein. B) Beta-pleated sheets are a type of protein secondary structure. C) The folding of a protein to form its active site creates its tertiary structure. D) Proteins, such as antibodies that are comprised of multiple polypeptide chains, have quaternary structure. 65) Which of the following is not true about enzymes? A) Enzymes are found in all cells. B) Enzymes are catalysts. C) Enzymes participate in the cell's chemical reactions. D) Enzymes can be denaturated by heat and other agents. E) Enzymes have high-energy bonds between phosphates. 66) The alpha (α)helix is a type of _____ protein structure. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary 67) ATP differs from the nucleotides found in DNA in the _______. A) sugar portion of the molecule B) use of phosphate instead of sulfatein the backbone C) use of phosphorus in the nitrogenous base portion of the molecule D) use of adenosine instead of adenine E) use of uracil in the nitrogenous base portion of the molecule 68) One nucleotide contains one _______. Version 1 16  A) phosphate B) pentose sugar C) nitrogen base D) All of the choices are correct. 69) Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all ______. A) nucleic acids B) carbohydrates C) polysaccharides D) amino acids E) enzymes 70) Which of the following is not a pyrimidine? A) Uracil B) Adenine C) Thymine D) Cytosine 71) Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA? A) Contains ribose B) Contains adenine C) Contains thymine D) Contains uracil E) Contains nucleotides 72) Which of the following is a correct description of a component of the ATP molecule? Version 1 17  A) Sugar: deoxyribose B) Nitrogenous base: alanine C) High energy bond:peptide bond D) Sugar: ribose E) High energy bond: glycosidic bond 73) ATP is best described as _______. A) an enzyme B) a double helix C) an electron carrier D) the energy molecule of cells 74) A culture of an organism believed to cause intestinal symptoms is viewed under the microscope, and the microbiologist observes a cell membrane, flagella, mitochondria, and some dark unrecognizable structures within each cell. The microbiologist notes that the cells are eukaryotic because _______. A) only eukaryotic cells have a cell membrane B) only eukaryotic cells have mitochondria C) only eukaryotic cells have flagella D) the dark structures must be the cell nuclei 75) NASA has published a list of criteria for identifying fossil bacteria in samples from Mars, as part of a search for evidence of life. Which of the following is good evidence for the presence of bacterial cells? A) Cell size of 0.5 to 2 microns B) Three-dimensional organization of cells in a starburst pattern C) Absence of carbon in the material D) No evidence of water in the surrounding mineral Version 1 18 76) Characteristics shared by all cells include _______. A) a membrane serving as a cell boundary B) the possession of genetic information C) the presence of cellular fluid D) All of the choices are correct. 77) All cells contain _______. A) ribosomes for protein synthesis B) cell walls made of cellulose C) uracil in their DNA D) organelles for compartmentalization E) mitochondria to generate ATP Version 1 19 Answer Key Test name: Microbiology2 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) B 13) C 14) E 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) E 22) E 23) B 24) B 25) A 26) E Version 1 20 27) D 28) D 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) B 39) E 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) B 55) B 56) A Version 1 21 57) D 58) E 59) E 60) B 61) E 62) E 63) C 64) A 65) E 66) B 67) A 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) D 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) D 77) A Version 1 22 Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The procedures for culturing a microorganism require the use of a microscope. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media as pure cultures. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3) Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures. ⊚ true ⊚ false 4) Bacterial cultures are easily identified from their microscopic appearance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 5) A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium. ⊚ true ⊚ false 6) A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of some microbes to facilitate the growth of other desired microbes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 7) The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction. Version 1 1  ⊚ true ⊚ false 8) A differential interference contrast microscope uses dyes to give colored, three- dimensional images. ⊚ true ⊚ false 9) Fixed smears of specimens are required to perform the Gram stain or the endospore stain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 10) Following a properly-performed Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will appear as pink or red cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A) Themicrobiologist used too much inoculum. B) The culture was contaminated. C) The incubation temperature was incorrect. D) The culture medium was selective. E) The culture medium was differential. 12) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? Version 1 2  A) Themicrobiologist used too much inoculum. B) The culture was contaminated. C) The incubationtemperature was incorrect. D) The culture medium was selective. E) The culture medium was differential. 13) Robert Koch and his colleagues first used agar in bacteriological media. Why was this ingredientan improvement on previous materials used to culture bacteria? A) Bacteriagrowing on the solidified mediumdid not degrade or break down the agar. B) Agar canconvert from liquid to solid form, and back again, very easily. C) Agar was less expensive than the nutrients that Koch was previously using in the lab. D) Agar is a complete source of nutrients for most bacteria. 14) The bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes the sexually-transmitted infection gonorrhea. Although it can be isolated from the vagina, there are numerous normal biota in that location as well. To generate a pure culture of this pathogenic bacterium, the best choice is a/an ______. A) enrichment medium B) selective medium C) differential medium D) liquid medium 15) Thioglycolate medium contains the following: yeast extract, pancreatic digest of casein, glucose, L-cysteine, sodium chloride, sodium thioglycolate, and agar. It is considered a complex medium because _______. A) both yeast extract and pancreatic digest of casein are not chemically defined B) it has multiple ingredients for a broad range of nutrients C) depending on their oxygen utilization pattern, organisms will grow differently on it D) thioglycolate has a carbon-sulfur bond that many microbes cannot break enzymatically Version 1 3 16) Humans can see objects as small as 0.1 mm. Leeuwenhoek's best microscope could magnify objects to 300X. Which of the following would be invisibleusing Leeuwenhoek's microscope? A) Poliovirus, 30 nm B) Red blood cell, 8μm C) Pandora virus, 0.5 mm X 1 mm D) Escherichia coli, 1μm X 4μm 17) Cells of Staphylococcus aureus are cocci measuring about 1 μm in diameter. In a textbook image of S. aureus, each cell measures about 1 cm. The magnification of the image on the page is ______. A) 10,000X B) 1,000X C) 100X D) 0.01X E) 0.001X F) 0.0001X G) This is impossible to calculate without more information. 18) A textbook uses Paramecium to illustrate several types of light microscopy.Each image is magnified 230Xand measures about 4 cm. The actual size of a Paramecium is about ______. A) 175 μm B) 0.2μm C) 4,000μm D) 920μm E) 57.5μm Version 1 4 19) Your microscope has a resolving power of 0.15 μm. The specimen that you will be observing has bacterial cocci the size of 0.1μm in diameter.Which of the following statements is correct? A) The cocci will be readily visible and distinct. B) The cocci will be fuzzy-looking and blend together. C) The cocci will appear much smaller than their actual size because of the low resolution. D) The cocci will not be visible. 20) A microbiology student with a visual disability is viewing a sample of Bacillus endospores in a phase contrast microscope that is linked to an iPad. By "stretching" the image on the iPad screen, the student can increase the apparent size of the endospores. How does this manipulation affect resolution and contrast? (No software is being used to alter the image!) A) Only the magnification can be increased; resolution and contrast are unchanged. B) Both magnification and resolution increase; contrast is unchanged. C) Contrast will improve because the microscope is phase-contrast. D) Resolution and magnification will decrease because the screen is not as good as the human eye. 21) Agar is an important component of media because _______. A) bacteria require agar as a source of carbon B) agar inhibits mold growth C) agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth D) agar prevents contamination 22) The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except ______. Version 1 5  A) inoculation B) incubation C) infection D) isolation E) identification 23) The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is ______. A) isolation B) inoculation C) immunization D) infection E) contamination 24) A pure culture contains _______. A) only one identified species of microorganism B) only bacteria C) microbes from a single source D) a variety of species from the same genus 25) The correct microbiological term for the sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium to produce a culture is ______. A) colony B) inoculum C) streak D) loop Version 1 6 26) Which isolation technique is most effective for the majority of applicationsand is most commonly used for colony isolation in the laboratory? A) Pour plate B) Streak plate C) Spread plate D) Loop dilution E) Culture plate 27) Which of the following is not an inoculating tool? A) Petri dish B) Loop C) Needle D) Pipette E) Swab 28) What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony? A) Axenic B) Mixed C) Pure D) Both axenic andmixed are correct. E) Both axenic andpure are correct. 29) Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth. A) streaked B) poured C) incubated D) spread Version 1 7 30) Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface? A) Streak plate B) Spread plate C) Pour plate D) Replica plate 31) All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except ______. A) broth B) enriched C) agar D) Petri dish E) semisolid 32) Which of the following is essential for the development of discrete, isolated colonies? A) Broth medium B) Differential medium C) Selective medium D) Solid medium E) Assay medium 33) Which of the following is produced by adding 1% to 5% agar to nutrient broth that is then boiled and cooled? Version 1 8  A) A pure culture B) A mixed culture C) A solid medium D) A liquid medium E) A contaminated medium 34) The three physical forms of laboratory media are ______. A) solid, liquid, and gas B) solid, semisolid, and liquid C) a streak plate, a pour plate, and a broth D) reducing, transport, and enumeration 35) Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a/an ______. A) green plant B) fungus C) bacterium D) algae E) marine invertebrate 36) Which of the following is not a benefit of agar as a solid medium? A) Flexibility B) Holds moisture C) Can be inoculated and poured at a temperature that is not harmful D) Solid at room temperature E) Easily digested by most microbes 37) Which type of medium would be the best choice when shipping a sample of bacteriafrom a clinic to a laboratory for testing? Version 1 9  A) Transport medium B) Eosin-methylene blue agar C) Blood agar D) Thioglycolate medium 38) A common medium for culturing fastidious bacteria is ______. A) blood agar B) trypticase soy agar C) mannitol salt agar D) MacConkey medium E) reducing medium 39) A reducing medium contains _______. A) sugars that can be fermented B) extra oxygen C) hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors D) substances that remove oxygen E) inhibiting agents 40) Which type of medium distinguishes different types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A) Differential B) Selective C) Enumeration D) Enriched E) Reducing 41) Differential media result in which of the following observable characteristics? Version 1 10  A) Differently colored colonies B) Different media color after incubation C) Chemical precipitates D) Gas bubbles E) All of thechoices are correct. 42) A reducing medium is used to culture ______ organisms. A) fastidious B) aerobic C) anaerobic D) pathogenic 43) Mannitol salt agar is selective for organisms in which bacterial genus? A) Salmonella B) Streptococcus C) Neisseria D) Staphylococcus E) Escherichia 44) A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following components would likely be present in a selective medium for this purpose? A) NaCl B) Sheep red blood cells C) Bile salts D) Thioglycolic acid E) Peptone 45) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed ______. Version 1 11  A) aerobic B) anaerobic C) fastidious D) fermentative E) hemolytic 46) Eosin-methylene blue agar, or EMB, is a commonly used bacteriological medium forgrowing gram-negative bacteria from complex environments. It contains two dyes, eosin and methylene blue, as well as the sugar lactose. Eosin is a pH indicator that changes color when the medium is acidic, while methylene blue inhibits the growth of most gram-positive bacteria. If an organism consumes lactose, acid will be produced, causing the bacterial colonies to change color. Based upon this description, this medium is ______. A) reducing B) for enrichment C) selective D) differential E) differential and selective 47) A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible is termed ______. A) complex B) reducing C) enriched D) defined 48) A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is not chemically defined is termed ______. Version 1 12  A) complex B) reducing C) enriched D) synthetic 49) All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except ______. A) 0.2 µm B) 0.2 mm C) 0.1 µm D) 2.0 µm 50) Who invented the first crude microscope by grinding glass? A) Redi B) Lister C) Schultz andSchwann D) Leeuwenhoek E) Pasteur 51) The simple microscopes used by the earliest practitioners of microscopy contained which of the following? A) Magnifying lens B) Oil-immersion lens C) Condenser D) Ocular E) Lamp 52) The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses. Version 1 13  A) stage B) condenser C) ocular D) nosepiece 53) Which of the following parts of a microscopemagnifies the specimen to produce a real image of the specimen? A) Condenser B) Objective lens C) Ocular lens D) Body E) Nosepiece 54) Which of the following parts of the microscope magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen? A) Objective lens B) Ocular lens C) Condenser D) Body 55) If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A) 940X B) 950X C) 9500X D) 95X Version 1 14 56) Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the _____ lens. This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. A) ocular;objective B) scanning;objective C) objective;ocular D) ocular; oilimmersion 57) Which term refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate objects as discrete and distinct? A) Resolution B) Magnification C) Refraction D) Contrast 58) The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs ______. A) illumination B) resolution C) magnification D) size of the field E) contrast 59) Scattering of peripheral light rays through the glass slide under very high magnification can be prevented by ______. A) the cover slip B) the condenser C) immersion oil D) the ocular Version 1 15 60) The type of microscopy in which you would observe brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is ______. A) confocal B) dark-field C) phase-contrast D) fluorescence E) electron 61) Which type of microscopy transforms the subtle variations in cell density into differences in light intensity, allowing for increased internal detail without staining? A) Bright-field B) Confocal C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron 62) Which type of microscope shows cells against a white background? A) Bright-field B) Confocal C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron 63) All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except _______. Version 1 16  A) it uses electrons to produce a specimen image B) it is a type of compound microscope C) it requires the use of dyes like acridine or fluorescein D) it is used to diagnose certain infections E) it requires an ultraviolet radiation source 64) A scanningconfocalmicroscope _______. A) uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image B) scans narrow planes and can build a three-dimensional image of the specimen C) produces specimen images on electron micrographs D) uses dyes that emit visible light when excited by ultraviolet radiation 65) The specimen preparation technique that is best for viewing cell motility is the ________. A) hanging drop B) fixed, stained smear C) Gram stain D) negative stain E) flagellar stain 66) Which type of microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image? A) Bright-field B) Dark-field C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron 67) Which type of microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? Version 1 17  A) Bright-field B) Dark-field C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron 68) Which type of microscope cannot image live specimens? A) Bright-field B) Phase-contrast C) Dark-field D) Electron E) Differential interference 69) Which type of microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A) Fluorescence B) Differential interference contrast C) Scanning electron D) Transmission electron E) Phase-contrast 70) Comparing transmission electron microscopy withscanning electron microscopy, the following statement is true. A) Transmission EM requires dyes. B) Transmission EM gives detail of theexternal architecture of cells. C) Transmission EM is used for internal detail of cells and subcellular structures. D) Transmission EM can provide good images of bacteria but not viruses. 71) The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to ______. Version 1 18  A) kill them B) secure them to the slide C) enlarge the cells D) add contrast to see them better E) observe motility 72) The Gram staining procedure is best described as a ______ staining technique. A) selective B) differential C) negative D) simple 73) What do the Gram stain, the acid-fast stain, and theendospore stain have in common? A) They are used on a wet mount of the specimen. B) They use heat to force the dye into cell structures. C) The staining outcome varies with the charge of the cell wall. D) They use a negative stain technique. E) They are differential stains. 74) Basic dyes are _______. A) attracted to the acidic surface of bacterial cells B) anionic C) used in negative staining D) repelled by cells E) dyes such as India ink and nigrosin 75) A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains it withmethylene blue. All cells appear blue under the oil immersion lens. This is an example of ______. Version 1 19  A) negative staining B) using an acidic dye C) simple staining D) the acid-fast stain E) capsule staining Version 1 20 Answer Key Test name: Microbiology3 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) B Version 1 21 27) A 28) E 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) E 42) C 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) D 51) A 52) D 53) B 54) B 55) D 56) C Version 1 22 57) A 58) B 59) C 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) E 67) E 68) D 69) C 70) C 71) D 72) B 73) E 74) A 75) C Version 1 23 Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) If you observe rod-shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been Gram stained, you can assume that their cell envelope contains endotoxin. 2-20-13 ⊚ true ⊚ false 2) Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3) Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false 4) Boiling water (100°C) can normally destroy endospores. ⊚ true ⊚ false 5) Some bacteria have a cytoskeleton of sterols to help maintain their shape. ⊚ true ⊚ false 6) The cell envelope or its parts can interact with human tissue and cause disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false Version 1 1 7) If the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied during the Gram stain procedure, gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless. ⊚ true ⊚ false 8) The cell envelope of gram-positive bacteria has two layers: a thick cell wall and the cell membrane. ⊚ true ⊚ false 9) Hot carbol fuchsin is the primary dye in the acid-fast stain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 10) The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane. ⊚ true ⊚ false 11) Both gram-positive and gram-negative cells have outer membranes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 12) Flagella move in a whip-like motion. ⊚ true ⊚ false 13) A slime layer gives bacterial cells greater pathogenicity than a capsule. Version 1 2  ⊚ true ⊚ false 14) The term diplococcus refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false 15) The bacterial cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) E. coli has been isolated and cultured from three different individuals. Upon biochemical testing of these three cultures, you find that there are differences in some reactions. What is the best explanation of these differences? A) Two of the cultures are mutants of the other. B) The other two cultures are not really E. coli. C) Mistakes have been made in the testinterpretation. D) This is normal genetic variation seen among strains of E. coli. E) These represent three different species of E. coli. 17) In which situation would a bacterium most likely have cytoplasmic inclusions? A) When producing anendospore B) In a habitat abundant innutrients C) When the cell is starvedfor nutrients D) When the cell is synthesizing flagella Version 1 3 18) You apply the acid-fast stain method toa patient's specimen, an aspirate from the lungs. Microscopic examination revealsa large number of bright pink-red bacillus-shaped bacteria in the smear. Which statement is true? A) This is the expected outcome for normal sputum. B) The patient has pneumonia. C) The patient has tuberculosis. D) The patient has an HIV infection. 19) A patient has a serious respiratory infection. A sputum sample yielded a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be ______. A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Borrelia burgdorferi C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae E) Staphylococcus aureus 20) You have made a smear of a bacterial culture and have performed the Gram stain on it. Looking at the organism under the microscope, you notice that the cells do not seem to be the dark blue-purple of a gram-positive reaction, but instead are light purple. Your staining procedure was performed correctly. What is your best explanation as to why the bacteria have stained this way? A) There is something in the wall of the bacteria that has affected the uptake of the crystal violet into the cell wall, thereby staining it improperly. B) These are mutant bacteria which cannot be stained like other bacteria. C) The specimen did not undergo heat fixation before staining; therefore, the primary dye does not stick properly to the wall. D) The bacteria were taken from an inappropriate medium,and a chemical is interfering with proper staining of the cells. Version 1 4 21) You have found a mutant of Streptococcus pneumoniae that has lost the ability to produce a capsule. If you inject this strain into a population of healthy mice, what prediction can you make about the consequences? A) The mice will remain healthy. B) The mice will die of pneumonia. C) The mice will get a severe case of pneumonia and recover. D) The infection will respond to antiviral medication. 22) You've just isolated a new bacterium in pure culture, and you culture it on a general purpose medium where its cells have a coccobacillus morphology. When you examine the cells after culturing on a variety of differential media, you find that in some cases, the cells appear as coccobacillus, but in others, they can be filamentous, cocci, or club-shaped. The best explanation for this observation is that _______. A) the bacterium is pleomorphic B) your culture has become contaminated C) the differential media are contaminated D) the media were incubated at an incorrect temperature E) the microscope is out of adjustment 23) You've just isolated a new bacterium in pure culture, and you culture it on a general purpose mediumwhere its cells have a rod-shape (bacillus) morphology. In addition to culturing it on solid media, you inoculate a slide to grow it asa biofilm. When you use confocal microscopy to image the biofilm, you observe that there are several cellular morphologies, ranging from coccus to coccobacillusto long bacillus. The best explanation for this observation is that _______. A) the microenvironments within a biofilm promote structural variation B) the biofilmis no longer a pure culture of the microbe C) the biofilm culture was not incubated under the appropriate conditions D) the confocal microscope is out of adjustment 24) A new drug is found to act byblocking the incorporation of subunits into sterol molecules for the cell membrane. Which statement is true? Version 1 5  A) Most bacteria would be unaffected by this drug. B) A drug with this mechanismwould be an excellent antibiotic. C) This kind of drug would destroy viruses only. D) Only archaeal cells would be affected by this drug. E) Only biofilms would be affected by this drug. 25) You need to determine if a pure culture of bacteria is gram-positive or gram-negative, but you've just spilled your only solution of crystal violet so you can't do a Gram stain. You decide to try a lysozyme treatment on a sample of each culture and then examine the samples under the microscope. The expected result is _______. A) gram-positives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-negatives will be unaffected B) gram-negatives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-positives will be unaffected C) gram-positives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-negatives will lyse but more slowly D) gram-positives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-negatives will lose cellular morphology and appear as cocci E) gram-negatives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-positives will lose cellular morphology and appear as cocci 26) Researchers studying the rigidity and flexibility of the cell envelope used chemotaxis to measure the ability of microbes to squeeze through tight spaces. E. coli, a gram-negative bacterium, was able to traverse narrower channels than B. subtilis, a gram-positive microbe, even though both cells are the same size when grown without restriction. E. coli has the more flexible cell envelope because _______. A) there is less structural carbohydrate B) it has fewer flagella C) it has only a single membrane D) there are fewer protein receptors E) lipopolysaccharide has no charge Version 1 6 27) The process of sporangium formation and endosporematuration requires6-8 hours. What is most likely to result if the temperature of the environment was raised to 100°C about 2 hours after the process started? A) The endospore would not form properly because it is not yet heat resistant. B) The organismwould be termed a hyperthermophile. C) The endospore would form more slowly and be heat resistant. D) The chromosome in theendosporewould likely carry mutations. E) The endospore would form properly but would be unable to germinate. 28) Archaea have been found in many microenvironments in the human body. Which of the following microenvironments is most likely to fit with the designation of Archaeaas "extremophiles?" A) The gingiva and the gut are anaerobic. B) The temperature of the testes is less than 37°C. C) The surface of the tongue has salt receptors. D) The inner ear can withstand increased pressure. 29) At present, the most accurate indicator of evolutionary relatedness among organisms isthe _______. A) size of the periplasmic space B) similarities of cell membrane proteins C) size of the bacterial chromosome D) sequence of the ribosomal small subunitRNA E) size of the ribosomes 30) Serological analysis for bacterial identification typically involves using _______. Version 1 7  A) specific antibodies to the bacterial cell antigens B) methods to identify cell enzymes C) the analysis of the appearance of colonies D) a microscope to determine cell morphology E) the determination of guanine + cytosine base concentrations 31) Which of the following bacteria is not closely related to the others? A) Salmonella bongori B) Salmonella enterica subsp. arizonae C) Salmonella enterica subsp. indica D) Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica 32) Which of the following is mismatched? A) Gracilicutes -gram-negative cell walls B) Firmicutes -gram-positive cell walls C) Tenericutes - waxy,acid-fast cell walls D) Mendosicutes -archaea cell walls 33) A research laboratory that identifies the subspecies of bacterial isolates from a recent Salmonella epidemic would refer to Bergey's Manual of ______ Bacteriology for guidance in identification. A) Determinative B) Systematic C) Evolutionary D) Classical 34) A clinical laboratory that identifies the bacterial agents that cause human disease would refer to Bergey's Manual of ______ Bacteriology for guidance in identification. Version 1 8  A) Determinative B) Systematic C) Evolutionary D) Classical 35) The reference for bacterial descriptions and classifications is_____ Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. A) Pasteur's B) Lister's C) Bergey's D) Leeuwenhoek's E) Koch's 36) Which of the following is not a phenotypic trait of bacteria? A) rRNA sequence B) Cell shape C) Nutrient requirements D) Biochemical reactions 37) Which of the following is mismatched? A) Methanogens - convert CO 2 and H 2 into methane B) Extreme halophiles - adapted to salty habitats C) Psychrophiles - adapted to very low temperatures D) Hyperthermophiles - adapted to high temperatures E) Thermoplasmas - adapted to warm-blooded animal environments 38) Halobacterium salinarum lives in and requires a high salt concentration. This is an example of an archaeondescribed as a______. Version 1 9  A) halophile B) thermophile C) psychrophile D) barophile 39) The function of bacterial endospores is _______. A) reproduction and growth B) protection of genetic material during harsh conditions C) storage of excess cellular building blocks D) to provide a protected site for photosynthesis 40) Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell detectsdipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure? A) Cell wall B) Capsule C) Biofilm D) Nucleoid E) Endospore 41) Endospores are _______. A) metabolically inactive B) resistant to heat and chemical treatments C) resistant to destruction by radiation D) living structures E) All of the choices are correct. 42) Bacterial endospores are produced by ______. Version 1 10  A) Staphylococcus B) Entamoeba C) Bacillus D) Mycoplasma 43) All of the following occur during endospore germination except _______. A) dehydration of the cell components B) binding of a small organic molecule to initiate germination C) enzymes digest the endospore cortex D) the cell grows out of its protein coats 44) All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease except ______. A) inclusions B) fimbriae C) capsule D) slime layer E) gram-negativeouter membrane 45) Magnetosomes are _______. A) infoldings of the cell membrane B) also termed metachromatic granules C) responsible for the heat resistance of endospores D) composed of magnetic iron oxide particles E) found in all bacteria and some archaea 46) Plasmids _______. Version 1 11  A) are found in all bacteria B) are essential for survival C) cannot be passed between organisms D) are located in microcompartments E) often carry genes controlling pathogenicity 47) All bacterial cells have ______. A) a chromosome B) an S-layer C) the ability to produce endospores D) capsules E) flagella 48) Which of the following bacterial structures is incorrectly matched with a function? A) Ribosomes - protein synthesis B) Inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials C) Plasmids - contain genes essential for growth and metabolism D) Nucleoid - hereditary material E) Cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution 49) The site for ATP synthesis in bacterial cells is the ______. A) ribosome B) mitochondrion C) cell wall D) cell membrane E) microcompartment 50) The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be that _______. Version 1 12  A) material would not cross the cell membrane B) protein synthesis would stop C) the chromosome would unravel D) glycogen inclusions would form E) holes would appear in the capsule 51) The chromosome in bacteria and archaea _______. A) is located in the cell membrane B) contains all the cell's plasmids C) is part of the nucleoid D) forms a single linear strand of DNA 52) The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and ______. A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) DNA 53) A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is ______. A) Mycobacterium B) Mycoplasma C) Streptococcus D) Corynebacterium. E) Bacillus 54) Mycobacterium and Nocardiaare different from most gram-positive bacteria in that their cell walls _______. Version 1 13  A) contain more peptidoglycan B) contain unique, waxy lipids C) areeasily decolorized during staining D) contain a layer of lipopolysaccharide 55) Which of the following does not pertain to endotoxin? A) Endotoxin is abacterial cell wall lipid. B) Endotoxin can stimulate fever in the human body. C) Endotoxin can cause septic shock in the human body. D) Endotoxin is found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls. 56) Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell envelope component of ______. A) gram-negative bacteria B) gram-positive bacteria C) acid-fast bacteria D) mycoplasmas E) protoplasts 57) Which of the following is not true of the outer membrane? A) The uppermost layer is made of lipopolysaccharide. B) The innermost layer is a phospholipid bilayer. C) Porins create channels through the outer membrane. D) Gram-positivebacteria have an outer membrane. E) The lipid portion of the lipopolysaccharide layer is termedendotoxin. 58) Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial ______. Version 1 14  A) cell walls B) cell membranes C) capsules D) slime layers E) inclusions 59) A bacterial cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is ______. A) gram-negative B) gram-positive C) a protoplast D) a spheroplast E) acid-fast 60) The macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine(NAG)and N- acetylmuramic acid (NAM) chains cross-linked by short peptide fragments is ______. A) mycolic acid B) lipopolysaccharide C) peptidoglycan D) lysozyme E) teichoic acid 61) Gram-negative bacteria _______. A) are generally more susceptible to antibiotics than gram-positive bacteria B) have a more complex cell envelope with a greater variation in chemical composition C) appear purple following the Gram stain D) include all pathogens Version 1 15 62) If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ______. A) endospore B) cell wall C) cell membrane D) capsule E) slime layer 63) The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the ______. A) ribosomes B) cell wall C) cell membrane D) flagella 64) Which is the correct order for the application of reagents in theGram stain? A) Crystal violet, safranin, iodine, alcohol/acetone B) Crystal violet, alcohol/acetone, iodine, safranin C) Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol/acetone, safranin D) Iodine, safranin, crystal violet, alcohol/acetone E) Safranin, crystal violet,alcohol/acetone, iodine 65) The cell membrane, the cell wall, and the outer membrane comprise the ______. A) glycocalyx B) cell envelope C) peptidoglycan D) slime layer E) S-layer Version 1 16 66) During the Gram stain, the applicationof alcohol results in the decolorization of______ cells. A) gram-positive B) gram-negative C) all D) pleomorphic 67) Mycobacterium and Nocardiaare distinguishedfrom other bacteria by the ______ stain. A) acid-fast B) methylene blue C) endospore D) Gram E) basic 68) The chemical bonds inpeptidoglycancan be hydrolyed by the enzyme _____, found in tears and saliva. A) penicillinase B) lysozyme C) peptidase D) kinase 69) Lysozyme is most effective against ______. A) gram-negative organisms B) gram-positive organisms C) mycoplasmas D) cyanobacteria E) archaea Version 1 17 70) Chemotaxis refers to the ability of a cell to _______. A) move in response to light B) move in response to a chemical C) halt movement in response to a chemical D) transport desired molecules into a cell 71) A nutrient binds to receptors near the flagellar basal body. This will result in _______. A) clockwise rotation of flagella B) counterclockwise rotation of flagella C) inhibition of flagella rotation D) numerous tumbles 72) A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis must have ______. A) fimbriae B) a capsule C) thylakoids D) flagella E) metachromatic granules 73) Which externalstructure protects bacteria fromphagocytosis? A) Slime layer B) Fimbriae C) Cell membrane D) Capsule 74) Two structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are ______ and ______. Version 1 18  A) pili;ribosomes B) fimbriae; capsules C) lipopolysaccharide; techoic acid D) actin filaments;phospholipid membranes E) endospores;metachromatic granules 75) Spirochetes are able to move due to ______. A) a periplasmic flagellum B) a membrane-bound flagellum C) cilia serving as walking feet D) pseudopods E) glycocalyx for gliding motility 76) Two functions of bacterial appendages are ______ and ______. A) attachment; motility B) motility; energy production C) antibiotic resistance; motility D) attachment; energy production 77) The basal body of a flagellum is anchored into the ______. A) hook B) outer membrane C) cell wall D) peptidoglycan layer E) cell membrane 78) The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is ______. Version 1 19  A) amphitrichous B) atrichous C) lophotrichous D) monotrichous E) peritrichous 79) The term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from a single site is ______. A) amphitrichous B) atrichous C) lophotrichous D) monotrichous E) peritrichous 80) The term that refers to flagella at both poles of the cell is ______. A) amphitrichous B) atrichous C) lophotrichous D) monotrichous E) peritrichous 81) The bacterial flagellum has three components. In order from the cytoplasm to the external environment, they are ______. A) filament, hook, and basal body B) filament, basal body, and hook C) basal body, hook, and filament D) hook, basal body, and filament E) basal body, filament, and hook Version 1 20 82) The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called ______. A) flagella B) cilia C) fimbriae D) periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E) pili 83) The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called ______. A) flagella B) cilia C) fimbriae D) periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E) sex pili 84) When bacilli in a chain fold back upon each other like a hinge, this cellular arrangement is termed a ______. A) tetrad B) strep C) staph D) sarcina E) palisade 85) An irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells is termed ______. Version 1 21  A) streptobacillus B) staphylobacillus C) staphylococcus D) streptococcus E) staphylospirillum 86) A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a ______. A) streptobacillus B) Staphylobacillus C) streptococcus D) staphylococcus E) palisade 87) Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shape? A) Coccus B) Tetrad C) Vibrio D) Bacillus E) Spirochete 88) Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except ______. A) flagella B) cilia C) fimbriae D) periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E) pili 89) Which of the following is not a characteristic ofbacteria? Version 1 22  A) DNA is free in the cytoplasm. B) The cell wall is made of peptidoglycanor other distinct polysaccharides. C) Ribosomes are present as the site of protein synthesis. D) Organelles termed mitochondria are the site of ATP production. 90) Which of the following statements regarding chemotaxis is incorrect? A) In a cell with peritrichous flagella, each flagellum moves individually but in a coordinated direction during a run. B) In a tumble, the flagellum reverses direction, causing the cell to stop moving and change course. C) When a cell detects a nutrient gradient, it will increase the frequency of runs to move toward the nutrient. D) The fuel for flagellar motion is not ATP, but a proton gradient. 91) Alcohol-based hand sanitizers specifically target lipids, making them most effective when trying to eliminate ______. A) gram-negatives B) gram-positives C) endospores D) viruses E) biofilms 92) Which of the following properties are shared by both bacteria and archaea? A) Method of DNA compaction B) Single, circular chromosome C) Ester linkages in fatty acids D) Cell wall polysaccharides Version 1 23 93) The division of microbes termed the Mendosicuteshave a cell wall type best described as ______. A) archaeal B) gram-negative C) gram-positive D) lacking a cell wall 94) The division of microbes termed the Firmicuteshave a cell wall type best described as ______. A) archaeal B) gram-negative C) gram-positive D) lacking a cell wall Version 1 24 Answer Key Test name: Microbiology4 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1 25 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) E 38) A 39) B 40) E 41) E 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) E 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) D 56) A Version 1 26 57) D 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) B 62) B 63) B 64) C 65) B 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) B 70) B 71) B 72) D 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) E 78) E 79) C 80) A 81) C 82) C 83) E 84) E 85) C 86) A Version 1 27 87) B 88) B 89) D 90) A 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) C Version 1 28 Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2) The cell walls of fungi and algae are chemically identical to the bacterial cell wall. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3) Chromosomes are generally not visible by light microscopy unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. ⊚ true ⊚ false 4) The nuclear envelope is a single lipid layer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 5) All algae have chloroplasts. ⊚ true ⊚ false 6) Rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 7) Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. Version 1 1  ⊚ true ⊚ false 8) All fungi can form hyphae. ⊚ true ⊚ false 9) Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually. ⊚ true ⊚ false 10) Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses. ⊚ true ⊚ false 11) In humans, fungi can only infect the skin. ⊚ true ⊚ false 12) All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants or animals. ⊚ true ⊚ false 13) There are no algae that can cause human disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false 14) Plankton are floating communities of helminths. Version 1 2  ⊚ true ⊚ false 15) Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) In the condition called athlete's foot, the fungus Trichophyton consumes the keratin protein found in hair, nails, and dead skin. Which of the following descriptors does not apply to Trichophyton? A) Saprobe B) Parasite C) Heterotroph D) Eukaryote 17) Which of the following statements is correct? A) All fungi, whether parasiteor saprobe, are heterotrophs. B) All heterotrophs are parasites, but only some are saprobes. C) All saprobes are heterotrophic, but only some are parasitic. D) All heterotrophs are fungi, and include both parasites and saprobes. 18) A saprobe differs from a parasite in that _______. Version 1 3  A) a saprobederives nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals B) a saprobehas a pseudohyphae morphology, but a parasite hastrue hyphae C) a saprobehas the ability to undergo meiosis to produce sexual spores, but a parasite can only perform mitosis to produce asexual spores D) a saprobe is a fungus, but a parasite is a protozoan 19) Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals. These fungi are called ______. A) saprobes B) parasites C) antagonists D) free-living E) mutualistic 20) Endosymbiosis of a photosynthetic bacterial cell is widely accepted as an explanation for the development of chloroplasts. The presence of these endosymbiotic bacteria provided a cell with the advantage of ______. A) photosynthesis B) a membrane-bound nucleus C) an electron transport chain D) tolerance to oxygen E) simple, rapid gene transfer 21) The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the emergence of ______. A) archaea B) bacteria C) prokaryotes D) eukaryotes E) viruses Version 1 4 22) Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular ______. A) symbiosis B) parasitism C) commensalism D) mutualism 23) Select that statement that reflects evidence that directly supports the endosymbiotic theory. A) Enzymes for photosynthesis are found embedded in membranes of the Golgi apparatus. B) Lysosomes contain their own DNA in the form of plasmids. C) The electron transport system is locatedinthe cell membrane in bacteria,while in eukaryotes it is locatedinthe mitochondrialcristae. D) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm ofbacterial cells. 24) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Protozoa; multicellular B) Protozoa; unicellular C) Fungi; unicellular D) Helminths; multicellular E) Algae; multicellular F) Fungi; multicellular 25) Protists include ______. Version 1 5  A) yeasts and molds B) algae and protozoa C) helminths D) bacteria E) viruses 26) Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in bacterial cells? A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Lysosomes E) All of the choicesare correct. 27) You are observing an organismunder the microscope and you note that it has a cell wall, no chloroplasts, and a nucleus. Your prediction would be that this organism is a/an ______. A) bacterium B) fungus C) alga D) protozoan E) virus 28) You are observing an organismunder the microscope, and it is clearly multicellularwith no cell walls. Your prediction is that this organism is a/an ______. A) bacterium B) fungus C) alga D) protozoan E) helminth Version 1 6 29) Eukaryotic flagella differ from bacterial flagella because only eukaryotic flagella _______. A) are used for cell motility B) facilitate chemotaxis C) facilitate phototaxis D) are long, whip-like structures E) contain microtubules 30) Cilia are exhibited by certain ______. A) protozoa B) algae C) fungi D) bacteria E) viruses 31) There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia. A) filaments B) microtubules C) activeproteins D) cilia E) endoflagella 32) As part of their reproductive cycle, helminths produce egg and sperm cells. Both of these eukaryotic cell types have an outer surface composed of polysaccharides known as the ______. Version 1 7  A) glycocalyx B) cell wall C) cell membrane D) microtubule E) cyst 33) The glycocalyxof a eukaryotic cellis _______. A) mostly polysaccharides B) the site where many metabolic reactions occur C) also called the cell wall D) composed of many diverse proteins E) a protective mechanism against osmotic lysis 34) Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryoticglycocalyx? A) Protection B) Adherence C) Movement D) Reception of chemical signals 35) Which of the following organisms has a cell wall? A) Candida albicans B) Trypanosoma cruzi C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Enterobius vermicularis 36) Cell walls are not typically possessed by ______. Version 1 8  A) protozoa B) algae C) fungi D) bacteria 37) Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of ______. A) protozoa B) algae C) fungi D) bacteria E) helminths 38) The cell membranes of bacteria and eukaryotes are quite similar, differing only in _______. A) the presence of sterols B) the presence of phospholipids C) being selectively permeable D) the presence of proteins in the bilayer E) the ability to transport wastes out of the cell 39) The eukaryotic cell membrane is composed of ______. A) sterols B) proteins C) phospholipids D) sterols, proteins, and phospholipids E) sterols and phospholipids only 40) The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the ______. Version 1 9  A) ribosome B) nucleolus C) nucleus D) Golgi apparatus E) lysosome 41) When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible, thread-like mass called ______. A) the nuclear envelope B) the nucleosome C) the nucleolus D) nucleoplasm E) chromatin 42) Histones are _______. A) found in polyribosomes B) enzymes found in lysosomes C) proteins of the cytoskeleton D) proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus E) on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum 43) The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear ______. A) histones B) chromatin C) pores D) endoplasmic reticulum E) inclusions Version 1 10 44) In eukaryotic cells, which of the following organelles contain DNA? A) Nucleus, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus B) Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus C) Nucleus, nucleolus, and Golgi apparatus D) Nucleus, chloroplast, and mitochondrion E) Nucleus, chloroplast, and peroxisome 45) Which organelle is found in algae but not in protozoa or fungi? A) Mitochondria B) Lysosomes C) Golgi apparatus D) Chloroplasts E) Endoplasmic reticulum 46) Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called ______ that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called _______. A) thylakoids;stroma B) grana; stroma C) cristae;stroma D) cristae;matrix E) thylakoid;matrix 47) Pfiesteria is a/an ______ that produces a toxin harmful to humans. A) fungus B) alga C) helminth D) protozoan E) endospore Version 1