TEAS 7 Science Practice Test X1 PDF

TEAS 7 Science Practice Test X1 (39 questions) 1. What are the three types of salivary glands and where are they located in the mouth? A. Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular glands located in the cheeks, tongue, and roof of the mouth, respectively. B. Sublingual, submandibular, and...

TEAS 7 Science Practice Test X1 (39 questions) 1. What are the three types of salivary glands and where are they located in the mouth? A. Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular glands located in the cheeks, tongue, and roof of the mouth, respectively. B. Sublingual, submandibular, and buccal glands located in the tongue, cheeks, and lips, respectively. C. Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular glands located in the roof of the mouth, cheeks, and under the jawbone, respectively. D. Sublingual, parotid, and buccal glands located in the tongue, cheeks, and lips, respectively. Show Correct Answer 2. Which of the following substances is excreted by the kidneys to regulate blood pressure? A. renin B. erythropoien C. calcitriol D. urobilinogen 3. What is the chemical formula for water? A. H2O B. CO2 C. NaCl D. C6H12O6 4. Which of the following units is used to indicate length? A. kg B. l C. s D. m 5. A researcher collects data on the number of cars passing through a busy intersection at different times of the day for a month. This data would be most useful to analyze which of the following: A. traffic patterns during rush hour B. pedestrian movement during the day C. air pollution levels in the area  D. noise levels in the area 6. What is the largest organ in the human body by surface area? A. Brain B. Heart C. Liver D. Skin 7. Which of the following describes the function of ligaments? A. Ligaments attach skeletal muscles to bone B. Ligaments attach two bones C. Ligaments attach bones to tendons D. Ligaments attach skeletal muscles to tendons 8. What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity? A. Innate immunity is present at birth while adaptive immunity is acquired after exposure to pathogens. B. Innate immunity is acquired after exposure to pathogens while adaptive immunity is present at birth. C. Innate immunity is mediated by antibodies while adaptive immunity is mediated by T cells. D. Innate immunity provides long-term protection while adaptive immunity provides only short-term protection. 9. Which of the following is responsible for carrying amino acids to ribosomes during protein synthesis? A. tRNA B. mRNA C. rRNA D. DNA 10. What are the steps involved in the scientific method? A. Observation, hypothesis, prediction, experimentation, analysis, conclusion. B. Hypothesis, observation, prediction, experimentation, analysis, conclusion. C. Prediction, observation, experimentation, analysis, conclusion, hypothesis. D. Observation, data collection, analysis, experimentation, hypothesis, conclusion.  11. What is the difference between a solid and a liquid? A. Solids have a definite shape and volume while liquids have a definite volume but no fixed shape. B. Solids have no definite shape or volume while liquids have a definite volume and take the shape of their container. C. Solids and liquids have the same physical properties. D. Solids have a definite volume but take the shape of their container while liquids have a definite shape and volume. 12. Which part of the respiratory system is responsible for regulate breathing rate and depth? A. Bronchi B. Alveoli C. Diaphragm D. Trachea 13. What is the difference between a monosaccharide and a disaccharide? A. Monosaccharides are composed of two sugar molecules while disaccharides are composed of a single sugar molecule. B. Monosaccharides are simple sugars that cannot be further broken down into simpler sugars while disaccharides are composed of two simple sugars. C. Monosaccharides are only found in plants while disaccharides are only found in animals. D. Monosaccharides are used for energy storage while disaccharides are used for structural purposes. 14. Which of the following is the process by which DNA is copied into RNA? A. Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. Mutation 15. What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction? A. Calcium binds to tropomyosin to expose the myosin-binding sites on actin. B. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate the sliding of actin and myosin filaments. C. Calcium activates the motor neurons to stimulate muscle contraction. D. Calcium is required for the relaxation of muscles after contraction.  16. What is the name of the dome-shaped muscle that plays a key role in breathing? A. Diaphragm B. Trachea C. Bronchus D. Alveoli 17. What is the role of the epididymis in sperm maturation? A. The epididymis produces sperm cells. B. The epididymis stores and protects sperm cells until ejaculation. C. The epididymis is responsible for the transport of sperm cells from the testes to the urethra. D. The epididymis provides nourishment to sperm cells. 18. Which of the following is a function of the respiratory system? A. Transport of nutrients to the body B. Pumping of blood to the lungs C. Exchange of gases between the body and the environment D. Digeson of food in the stomach 19. What is the difference between isotonic and isometric muscle contractions? A. Isotonic contractions produce no movement while isometric contractions produce movement. B. Isotonic contractions produce movement while isometric contractions produce no movement. C. Isotonic contractions generate tension in the muscle while isometric contractions involve shortening of the muscle fibers. D. Isotonic contractions involve contraction of individual muscle fibers while isometric contractions involve the entire muscle. 20. Which of the following is a characteristic of innate immunity? A. It is highly specific to particular pathogens. B. It is acquired over time through exposure to pathogens. C. It provides immediate, non-specific protection. D. It involves the production of antibodies.  21. Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary tissue types found in the human body? A. Epithelial B. Nervous C. Connective D. Exocrine glandular 22. Which of the following is a type of genetic mutation that involves the insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotides in a DNA sequence? A. Silent mutation B. Nonsense mutation C. Frameshift mutation D. Missense mutation 23. Which of the following describes the process of osmosis? A. Movement of substances from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. B. Movement of substances against a concentration gradient with the help of transport proteins. C. Movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane. D. Movement of substances into a cell by engulfing them with the plasma membrane. 24. Which of the following is a chemical property of a substance? A. Density B. Melting point C. Boiling point D. Reactivity with acid 25. Which statement best defines the difference between a physical change and a chemical change? A. A physical change involves the rearrangement of atoms and molecules while a chemical change involves the formation of new substances with different chemical properties. B. A physical change involves the change of one state of matter to another while a chemical change involves the change of one substance into another. C. A physical change involves the breaking of chemical bonds while a chemical change involves the breaking of intermolecular forces. D. A physical change involves the release of energy while a chemical change involves the absorption of energy. 26. During embryonic development, which of the following germ layers forms the nervous system? A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. Exoderm 27. What is the primary pigment responsible for photosynthesis in plants? A. Chlorophyll a B. Chlorophyll b C. Carotenoids D. Anthocyanins 28. Which of the following is an example of an exothermic reaction? A. Melting ice B. Burning wood C. Cooking an egg D. Dissolving sugar in water 29. Which of the following statements is true regarding vaccines? A. Vaccines can cause the disease they are designed to protect against B. Vaccines work by providing passive immunity to the individual C. Vaccines work by exposing the individual to a weakened or inactivated form of the pathogen D. Vaccines only provide protection against bacterial infections 30. What is the function of ribosomes in a cell? A. To produce energy for the cell B. To store genetic information C. To transport molecules within the cell D. To synthesize proteins in the cell  31. Which of the following is an example of a double-blind study? A. participants are randomly assigned to a treatment group or a control group B. participants and researchers both know which group participants are assigned to C. participants do not know which group they are assigned to, but researchers do D. Both participants and researchers do not know which group participants are assigned to 32. What is the name of the hormone that regulates blood sugar levels in the human body? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Estrogen D. Testosterone 33. What is the primary physiological function of erythrocytes in the human circulatory system? A. Facilitation of gas exchange in the alveoli B. Regulation of blood pH through the release of bicarbonate ions C. Transportation of oxygen to body tissues D. Synthesis of clotting factors in response to vascular injury 34. What is the name of the joint that allows for rotation of the arm at the shoulder? A. Elbow joint B. Hip joint C. Knee joint D. Shoulder joint 35. What is the name of the valve that separates the left atrium and left ventricle in the heart? A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Pulmonary valve 36. What is the molecular geometry of a molecule of sulphur dioxide (SO2)? A. Linear B. Trigonal planar C. Bent D. Tetrahedral 37. What is the name of the genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21? A. Turner syndrome B. Klinefelter syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Huntington's disease 38. Which of the following types of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis? A. Messenger RNA B. Ribosomal RNA C. Transfer RNA D. Small nuclear RNA 39. What are the five regions of the vertebral column, starting from the top and moving downwards? A. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal B. Thoracic, cervical, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal C. Lumbar, thoracic, cervical, coccygeal, sacral D. Sacral, lumbar, cervical, thoracic, coccygeal TEAS 7 Science Practice Test X2 1. Which of the following are the two major parts of the nervous system? A. Autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system. B. Peripheral nervous system and somatic nervous system C. Peripheral nervous system and central nervous system. D. Autonomic nervous system and central nervous system. 2. The measurement indicated by the line across the center of the cell is best referred to as which of the following? A. Area. B. Diameter. C. Volume. D. Radius. 3. Which of the following ions binds to the troponin complex, initiating contraction of a muscle? A. Potassium. B. Calcium. C. Phosphorus. D. Sodium 4. Which of the following microorganisms lack their own metabolic pathways and can only reproduce inside of a host cell? A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Helminths D. Viruses 5. Which of the following is the atomic number of an atom that has 12 protons and 12 neutrons? A. 24 B. 12 C. 1 D. 144 6. Which of the following types of cells produce and release antibodies? A. Natural killer cells B. Cytotoxic T-cells C. Plasma B cells D. Helper T-cells 7. Which of the following organic molecules contain both an amine and carboxyl group? A. Lipids B. Chitin C. Cellulose D. Proteins 8. Which of the following allows the AIDS virus, which contains RNA, to insert viral DNA into the DNA of a host cell after the AIDS virus enters the cell? A. The phospholipids found on the envelope of the virus. B. Reverse transcriptase, an enzyme encoded by the virus. C. Receptor proteins located on the surface of the virus. D. The protein that makes up the capsid of the virus. 9. Which of the following is the main function of centrosomes in animal cells? A. Organelle trafficking. B. Pathogen digestion. C. Cytoplasm formation D. Microtubule organization 10. Which of the following is a group that can be measured against the experimental group? A. Responding B. Manipulated C. Control D. Variable 11. Which of the following is used to determine a person's DNA sequence? A Enzymes B. Blood types C. Hormones D. Genes 12. The cytoskeleton of a cell is comprised of which of the following macromolecules? A. Carbohydrates B. Nucleic acids C. Lipids D. Proteins 13. Which of the following properties of water explains its solvent abilities for certain substances? A. Kinetic energy of liquid water molecules B. High specific heat C. High surface tension D. Polarity of water molecules 14. Stimulus: 1of 1. A group of students performed an experiment to test terminal velocity, which is the greatest speed obtained by a falling object. The students dropped different numbers of coffee filters and measured the resulting terminal velocity. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the data in the following data table? #OF FILTERS MASS (g) TERMINAL VELOCITY (m/s) 1 1.01 1.74 2 1.99 2.48 3 3.02 3.04 4 4.0 3.50 5 5.01 3.80 A. Terminal velocity is when the force of gravity is equal to air resistance. B. Heavier objects take more time to reach terminal velocity. C. Heavier objects fall faster than lighter objects. D. The greater the number of filters, the smaller the terminal velocity. 15. Which of the following indicates the function of sodium bicarbonate secreted by the pancreas? A. Sodium bicarbonate is a protease that digests carbohydrates. B. Sodium bicarbonate stimulates the pyloric sphincter. C. Sodium bicarbonate inhibits peristalsis. D. Sodium bicarbonate neutralizes the acidity of chyme. 16. Which of the following results in osteoporosis? A. An increase in osteocyte activity while osteoclast activity continues at expected levels. B. A decline in osteoclast activity while osteoblast activity continues at expected levels. C. An increase in osteocyte activity while osteoblast activity reduces. D. A decline in osteoblast activity while osteoclast activity continues at expected levels. 17. Which of the following is the process in which an ovarian follicle matures and releases a reproductive egg? A. Menstruation B. Fertilization C. Ovulation D. Oogenesis 18. What is the approximate threshold value for mammalian neurons? A. -55 mV B. -80 mV C. +35 mV D. 0 mV 19. Which of the following processes causes most of the carbon dioxide from the blood to move into the alveoli? A. Conversion to carbon monoxide. B. Diffusion down a concentration gradient. C. Passive transport using carrier proteins. D. Active transport using energy. 20. A myocardial infarction affects which of the following blood vessels of the heart? A. Coronary B. Aorta C. Pulmonary D. Vena cava 21. Which of the following structures is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A. Cell membrane B. Golgi apparatus C. Chloroplasts D. Endoplasmic reticulum 22. In the following data table of an experiment carried out at 4°C (39.2 F) over 4 hours Solution in bag Solution outside bag Bag mass change (g): water Water -0.2 20% sucrose Water +2.4 , 40% sucrose Water +4.3 , 60% sucrose water +5.8 Which of the following options represents the dependent variable? A. Duration B. Temperature C. Bag mass change D. Solution used outside 23. Which of the following is the structure through which blood exits the glomerulus? A. Efferent arteriole B. Proximal tubule C. Distal tubule D. Afferent arteriole 24. In a plant in which fuzzy leaves (F) are dominant over smooth leaves (f), which of the following crosses will produce only offspring with smooth leaves? A. FF x FF B. Ff x Ff C. ff x ff D. Ff x ff 25. Which of the following represents the complementary strand of a DNA sequence 3' TCGATCGCA 5'? A. 3' AGCTAGCGT 5' B. 5’ AGCTAGCGT 3’ C. 5' UCGAUCGCA 3' D. 3' TCGUTCGCU 3' 26. Which of the following structures in the female reproductive system secretes hormones to maintain the uterine lining during pregnancy? A. Umbilical cord B. Corpus luteum C. Oviduct D. Oocyte 27. Which of the following substances is excreted by sweat glands in response to the breakdown of proteins and the formation of ammonia? A. Urea B. Sebum C. Water D. Lysozymes 28. Which of the following glands synthesizes antidiuretic hormone? A. Pineal gland B. Thymus C. Hypothalamus D. Pancreas 29. In a hypertonic solution, water flows through aquaporins embedded in the plasma membrane of the cell. This type of transport is best known as which of the following? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Active transport C. Osmosis D. Diffusion 30. Why is it important for new scientific findings to be published? A. Scientists will get paid if their findings are published. B. Publishing findings will help scientists become more biased. C. Other scientists can validate or disprove the findings D. This prevents other scientists from performing similar tests 31. Parasitic worm infestation is hypothesized to be damaging to the host. However, scientists have recently discovered that worm infestation can relieve the effects of certain autoimmune disorders. In which of the following ways should the hypothesis be modified, given the new findings? A. Worm infestation prevents the body from immune malfunction B. Worm infestation reduces the severity of certain autoimmune disorders C. Worm infestations exacerbate the body's immune reactions D. Lack of worm infestations is the cause of some autoimmune disorders 32. Which of the following is correct regarding the pH scale? A. A substance with a pH of 3 is two times more alkaline than a substance with a pH of 4 B. A substance with a pH of 3 is two times more acidic than a substance with a pH of 4 C. A substance with a pH of 3 is 10 times more acidic than a substance with a pH of 4 D. A substance with a pH of 3 is 10 times more alkaline than a substance with a pH of 4 33. Nitrogen gas is an extremely stable molecule because of which of the following? A. Ionic bonds B. Hydrogen bonds C. Resonance bonds D. Triple covalent bonds 34. Which of the following substances protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation? A. Melanin B. Perspiration C. Sebum D. Keratin 35. Which of the following statements best supports the hypothesis that viruses can cause cancer? A. Cancerous and normal cells share genetic sequences B. Cellular DNA has sequences related to viral sequences C. Viruses and cancer cells both replicate rapidly. D. Genes that regulate cell division are found in some viruses 36. Which of the following physiological responses is caused by the release of antidiuretic hormone? A. Increase in the concentration of calcium in the glomerulus. B. Increase in water reabsorption in the collecting duct C. Decrease in the concentration of calcium in the glomerulus. D. Decrease in water reabsorption in the collecting duct 37. Which of the following is the number of protons in a lithium atom? A. 7 B. 3 C. 12 D. 4 38. Which of the following summarizes a change that takes place as a solid turns to a liquid? A. Particles become less ordered. B. Particles have a decrease in mobility. C. Particles move closer together D. Intermolecular forces between particles become stronger. 39. The pleura is a connective tissue sheath that covers which of the following organs? A. Liver B. Heart. C. Spleen D. Lung 40. Which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood? A. Superior vena cava B. Inferior vena cava. C. Pulmonary artery D. Pulmonary vein 41. Which of the following is the function of a totipotent cell? A. Fights infectious diseases. B. Aids in the maturation of sex cells. C. Carries electrical impulses. D. Develops into any kind of cell. 42. Which of the following can lead to a tsunami? A. Sunspot activity B. Lightning strikes. C. Earthquakes D. Flooding. 43. Testosterone is categorized as which of the following types of hormones? A. Estrogen B. Progestin C. Aldosterone D. Androgen 44. In a phase diagram, which of the following is the term used for a substance held at a temperature and pressure where the solid, liquid, and gaseous states of a substance exist simultaneously? A. Triple point B. Critical temperature C. Critical point D. Absolute zero 45. Which of the following best describes the result of using a catalyst in a chemical reaction? A. The reaction is completed in a shorter amount of time B. A more desirable product is often formed C. A greater amount of heat energy is released by the reaction D. The yield of product is increased 46. Which of the following substances is responsible for donating H+ ions to act as a buffer when blood pH rises? A. Carbon dioxide B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbonic acid D. Oxygen 47. To separate genomic DNA fragments by size, which of these laboratory methods is most useful? A. Titration B. Electrophoresis C. Filtration D. Spectrophotometry 48. Hikers who found a human body at high altitude in the Italian Alps thought the man had died recently, but tests indicated he was shot with an arrow more than 5,300 years ago. Which of the following would be the best reason for prolonged preservation of the body? A. The food that the person ate contained toxins that killed the bacteria that would have otherwise destroyed the body B. The arrow wound caused blood to flow out of the body, which led the enzymes that would break down tissue to be cleared from the body C. The body was frozen in the cold temperature of the Alps shortly after he died and remained frozen until it was found D. The ultraviolet rays at such a high altitude caused all the body's molecules to be preserved. TEAS 7 Science Practice Test X3 1. Experiments cannot validate hypotheses, only falsify them. The statement above can be restated in which of the following ways? A. Until disproved, an explanation for an observation is valid. B. Certain concepts cannot be subjected to direct experimentation. C. A hypothesis that has not been falsified remains provisional. D. Proving a hypothesis exempts it from further testing 2. In which of the following regions of the body are the tibia and fibula? A. Coxal B. Antecubital C. Tarsal D. Crural 3.Which of the following functions does the myelin sheath perform for a nerve cell? A. Insulation B. Regeneration C. Sensory perception D. Nutrition 4. Which of the following occurs in an oxidation reaction? A. Removal of oxygen B. Addition of carbon C. Addition of neutrons D. Removal of electrons 5. Punnet Square An organism with an unknown genotype is crossed with another organism that shows the recessive trait (aa). The Punnet square belowshows the results. Which of the following is the unknown genotype? Unknown Unkonwn a Aa aa a Aa aa A. a B. Aa C. aa D. AA 6. To accurately measure the density of a series of small irregular solids made of plastic, wood, fibreglass, and glass, a student will need which of the following laboratory tools? A. Graduated cylinder, water, weighing balance B. Graduated cylinder, spectrophotometer, water C. Graduated beaker, metric ruler, water D. Weighing balance, Bunsen burner, metric ruler 7. Emphysema caused by damage to alveoli from toxins and pollutants is likely to result in the body having difficulty performing which of the following actions? A. Releasing histamine and acetylcholine B. Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide C. Absorbing food D. Producing enzymes 8. For which of the following reasons does a chloride ion have a negative charge? A. It gained an electron B. It lost an electron. C. It lost a proton. D. It gained a proton. 9. Which of the following substances is excreted by sweat glands in response to the breakdown of proteins and the formation of ammonia? A. Lysozymes B. Urea C. Water D. Sebum 10. The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure at which the substance exists as which of the following? A. Simultaneously in sol, gel, and plasma phases B. As a gel with solid and liquid trapped in gas C. As a sol with gas and solid trapped in liquid D. Simultaneously in solid, liquid, and gas phases 11. A patient goes to the doctor with a cold and sore throat and asks for antibiotics. The doctor refuses to prescribe antibiotics to the patient because the illness is caused by which of the following pathogens? A. Fungus B. Virus C. Protist D. Bacteria 12. Which of the following is an efferent neuron that is responsible for releasing a neurotransmiter that stimulates a muscle cell to contract? A. Motor neuron B. Interneuron C. Sensory neuron D. Neuroglia 13. Which of the following actions allows for repolarization of a neuron? A. The inhibition of sodium and potassium pumps, stopping all ion movement into the neuron B. The opening of sodium channels, allowing sodium to enter the neuron C. The closing of both sodium and potassium channels to restrict movement of ions into and out of the neuron D. The opening of potassium channels allowing potassium to leave the neuron 14. Which of the following structures is an exocrine gland? A. Pineal gland B. Parathyroid gland C. Parotid gland D. Pituitary gland 15. Which of the following classes of biological molecules includes enzymes? A. Lipids B. Vitamins C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins 16. An individual suffers severe blunt trauma to the thoracic cavity. Which of the following organs are at greatest risk from this injury? A. Heart and lungs B. Brain and spinal cord C. Liver and stomach D. Large and small intestines 17. Which of the following is a component of the integumentary system that secretes pheromones? A. Fossa ovalis B. Seminiferous tubule C. Dermal papilla D. Apocrine gland 18. Which of the following growth curves shows a population that is at its carrying capacity? A. B B. C C. A D. D 19. Lipids absorbed in the small intestine will first enter which of the following structures? A. Veins B. Arteries C. Lacteal vessels D. Interstitial spaces 20. Which of the following layers of skin lack blood vessels? A. Papillary B. Epidermis C. Reticular D. Hypodermis 21. Which of the following immune system molecules creates holes in the cell membranes of their target cells in order to destroy the cell? A. Perforins B. Interferons C. Cytokines D. Lymphotoxins 22. Use the table below to answer the question. Object Mass (g) Time of fall (sec) 1 5.0 2.0 2 5.0 1.0 3 30.0 0.5 4 35.0 1.5 Which of the following conclusions is supported by the data? A. Objects A and B will fall at the same rate. B. The greater the mass of an object, the faster it will fall. C. The time of fall is independent of the mass of the object. D. Air resistance could be greater for A than for B. 23. Which of the following properties does soap, an emulsifier, have that make it useful for washing dirt off one’s hands with water? A. Soap’s dual polar and nonpolar nature helps bond oil and water B. Soap’s acidity causes grime to precipitate into the water C. Soap’s enzymatic action helps to dissolve grime into small particles D. Soap’s rough texture physically scours grime off surfaces 24. Which of the following correctly orders structures from simple to complex? A. Cells, tissues, atoms, organs B. Atoms, organs, tissues, cells C. Atoms, cells, tissues, organs D. Organs, tissues, cells, atoms 25. The covalent bonds between the monomers of an enzyme macromolecule are: A. Ester bonds B. Peptide bonds C. Phosphodiester bonds D. Glycosidic bonds 26. Which of the following is a protein present in blood plasma? A. Monocytes B. Platelets C. Fibrinogen D. Lymphocytes 27. Which of the following describes a genetic mutation that results in uncontrolled division of a single cell within the body? A. Cancer B. Gene therapy C. Stem cell D. Translation 28. Which of the following tools can be used to measure the turbidity of a liquid by measuring the transmission of light through the sample? A. Centrifuge B. Spectrophotometer C. Microdensitometer D. Electrophorometer 29. A researcher wants to gather data on the average wing strength of all birds found in the American Northwest. The researcher only has one small net, so all large birds were excluded from the study. The researcher's results were different than expected, but he believes his data include enough birds to estimate the strength of all birds. For which of the following reasons should this data be rejected? A. Data contradict the control group B. Data were different than expected C. Data are biased by the methodology D. Data cannot be displayed graphically 30. If a mother's____________cell contains mutated DNA, this mutation can be passed to her offspring. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above? A. somatic B. white blood C. germ. D. Stem 31. The mitochondrial inner membrane carries out the same function in cellular respiration as the ________ membrane of chloroplasts in photosynthesis. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above? A. Thylakoid B. Epithelial C. Nuclear D. Tonoplast 32. Both digestion and absorption happen in which of the following parts of the digestive system? A. Gallbladder B. Esophagus C. Stomach D. Small intestine 33. A study found two processes, Process A and Process B, to be correlated. Which of the following is true for these processes? A. The study indicates that Process A causes Process B. B. The study cannot indicate whether Process A and B have a positive relationship. C. The study does not indicate a causal relationship between the processes. D. The study cannot indicate whether Process A and B have a negative relationship. 34. How many times stronger is the hydrogen-ion concentration of a pH 4 solution as compared with a pH 9 solution? A. 0.00001 B. 5 C. 100,000 D. 50 35. Which of the following terms describes the relaxation of the chambers of the heart during the cardiac cycle? A. Tachycardia B. Diastole C. Systole D. Bradycardia 36. Genetic information describing the characteristics of an organism is found in which of the following? A. Nuclei B. Membranes C. Cilia D. Ribosomes 37. Which of the following organs filters excess solutes from the blood? A. Stomach B. Spleen C. Kidney D. Gallbladder 38. Which of the following is a function of bone? A. Storage of minerals B. Detoxification of alcohol C. Secretion of hormones D. Production of otoliths TEAS 7 Science Practice Test X4 1. Which of the following endocrine organs in the diagram below is involved in regulating milk production following childbirth? A. Ovaries B. Adrenal glands C. Thyroid gland D. Pituitary gland 2. Which of the following is a mass within the ovary that secretes hormones to maintain the uterine lining during pregnancy? A. Oviduct B. Corpus luteum C. Oocyte D. Umbilical cord 3. In a certain plant, red flowers are dominant over white flowers. A plant heterozygous for red flowers and a plant with white flowers are crossed. Which of the following is the expected proportion of phenotypes in the next generation? A. 1 red, 3 white B. 4 red, 0 white C. 2 red, 2 white D. 3 red, 1 white TEAS 7 Science Practice Test X5 1. Which of the following respiratory structures is affected by a disease that disrupts gas exchange, such as emphysema? A. Trachea B. Secondary branch C. Primary bronchi D. Alveoli 2. The vermiform appendix extends from the region of the large intestine known as which of the following? A. jejunum B. Rectum C. Cecum D. Achi 3. Which of the following structures drains oxygen-depleted blood from the kidneys? A. Renal artery B. Urethra C. Ureter D. Renal Vein 4. Which of the following distinguishes endocrine and exocrine glands from another? A. The presence or absence of ducts B. The effect their secretions have on the target cells C. The biochemistry of their secretions D. The presence or absence of nerve innervation 5. Which of the following organs removes nitrogenous waste from the body? A. Large Intestines B. Liver C. Kidneys D. Gall Bladder 6. in pea plants, green pod color (6) is dominant to yellow pod color ( A cross was done between a plant with green pods and a plant with yellow pods. Of the resulting offspring 50% had green pods and 50% had yellow pods. Which of the following were the genotypes of both parent plants? A. Ggx Gg B. GG x gg C. Gg x gg D. gg x gg 7. Which of the following would result in an increase in the chemical reaction? A. Adding more of the product B. Decreasing the concentration of the reactant C. Sealing the reaction in an airtight container D. Using a mortar and pestle to grind a solid reactant to a powder 8. Which of the following atoms is most likely to become a cation? A. Oxygen, atomic number 8 B. Fluorine, atomic number 19 C. Helium, atomic number 2 D. Fluorine, atomic number 9 9. Which of the following cells transfers pigment granules to adjacent epidermal cells? A. Melanocytes B. Merkel cells C. Langerhans cells D. Keratinocytes 10. in which of the following locations does fertilization of an egg cell typically occur? A. Fallopian Tube B. Ovary C. Uterus D. Cervical canal 11. Which of the following pathways best represents the expected flow of blood from the human heart to an organ? A. Blood pumped from the heart first enters arterioles that then merge to form arteries that deliver blood to the organ B. Blood pumped from the heart first enters arteries that then narrow to form arterioles that deliver blood to capillaries of the organ C. Blood pumped from the heart first enters versus that then narrow to form venules that deliver blood to arteries to the organ D. Blood pumped from the heart first enters arteries that then narrow to form arterioles that deliver blood to capillaries 12. The hip is an example of which of the following type of joints? A. Ball-and-socket B. Pivot C. Gliding D. Hinge 13. Which of the following is an example of a biological macromolecule? A. Nucleic acid, Protein B. Monosaccharide C. Amino and D. Protein 14. Which of the following demonstrates a chemical reaction of water? A. Water boils to produce steam at 100° C (252) B. Water Dissolves sugar C. Water produces gas with sodium metal D. Water and all separate when combined 15. The component of an atom that possesses relatively little mass, thus being negligible in calculating the atomic mass number, is the: A. Electron B. Quark C. Neutron D. Proton 16. Which of the following hormones regulates blood calcium levels? A. Parathyroid hormone B. Growth hormone C. Norepinephrine D. Melatonin 17. Which of the following tissues lines the interior structures of the heart? A. Epicardium B. Pericardium C. Myocardium D. Endocardium 18. Which of the following molecules contains the fewest covalent bonds? A. Chlorine molecule B. Ammonia molecule C. Methane molecule D. Water molecule 19. Which of the following body systems breaks down proteins into amino acids? A. Digestive B. Excretory C. Circulatory D. Endocrine 20. Which of the following contains a human's hereditary information? A. chromatin B. Histones C. ATP D. Plasmids 21. Which of the following organelles is the site of intracellular digestion? A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes C. Centrosomes D. Ribosomes 22. Which of the following types of cells stimulates other immune cells to attack and destroy foreign agents? A. Cytotoxic T-cells B. Plasma cells C. Natural killer cells D. Helper T-Cells 23. A strand of DNA bases reads 5' AGCTAGCGT 3, what would the sequence of bases on the contemporary strand read? A. 3' STOGUTCGCU B. 5' AGCTAGCGT S C. 3' SUCGAUCICA D. 3' TCGATCGCA 5' 24. Use the table below to answer the question Object Mass Time of Fall A 5.0g 2.0 sec B 5.0g 1.0 sec C 30.g 0.5 sec D 35.0g 1.5 sec Which of the following conclusions is supported by the data? A. Object A and B fall at the same rate B. The time of fall is independent of the mass of the object C. The greater the mass of an object, the faster it will fall D. Air resistance is greater for A than for B 25. A slice of apple left on a table slowly goes brown due to an enzymatic reaction. Dipping the apple slice in lemon juice prevents it from browning Which of the following best explains this result? A. Lemon juice has enzymes which reverse the browning reaction B. Lemon juice has a pH which inactivates the enzymes C. Lemon juice functions to bleach the brown material D. Lemon juice functions to dilute the brown material 26. Which of the following characteristics of water helps explain why coastal areas experience less dramatic temperature changes during the day? A. Water has a high specific heat capacity B. Water is a versatile solvent C. Water forms covalent bonds with other water molecules D. Water's adhesive properties prevent evaporation 27. Which of the following parts of the eukaryotic cell is responsible for making ATP? A. Lysosome B. Nucleus C. Centrioles D. Mitochondria 28. Which structure of the female reproductive system is the source of the blood and mucosal tissue during menstruation? (You will find hot spots to Select in the image below. Select only the hot spot that corresponds to your answer. A. B. C. D. 29. Using the equation PH = -log (H+), a solution with a (H+)= 10+ M has a PH of which of the following? A. 9 B. 5 C. 1 D. 10 30. Which of the following is the term given to the sequence of nucleotides that contains the information to make a specific protein molecule? A. Locus B. Promoter C. Operator D. Gene 31. Which of the following is classified as a noninfectious disease? A. Psoriasis B. Brucellosis C. Olkunginys D. Dengue 32. Escherichia cell is plated on nutrient agar plates that each contain a different type of antibiotic. The shaded area represents growth of the bacteria. Which of the following plates contains bacteria that were most resistant to the antibiotic A. A B. B C. C D. D 33. A represents atomic mass and 2 represents an atomic number, which of the following describes an atom after a proton is emitted? A. A-1,2-1 B. A-1,2+1 C. A,2-1 D. A+1,2-1 34. Which of the following endocrine organs in the diagram below is involved in regulating milk production following childbirth? A. Pituitary gland B. Thyroid gland C. Adrenal glands D. Ovaries 35. Which of the following describes one difference between skeletal muscles and cardiac muscles? A. Skeletal muscles are found in the viscera whereas cardiac muscles are found in the cranium B. Cardiac muscles contain intercalated discs, whereas skeletal muscles do not C. Cardiac muscles are voluntary, whereas skeletal muscles are involuntary D. Skeletal muscles are autorhythmic, whereas cardiac muscles are not 36. The "gray matter of the brain is largely made up of which of the following? A. Neuron cell bodies B. Meninges C. Neuron cell axons D. Corpus callosum 37. In order to determine the effects of energy drinks on women's running speed, researchers gave 300 women an energy drink and then recorded the time it took each of them to run 2 miles. After collecting the results, researchers concluded that energy drinks increase the speed of running in Which of the following further tests would best help to support this conclusion? A. Repeat the same experiment, using 300 men B. Repeat the experiment giving half of the women water and the other half the energy drink C. Repeat the experiment giving the women two different energy drinks D. Repeat the experiment, having half of the women run 2 miles and the other half run 5 miles 38. An experienced mountaineer decides to climb Mount Everest, taking the same route in the same season and with similar materials and equipment used in a fatal 1924 expedition Which of the following is the scientific purpose of such a climb? A. To measure the oxygen levels at high elevation B. To assess why the earlier expedition failed C. To show that modem technology makes climbing safer D. To identify routes that can be explored in future climbs