Cardiovascular Problems of the Adult Client PDF
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Summary
This document summarizes cardiovascular issues in adult clients. It details conditions like cardiogenic shock, cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolism, and dissecting aortic aneurysms. It also explains diagnostic findings, treatments, monitoring procedures, and potential complications.
Full Transcript
**Cardiogenic shock** occurs with severe damage (more than 40%) to the left ventricle. - Classic signs include **hypotension**; a **rapid pulse** that becomes weaker; decreased **urine output;** and **cool, clammy skin**. - Respiratory rate increases as the body develops metabolic acid...
**Cardiogenic shock** occurs with severe damage (more than 40%) to the left ventricle. - Classic signs include **hypotension**; a **rapid pulse** that becomes weaker; decreased **urine output;** and **cool, clammy skin**. - Respiratory rate increases as the body develops metabolic acidosis from shock. **Cardiac tamponade** is accompanied by **distant, muffled heart sounds and prominent neck vessels.** **Pulmonary embolism** presents suddenly with **severe dyspnea** accompanying the **chest pain**. **Dissecting aortic aneurysms** usually are **accompanied by back pain.** **Metformin** needs to be withheld **24 hours before and for 48 hours after cardiac catheterization because of the injection of contrast medium during the procedure.** If the **contrast medium affects kidney function**, with metformin in the system the client would be at increased risk for **lactic acidosis.** **Sinus bradycardia is noted with a heart rate less than 60** **beats per minute**. This rhythm becomes a concern when the client becomes symptomatic. Hypotension and dizziness are signs of decreased cardiac output. Transcutaneous pacing provides a temporary measure to increase the heart rate and thus perfusion in the symptomatic client. Defibrillation is used for **treatment of pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation**. Digoxin will further decrease the client's heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client delays necessary intervention. Extreme dyspnea, tachycardia, and lung crackles in a client with heart failure indicate pulmonary edema, a **life-threatening event**. In **pulmonary edema**, the **left** ventricle fails to eject sufficient blood, and pressure increases in the **lung**s because of the accumulated blood. Oxygen is always prescribed, and the client is placed in a **high-Fowler's position** to **ease the work of breathing.** - Furosemide, a rapid-acting diuretic, will eliminate accumulated fluid. - **A Foley catheter is inserted to measure output accurately**. - Intravenously administered morphine sulfate **reduces venous return (preload),** decreases anxiety, and also **reduces the work** of breathing. Pulmonary edema is characterized by **extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and the production of frothy, pink-tinged sputum.** - Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles. - Fine crackles is also known as **RALES.** - It can be described as being similar to **the sound of wood burning in a fireplace.** - It can be heard in both phases of respiration **(inspiration and expiration)** - It can be auscultated at the **lung bases.** - Early CRACKLES -- **CHRONIC BRONCHITIS** - LATE CRACKLES- **PNEUMONIA, CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE OR ATELECTASIS.** - **Rhonchi and diminished breath sounds are not associated** with pulmonary edema. - **Stridor** is a **crowing** sound **associated with laryngospasm or edema of the upper airway.** **Dysrhythmias** commonly occur as a result of **decreased oxygenation and severe damage to greater than 40% of the myocardium**. - Classic signs of cardiogenic shock as they relate to **myocardial ischemia include low blood pressure and tachycardia**. - The central venous pressure would rise as the backward effects of the severe left ventricular failure became apparent. - **Pulsus paradoxus** is a finding associated with **cardiac tamponade.** - The **client** who **undergoes cardiac surgery** is **at risk for renal injury** from poor perfusion, hemolysis, low cardiac output, or vasopressor medication therapy. - Renal injury is signaled by decreased urine output and increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. - Normal reference levels are\ **BUN, 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L),** - and **creatinine 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (53 to 106 mcmol/L) for males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 mcmol/L) for females.** - The client **may need medications** to **increase renal perfusion and possibly could need peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis.** - Normal sinus rhythm is defined as a regular rhythm, with an overall rate of 60 to 100 beats per minute. - The **PR** (0.12 and 0.20 seconds ) and **QRS measurements are normal** (0.04 and 0.10 seconds) respectively**.** - **Sudden loss of electrocardiographic complexes** indicates ventricular asystole or possibly electrode displacement. - **Accurate assessment of the client is necessary to determine the cause and identify the appropriate intervention.** - **Ventricular tachycardia** is characterized by the avsence of P waves, wide QRS complexes (longer than 0.12 seconds), and typically a rate between 140 and 180 impulses per minute. The rhythm is regular. - **Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia** that results from an **irritable ectopic focus that takes over as the pacemaker for the heart.** - Ventricular tachycardia can deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation at any time. - Clients frequently experience a feeling of impending doom. - The low cardiac output that results can lead quickly to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. - Ventricular tachycardia is treated with antidysrhythmic medications, cardioversion (**if the client is awake**), or defibrillation (**loss of consciousness**). - **Premature ventricular contractions** can cause hemodynamic compromise. Therefore, the priority is to monitor the blood pressure and oxygen saturation. The **shortened ventricular filling time** can **lead to decreased cardiac output.** The client may be **asymptomatic or may feel palpitations.** - **Premature ventricular contractions can be caused by cardiac disorders**; states of hypoxemia; any number of physiological stressors, such as infection, illness, surgery, or trauma; and intake of caffeine, nicotine, or alcohol. - The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate more than 100 beats per minute is at risk for low cardiac output because of loss of atrial kick. - The nurse **assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.** - **Hypertension and flat neck veins** are **NOT** associated with the loss of cardiac output. - **Atrial fibrillation** is characterized by a **loss of P waves** and fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex. - The **atria quiver, which can lead to thrombus formation.** - Until the **defibrillator is attached and charged**, the client is resuscitated by using cardiopulmonary resuscitation. - Once the defibrillator has been attached, the **electrocardiogram is checked to verify that the rhythm is ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia**. - Leads also are checked for any loose connections. - A nitroglycerin patch, if present, is removed. - The **energy level** used for all defibrillation attempts with a monophasic defibrillator is **360 joules**. - After defibrillation, the client requires continuous monitoring of electrocardiographic rhythm, hemodynamic status, and neurological status. - **Respiratory and metabolic acidosis** develop during ventricular fibrillation because of **lack of respiration and cardiac output**. These can cause **cerebral and cardiopulmonary complications.** - Arousable status, adequate BP, and a sinus rhythm indicate successful response to defibrillation. - **Nursing responsibilities after cardioversion** include maintenance **first of a patent airway**, and then **oxygen administration**, assessment of vital signs and level of consciousness, and dysrhythmia detection. - The nurse who is **caring for the client after insertion of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator** needs to assess device settings, similar to after insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Specifically, the nurse **needs to know whether the device is activated**, the heart rate cutoff above which it will fire, and the number of shocks it is programmed to deliver. - **Sinus tachycardia** has the characteristics of normal sinus rhythm, including a regular PP interval and normal-width PR and QRS intervals; however, the rate is the differentiating factor. In sinus tachycardia, the **atrial and ventricular rates are greater than 100 beats per minute.** - An **expected outcome** of aortoiliac bypass graft surgery is warmth, redness, and edema in the surgical extremity because of increased blood flow. - **Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), also called heart bypass surgery**, is a medical procedure to improve blood flow to the heart. It may be **needed** when the arteries supplying blood to the heart, called coronary arteries, are narrowed or blocked. - In patient **with cardiac tamponade** in following pericardiocentesis, the client usually expresses immediate relief. Heart sounds are **no longer muffled or distant and blood pressure increases**. [Distended neck veins are a sign of increased venous pressure, which occurs with cardiac tamponade]. - Following **abdominal aortic aneurysm resection or repair**, the nurse monitors the client for signs of acute kidney injury. - Acute kidney injury can occur because often much blood is lost during the surgery and, depending on the aneurysm location, the renal arteries may be hypo perfused for a short period during surgery. - Normal reference levels are BUN 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L), and creatinine 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (53 to 106 mcmol/L) for males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 mcmol/L) for females. - Continuing to monitor urine output or checking other parameters can wait. - Urine output lower than 30 mL/hr is reported to the PHCP for urgent treatment - Variant angina, or Prinzmetal's angina, is **prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often at rest.** - The pain is a result of **coronary artery spasm.** The treatment of choice is usually a calcium channel blocker, which relaxes and dilates the vascular smooth muscle, thus relieving the coronary artery spasm in variant angina. - Adverse effects can include peripheral edema, hypotension, bradycardia, and heart failure. - Grapefruit juice interacts with calcium channel blockers and should be avoided. - If bradycardia occurs, the client should contact the primary health care provider or cardiologist. - Clients should also be taught to change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension. - Physical exertion does not cause this type of angina; therefore, the client should be able to continue morning walks with her or his spouse. - **Ventricular fibrillation** is characterized by irregular chaotic undulations of varying amplitudes. - Ventricular fibrillation has no measurable rate and no visible P waves or QRS complexes and results from electrical chaos in the ventricles. - In response to heparin therapy: - Common **laboratory ranges for activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are 30 to 40 seconds**. - Because the aPTT should be **1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value**, the client's aPTT would be **considered therapeutic if it was 60 seconds**. - **Prothrombin time** assesses response to **warfarin therapy.** - **Aspirin-containing products** need to be avoided when a client is taking this medication warfarin soduim. - **Alcohol consumption should be avoided** by a client taking warfarin sodium. - Taking the prescribed medication at the **same time** each day **increases client compliance**. - The **MedicAlert bracelet** provides health care personnel with **emergency information.** - The **optimal therapeutic range** for digoxin is **0.5 to 2.0** ng/mL (0.63 to 2.56 nmol/L). - Digoxin -- limit -- 0.5-dos - If the client is experiencing symptoms such as **anorexia and is experiencing hypokalemia as evidenced by a low potassium level**, digoxin toxicity is a concern. - **Procainamide** is a medication used to manage and treat ventricular arrhythmias, supraventricular arrhythmias, atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia, and Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome. **It is a Class 1A antiarrhythmic agent.** - **Signs of toxicity from procainamide** include confusion, dizziness, drowsiness, decreased urination, nausea, vomiting, and tachydysrhythmias. - If the client complains of dizziness, the nurse should **assess the vital signs first**. - Although measuring the QRS duration on the rhythm strip and obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram may be interventions, these would be done after the vital signs are taken. - **Dizziness** directly following the procainamide indicates that the medication was the likely cause and **should be addressed before assessing for other possible causes such as hypoglycemia.** - **Beta blockers** are medicines that lower blood pressure. They also may be called beta-adrenergic blocking agents. The medicines block the effects of the hormone epinephrine, also known as adrenaline. Beta blockers cause the heart to beat more slowly and with less force. - Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious **adverse reaction, bronchospasm.** Beta blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with **chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma.** - Normal decreases in blood pressure and heart rate are expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored. - When a client is receiving warfarin for **clot prevention due to atrial fibrillation,** an **INR of 2 to 3** is appropriate for most clients. - Until the INR has achieved a **therapeutic range**, the client should be maintained on a continuous heparin infusion with **the aPTT ranging between 60 and 80** seconds. Therefore, the nurse should collaborate with the HCP to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and to administer the warfarin as prescribed. - **Tissue plasminogen activator** is a thrombolytic. **Hemorrhage** is a complication of any type of **thrombolytic medication**. - The client is monitored for **bleeding.** - Monitoring for renal failure and monitoring the client's psychosocial status are important **but are not the most critical interventions.** - **Heparin** may be administered after thrombolytic therapy, but the question is not asking about followup medications. - **Thiazide diuretics** such as hydrochlorothiazide are **sulfa-based medications**, and a client with a sulfa allergy is at risk for an allergic reaction. - Also, clients are at risk for hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. - **Nicotinic acid**, even an over-the-counter form, should be avoided because it may lead to liver abnormalities. - All **lipid-lowering medications also can cause liver abnormalities**, so a combination of nicotinic acid and cholestyramine resin needs to be avoided. - Constipation and bloating are the 2 most common adverse effects. - Walking and the reduction of fats in the diet are therapeutic measures to reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels. - Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside. - Cardiac glycosides are medicines for treating heart failure and certain irregular heartbeats. - The **risk of toxicity** can occur with the use of this medication. Toxicity can lead to **life-threatening events** and the nurse needs to monitor the client closely for signs of toxicity. - **Early signs** **of toxicity** include gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. - Subsequent manifestations include headache; visual disturbances such as diplopia, blurred vision, yellow-green halos, and photophobia; drowsiness; fatigue; and weakness. - Cardiac rhythm abnormalities can also occur. - The nurse also **monitors the digoxin level.** The optimal therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL (0.63 to 2.56 nmol/L). - An **increased risk of toxicity** exists in clients with hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypothyroidism, and impaired renal function. - The normal range for magnesium is **1.8--2.6** mEq/L (0.74--1.07 mmol/L). - Bumetanide is a diuretic and expected outcomes include increased urine output, decreased crackles, and decreased weight. - **Potassium loss** is a side effect rather than an expected effect of the diuretic. - Frothy pink sputum indicates progression to pulmonary edema. - A BNP greater than 100 pg/mL (100 ng/L) is indicative of heart failure; thus, a rise from a previous level indicates worsening of the condition. - The antidote to heparin is protamine sulfate; it should be readily available for use if excessive bleeding or hemorrhage should occur. - Vitamin K is an antidote for warfarin sodium. - Potassium chloride is administered for a potassium deficit. - Aminocaproic acid is the antidote for thrombolytic therapy. - **Thrombolytic Therapy**:\ The client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the infusion and notify the RRT. - The client may be treated with antihistamines. - Raising the head of the bed would not be helpful, as that may exacerbate the hypotension. - Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, so **it is not useful** for a client receiving alteplase. - **Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension because of the risk of cerebral hemorrhage**. Therefore, the nurse would report the results of the blood pressure to the PHCP before initiating therapy. - About **nicotinic acid** prescribed for **hyperlipidemia**:\ Flushing is an adverse effect of this medication. - Aspirin or a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, as prescribed, can be taken 30 minutes prior to taking the medication to decrease flushing. - Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this effect. The medication should be taken with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset; however, taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. - **Clay-colored stools** are a sign of **hepatic dysfunction** and should be reported to the primary health care provider (PHCP) immediately.