study guide week 3.docx

**Which of the following structures within a cell is responsible for energy production?** - A\) Nucleus - B\) Mitochondria - C\) Golgi complex - D\) Lysosome **What process involves programmed cell death controlled by genetic elements?** - A\) Mitosis - B\) Mutation - C\) Apopt...

**Which of the following structures within a cell is responsible for energy production?** - A\) Nucleus - B\) Mitochondria - C\) Golgi complex - D\) Lysosome **What process involves programmed cell death controlled by genetic elements?** - A\) Mitosis - B\) Mutation - C\) Apoptosis - D\) Differentiation **What is the defining characteristic of a benign tumor?** - A\) Undifferentiated, nonfunctional cells - B\) Encapsulated and localized growth - C\) Rapid infiltration of surrounding tissues - D\) Secretion of abnormal hormones **A malignant tumor has which of the following characteristics?** - A\) Slow growth and well-defined borders - B\) Lack of mitosis and apoptosis - C\) Abnormal cell membranes and altered surface antigens - D\) Differentiated and functional cells **The term \"sarcoma\" refers to a malignant tumor of which tissue type?** - A\) Epithelial - B\) Connective - C\) Muscle - D\) Nervous **Which of the following is an early warning sign of cancer?** - A\) Sudden weight gain - B\) Persistent cough or hoarseness - C\) Increase in energy levels - D\) Enhanced immune response **Angiogenesis in cancer refers to:** - A\) The development of new blood vessels in a tumor - B\) The spread of cancer cells via the lymphatic system - C\) The breakdown of surrounding tissues by the tumor - D\) The formation of blood clots within tumors **Which of the following diagnostic tests is most dependable for confirming malignancy?** - A\) MRI - B\) Blood tests - C\) Cytological examination through biopsy - D\) Ultrasound **In the TNM staging system, what does \"T\" represent?** - A\) Size of the tumor - B\) Spread to distant organs - C\) Involvement of regional lymph nodes - D\) Type of cancer **What is the term for the spread of malignant cells to distant sites in the body?** - A\) Infiltration - B\) Angiogenesis - C\) Metastasis - D\) Invasion **Which system is often used to classify the stage of cancer?** - A\) ABC system - B\) TNM system - C\) GCS system - D\) HDL system **A tumor compressing surrounding tissue and blood vessels can lead to:** - A\) Enhanced immune response - B\) Increased cellular differentiation - C\) Necrosis and inflammation - D\) Decreased tumor growth **Cachexia associated with cancer is characterized by:** - A\) Unexplained weight gain - B\) Severe weight loss, fatigue, and muscle wasting - C\) Increased appetite and energy - D\) Improved overall nutrition **Which of the following is considered a paraneoplastic syndrome?** - A\) Tumor metastasis to the liver - B\) Blood clotting disorders due to chemotherapy - C\) Neurological dysfunction caused by substances secreted by tumors - D\) Obstruction of lymphatic vessels by the tumor **Which type of cancer treatment uses high-energy particles or waves to destroy or damage cancer cells?** - A\) Immunotherapy - B\) Chemotherapy - C\) Radiation therapy - D\) Surgery **What is the term for the introduction of genes into cancer cells to inhibit their growth?** - A\) Chemotherapy - B\) Gene therapy - C\) Immunotherapy - D\) Radiation therapy **Which of the following is a systemic effect of malignant tumors?** - A\) Obstruction of ducts - B\) Pain limited to the tumor site - C\) Severe anemia and weight loss - D\) Limited tissue damage surrounding the tumor **What does \"carcinogenesis\" refer to?** - A\) The study of cancer prevention - B\) The surgical removal of a tumor - C\) The process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells - D\) The development of benign tumors **Tumors that spread to distant sites via blood or lymphatic systems exhibit which form of spread?** - A\) Invasion - B\) Metastasis - C\) Infiltration - D\) Angiogenesis **What is the primary purpose of cancer staging?** - A\) To determine the origin of cancer cells - B\) To standardize treatment for all cancer patients - C\) To assess prognosis and compare treatment outcomes - D\) To diagnose benign tumors **Which diagnostic method helps in visualizing tissue or organ changes?** - A\) Cytological tests - B\) Blood tests - C\) MRI and CT scans - D\) Self-examination **Surgery is often used in cancer treatment to:** - A\) Prevent metastasis - B\) Directly remove the tumor and surrounding tissues - C\) Destroy cancer cells using radiation - D\) Induce systemic effects **A biopsy is primarily used to:** - A\) Evaluate blood cell levels - B\) Confirm the presence of cancer cells - C\) Visualize tumors through imaging - D\) Detect tumor markers in the blood **Radiation therapy is most effective in:** - A\) Rapidly dividing cells - B\) Dormant cells - C\) Well-differentiated tissues - D\) Metastatic cells only **Which of the following is a common side effect of chemotherapy?** - A\) Increased blood clotting - B\) Bone marrow depression - C\) Accelerated hair growth - D\) Improved immune response **Bone marrow suppression from radiation therapy can result in:** - A\) Hair loss - B\) Increased immune function - C\) Decreased production of blood cells - D\) Enhanced tissue regeneration **Chemotherapy can cause damage to specific tissues such as:** - A\) The lungs and kidneys - B\) The digestive tract - C\) The muscles and joints - D\) The bones and skin **Which new cancer treatment claims to attenuate the negative effects of cancer but is still under study?** - A\) Chemotherapy - B\) Radiation therapy - C\) Novolumab - D\) Immunotherapy **What is the ultimate goal of gene therapy in cancer treatment?** - A\) Destroy existing tumors - B\) Replace mutated genes with healthy copies - C\) Inhibit the immune response to cancer cells - D\) Prevent chemotherapy side effects **What is the primary benefit of using a combination of two to four drugs in chemotherapy?** - A\) Reduce treatment duration - B\) Target different phases of the cancer cell cycle - C\) Decrease risk of side effects - D\) Increase drug resistance in cancer cells 31. **A patient diagnosed with cancer is experiencing weight loss and fatigue. What is the best nursing intervention to address these symptoms?** - A\) Encourage the patient to reduce physical activity - B\) Administer iron supplements without monitoring hemoglobin levels - C\) Educate the patient on high-calorie, high-protein snacks - D\) Restrict fluid intake to avoid overhydration 32. **A nurse is providing education on self-examination for early cancer detection. Which of the following instructions is appropriate?** - A\) Perform self-exams only if there are symptoms - B\) Perform breast self-exams monthly after menstruation - C\) Testicular self-exams should be done annually - D\) Skin exams are unnecessary if sunscreen is used 33. **Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for a patient receiving radiation therapy?** - A\) Risk for infection related to bone marrow suppression - B\) Impaired physical mobility related to fatigue - C\) Anxiety related to changes in self-concept - D\) Impaired skin integrity related to nausea 34. **A patient undergoing chemotherapy develops neutropenia. What is the priority nursing intervention?** - A\) Encourage a diet rich in iron - B\) Monitor for signs of infection and provide protective isolation - C\) Administer antiemetic medication before meals - D\) Educate the patient on avoiding direct sunlight 35. **When caring for a patient with a malignant tumor, what nursing intervention is most appropriate to prevent complications from thrombocytopenia?** - A\) Encourage high-protein foods - B\) Monitor the patient for signs of bleeding - C\) Restrict fluids to prevent swelling - D\) Administer oxygen to reduce hypoxia 36. **Which of the following is a priority nursing action when caring for a patient with paraneoplastic syndrome?** - A\) Monitor neurological function regularly - B\) Increase the patient's physical activity - C\) Educate the patient on side effects of chemotherapy - D\) Administer pain medications every 4 hours 37. **A patient with a brain tumor is scheduled for surgery. The nurse knows that which of the following is the most critical preoperative assessment?** - A\) Bowel and bladder function - B\) Cognitive function and level of consciousness - C\) Skin integrity and hydration status - D\) Dietary habits and nutritional intake 38. **A nurse is educating a patient on the importance of chemotherapy. What is the best explanation of its purpose?** - A\) Chemotherapy only reduces the size of the primary tumor - B\) Chemotherapy is designed to stimulate the immune system - C\) Chemotherapy kills rapidly dividing cancer cells - D\) Chemotherapy prevents metastasis but has no effect on existing cancer 39. **Which of the following nursing interventions is essential when administering radiation therapy to a patient with head and neck cancer?** - A\) Encourage frequent oral hygiene with alcohol-based mouthwash - B\) Monitor the patient for signs of oral mucositis - C\) Advise the patient to increase their salt intake - D\) Instruct the patient to use hot packs for discomfort 40. **The nurse knows that patients receiving chemotherapy often experience alopecia. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for managing this side effect?** - A\) Suggest the patient wear a tight cap to prevent hair loss - B\) Educate the patient on wearing wigs or scarves to improve self-image - C\) Advise the patient to avoid washing their hair during treatment - D\) Restrict the patient from brushing their hair 41. **Which of the following is the nurse\'s priority assessment for a patient receiving chemotherapy who reports nausea and vomiting?** - A\) Assess hydration status and monitor electrolytes - B\) Encourage the patient to eat more frequent meals - C\) Advise the patient to rest before eating - D\) Perform a daily weight check 42. **What is the best nursing intervention for a patient experiencing fatigue related to chemotherapy?** - A\) Encourage the patient to rest during the day - B\) Increase the patient's daily physical activity - C\) Provide a high-fiber diet to increase energy - D\) Suggest the patient take longer naps to avoid nighttime sleep disruptions 43. **A nurse is caring for a patient who has developed tumor lysis syndrome following chemotherapy. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate?** - A\) Encourage increased fluid intake - B\) Restrict potassium-rich foods - C\) Administer calcium supplements - D\) Limit intake of sodium-rich foods 44. **Which patient education is most appropriate for a patient undergoing radiation therapy to the abdomen?** - A\) Encourage the patient to eat spicy and fried foods to prevent weight loss - B\) Instruct the patient to apply moisturizing lotions directly before radiation - C\) Educate the patient on the importance of eating small, frequent meals - D\) Advise the patient to wear tight clothing over the radiation site to reduce irritation 45. **A nurse is caring for a patient who reports pain at the site of a malignant tumor. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?** - A\) Provide scheduled pain medication - B\) Encourage the patient to limit use of pain medication - C\) Assess pain only when the patient reports it - D\) Recommend increasing physical activity to reduce pain 46. **A patient is undergoing chemotherapy and develops mucositis. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate?** - A\) Advise the patient to avoid cold fluids - B\) Encourage the patient to use saline mouth rinses regularly - C\) Instruct the patient to brush their teeth with a hard-bristled toothbrush - D\) Advise the patient to eat spicy foods to stimulate saliva production 47. **A nurse is teaching a group of cancer patients about neutropenic precautions. Which instruction should the nurse include?** - A\) Avoid contact with anyone who has received a live vaccine recently - B\) Increase outdoor activities to improve immunity - C\) Avoid all cooked foods in favor of raw vegetables - D\) Take aspirin daily to reduce fever 48. **Which of the following is a critical assessment when caring for a patient with bone marrow suppression following chemotherapy?** - A\) Increased hunger - B\) Increased susceptibility to infection - C\) Increased energy levels - D\) Increased red blood cell production 49. **A nurse is caring for a patient with stage IV cancer who has decided to receive palliative care. What is the primary focus of nursing care?** - A\) Encourage aggressive treatments to prolong life - B\) Provide comfort measures and manage symptoms - C\) Assist the patient with developing long-term care goals - D\) Focus on the patient's nutritional intake to prevent weight loss 50. **A patient asks the nurse about how cancer spreads in the body. What is the nurse's best response?** - A\) \"Cancer cells only spread through direct contact with other tissues.\" - B\) \"Cancer cells can spread through the blood, lymphatic system, or by direct invasion.\" - C\) \"Cancer only spreads when it has not been treated early enough.\" - D\) \"Once the cancer spreads, there is nothing that can be done.\" 51. **What is the nurse's role in cancer prevention education?** - A\) Encourage regular screenings and self-examinations - B\) Advise patients to avoid all forms of exercise - C\) Suggest only avoiding UV exposure and not other environmental factors - D\) Focus solely on smoking cessation for cancer prevention 52. **A patient undergoing cancer treatment develops anemia. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?** - A\) Encourage the patient to rest and limit activities - B\) Increase the patient\'s fluid intake - C\) Administer iron supplements as ordered and monitor hemoglobin levels - D\) Restrict the patient\'s dietary iron intake 53. **Which of the following nursing interventions is most important for a patient experiencing severe fatigue from chemotherapy?** - A\) Encourage frequent exercise - B\) Encourage rest periods throughout the day - C\) Increase caloric intake to improve energy levels - D\) Suggest social activities to distract from fatigue 54. **A patient with lung cancer is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the nurse\'s priority action?** - A\) Administer prescribed bronchodilators - B\) Encourage deep breathing exercises - C\) Limit fluid intake to reduce pulmonary edema - D\) Instruct the patient to lie flat in bed 55. **Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a patient with skin irritation from radiation therapy?** - A\) Advise the patient to avoid using any skin moisturizers - B\) Instruct the patient to wash the irradiated area with mild soap and water - C\) Recommend the patient expose the area to sunlight for faster healing - D\) Encourage the patient to wear tight clothing over the site 56. **A nurse is reviewing the care plan for a patient with cancer who is at risk for infection. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?** - A\) Encourage the use of fresh flowers in the patient\'s room - B\) Perform frequent hand hygiene and ensure the patient does the same 1. **B) Mitochondria** 2. **C) Apoptosis** 3. **B) Encapsulated and localized growth** 4. **C) Abnormal cell membranes and altered surface antigens** 5. **B) Connective** 6. **B) Persistent cough or hoarseness** 7. **A) The development of new blood vessels in a tumor** 8. **C) Cytological examination through biopsy** 9. **A) Size of the tumor** 10. **C) Metastasis** 11. **B) TNM system** 12. **C) Necrosis and inflammation** 13. **B) Severe weight loss, fatigue, and muscle wasting** 14. **C) Neurological dysfunction caused by substances secreted by tumors** 15. **C) Radiation therapy** 16. **B) Gene therapy** 17. **C) Severe anemia and weight loss** 18. **C) The process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells** 19. **B) Metastasis** 20. **C) To assess prognosis and compare treatment outcomes** 21. **C) MRI and CT scans** 22. **B) Directly remove the tumor and surrounding tissues** 23. **B) Confirm the presence of cancer cells** 24. **A) Rapidly dividing cells** 25. **B) Bone marrow depression** 26. **C) Decreased production of blood cells** 27. **A) The lungs and kidneys** 28. **C) Novolumab** 29. **B) Replace mutated genes with healthy copies** 30. **B) Target different phases of the cancer cell cycle** **Additional Nursing Questions:** 31. **C) Educate the patient on high-calorie, high-protein snacks** 32. **B) Perform breast self-exams monthly after menstruation** 33. **A) Risk for infection related to bone marrow suppression** 34. **B) Monitor for signs of infection and provide protective isolation** 35. **B) Monitor the patient for signs of bleeding** 36. **A) Monitor neurological function regularly** 37. **B) Cognitive function and level of consciousness** 38. **C) Chemotherapy kills rapidly dividing cancer cells** 39. **B) Monitor the patient for signs of oral mucositis** 40. **B) Educate the patient on wearing wigs or scarves to improve self-image** 41. **A) Assess hydration status and monitor electrolytes** 42. **A) Encourage the patient to rest during the day** 43. **A) Encourage increased fluid intake** 44. **C) Educate the patient on the importance of eating small, frequent meals** 45. **A) Provide scheduled pain medication** 46. **B) Encourage the patient to use saline mouth rinses regularly** 47. **A) Avoid contact with anyone who has received a live vaccine recently** 48. **B) Increased susceptibility to infection** 49. **B) Provide comfort measures and manage symptoms** 50. **B) \"Cancer cells can spread through the blood, lymphatic system, or by direct invasion.\"** 51. **A) Encourage regular screenings and self-examinations** 52. **C) Administer iron supplements as ordered and monitor hemoglobin levels** 53. **B) Encourage rest periods throughout the day** 54. **A) Administer prescribed bronchodilators** 55. **B) Instruct the patient to wash the irradiated area with mild soap and water** 56. **B) Perform frequent hand hygiene and ensure the patient does the same** -  A) 46 pairs - B\) 22 pairs - C\) 23 pairs - D\) 21 pairs  **The karyotype is primarily used to:** - A\) Identify gender differences - B\) Diagnose chromosomal disorders - C\) Determine the number of genes in a cell - D\) Evaluate gene expression patterns  **Which of the following best describes a genotype?** - A\) Physical expression of genetic traits - B\) An individual\'s observable characteristics - C\) Actual genetic information carried by an individual - D\) Chromosomal abnormality  **Which of the following is a congenital disorder that results from premature birth?** - A\) Cleft palate - B\) Cerebral palsy - C\) Down syndrome - D\) Huntington's disease  **Single-gene disorders are caused by:** - A\) Errors during meiosis - B\) Environmental factors during pregnancy - C\) Mutations in a single set of alleles - D\) Polygenic inheritance  **Which of the following disorders is classified as an autosomal recessive disorder?** - A\) Cystic fibrosis - B\) Huntington's disease - C\) Marfan syndrome - D\) Fragile X syndrome  **Which of the following is an X-linked recessive disorder?** - A\) Marfan syndrome - B\) Color blindness - C\) Adult polycystic kidney disease - D\) Down syndrome  **What causes chromosomal anomalies such as Down syndrome?** - A\) Single-gene mutations - B\) Environmental teratogens - C\) Errors during meiosis - D\) Mutations in multiple genes  **A female child born with Turner syndrome (XO) is likely to exhibit which of the following characteristics?** - A\) Large stature and increased fertility - B\) Short stature and infertility - C\) Excessive growth and muscle weakness - D\) Increased risk for hemophilia  **A characteristic sign of Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) is:** - A\) Increased fertility in males - B\) Infertility in males - C\) Short stature in females - D\) Muscular dystrophy  **Which of the following is a risk factor for Down syndrome?** - A\) Exposure to teratogens during pregnancy - B\) Maternal age over 35 - C\) Paternal age over 40 - D\) Genetic mutation in both parents  **Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized by cognitive deficits and learning disabilities?** - A\) Turner syndrome - B\) Fragile X syndrome - C\) Marfan syndrome - D\) Klinefelter syndrome  **Which diagnostic test is used to confirm the diagnosis of Down syndrome before birth?** - A\) Amniocentesis - B\) Blood tests - C\) Alpha-fetoprotein testing - D\) MRI  **Cystic fibrosis is an example of which inheritance pattern?** - A\) Autosomal dominant - B\) Autosomal recessive - C\) X-linked dominant - D\) X-linked recessive  **Which of the following disorders is characterized by progressive muscle weakness and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner?** - A\) Duchenne muscular dystrophy - B\) Cystic fibrosis - C\) Phenylketonuria (PKU) - D\) Tay-Sachs disease  **Which of the following is a multifactorial disorder?** - A\) Huntington's disease - B\) Down syndrome - C\) Cleft palate - D\) Hemophilia A  **A mutation that results in a chromosomal translocation is likely to cause:** - A\) Single-gene disorders - B\) Chromosomal disorders - C\) Multifactorial disorders - D\) Polygenic inheritance  **A teratogenic agent can cause:** - A\) Increased chromosomal mutations - B\) Damage to a fetus during development - C\) Prevention of gene expression - D\) Genetic mutations in the gametes  **Which of the following describes an autosomal dominant disorder?** - A\) Both parents must pass on the allele for the disorder - B\) Only one parent needs to pass on the allele for the disorder - C\) It is transmitted through the X chromosome - D\) It is passed only through maternal inheritance  **Which of the following conditions is an example of an autosomal dominant disorder?** - A\) Phenylketonuria (PKU) - B\) Marfan syndrome - C\) Cystic fibrosis - D\) Duchenne muscular dystrophy  **TORCH infections are a concern for pregnant women because:** - A\) They can lead to developmental abnormalities in the fetus - B\) They cause autosomal recessive disorders - C\) They increase the risk of polygenic disorders - D\) They result in chromosomal translocation  **Multifactorial disorders are caused by:** - A\) Errors in meiosis - B\) A combination of genetic and environmental factors - C\) Single-gene mutations - D\) Polygenic mutations  **Gene therapy is being researched as a way to:** - A\) Repair defective genes in individuals with genetic disorders - B\) Introduce new genes into an individual's offspring - C\) Create genetically modified foods - D\) Prevent all forms of congenital disorders  **Which of the following diagnostic tools is used to screen for genetic disorders in a newborn?** - A\) Amniocentesis - B\) Alpha-fetoprotein testing - C\) Blood testing - D\) Ultrasound  **A mother who is a carrier for an X-linked recessive disorder has a 50% chance of passing the disorder on to:** - A\) All male children - B\) All female children - C\) Male children only - D\) Both male and female children  **Which of the following genetic conditions is characterized by connective tissue abnormalities and an increased risk for cardiovascular complications?** - A\) Marfan syndrome - B\) Fragile X syndrome - C\) Cystic fibrosis - D\) Tay-Sachs disease  **Genetic screening for high-risk populations is important to:** - A\) Prevent the occurrence of genetic disorders - B\) Identify individuals with a specific allele for a genetic condition - C\) Modify genes in utero - D\) Screen for chromosomal translocations  **Which of the following is an example of a chromosomal disorder?** - A\) Cystic fibrosis - B\) Down syndrome - C\) Hemophilia A - D\) Marfan syndrome  **Turner syndrome is characterized by:** - A\) Trisomy 21 - B\) An XO chromosomal pattern - C\) An XXY chromosomal pattern - D\) A missing autosomal chromosome  **Which of the following statements is true regarding genetic engineering?** - A\) It is primarily used to modify human behavior - B\) It has been successful in preventing all genetic disorders - C\) It involves isolating and copying specific genes - D\) It can replace all faulty genes during pregnancy 31. **A newborn is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU). The nurse knows that this disorder requires:** - A\) Increased protein intake - B\) A diet low in phenylalanine - C\) Frequent blood transfusions - D\) Antibiotic therapy 32. **Which of the following is an essential nursing intervention when caring for a child with Down syndrome?** - A\) Encourage high-calorie meals to promote weight gain - B\) Educate the parents on the importance of regular developmental screenings - C\) Administer insulin for glucose regulation - D\) Monitor for signs of acute renal failure 33. **A child with sickle cell anemia presents with pain and swelling in the joints. What is the priority nursing intervention?** - A\) Apply cold packs to reduce swelling - B\) Restrict fluid intake to prevent overhydration - C\) Administer prescribed pain medication and increase fluid intake - D\) Encourage physical activity to promote circulation 34. **A patient asks the nurse about prenatal screening for cystic fibrosis. What is the nurse\'s best response?** - A\) \"Prenatal screening for cystic fibrosis is not available.\" - B\) \"Genetic testing can identify carriers of cystic fibrosis during pregnancy.\" - C\) \"Cystic fibrosis cannot be detected before birth.\" - D\) \"Cystic fibrosis is always diagnosed after birth.\" 35. **A patient with a family history of Huntington\'s disease is concerned about their risk. The nurse knows that Huntington\'s disease is:** - A\) An X-linked recessive disorder - B\) An autosomal dominant disorder - C\) A multifactorial disorder - D\) An autosomal recessive disorder 36. **Which of the following conditions is associated with maternal exposure to teratogenic agents during pregnancy?** - A\) Tay-Sachs disease - B\) Huntington\'s disease - C\) Congenital heart defects - D\) Down syndrome 37. **A nurse is educating a pregnant patient about the risks of teratogen exposure. Which of the following is considered a teratogen?** - A\) Calcium supplements - B\) Alcohol consumption - C\) Folic acid supplements - D\) Antihistamines 38. **A newborn is diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. What is the primary focus of nursing care for this patient?** - A\) Pain management and supportive care - B\) Intensive physical therapy to prevent muscle atrophy - C\) Dietary restrictions to manage symptoms - D\) Immunotherapy to slow disease progression 39. **Which of the following patients is most likely to benefit from gene therapy research?** - A\) A patient with cystic fibrosis - B\) A patient with Turner syndrome - C\) A patient with Down syndrome - D\) A patient with Marfan syndrome 40. **The nurse is educating parents about genetic counseling. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of genetic counseling?** - A\) \"Genetic counseling will prevent genetic disorders from occurring.\" - B\) \"Genetic counseling helps families understand the risks and inheritance patterns of genetic disorders.\" - C\) \"Genetic counseling is used to cure genetic disorders before birth.\" - D\) \"Genetic counseling ensures that genetic testing is 100% accurate.\" - **C) 23 pairs** - **B) Diagnose chromosomal disorders** - **C) Actual genetic information carried by an individual** - **B) Cerebral palsy** - **C) Mutations in a single set of alleles** - **A) Cystic fibrosis** - **B) Color blindness** - **C) Errors during meiosis** - **B) Short stature and infertility** - **B) Infertility in males** - **B) Maternal age over 35** - **B) Fragile X syndrome** - **A) Amniocentesis** - **B) Autosomal recessive** - **A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy** - **C) Cleft palate** - **B) Chromosomal disorders** - **B) Damage to a fetus during development** - **B) Only one parent needs to pass on the allele for the disorder** - **B) Marfan syndrome** - **A) They can lead to developmental abnormalities in the fetus** - **B) A combination of genetic and environmental factors** - **A) Repair defective genes in individuals with genetic disorders** - **C) Blood testing** - **C) Male children only** - **A) Marfan syndrome** - **B) Identify individuals with a specific allele for a genetic condition** - **B) Down syndrome** - **B) An XO chromosomal pattern** - **C) It involves isolating and copying specific genes** - **B) A diet low in phenylalanine** - **B) Educate the parents on the importance of regular developmental screenings** - **C) Administer prescribed pain medication and increase fluid intake** - **B) \"Genetic testing can identify carriers of cystic fibrosis during pregnancy.\"** - **B) An autosomal dominant disorder** - **C) Congenital heart defects** - **B) Alcohol consumption** - **A) Pain management and supportive care** - **A) A patient with cystic fibrosis** - **B) \"Genetic counseling helps families understand the risks and inheritance patterns of genetic disorders.\"**  **At what stage of pregnancy should the nurse educate a patient about the importance of avoiding teratogens due to the critical formation of organs?** - A\) 1 to 3 weeks - B\) 3 to 8 weeks - C\) 8 to 12 weeks - D\) 12 to 16 weeks  **Which trimester should the nurse emphasize as the most critical period for preventing teratogenic exposure?** - A\) 1st trimester - B\) 2nd trimester - C\) 3rd trimester - D\) Postpartum period  **A pregnant patient asks which substances can harm the fetus. The nurse should identify which of the following as a teratogen?** - A\) Vitamin D - B\) Folic acid - C\) Alcohol - D\) Iron supplements  **The nurse is counseling a patient about fetal alcohol syndrome. Which system is most affected by alcohol consumption during pregnancy?** - A\) Gastrointestinal function - B\) Neurological and intellectual development - C\) Skeletal growth - D\) Cardiovascular function  **When explaining teratogenic effects to a patient, the nurse should emphasize that teratogens have less impact after which point in pregnancy?** - A\) Before organogenesis is complete - B\) After organogenesis is complete - C\) During labor - D\) During the first month of pregnancy  **A patient presents to the clinic seeking confirmation of pregnancy. The nurse understands that the presence of which hormone in the blood or urine indicates pregnancy?** - A\) Progesterone - B\) Estrogen - C\) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) - D\) Thyroxine  **When calculating a patient\'s estimated date of delivery (EDD), the nurse will use which method?** - A\) LMP plus 9 months - B\) Nägele's rule - C\) Chorionic villi sampling - D\) Triple screening test  **A patient's medical history notes "gravida 3, para 1." The nurse understands that this means:** - A\) The patient has had 3 deliveries - B\) The patient has had 1 miscarriage - C\) The patient has had 3 pregnancies and 1 viable birth - D\) The patient has 3 children  **A patient is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse explains that the primary reason for this procedure is to:** - A\) Measure fetal weight - B\) Analyze fetal DNA and detect chromosomal abnormalities - C\) Monitor maternal blood glucose levels - D\) Determine gestational age  **The nurse is monitoring a pregnant patient. Which cardiovascular change during pregnancy should the nurse expect?** - A\) Decreased blood volume - B\) Decreased heart rate - C\) Increased blood volume - D\) Increased blood pressure throughout pregnancy  **A pregnant patient reports heartburn. The nurse knows this is likely due to which physiological change during pregnancy?** - A\) Increased motility of the digestive system - B\) Decreased motility of the digestive system - C\) Increased production of digestive enzymes - D\) Hyperplasia of the thyroid  **Which hormone should the nurse identify as responsible for relaxing the smooth muscles of the digestive system during pregnancy?** - A\) Estrogen - B\) Progesterone - C\) Cortisol - D\) Prolactin  **When educating a pregnant patient about postural changes, the nurse should explain that an increase in abdominal weight may cause:** - A\) Improved balance and coordination - B\) Lordosis and back pain - C\) Hyperthyroidism - D\) Decreased risk of joint instability  **A pregnant patient asks how much weight she should gain during pregnancy. The nurse explains that the average weight gain should be:** - A\) 5-10 pounds - B\) 15-20 pounds - C\) 25-30 pounds - D\) 35-40 pounds  **The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy. The nurse knows that this condition involves:** - A\) Preeclampsia - B\) Implantation of the zygote outside the uterus - C\) Placenta previa - D\) Gestational diabetes  **Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a hallmark sign of preeclampsia?** - A\) Elevated blood sugar levels - B\) Persistently elevated blood pressure - C\) Severe headaches - D\) Decreased fetal movements  **A patient with preeclampsia develops HELLP syndrome. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority complication?** - A\) Placenta previa - B\) Ectopic pregnancy - C\) Severe hemolysis and liver dysfunction - D\) Thrombophlebitis  **The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with eclampsia. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a complication?** - A\) Gestational diabetes - B\) Seizures - C\) Thrombophlebitis - D\) Hypertension  **Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate in a newborn born to a mother with gestational diabetes?** - A\) Hypoglycemia after birth - B\) Low birth weight - C\) Hypertension - D\) Increased risk of congenital heart defects  **A nurse is educating a pregnant patient with gestational diabetes. The nurse should explain that which of the following is NOT recommended for managing gestational diabetes?** - A\) Dietary management - B\) Oral hypoglycemic agents - C\) Exercise - D\) Insulin  **A patient is diagnosed with placenta previa. The nurse explains that this condition occurs when:** - A\) The placenta is implanted in the lower uterus - B\) The placenta separates prematurely from the uterine wall - C\) The zygote implants outside the uterus - D\) The fetus has Rh incompatibility  **The nurse is assessing a pregnant patient who reports bright red, painless bleeding. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?** - A\) Ectopic pregnancy - B\) Placenta previa - C\) Abruptio placentae - D\) Preeclampsia  **Which of the following signs should the nurse expect in a patient with abruptio placentae?** - A\) Painless bright red bleeding - B\) Painful uterine bleeding and abdominal pain - C\) Increased fetal movements - D\) Decreased maternal blood pressure  **A nurse is caring for a postpartum patient. The nurse knows that thromboembolism is most likely to develop in which area of the body?** - A\) The brain - B\) The lungs - C\) The veins of the legs or pelvis - D\) The heart  **The nurse knows that disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a potential complication of which condition?** - A\) Gestational diabetes - B\) Abruptio placentae - C\) Placenta previa - D\) Rh incompatibility  **Which of the following should the nurse monitor in a patient with Rh incompatibility during pregnancy?** - A\) Maternal high blood pressure - B\) Hemolysis of fetal red blood cells - C\) Decreased maternal iron stores - D\) Thrombophlebitis  **A nurse is counseling a patient on Rh incompatibility. The nurse should explain that Rh incompatibility is typically a concern in which situation?** - A\) During the first pregnancy - B\) During the second or subsequent pregnancies - C\) During labor - D\) Only if the fetus is Rh-negative  **The nurse is educating a pregnant patient with Rh-negative blood. Which of the following is the best preventive measure to avoid Rh incompatibility?** - A\) Administering insulin during pregnancy - B\) Administering Rh antibodies after birth or miscarriage - C\) Frequent ultrasounds during pregnancy - D\) Monitoring maternal blood pressure  **A pregnant adolescent patient asks the nurse about potential complications. The nurse should explain that adolescent pregnancies carry an increased risk of complications due to:** - A\) High iron stores - B\) Fully developed pelvic bones - C\) Nutritional deficiencies - D\) Higher incidence of Rh incompatibility  **A nurse is caring for a newborn born to an adolescent mother. The nurse knows that the newborn is at higher risk for:** - A\) Being large for gestational age - B\) Being preterm or having low birth weight - C\) Hyperglycemia - D\) Hypertension  **Which of the following complications is most common in adolescent pregnancies?** - A\) Reduced risk of anemia - B\) Increased risk of pregnancy-induced hypertension - C\) Full-term deliveries - D\) Lower -  **B) 3 to 8 weeks** -  **A) 1st trimester** -  **C) Alcohol** -  **B) Neurological and intellectual development** -  **B) After organogenesis is complete** -  **C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** -  **B) Nägele's rule** -  **C) The patient has had 3 pregnancies and 1 viable birth** -  **B) Analyze fetal DNA and detect chromosomal abnormalities** -  **C) Increased blood volume** -  **B) Decreased motility of the digestive system** -  **B) Progesterone** -  **B) Lordosis and back pain** -  **C) 25-30 pounds** -  **B) Implantation of the zygote outside the uterus** -  **B) Persistently elevated blood pressure** -  **C) Severe hemolysis and liver dysfunction** -  **B) Seizures** -  **A) Hypoglycemia after birth** -  **B) Oral hypoglycemic agents** -  **A) The placenta is implanted in the lower uterus** -  **B) Placenta previa** -  **B) Painful uterine bleeding and abdominal pain** -  **C) The veins of the legs or pelvis** -  **B) Abruptio placentae** -  **B) Hemolysis of fetal red blood cells** -  **B) During the second or subsequent pregnancies** -  **B) Administering Rh antibodies after birth or miscarriage** -  **C) Nutritional deficiencies** -  **B) Being preterm or having low birth weight** -  **B) Increased risk of pregnancy-induced hypertension**