SSUHS GNM Nursing Entrance Exam PDF

1 2  3 Axom Future is a Professional Educational Platform. Here we will provide you only interesting content, which you will like very much. We're dedicated to providing you the best of Educat...

1 2  3 Axom Future is a Professional Educational Platform. Here we will provide you only interesting content, which you will like very much. We're dedicated to providing you the best of Educational , with a focus on dependability and Entrance exam, Ebooks, Admit card, Result with Youtube (Axom Future ) Video Support. We're working to turn our passion for Educational into a booming online website. We hope you enjoy our educational as much as we enjoy offering them to you. Disclaimer: Axom Future is not responsible in case of any major Mistakes or inaccuracy. We always try our best to provide accurate, correct, valuable details. But sometimes mistakes might be made by the website Owner due to various reasons. We do not take any legal responsibility on the content provided in www.axomfuture.in. All the material given here is for educational purposes only. I hope you understand it. এই Ebook খন প্ৰস্তুতিৰ সময়ত সকলো তথ্যৰ শুদ্ধতা ৰক্ষা কৰিবলৈ আৰু ভু ল ত্ৰুটিৰ পৰা মুক্ত ৰাখিবলৈ যথাসম্ভৱ চেষ্টা কৰা হৈছে। যদি কিবা ভু ল ত্রুটি ধৰা পৰে, সেয়া আমাক অৱগত কৰালে পৰৱৰ্তী সংস্কৰণত ইয়াক দূৰ কৰা হব। SSUHS GNM NURSING ENTRANCE EXAM By Hirak Deny Barman (Axom Future) Published by - Axom Future ( www.axomfuture.in ) Note:- Sharing the E-Book without owner permission on Telegram, WhatsApp and Other social media site. We may take legal action against the customer. Axom Future 4 GENERAL SCIENCE Q. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed before burning because it has a coating of (a) basic magnesium carbonate (b) basic magnesium oxide (c) basic magnesium sulphide (d) basic magnesium chloride Answer: a Q. Sodium and chlorine are reacted, and as a result, sodium chloride is formed, which is also called table salt. What option gives the reactants and products of the reaction? (a) Reactants – sodium; products – chlorine (b) Reactants – sodium and table salt; products – chlorine (c) Reactants – tables salt; products – sodium and chlorine (d) Reactants – sodium and chlorine; products – sodium chloride Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. A student performs an experiment to form aluminium chloride from aluminium and chlorine. Which of the following option gives the chemical equation of the reaction? (a) Al + Cl2 → AlCl2 (b) 2Al + Cl2 → 2AlCl (c) 2Al + 3Cl2 → 2AlCl3 (d) 3Al + 3Cl2 → 3AlCl3 Axom Future 5 Correct Answer: Option © Q. Give the ratio in which hydrogen and oxygen are present in water by volume. (a) 1:2 (b) 1:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:8 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. A researcher adds barium hydroxide to hydrochloric acid to form a white-coloured barium chloride. Which of the following option gives the balanced chemical equation of the reaction? (a) HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH (b) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH (c) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaH2 + 2HCl + O2 (d) HCl + 2Ba(OH) → 2BaCl2 + 2HOH + O2 Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. One of the following processes does not involve a chemical reaction, that is: (a) Melting of candle wax when heated (b) Burning of candle wax when heated (c) Digestion of food in your stomach (d) Ripening of banana Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. The chemical formula of magnesium oxide is ______. (a) MgO2 Axom Future 6 (b) Mg2O (c) MgO (d) Mg(OH)2 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. From the following, which one is an example of a chemical reaction? (a) Grapes get fermented (b) Breakdown of food (c) Formation of curd (d) All of the above Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. A student adds lead and silver to two different test tubes containing an equal amount of copper sulphate solution. The student observes that the colour of the solution in the test tube with lead changes. What explains the change in the colour of the solution? (a) A displacement reaction takes place as lead replaces copper from the solution. (b) A combination reaction takes place as lead combines with sulphate in the solution. (c) A decomposition reaction takes place as copper dissociates from sulphate in the solution. (d) A double displacement reaction takes place as copper dissociates from sulphate and lead combines with sulphate in the solution. Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which of the following reactions is used in black-and-white photography? (a) Combination Reaction (b) Decomposition Reaction (c) Displacement reaction Axom Future 7 (d) Oxidation reaction Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. What happens when lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide? (a) They will not react (b) A large amount of hydrogen will be released (c) Yellow ppt of lead iodide and potassium nitrate will be produced (d) Evolution of gas will occur Correct Answer: Option © Q. The chemical reaction between potassium chloride and silver nitrate is given by the chemical equation, AgNO3 + KCl → AgCl + KNO3. What can be inferred from the chemical equation? (a) Silver nitrate and potassium undergo a decomposition reaction to form silver chloride and potassium nitrate (b) Silver nitrate and potassium undergo a displacement reaction to form silver chloride and potassium nitrate (c) Silver nitrate and potassium undergo a combination reaction to form silver chloride and potassium nitrate (d) Silver nitrate and potassium undergo a double displacement reaction to form silver chloride and potassium nitrate Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following shows an oxidation reaction? (a) Gain of oxygen (b) Loss of oxygen Axom Future 8 (c) Gain of hydrogen (d) None of the above Answer: Option (a) Q. Formation of carbon disulphide from carbon and sulphur takes place by (a) absorption of heat (b) evolution of heat (c) no change in heat content (d) none of the above. Answer. (a) C + 2S → CS2 It is an endothermic reaction, resulting in absorption of heat. Q. The metal which is liquid at room temperature is a) Bromine b) Mercury c) Iodine d) Potassium Answer: (b) Mercury. Q. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed before burning because it has a coating of (a) basic magnesium carbonate (b) basic magnesium oxide (c) basic magnesium sulphide (d) basic magnesium chloride Answer: a Q. Which of the following are exothermic processes? (i) Reaction of water with quick lime (ii) Dilution of an acid (iii) Evaporation of water (iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals) (a) (i) and (ii) Axom Future 9 (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) Answer: a Q. Q. Which of the following reaction can also be termed a thermal decomposition reaction? (a) Combination reaction (b) Decomposition reaction (c) Displacement reaction (d) Double displacement reaction Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Oxidation is a process which involves (a) addition of oxygen (b) addition of hydrogen (c) removal of oxygen (d) removal of hydrogen Answer: a Q. The process of reduction involves (a) addition of oxygen (b) addition of hydrogen (c) removal of oxygen (d) removal of hydrogen Answer: b Q. Which of the following does not involve a chemical reaction ? Melting of candle wax on heating Burning of candle wax when heated Axom Future 10 Digestion of food in our body Process of respiration Answer: Melting of candle wax on heating Q. Which Acid is present in Tomato? (A) Citric Acid (B) Oxalic Acid (C) Lactic Acid (D) HCl Correct Answer: Option (B) Q. Which of the following is a strong acid? (A) HCl pH 1 (B) CH3COOH pH 5 (C) Lemon juice pH 2.2 (D) Pure Milk pH 6 Correct Answer: Option (A) Q. Na2CO3.10H2O is known as – (A) Baking soda (B) Baking powder (C) Washing soda (D) Bleaching powder Correct Answer: Option (C) Q. pH value less than 7 indicates that the solution is – Axom Future 11 (A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) No effect Correct Answer: Option (A) Q. Which of the following is neutral salt? (A) NH4Cl (B) CH3COONH4 (C) CH3COONa (D)Na2CO3 Correct Answer: Option (B) Q. Lactic Acid is present in – (A) Orange (B) Tea (C) Curd (D) Vinegar Correct Answer: Option (C) Q. Farmers neutralise the effect of Acidity on the soil by adding – (A) Slaked lime (B) Gypsum (C) Caustic soda (D) Baking soda Axom Future 12 Correct Answer: Option (A) Q. Which of the following are present in a dilute Aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid? (A) H3O + Cl– (B) H3O + OH– (C) Cl– + OH– (D) Unionised HCl Correct Answer: Option (A) Q. CuSO4.5H2O: In this Compound, the water molecule is called – (A) Pure water (B) Water of crystallisation (C) Soda water (D) None of these Correct Answer: Option (B) Q. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation? (A) Blue vitriol (B) Baking soda (C) Washing soda (D) Gypsum Correct Answer: Option (B) Q. An aqueous solution turns the red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following solutions would reverse the change? (A) Baking powder (B) Lime Axom Future 13 (C) Ammonium hydroxide solution (D) Hydrochloric acid Correct Answer: Option (D) Q. In which pH range does our body work to survive in the atmosphere? (A) 5.5 to 8.5 (B) 7.0 to 7.8 (C) 2.3 to 7.0 (D) 7.5 to 12.5 Correct Answer: Option (B) Q. What is the chemical formula of POP (Plaster of Paris)? (A) CaSO4.2H2O (B) CaSO4.3H2O (C) CaSO4.1/2H2O (D) CaCO3.1/2H2 Correct Answer: Option (C) Q. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube? (i) The temperature of the solution increases (ii) The temperature of the solution decreases (iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same (iv) Salt formation takes place (A) (i) only Axom Future 14 (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iv) Correct Answer: Option (D) Q. Which salt is acidic in nature? (A) NH4Cl (B) CH3COONH4 (C) NaCl (D)Na2CO3 Correct Answer: Option (A) Q. When a base reacts with a metal, it forms a salt, and hydrogen gas is released. By what method can the presence of hydrogen be detected? (A) by water (B) by litmus paper (C) by methyl orange (D) by a burning candle Correct Answer: Option (D) Q. At what temperature is gypsum heated to form Plaster of Paris? (A) 35°C (B) 70°C (C) 80°C (D) 100°C Correct Answer: Option (D) Axom Future 15 Q. Sodium carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid and produces – (A) NaCl (B) CO2 (C) H2O (D) All of the above Correct Answer: Option (D) Q. Which acid is present in tamarind? (A) Tartaric acid (B) Oxalic Acid (C) Lactic Acid (D) Citric Acid Correct Answer: Option (A) Q. Which of the following oxides of iron would be obtained on the prolonged reaction of iron with steam? a) FeO b) Fe2O3 c) Fe3O4 d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. A non-metal used to preserve food material is: a) Carbon b) Phosphorus Axom Future 16 c) Sulphur d) Nitrogen Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The arrangement for Copper, Tin, Lead and Mercury, according to the reactivity series, is: a) Tin> Lead> Copper> Mercury b) Lead> Copper> Mercury> Tin c) Copper> Mercury> Tin> Lead d) Mercury> Tin> Lead> Copper Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. The metals that float when treated with water are: a) Manganese and sodium b) Sodium and calcium c) Magnesium and sodium d) Magnesium and calcium Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium are responsible for the same? (i) Good thermal conductivity (ii) Good electrical conductivity (iii) Ductility (iv) High melting point a) (i) and (ii) Axom Future 17 b) (i) and (iii) c) (ii) and (iii) d) (i) and (iv) Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. When hydrochloric acid is added to barium hydroxide, a white-coloured compound is formed. Which of the following option gives the complete chemical reaction? a) HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH b) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH c) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaH2 + 2HCl + O2 d) HCl + 2Ba(OH) → 2BaCl2 + 2HOH + O2 Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. What happens when a pellet of sodium is dropped in water? (a) It catches fire and forms oxide (b) It absorbs heat and forms oxide (c) It catches fire and forms hydroxide (d) It absorbs heat and forms hydroxide Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. The chemical reaction between a piece of copper and nitric acid is given by the chemical equations, Cu + HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + H2 H2 + HNO3 → H2O + NO2 What can be inferred from the chemical equation? a) Copper causes the oxidation of HNO3 to form NO2 Axom Future 18 b) Hydrogen gas gets oxidised by HNO3 to form water c) Gas reacts with oxygen in the air to form water d) Nitrate reacts with hydrogen to form NO2 and H2O Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following options gives the process of extraction of mercury from its ore cinnabar? (a) Cooling cinnabar in the presence of excess air (b) Cooling cinnabar to convert it into mercuric oxide and then heating it (c) Cinnabar to convert it into mercuric oxide and then heating it again (d) Cinnabar in the presence of limited air, and then adding a small amount of water Correct Answer: Option © Q. When calcium oxide is added to water, it completely dissolves in water without forming bubbles. What products are formed in this reaction? (a) Ca and H2 (b) Ca and H2O2 (c) Ca(OH)2 (d) CaH2 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. A student studying the chemical properties of metals finds incomplete chemical reactions in his book, as shown below: MgO + HNO3 → Which option completes the reaction? (a) MgO + HNO3 → Mg3N2 + 4H2O (b) MgO + HNO3 → Mg + NO2 + O2 Axom Future 19 (c) MgO + HNO3 → Mg(OH)2 + 2NO2 (d) MgO + HNO3 → Mg(NO3)2 + H2O Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following can undergo a chemical reaction? a) MgSO4 + Fe b) ZnSO4 + Fe c) MgSO4 + Pb d) CuSO4 + Fe Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Pick the statement which is correct about the non-metal. a) Br is an example of a liquid non-metal. b) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity c) Most of the non-metal oxides are acidic d) All of these Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. When a non-metal is allowed to react with water: a) CO2 gas is formed b) H2 gas is formed c) Product formed depends on the temperature d) No products are formed Correct Answer: Option (d) Axom Future 20 Q. Aqua regia is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated HNO3 and concentrated HCl in the ratio of: a) 1:3, respectively b) 2:3, respectively c) 3:1, respectively d) 3:2, respectively Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. The electronic configuration of an element is found to be 2, 4. How many bonds can one carbon atom form in a compound? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. The following chemical reaction shows the addition of chlorine to methane in the presence of sunlight: CH4 + Cl4 → X What is likely to be the product of the reaction represented by “X”? (a) CH4+ H2SO4 (b) CH3Cl + HCl (c) CHCl3 + HCl (d) CH3Cl + H2SO4 Correct Answer: Option (b) Axom Future 21 Q. The following image represents a carbon compound. Which functional group is present in the compound? (a) Alcohol (b) Aldehyde (c) Carboxylic acid (d) Ketone Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. A carbon compound contains two atoms of carbon. Which name should the carbon compound bear? (a) Butane (b) Ethane (c) Methane (d) Propane Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The following chemical reaction shows the addition of chlorine gas to hydrocarbon in the presence of sunlight. CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl How does chlorine react to a hydrocarbon compound in the presence of sunlight? (a) It adds hydrogen to the compound (b) It adds an oxygen atom to the compound (c) It substitutes hydrogen atom from the compound (d) It breaks double and triple bonds into a single bond Axom Future 22 Correct Answer: Option © Q. A student studies that vinegar, which is a diluted form of ethanoic acid, freezes during winter. What does this suggest about the physical properties of pure ethanoic acid? (a) It has a low boiling point (b) It has a low melting point (c) It has a very high boiling point (d) It has a very high melting point Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane? a) C4H10 b) C4H6 c) C4H8 d) C4H4 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. A student studies that a soap molecule has two ends, one of which is an ionic end, and the other is the carbonic chain. Which option explains the interaction of a soap molecule with oil? (a) Ionic end of the soap interacts with the oil (b) The closest end of the soap interacts with the oil (c) Carbonic chain end of the soap interacts with the oil (d) Ends of the soap randomly interact with the oil Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a homologous series because all are: (a) Hydrocarbons Axom Future 23 (b) Saturated compounds (c) Aliphatic compounds (d) Differ from each other by a CH2 group Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following belongs to a homologous series of alkynes? (a) C6H6 (b) C2H6 (c) C2H4 (d) C3H4 Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Choose the correct statement. (a) The ethene molecule is made up of 2 carbon atoms and 4 hydrogen atoms (b) Each carbon atom shares three electrons with three hydrogen atoms to form three carbon-hydrogen single covalent bonds (c) In ethane, the two carbon atoms share one pair of electrons among themselves to form one carbon-carbon single covalent bond (d) All of the above Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following is the property of ionic compounds? (a) They have high melting and boiling points (b) They conduct electricity in solution or in a molten state (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Axom Future 24 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of the following is not a characteristic of fullerenes? (a) Of all the fullerene, the C60 allotrope is the most stable (b) Its shape is similar to that of a soccer ball (c) It contains only fused six-membered carbon-carbon rings (d) Its hardness is lower than that of a diamond Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. How many single bonds are present in methane? (a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Three Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A hydrocarbon should have a minimum of ______ carbon atoms to show isomerism. (a) Three (b) Four (c) Fived (d) Six Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following forms the basis of the modern periodic table? a) Atomic mass b) Atomic number Axom Future 25 c) Number of nucleons d) All of the above Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following is the most reactive element of group 17? a) Oxygen b) Sodium c) Fluorine d) Magnesium Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of the following is the correct order of the atomic radii of the elements oxygen, fluorine and nitrogen? a) O < F < N b) N < F < O c) O < N < F d) F < O < N Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is solid with a high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as: a) Na b) Mg c) Al d) Si Correct Answer: Option (b) Axom Future 26 Q. What happens to the electropositive character of elements on moving from left to right in a periodic table? a) Increase b) Decreases c) First increases, then decreases d) First decreases, then increases Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. What is the other name for group 18th elements? a) Noble gases b) Alkali metals c) Alkali earth metals d) Halogens Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which group elements are called transition metals? a) Group number 1 to 2 b) Group number 13 to 18 c) Group number 3 to 12 d) Group number 1 to 8 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. The electronic configuration of an element M is 2, 8, 4. In the modern periodic table, the element M is placed in a) 4th group b) 2nd group Axom Future 27 c) 14th group d) 18th group Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of the following elements has 2 shells, and both are completely filled? a) Helium b) Neon c) Calcium d) Boron Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following option describes the achievements of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table? (a) Prediction of noble gases (b) It eliminated the blank spaces left in the table (c) Predicting that the elements can be arranged based on their properties (d) An element in a trend has an average atomic mass of the elements above and below it Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A student learns that the atomic size depends on the atomic radius of the elements. How does the atomic radius of elements in the third-period change as one goes from sodium to argon? (a) Atomic radius increases from sodium to argon (b) Atomic radius decreases from sodium to argon (c) Atomic radius increases as new shells are added (d) Atomic radius decreases due to the addition of new shells Axom Future 28 Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Boron is a non-metal and is placed under group 13 and period 2. How can boron form bonds with other elements? (a) By sharing 5 electrons (b) By sharing 3 electrons (c) By sharing 2 electrons (d) By sharing 1 electron Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Electronegativity is defined as the ability of an element to form bonds by gaining electrons. How does the electronegativity of elements vary across the periods? (a) It increases as the number of shells increases (b) It decreases as the number of shells decreases (c) It increases as more electrons are added to the same shell (d) It decreases as more electrons are added to the same shell Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. What is the order of the metallic character down the group? (a) It decreases as new shells are added to the element (b) It increases as electrons move away from the nucleus (c) It increases as new atoms are added to the same shell (d) It decreases as the effective nuclear charge on the electron increases Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. What is the trend of valency along the periods in the modern periodic table? (a) It increases from left to right Axom Future 29 (b) It decreases from right to left (c) It increases and then decreases (d) It decreases and then increases Correct Answer: Option © Q. In amoeba, food is digested in the: (a) Food vacuole (b) Mitochondria (c) Pseudopodia (d) Chloroplast Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. In which of the following groups of organisms are food materials broken down outside the body and absorbed? (a) Mushroom, green plants, amoeba (b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould (c) Paramecium, amoeba, cuscuta (d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The contraction and expansion movement of the walls of the food pipe is called: (a) Translocation (b) Transpiration (c) Peristaltic movement (d) Digestion Correct Answer: Option (c) Axom Future 30 Q. What are the products obtained by anaerobic respiration in plants? (a) Lactic acid + energy (b) Carbon dioxide + water + energy (c) Ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy (d) Pyruvate Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. When a few drops of iodine solution are added to rice water, the solution turns blue-black in colour. This indicates that rice water contains: (a) Fats (b) Complex proteins (c) Starch (d) Simple proteins Correct Answer: Option © Q. The respiratory pigment in human beings is: (a) Carotene (b) Chlorophyll (c) Haemoglobin (d) Mitochondria Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of the following is the important characteristic of Emphysema? (a) Destruction of the alveolar wall and air sacs in the lungs are damaged (b) Increase in the growth of the lung tissue Axom Future 31 (c) Inflammation in the wall of the bronchi (d) Thickening of the artery walls of the lungs Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. The characteristic processes observed in anaerobic respiration are: i) Presence of oxygen ii) Release of carbon dioxide iii) Release of energy iv) Release of lactic acid (a) i), ii) only (b) i), ii), iii) only (c) ii), iii), iv) only (d) iv) only Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depend upon: (a) Oxygen (b) Temperature (c) Water in the guard cells (d) Concentration of CO2 Correct Answer: Option © Q. A plant gets rid of excess water through transpiration. What is the method used by plants to get rid of solid waste products? (a) Shortening of stem (b) Dropping down fruits Axom Future 32 (c) Shedding of yellow leaves (d) Expansion of roots into the soil Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Chemicals present in tobacco smoke lead to the breakdown of the elastic tissue in the alveoli. Name this specific condition. (a) Heart disease (b) Emphysema (c) Bronchitis (d) Lung cancer Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Digestion of food starts from which organ of the human digestive system? (a) Mouth due to the presence of saliva (b) Oesophagus that moves the food in the gut (c) Pancreas that releases juices for fat breakdown (d) Stomach that helps in mixing food with digestive juices Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. What is the percentage of oxygen in the expired air when a person is resting? (a) 12% (b) 16% (c) 20% (d) 24% Correct Answer: Option (b) Axom Future 33 Q. How is food transported from the phloem to the tissues according to plants’ needs? (a) Food is transported along with the water in the plant’s body (b) Food is transported in only one direction, like water in the plant body through the xylem (c) Food is transported from a region with a low concentration to a higher concentration (d) Food is transported from the region where it is produced to other parts of the plants Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following is the correct sequence of body parts in the human alimentary canal? (a) Mouth → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → oesophagus (b) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine (c) Mouth → stomach → oesophagus → small intestine → large intestine (d) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → large intestine → small intestine Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. What is the function of the pituitary gland? (a) To develop sex organs in males (b) To stimulate growth in all organs (c) To regulate sugar and salt levels in the body (d) To initiate metabolism in the body Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following option shows the order of events correctly when a bright light is focused on our eyes? (a) Bright light → receptors in eyes → sensory neuronàspinal cord → motor neurons → eyelid closes Axom Future 34 (b) Bright light → receptors in eyes → spinal cord → sensory neuron → motor neurons → eyelid closes (c) Bright light → receptors in eyes → sensory neuron → motor neurons → spinal cord → eyelid closes (d) Bright light → receptors in eyes → spinal cordà motor neurons → sensory neuron → eyelid closes Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A female is suffering from an irregular menstrual cycle. The doctor prescribed her some hormonal tablets. Which option shows that the hormone she lacks in her body is from the endocrine gland? (a) Oestrogen (b) Testosterone (c) Adrenalin (d) Thyroxin Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. When we touch the leaves of the “touch-me-not” plant, they begin to fold up and droop. How does the plant communicate the information of touch? (a) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from the external environment to cells. (b) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from cell to cell. (c) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from tissue to specialised cells. (d) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from cells to specialised tissues. Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. How will information travel within a neuron? (a) Dendrite -> cell body -> axon -> nerve ending Axom Future 35 (b) Dendrite -> axon -> cell body -> nerve ending (c) Axon -> dendrite -> cell body -> nerve ending (d) Axon -> cell body -> dendrite -> nerve ending Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which parts of the brain control blood pressure? (a) Spinal cord, skull, hypothalamus (b) Cord, skull, cerebrum (c) Pons, medulla, cerebellum (d) Pons, medulla, pituitary Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Organisms depend on hormones as well as electric impulses for the transmission of signals from the brain to the rest of the body. What can be a likely advantage of hormones over electric impulses? (a) It is secreted by all types of cells present in the body. (b) It is secreted by stimulated cells and reaches all cells of the body. (c) It is relayed to the target organ faster than electric impulses. (d) It does not depend on an external stimulus to be generated in the cells. Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Fruits are formed from the a) Stamen b) Stigma c) Ovary d) Ovule Axom Future 36 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Reproduction is essential for living organisms in order to …………………… a) Keep the individual organism alive b) Fulfill their energy requirement c) Maintain growth d) Continue the species generation after generation Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The male reproductive parts of a flower, the stamens, are collectively known as a) Androecium b) Filament c) Anther d) Gynoecium Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which of the following diseases is transmitted sexually? a) Kala Azar b) Jaundice c) Cholera d) Syphilis Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. IUCD is for a) Vegetative propagation b) Contraception Axom Future 37 c) Increasing fertility d) Avoiding miscarriage Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which among the following is not the function of the testes at puberty? (i) Formation of germ cells (ii) Secretion of testosterone (iii) Development of placenta (iv) Secretion of estrogen a) (i) and(ii) b) (ii) and(iii) c) (iii) and(iv) d) (i) and(iv) Correct Answer: Option © Q. Which of the following is a contraceptive? a) Copper T b) Condom c) Diaphragm d) All of these Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for the transport of sperm is a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra Axom Future 38 b) Testis → ureter → urethra c) Testis → urethra → ureter d) Testis → vas deferens → ureter Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change from the following associated with sexual maturation in boys a) Increase in height b) Cracking of voice c) Weight gain d) Loss of milk teeth Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. AIDS is a deadly disease which is caused by a) a protozoan b) a fungus c) a bacterium d) a virus Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted? a) Syphilis b) Hepatitis c) HIV-AIDS d) Gonorrhea Correct Answer: Option (b) Axom Future 39 Q. A population of thermophilic archaebacteria are generally found in hot springs. Any change to the temperature of the water affects the survival of the archaebacteria. If the temperature of hot springs gets reduced, change in which component can allow the survival of a few members of these archaebacteria? a) Cell wall b) Cytoplasm c) DNA d) Ribosomes Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. The process in which small portions of the oviducts of a woman are removed by surgical operation, and the cut ends are ligated is a) copper T b) tubectomy c) vasectomy d) diaphragm Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. What conclusion can be made about the division in plasmodium? a) The cyst repeatedly divides to form many daughter cells. b) The cell divides multiple times giving rise to many daughter cells. c) The nucleus repeatedly divides inside the cell to form new daughter cells. d) The cyst enlarges in size and then bursts, producing many new daughter cells. Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The ratio of the number of chromosomes in a human zygote and a human sperm is a) 2:1 Axom Future 40 b) 3:1 c) 1:2 d) 1:3 Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. How do spores develop into Rhizopus? a) Spores divide and grow into a new individual b) Spores combine with other spores and grow c) Spores enlarge in size for the growth of new individual d) Spores land on other organisms and increase with their growth in size Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which event will likely occur in the ovaries of females after attaining puberty? a) Fertilisation b) Synthesis of eggs c) Production of eggs d) Growth and development of the embryo Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of the following options correctly shows the path that the sperms take when they are released from the male reproductive system? (a) testis → ureter → urethra → penis (b) testis → vas deferens → ureter → penis (c) testis → ureter → vas deferens → penis (d) testis → vas deferens → urethra → penis Axom Future 41 Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Mendel conducted his famous breeding experiments by working on the following: (a) Drosophila (b) Escherichia Coli (c) Pisum Sativum (d) All of these Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which section of DNA provides information for one protein? (a) Nucleus (b) Chromosome (c)Trait (d) Gene Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation? (a) One person has a scar, but his friend doesn’t (b) One person is older than the other (c) Reeta eats meat, but her sister Geeta is a vegetarian (d) Two children have different eye colour Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. In peas, a pure tall (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant(tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to pure short plants in the F2 generation is: (a) 1:3 (b) 3:1 Axom Future 42 (c) 1:1 (d) 2:1 Correct Answer: Option © Q. Humans have two different sex chromosomes, X and Y. Based on Mendel’s laws, a male offspring will inherit which combination of chromosomes? (a) Both the X chromosomes from one of its parents (b) Both the Y chromosomes from one of its parents (c) A combination of X chromosomes from either of its parents (d) A combination of X and Y chromosomes from either of its parents Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Two pea plants, one with round green seeds (RR yy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds, produce F1 progeny that have round yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are self-pollinated, the F2 progeny will have a new combination of characters. Choose the new combinations from the following: (i) Round, yellow (ii) Round, green (iii) Wrinkled, yellow (iv) Wrinkled, green (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii) Correct Answer: Option (b) Axom Future 43 Q. Miller and Urey performed an experiment to prove the origin of life from organic compounds. The gases they took were: (a) methane, ethane, ammonia, water vapour (b) methane, ethane, hydrogen, ammonia (c) ammonia, water vapour, butane, hydrogen (d) methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water vapour Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following is a pair of analogous organs? (a) Wings of a pigeon and a bat (b) Forelimbs of a frog and a bird (c) Forelimbs of a rabbit and a lizard (d) Leaves of a pitcher plant and a Venus fly trap Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Two pink-coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white-flower progeny. The nature of the cross will be: (a) double fertilization (b) self-pollination (c) cross-fertilization (d) no fertilization Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. A zygote which has an X chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a: (a) boy (b) girl Axom Future 44 (c) X chromosome does not determine the sex of a child (d) either boy or girl Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The surprise products formed in the experiment conducted by Miller and Urey were: (a) peptides (b) amino acids (c) nucleotides (d) nucleic acids Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. From the list given below, select the character which can be acquired but not inherited. (a) Colour of eyes (b) Colour of skin (c) Texture of hair (d) Size of body Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. In humans, if gene B gives brown eyes and gene b gives blue eyes, what will be the colour of the eyes of the person having combination (i) Bb (ii) BB: (a) (i) Brown (ii) Brown (b) (i) Blue (ii) Blue (c) (i) Blue (ii) Brown (d) (i) Brown (ii) Blue Correct Answer: Option (a) Axom Future 45 Q. Q. What is the probability that the male progeny will be a boy? (a) 50 % (b) 56 % (c) 47.43 % (d) It varies Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which of the following does Darwin’s theory not include? (a) Natural Selection (b) Survival of the fittest (c) Evolution Through Inheritance (d) Struggle for the existence of life Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green seeds. If a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant is crossed with a green-seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green-seeded plants would you expect in the F1 generation? (a) 9:1 (b) 3:1 (c) 1:3 (d) 50:50 Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to variation? (a) All variations in a species have equal chances of survival. (b) Change in genetic composition results in variation. Axom Future 46 (c) Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolutionary processes. (d) Variation is minimum in asexual reproduction Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. The two versions of a trait (character) which are brought in by the male and female gametes are situated on: (a) Copies of the same (homologous) chromosomes (b) Two different chromosomes (c) Sex chromosomes (d) Any Chromosomes Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Exchange of genetic material takes place in: (a) Vegetative reproduction (b) Asexual reproduction (c) Sexual reproduction (d) Budding Correct Answer: Option © Q. When a plane mirror is rotated through a certain angle, the reflected ray turns through twice as much and the size of the image: (a) is doubled (b) is halved (c) becomes infinite (d) remains the same Correct Answer: Option (d) Axom Future 47 Q. If an object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 72 degrees, then the total no. of images formed is: (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) infinite Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which statement is true for the reflection of light? (a) The angle of incidence and reflection are equal. (b) The reflected light is less bright than the incident light. (c) The sum of the angle of incidence and reflection is always greater than 900. (d) The beams of the incident light, after reflection, diverge at unequal angles. Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. The focal length of a plane mirror is (a) 0 (b) infinite (c) 25 cm (d) -25 cm Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is: (a) parallel (b) convergent Axom Future 48 (c) divergent (d) not certain Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. An object is placed at a distance of 40cm in front of a concave mirror of a focal length of 20 cm. The image produced is: (a) virtual and inverted (b) real and erect (c) real, inverted and of the opposite size as that of the object (d) real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. A student conducts an experiment using a convex lens. He places the object at a distance of 60 cm in front of the lens and observes that the image is formed at a distance of 30 cm behind the lens. What is the power of the lens? (a) 0.005 dioptre (b) 0.05 dioptre (c) 5 dioptre (d) 50 dioptre Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. An image of an object produced on a screen which is about 36 cm using a convex lens. The image produced is about 3 times the size of the object. What is the size of the object? (a) 12 cm (b) 33 cm Axom Future 49 (c) 39 cm (d) 108 cm Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Image formed by a convex spherical mirror is: (a) virtual (b) real (c) enlarged (d) inverted Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A student studies that a convex lens always forms a virtual image irrespective of its position. What causes the convex mirror to always form a virtual image? (a) Because the reflected ray never intersects (b) Because the reflected ray converges at a single point (c) Because the incident ray traces its path back along the principal axis (d) Because the incident ray of a convex mirror gets absorbed in the mirror Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front pin is formed at 30cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is: (a) -30 cm (b) -20 cm (c) -40 cm (d) -60 cm Correct Answer: Option (b) Axom Future 50 Q. Rahul conducts an experiment using an object of height of 10 cm and a concave lens with a focal length of 20 cm. The object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from the lens. Can the image be formed on a screen? (a) Yes, as the image formed will be real (b) Yes, as the image formed will be erect (c) No, as the image formed will be virtual (d) No, as the image formed will be inverted Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Magnification produced by a rearview mirror fitted in vehicles: (a) is less than one (b) is more than one (c) is equal to one (d) can be more than or less than one, depending upon the position of the object in front of it Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A student conducts an activity using a concave mirror with a focal length of 10 cm. He placed the object 15 cm from the mirror. Where is the image likely to form? (a) At 6 cm behind the mirror (b) At 30 cm behind the mirror (c) At 6 cm in front of the mirror (d) At 30 cm in front of the mirror Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The image of an object placed in front of a convex mirror is formed at (a) the object itself Axom Future 51 (b) twice the distance of the object in front of the mirror (c) half the distance of the object in front of the mirror (d) behind the mirror Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. A full length of the image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen using: (a) a concave mirror (b) a convex mirror (c) a plane mirror (d) both concave as well as plane mirrors Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. A student conducts an activity using a flask of height 15 cm and a concave mirror. He finds that the image formed is 45 cm in height. What is the magnification of the image? (a) -3 times (b) -1/ 3 times (c) 1/ 3 times (d) 3 times Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light from a point source incident on it? (a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens (b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens (c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90degree to each other (d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens Axom Future 52 Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A student studies that the speed of light in air is 300000 km/sec, whereas that of speed in a glass slab is about 197000 km/sec. What causes the difference in the speed of light in these two media? (a) Difference in density (b) Difference in temperature (c) Difference in the amount of light (d) Difference in the direction of wind flow Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A person went for a medical check-up and found that the curvature of his eye lens was increasing. Which defect is he likely to suffer from? (a) Myopia (b) Cataract (c) Presbyopia (d) Hypermetropia Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A person gets out in the sunlight from a dark room. How does his pupil regulate and control the light entering the eye? (a) The size of the pupil will decrease, and less light will enter the eye (b) The size of the pupil will decrease, and more light will enter the eye (c) The size of the pupil will remain the same, but more light will enter the eye (d) The size of the pupil will remain the same, but less light will enter the eye Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the Axom Future 53 (a) Crystalline lens (b) The outer surface of the cornea (c) Iris (d) Pupil Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. In which part of the human eye is the image of an object formed? (a) Iris (b) Pupil (c) Retina (d) Cornea Correct Answer: Option © Q. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a distance because, among all other colours, the red light (a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog (b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog (c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog (d) moves fastest in the air Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow? (a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion (b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection (c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection (d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection Axom Future 54 Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. A person sees an object closer to his eyes. What changes will take place in his eyes? (a) the pupil size will expand (b) the ciliary muscles will contract (c) the focal length of the eye lens will increase (d) the light entering the eye will be more Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called (a) reflection (b) refraction (c) dispersion (d) deviation Correct Answer: Option © Q. The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all directions is called ____________ of light. (a) dispersion (b) scattering (c) interference (d) Tyndall effect Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset? (a) Dispersion of light Axom Future 55 (b) Scattering of light (c) Total internal reflection of light (d) Reflection of light from the earth Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Why do stars appear to twinkle at night? (a) Because the light of stars travels in a different medium (b) Because the distance of a star varies when the earth rotates (c) Because the star changes its position relative to the earth (d) Because the atmosphere reflects the light at different angles Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to (a) different refractive index for the different wavelengths of each colour (b) each colour having the same velocity in the prism (c) prism material having high density (d) Scattering of light Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. When white light enters a glass prism from the air, the angle of deviation is least for (a) blue light (b) yellow light (c) violet light (d) red light Correct Answer: Option (d) Axom Future 56 Q. Which option justifies that the Sun appears red at sunrise and sunset? (a) Red scatters highest by the atmosphere (b) The distance between the sun and earth reduces (c) Red has a high wavelength, so it travels a longer distance (d) The white light disperses into seven colours, only red enters the atmosphere Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. At noon, the sun appears white as (a) Light is least scattered (b) All the colours of white light are scattered away (c) Blue colour is scattered the most (d) Red colour is scattered the most Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric (a) dispersion of light by water droplets (b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices (c) scattering of light by dust particles (d) internal reflection of light by clouds Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The image shows the dispersion of the white light in the prism. Axom Future 57 What will be the colours of the X, Y and Z? (a) X: red; Y: green; Z: violet (b) X: violet; Y: green; Z: red (c) X: green; Y: violet; Z: red (d) X: red; Y: violet; Z: green Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is (a) < 100 Ω (b) < 4 Ω (c) < 1 Ω (d) > 2 Ω Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Work of 14 J is done to move 2 C charge between two points on a conducting wire. What is the potential difference between the two points? (a) 28 V (b) 14 V Axom Future 58 (c) 7 V (d) 3.5 V Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of (a) More length (b) Less radius (c) Less length (d) More radius Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. A circuit has a charge of 2C moving through it in 3 s. Which electrical component in the circuit, if present, will show the current? (a) Voltmeter will show a current of 6 A (b) Ammeter will show a current of 0.7 A (c) Rheostat will show a current of 0.7 A (d) Resistor will show a current of 0.35 A Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon (a) Its length (b) Its thickness (c) Its shape (d) Nature of the material Correct Answer: Option (d) Axom Future 59 Q. Two devices are connected between two points, say A and B, in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is (a) Current (b) Voltage (c) Resistance (d) None of these Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as (a) Volt-ampere (b) Kilowatt-hour (c) Watt second (d) Joule second Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. What is the relationship between resistance and current? (a) They are directly related to each other (b) They are inversely related to each other (c) The resistance has a greater magnitude than the current (d) The current has a greater magnitude than the resistance Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. The number of electrons passing through a cross-section of the filament in 16 seconds would be roughly (a) 1020 (b) 1016 Axom Future 60 (c) 1018 (d) 1023 Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. How much more heat is produced if the current is doubled? (a) Twice the original amount (b) Thrice the original amount (c) Four times the original amount (d) Five times the original amount Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of the following represents voltage? (a) Work done / Current × Time (b) Work done × Charge (c) Work done × Time / Current (d) Work done × Charge × Time Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volts and a fan of 500 W, 200 volts are to be used from a household supply. The rating of the fuse to be used is (a) 2.5 A (b) 5.0 A (c) 7.5 A (d) 10 A Correct Answer: Option (d) Axom Future 61 Q. Which combination of a 2 Ω resistor and 4 Ω resistor offers the least resistance to current in the circuit? (a) Series combination, which results in a net resistance of 2 Ω (b) Parallel combination, which results in a net resistance of 2 Ω (c) Series combination, which results in a net resistance of 1.5 Ω (d) Parallel combination, which results in a net resistance of 0.5 Ω Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. In an electrical circuit, two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω, respectively, are connected in series to a 6 V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ω resistor in 5 s will be (a) 5 J (b) 10 J (c) 20 J (d) 30 J Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. In order to reduce electricity consumption at home, what kind of appliance should one purchase? (a) One which draws low power (b) One which produces less heat (c) One which operates at a higher voltage (d) One which draws a high amount of current Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. If n resistors each of resistance R are connected in parallel combination, then their equivalent resistance is (a) R/n2 Axom Future 62 (b) n2/R (c) n/R (d) R/n Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which one among a bar of an alloy of mass 2 kg and a 3 kg iron bar of the same dimension has greater resistivity? (a) Iron bar because it has a higher mass (b) Alloy bar because it has a lower mass (c) Iron bar because it has the same types of atoms (d) Alloy bar because it has different types of atoms Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Two resistors connected in series give an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in parallel, give 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance is (a) each of 5 Ω (b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω (c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω (d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in 10 seconds is (a) 2 × 103 joule (b) 2 × 105 joule (c) 2 × 104 joule (d) 2 × 102 joule Axom Future 63 Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Two bulbs are rated 40W, 220W and 60W, 220W. The ratio of their resistances will be (a) 4:3 (b) 3:4 (c) 2:3 (d) 3:2 Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W, respectively, operating 220 V, then (a) R1 < R2 (b) R2 < R1 (c) R1 = R2 (d) R1 ≥ R2 Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. An electric toaster has a power rating of 200 W. It operates for 1 hour in the morning and 1 hour in the evening. How much does it cost to operate the toaster for 10 days at Rs. 5 per kW h? (a) Rs. 20 (b) Rs. 400 (c) Rs. 5000 (d) Rs. 10000 Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A coil in the heater consumes power P on passing current. If it is cut into halves and joined in parallel, it will consume power Axom Future 64 (a) P (b) P/2 (c) 2 P (d) 4 P Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The most suitable material for making the core of an electromagnet is: a) Steel b) Iron c) Soft iron d) Aluminium Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of the following is not attracted by a magnet? (a) Steel (b) Cobalt (c) Brass (d) Nickel Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. When a straight conductor is carrying current: a) There are circular magnetic field lines around it b) There are magnetic field lines parallel to the conductor c) There are no magnetic field lines d) None of the above Axom Future 65 Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar magnet. The pointer of the plotting compass will: (a) Point away from the south pole (b) Point parallel to the south pole (c) Point towards the south pole (d) Point at right angles to the south pole Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Two magnetic field lines: a) Intersect at the neutral point b) Never intersect each other c) Intersect near north-pole or south pole d) Intersect at the midpoint of the magnet Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The front face of a circular loop of a wire is the North Pole, the direction of current in this face of the loop will be: a) Clockwise b) Anticlockwise c) Towards North d) Towards South Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding magnetic field lines? Axom Future 66 (a) The direction of the magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of a magnetic compass needle points. (b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves. (c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength. (d) Relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines. Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current: a) Is zero b) Decrease as we move towards its end c) Is the same at all points d) Increase as we move towards its end Correct Answer: Option © Q. A strong bar magnet is placed vertically above a horizontal wooden board. The magnetic lines of force will be: (a) Only in the horizontal plane around the magnet (b) Only in the vertical plane around the magnet (c) In horizontal as well as vertical planes around the magnet (d) In all the planes around the magnet Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The strength of the magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is: a) More at the ends than at the centre b) Minimum in the middle c) Same at all points Axom Future 67 d) Found to increase from one end to the another Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which option explains Fleming’s left-hand rule to understand the working of a motor? (a) When a current-carrying conductor is moved with force, it creates a magnetic field. (b) When a conductor is moved inside a magnetic field, the current is produced in the conductor. (c) When the magnetic field is moved relative to the conductor, the current is produced in the conductor. (d) When a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force from the magnetic field. Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The force on a current-carrying conductor when placed perpendicular in a uniform magnetic field. a) F=BIL b) F=B/IL c) F=L/BI d) F=I/BL Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. A student inserts a bar magnet in the coil. The student observes deflection in the galvanometer connected to the coil. What will happen if the magnet is continuously getting in and out of the coil? (a) The current induced in the coil will increase (b) The current will change its direction continuously (c) The magnetic field will create a motion in the coil (d) The magnetic field of the bar magnet would keep decreasing Axom Future 68 Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside a solenoid: a) Decrease b) Will increase c) Will become zero d) Will remain unaffected Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Assertion (A): As the speed of the coil in the motor increases, there is a reduction in the current flowing through it. Reason (R): During rotation in an electric motor, some induced current is produced. (a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct (b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect (c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire? a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire Correct Answer: Option (d) Axom Future 69 Q. For a current in the long straight solenoid, N and S-poles are created at the two ends. Among the following statement, the incorrect statement is: a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines, which indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of a magnetic material like soft iron when placed inside the coil c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet. d) The N and S-poles exchange position when the direction of the current through the solenoid is reversed Correct Answer: Option © Q. Appliances that have a metal body are generally connected to the earthing wire. What is the reason to earth these wires? (a) To prevent the excess current (b) To prevent the leakage of current (c) To provide extra current to the appliance (d) To provide high resistance to the appliance Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which process explains the energy extraction from a sea wave? (a) using the kinetic energy of the waves to produce electricity (b) using the thermal energy of the waves to produce electricity (c) using chemical energy of the waves to generate electricity (d) using electrical energy of the waves to generate electricity Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Why is wind energy considered a conventional source of energy? Axom Future 70 (a) as it can rotate a windmill (b) as it can help in lifting water (c) as it is readily available and used for a long time (d) as it produced due to uneven heating of the Earth Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. A student studies that biogas contains a large amount of methane which can be used as a fuel for various uses. It burns without releasing smoke and leaving no residue like ash in other fossil fuels. Should biomass be considered a ‘good’ or ‘bad’ source of energy? (a) bad, as it does not release smoke (b) good, as it produces methane gas (c) bad, as it burns without releasing smoke (d) good, as it does not cause any harm to the environment Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. A student wants to extract energy from fossil fuels. Which process would help him to extract the energy from fossil fuel? (a) burning (b) crystallisation (c) condensation (d) distillation Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which of these processes explains the extraction of energy from wind to generate energy for a water-lifting pump? (a) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into kinetic energy (b) conversion of the kinetic energy of wind into mechanical energy Axom Future 71 (c) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into potential energy (d) conversion of the potential energy of wind into mechanical energy Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Why is biogas considered a ‘good’ source of energy? (a) as it produces ashes (b) as it produces methane (c) as it burns without releasing smoke (d) as it decomposes in the absence of oxygen Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Rajeev studies that due to gravitational pull, the level of water in the sea rises and falls. With the advancement of technology, the generation of electricity has been made possible. This type of energy is known as tidal energy. Should tidal energy be considered a conventional or nonconventional source of energy? (a) conventional, as it uses water as the source of energy (b) non-conventional, as gravitational energy is converted to electrical energy (c) conventional, as the resulting product is electricity which can be used as fuel (d) non-conventional, as the extraction of this energy is possible with advances in technology Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. A student studies that the efficiency of fuel can be increased using new technologies. How do increased efficiency benefit humans and the environment? (a) production of fuel will increase (b) cost of fuel production will decrease Axom Future 72 (c) amount of fuel in reservoirs will increase (d) pollution and consumption will decrease Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Thermal power plant is considered a bad source of energy. Why? (a) as it uses very less amount of fossil fuels (b) as the burning of fossil fuel releases harmful gases (c) as electricity is harmful and pollutes the environment (d) as thermal power plants produce less amount of electricity Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Rihaan can use any source of energy for cooking, but he wants to avoid the production of smoke from the source. Which of these sources should he use for cooking? (a) coal (b) electricity (c) petroleum (d) wood Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following processes explains the working of a geothermal power plant? (a) use of potential energy to produce electricity (b) use of thermal energy to produce electricity (c) use of kinetic energy to produce electricity (d) use of tidal energy to produce electricity Correct Answer: Option (b) Axom Future 73 Q. Should hydropower plants be considered a ‘good’ or ‘bad’ source of energy? (a) good, as it uses releases oxides of carbon (b) bad, as it uses water as a source of energy (c) good, as it does not pollute the atmosphere (d) bad, as no ashes are produced while burning fossil fuels Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of these processes explains the extraction of the sun’s energy to generate energy to light a bulb? (a) conversion of electric energy into solar energy (b) conversion of solar energy into electric energy (c) conversion of solar energy into kinetic energy (d) conversion of kinetic energy into solar energy Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of these characteristics can help us recognise a good source of fuel? (a) physical state (b) availability in all regions (c) cost-effective for all countries (d) produces a large amount of energy Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The decomposers in an ecosystem: a) Convert organic material to inorganic forms b) Convert inorganic material to simpler forms c) Convert inorganic material into the organic compound Axom Future 74 d) Do not break down the organic compound Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which statement shows the interaction of an abiotic component with a biotic component in an ecosystem? a) A grasshopper feeding on a leaf b) Rainwater running down into the lake c) An earthworm making a burrow in the soil d) A mouse fighting with another mouse for food Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices? a) Carrying a cloth bag to put purchases while shopping. b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter d) All of the above Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The amount of energy that flows from one trophic level to another in a food chain is a) 5% b) 10 % c) 20 % d) 15 % Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The manufacturing of Chlorofluorocarbons free refrigerators is mandatory throughout the world. How does this help prevent ozone depletion? Axom Future 75 a) This will help convert oxygen molecules into ozone b) This will help convert the CFCs into ozone molecules c) This will reduce the production of CFCs from oxygen molecules d) This will reduce the release of CFCs that reacts with ozone molecules Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The primary consumers are a) Carnivores b) Herbivores c) Omnivores d) Producers Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of the following is responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer a) CFCs b) Oxygen c) SO2 d) CO2 Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Ozone forms by the combination of free oxygen atoms and oxygen molecules. How do free oxygen atoms form at higher levels of the atmosphere? a) By splitting molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in the presence of low-energy UV radiations b) By splitting molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in the presence of high-energy UV radiations Axom Future 76 c) By the combination of two molecular oxygen in the presence of high energy UV radiations d) By the combination of two free oxygen atoms in the presence of lower energy UV radiations Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. The driving force of any ecosystem is a) Carbohydrates b) Solar energy c) Biomass d) ATP Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Kitchen wastes can be hygienically disposed of through a) Dumping b) Composting c) Incineration d) Recycling Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Environment includes a) Land, air, water b) Light, temperature, rainfall c) Plants, animals, microbes d) All of these Correct Answer: Option (d) Axom Future 77 Q. Which of the following is a linear arrangement of organisms? a) Food chain b) Food web c) Trophic levels d) Community Correct Answer: Option (a) Q.An agricultural cropland is a) A biome b) A natural ecosystem c) An artificial ecosystem d) None of these Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. What is the order of the waste management hierarchy, from most to least favoured? a) Prevention-Recycle-Reuse-Disposal b) Prevention-Reuse-Disposal-Recycle c) Prevention-Disposal-Reuse-Recycle d) Prevention-Reuse-Recycle-Disposal Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Problem of solid waste disposal can be reduced through a) Recycling b) Lesser pollution c) More timber Axom Future 78 d) Population control Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. An environment-friendly practice is a) Using CFLs at homes and offices b) Using the car to go to nearby places c) Using AC in every room d) Burning plastics Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain? a) Water b) Polluted air and water c) Deficient food supply d) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The cleaners of nature are a) Producers b) Consumers c) Herbivores d) Decomposers Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Ozone hole may cause ( PYQ) a) Mutations Axom Future 79 b) Global warming c) Skin cancer d) All of these Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by a) Carnivores b) Herbivores c) Producers d) Decomposers Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. The biotic components of an ecosystem consist of a) Plants and animals b) Algae and fungi c) Producers, consumers & decomposers d) Air, water, soil Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Which of the following could be incinerated? a) Paper b) Medicine bottles c) Needle of the syringe d) All of the above Correct Answer: Option (c) Axom Future 80 Q. The harmful chemical which is accumulating in human beings through the food chain is a) BHC b) DDT c) Abscisic acid d) CFC Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Carnivores represent a) Primary consumers b) Reducers c) Phytoplanktons d) Secondary and tertiary consumers Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of the following constitutes a food chain? a) Grass, goat and human b) Goat, cow and elephant c) Grass, fish and zebra d) Grass, wheat and apple Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Biodegradable wastes include a) Aluminium foils b) Glass bottles c) Pesticides Axom Future 81 d) Wood shavings Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. What are the methods by which energy can be recovered from waste to energy? (1) Heat (2) Electricity (3) Co-generation a) By (1) and (2) b) By (2) and (3) c) By (1), (2) and (3) d) None of the above Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. What is the most expensive component of solid waste handling? a) Collection b) Storage c) Treatment d) Separation Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which of the following statement regarding recycling is wrong? a) Saves precious resources b) Require stable market c) Improves efficiency of treatment processes d) Increases the need for mining virgin materials Axom Future 82 Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. What is the main significance of sustainable development? (a) To preserve the natural resources for the needs of the future generation (b) To exploit the available resource for rapid improvement (c) To increase the cost of available natural resources (d) To increase the reservoirs of natural resources Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. The most rapidly dwindling natural resource in the world is: (a) Water (b) Forest (c) Wind (d) Sunlight Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of these practices will help to conserve the forest? (a) Practice of deforestation (b) Putting a ban on deforestation (c) An increase in the use of firewood by local people (d) An increase in the use of forest products by industries Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. Which of these practices can be adopted to save the environment? (a) Refuse the use of single-use plastic bags (b) Reduce the use of paper bags Axom Future 83 (c) Recycle single-use bags (d) Reuse waste food Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which option explains the disadvantage of using fossil fuels as energy sources? (a) It releases harmful gases into the atmosphere when they burn (b) It is extracted from deep inside the Earth (c) It uses oxygen in the process of burning (d) It is hard to transport Correct Answer: Option (a Q. The three Rs that will help us to conserve natural resources for long-term use are: (a) Recycle, regenerate, reuse (b) Reduce, regenerate, reuse (c) Reduce, reuse, redistribute (d) Reduce, recycle, reuse Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which of these is an example of sustainable development in order to conserve natural resources for future generations? (a) Cleaning water resources (b) Finding alternate fuel reservoirs (c) Clearing forests to set up new industries (d) Planning for safe disposal of wastes after mining Correct Answer: Option (d) Axom Future 84 Q. Which of the following is not a natural resource? (a) Mango tree (b) Snake (c) Wind (d) Wooden house Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. In which year was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented in India? (a) 1952 (b) 1962 (c) 1972 (d) 1982 Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. Who prepared the Ganga Action Plan? (a) Department of Pollution (b) Department of Environment (c) Department of River (d) Department of Industries Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. At which of the following places are royal Bengal tigers found? (a) Mahanadi delta (b) Godavari delta (c) Kaveri delta Axom Future 85 (d) Sundarban delta Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. In which of the following states does the Ganga originate? (a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Uttarakhand (d) None Correct Answer: Option (c) Q. A student studies that the construction of a water harvesting system in a region can help conserve water. How can the construction of this system help a region? (a) It will reduce the occurrence of droughts (b) It will reduce the percolation of rainwater (c) It will replenish surface water like rivers (d) It will increase the speed of flow of surface runoff Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Which of the following is not a natural resource? (a) Soil (b) Water (c) Air (d) Electricity Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. Which one of the following is the Biosphere Reserve of India? (a) Gir Axom Future 86 (b) Nilgiri (c) Kanheri (d) None of the above Correct Answer: Option (b) Q. When was the Ganga Action Plan launched? (a) 1980 (b) 1982 (c) 1984 (d) 1986 Correct Answer: Option (d) Q. The pH range most conducive for the life of freshwater plants and animals is: (a) 6.5 to 7.5 (b) 2.0 to 3.5 (c) 3.5 to 5.0 (d) 9.0 to 10.5 Correct Answer: Option (a) Q. Tropical rainforests grow well in areas receiving rainfall (a) 200 cm (b) 150 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 70 cm Correct Answer: Option (a) Axom Future 87 Q. Electrolysis of water is an example of- (a) Combination reaction. (b) Decomposition reaction. (c) Displacement reaction. (d) Exothermic reaction. Ans: (b) Decomposition reaction. Q. In which of the following reactions, there is an exchange of ions between the reactants- (a) Displacement. (b) Decomposition. (c) Double displacement. (d) Combination. Ans: (c) Double displacement. Q. Burning of natural gas is an example of- (a) Endothermic reaction. (b) Exothermic reaction. (c) Combination reaction. (d) Decomposition reaction. Ans: (b) Exothermic reaction. Q. ZnO + C→ Zn + CO – The substances that are oxidised and reduced in the following reaction are respectively- (a) ZnO, C (b) Zn, CO Axom Future 88 (c) ZnO, CO (d) C, ZnO Ans: (d) C, ZnO Q. The reaction between quick lime and water is an example of – (a) Combination reaction. (b) Decomposition reaction. (c) Exothermic reaction. (d) (a) and (c). Ans: (d) (a) and (c). Q. Thermal decomposition of ferrous sulphate gives- (a) SO₂ (b) SO₃ (c) Fe₂ O₃ (d) All of above. Ans: (d) All of above. Q. Which one is not formed in the thermal decomposition of lead nitrate- (a) PbO (b) NO₂ (c) N₂ (d) O₂ Ans: (c) N₂ Q. The colour of white silver chloride after placing it in the sunlight for some time will be- Axom Future 89 (a) White. (b) Red. (c) Grey. (d) Yellow. Ans: (c) Grey. Q. Which of the following is a characteristic of a chemical reaction? (a) Change in state. (b) Change in colour. (c) Evolution of a gas. (d) All of the above. Ans: (d) All of the above. Q. Human body works efficiently within the pH range (a) Lower than 5.6 (b) Lower than 5.5 (c) Between 7.0 and 7.8 (d) Between 0 and 14 Ans: (c) Between 7.0 and 7.8 Q. Our tooth decay starts when pH of mouth is- (a) Less than 7.0 (b) Less than 5.5 (c) More than 5.6 (d) More than 5.5 Axom Future 90 Ans : (b) less than 5.5 Q. Which of the following acid is secreted when nettle leaves sting- (a) Acetic acid. (b) Citric acid. (c) Lactic acid. (d) Methanoic acid. Ans: (d) Methanoic acid. Q. The nature of sodium chloride salt- (a) Neutral. (b) Basic. (c) Acidic. (d) None of these. Ans: (a) Neutral. Q. The nature of salt produced by the reaction between a strong and a weak base- (a) Basic. (b) Acidic. (c) Neutral. (d) None of these. Ans: (b) Acidic. Q. The nature of salt produced by the reaction between a weak acid and a strong base- Axom Future 91 (a) Basic. (b) Neutral. (c) Acidic. (d) None of these. Ans: (a) Basic. Q. Which of the following non-metallic oxides is neutral in nature- (a) Neutral. (b) Acidic. (c) Basic. (d) None of these. Ans: (a) Neutral. Q. Which of the following non-metallic oxides is neutral in nature – (a) CO₂ (b) SO₂ (c) H₂O (d) SO₃