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Table of Contents HOW TO ANSWER MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS LIKE A PRO................................................................................................ 2 LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY......................................................... 13 SCIENCE...................................................................................... 56 MATHEMATICS............................................................................ 88 READING COMPREHENSION................................................... 113 LANGUAGE ANSWER KEY....................................................... 183 SCIENCE ANSWER KEY........................................................... 188 MATHEMATICS ANSWER KEY................................................. 191 READING ANSWER KEY........................................................... 229 1 1 How to Answer Multiple Choice Questions Like A Pro Between a multiple choice test and an essay exam, most of us would rather choose the former. Multiple choice tests trick our brains that they're easier to answer. All we have to do is to distinguish the correct answer from the distracters. However, answering multiple choice exams are not as easy or straightforward as we like them to be, especially if we're dealing with crucial exams like the UPCAT. The following tips are a perfect supplement to your hard-earned stocked knowledge and can maximize your success in answering any multiple-choice exam. Be wary of tricks and traps. Sometimes they're easy to identify but the more subtle ones are what you should watch out for. Don't overanalyze but never trust questions that are too easy either. 2 Remember, the goal of test makers is to gauge your analytical skills in all subtests. When answering language proficiency exams, for instance, the following traps may lead you to the path of failure if you're not careful: a. Violation of the rule of "parallel structures." Example: "Play, eat, and sleeping--these are what my pet dog usually does all day." Explanation: Parallel structures are used to ensure clarity of statements. According to this principle, words and phrases in a sentence should be consistent in terms of structure and tense. The example sentence above violates the rule of parallel structures. The first two verbs--play and eat--are in present tense, while the last one--sleeping--is a verb that acts as a noun, otherwise known as a gerund. To correct the sentence, the gerund should be replaced with a verb form consistent with the other two words, hence: "Play, eat, and sleep--these are what my pet dog usually does all day." b. Insertion of distracting phrase or clause that clouds subject- verb agreement. Example: "Many politicians, in their desire to win an election, makes grandiose promises to voters." Explanation: Always focus on two things: the subject and the verb. Everything else is secondary. In the above example, the subject is "politicians" which is in plural form so the verb must also be plural. 3 Hence, the correct answer should be "make" instead of "makes." c. Use of inverted sentence structure. Example: "In the middle of the forest stands the giant trees considered oldest in the region." Explanation: Inverted sentences have verbs that come before the subjects instead of the other way around. It's easy to assume there's nothing wrong with this sentence if you don't look closely. In the sentence above, for example, the verb "stands" describe the subject "trees," not the "forest." Therefore, it should be rewritten as: "In the middle of the forest stand the giant trees considered oldest in the region." d. Misplaced modifiers. Example: "Eagerly awaiting her birthday, Mary's presents were all picked up and admired by Mary many times throughout the course of the day." Explanation: Modifiers are words that add details or change the meaning of another word. To avoid confusion, the modifiers should be placed close to the subject being described. Misplaced modifiers can be really confusing since you're dealing with several words at the same time. The example above makes it seem as though Mary's presents, not Mary herself, are "eagerly awaiting her birthday." 4 Using common sense, we know that Mary's presents have no way of expressing the emotion of eagerness. By rearranging the words, we can come up with a sentence that makes more sense: Eagerly awaiting her birthday, Mary picked up and admired her presents many times throughout the day. Eliminate distracters. Most multiple choice questions provide you with four possible answers to choose from--A, B, C, or D. Use the process of elimination to whittle down the choices to only two. If you remove the distracters from the equation, it will be easier for you to get to the right answer since you'll only be choosing between two options. Dealing with only two choices also means you have 50% probability of getting it right. Watch out for qualifiers. A qualifier is a word that enhances or limits the meaning of another word. Qualifiers can either be absolute (e.g., all, always, absolutely, never, certainly, best, every, only, worst, invariably, without exception) or conditional (e.g., usually, probably, possibly, seldom, might, much, most, often, generally, frequently). When you see a qualifier in one of the choices, it can either make the option correct or incorrect. 5 For example, the sentences below seem identical: "It often rains in Batanes." "It always rains in Batanes." A closer look reveals that both sentences may look similar but they differ in meanings due to the type of qualifier used. Whereas the first sentence is correct, the second one is false because of the use of the word "always." In multiple choice exams, options that use absolute qualifiers are mostly wrong while those with conditional qualifiers like "often," "seldom," and "probably" tend to be the correct answers. Draw diagrams and pictures to solve tricky Math problems. Although some math problems can easily be solved with mental calculations, there are complex questions that warrant more visualization. By converting word problems into diagrams or pictures, you can make them less intimidating and easier to solve. Example: "The town of Marabut is located along Marikina Highway. The town of Caranglan is west of Marabut. Sarangani is east of Caranglan, but west of Marabut. Daraga is east of Rajamon, but west of Sarangani and Caranglan. Which town is the farthest west?" To solve this problem, draw a line and put the first two places in their respective locations as described in the statement: "The town of Caranglan is west of Marabut." 6 Next, place the other towns in their correct order as indicated in the word problem. Based on the diagram we've created, we can easily see that the town farthest west is Rajamon. 7 Although you can also visualize the diagram in your mind, actually drawing it on your scratch paper makes you less likely to commit mistakes. Keep an eye out on negatives. Negative words like none, never, not, no, and those with prefixes like un-, il-, or im- can change the meaning of a sentence. If you don't read carefully, you may misinterpret a statement containing negative words as false when it's actually true. Consider the two sentences below: "It is logical to assume that Thomas Edison’s fame was due to his many practical inventions." "It is illogical to assume that Thomas Edison’s fame was not due to his many practical inventions." The first statement, which contains no negatives, is true. The second sentence, on the other hand, has double negatives. When two negative words are present, the statement is also true since the negatives negate each other. Both statements above are true but the second one is relatively harder to figure out due to the presence of the negative words. When dealing with sentences like this in multiple-choice exams, identify the negatives first and then understand the meaning of the statement without the negative words. This way, you can find out whether the sentence is true or false without being influenced by the negatives. 8 Look for grammatical clues. Multiple choice questions can be asked in different ways but regardless of the format, they all follow basic grammar rules. In some language proficiency exams, the answer can be the one that makes the most sense grammatically. For example, in a question that ends with the indefinite article "an," the answer is most likely the one that starts with a vowel. The following question is another good example: The people of Iceland a. A country located just outside the Arctic Circle b. Are the world’s most avid readers c. Claim to be descendants of the Aztecs d. The capital, Reykjavik, where arms talks have been held Based on grammar rules, we can eliminate choices (a) and (d). You can now choose between options (b) and (c) since they're the only ones that don't interrupt the flow of the sentence and follow the basic subject-verb agreement. Grammatical clues can also be used to answer questions that test your ability to organize phrases or sentences. Example: a. Secondly, they had no leader. b. Firstly, the workers were not united. c. Finally, they did not have the support of their families. d. Thirdly, they had no funds to tide them over. e. From the beginning, it looked like the worker's strike was doomed to fail. Answer choices: 9 1. abdec 2. cbead 3. deabc 4. ebadc Relying on the keywords at the start of each sentence, we can organize them into a sequence that makes sense: "From the beginning," followed by "Firstly," "Secondly," and so forth. The correct sequence, therefore, is "ebadc." Ignore conventional advice. You've probably been told that when in doubt, always choose "c." However, the probability of getting the question right if you choose this letter is similar to your chances of winning the lottery. Don't look for patterns in places that have none, especially in multiple-choice exams where answers are arranged in random order. Therefore, if you notice that you've chosen the same letter for three consecutive questions, don't be alarmed. The pattern must be coincidental so never let it interrupt you from answering the rest of the exam. Be systematic when faced with confusing questions/choices. The goal of the test maker is not to make your life easier. But no matter how long and confusing the questions and their corresponding choices may be, you can arrive at the right answer by taking it one step at a time. 10 Example: Which of the following facilitates the healing process? Resting the injured part of the body. Protection of the wound from further Injury. Adequate nutrition. Emotional support from friends and family. Depriving the patient of fluids. Choices: A, b, d, e A, b, c, d A, c, d, e All of the above None of the above At first glance, the question may look overwhelming. But by being systematic, you can easily spot the answer without wasting so much time. First, eliminate the statement that is apparently false, in this case (e) or "Depriving the patient with fluids." Next, go through the choices and eliminate those that contain the false statement (e). By doing this, you can trim down your choices and have a better chance of picking the correct answer. Additional tips.  Frequently check that your answers match the corresponding questions, especially after you have skipped some items.  Hide or cover the choices when reading the stem or the body of the question. Figure out the answer if you can so you 11 won't be distracted by the other choices by the time you uncover them.  Write down as many formulas as you can remember on the scratch paper provided as soon as the exam starts. You can either do this at the beginning (at the risk of losing a few minutes) or after finishing the first part of the exam, provided that it doesn't require computations like Language Proficiency.  If you have remaining time left, go over your test paper for the very last time to change answers for questions that you've either misread or just finally realized the answers to. Also, check for errors like stray pencil marks, question- answer mismatch, and shading two answers for the same question. 12 Language Proficiency 2 Directions: This subtest will measure your fluency in English and Filipino. Read the sentence/question/passage first before selecting the letter that corresponds to your answer. 1. May I please request that each of the two groups take an position in the issue now. A. alternating B. alternative C. alternate D. all of the above 2. mountains aplenty in the Philippines. A. There is B. There are C. There were D. There was 3. The student badly needs her teacher's A. advice B. advise C. advising D. advisory 13 4. Choose the correct and effective sentence from the set of sentences. A. She only walked fifteen miles when her legs gave out. B. She had only walked for about fifteen miles when her legs gave out. C. She has walked only fifteen miles when her legs gave out. D. She had walked only fifteen miles when her legs gave out. 5. A thousand pesos __________ not enough compensation and you _________ it. A. are – knows B. are – know C. is – know D. is – knows 6. If we __________ harder we would have passed the UPCAT. A. study B. had studied C. studied D. have studied 7. Amicable means the same as – A. friendly B. anxious C. jealous D. patient 8. are you deserting me you are also taking our supplies. A. neither—nor B. not only—but C. both—and D. either—or 14 9. Lolita is going to Switzerland ___________ May next year. Particularly, she would be leaving ___________ eight o’clock a.m _________ New Year’s Day. A. in – on – on B. at – on – at C. in – at – in D. in – at – on 10. Choose the correct and effective sentence from the set of sentences. A. Father jogs exuberantly to the park every morning before breakfast to exercise his heart. B. Father exuberantly jogs every morning to the park to exercise his heart before breakfast. C. Father, to exercise his heart, jogs exuberantly every morning before breakfast to the park. D. Father jogs exuberantly every morning before breakfast to the park to exercise his heart. 11. She ______________ finished the project before tomorrow. A. None of the above B. would have C. will have D. should have Questions 12 – 14: Read the group of words provided. There may be a mistake in the sentence structure. If you find a mistake, choose the answer that is written most clearly and correctly. If there is no mistake, choose Correct as is. 12. Veronica left the room, turned right, and, without any hesitation, walked outside. 15 A. Leaving the room, turning right, Veronica walking outside without any hesitation. B. Veronica left the room and she turned right and walked outside without any hesitation. C. Veronica left the room turned right and walked outside without any hesitation. D. Correct as is 13. There are extra chairs in that room that are not needed or necessary. A. There are extra chairs in that room. B. There are extra and unnecessary chairs in that room. C. The extra chairs in that room are not needed or necessary. D. Correct as is 14. Some tortoises living up to 100 years are among the world’s oldest animals. A. The world’s oldest animals, some living up to 100 years are some tortoises. B. Some tortoises, among the world’s oldest animals, are living up to 100 years. C. Living up to 100 years, some tortoises are among the world’s oldest animals. D. Correct as is For question numbers 15 – 21: Determine which of the following synonyms on the given choices best corresponds to how the underlined word/s were used on each sentence. 15. Leo made a disappointed, misunderstood face from the many creases at his disposal. A. authority B. distribution C. garbage unit D. regulation 16 16. Joana's reply to his query was sure and crisp, that it didn't took too long before she was able to prod him away. A. brittle B. lively C. concise D. fragile 17. The professor took an immaculate handkerchief out of his pocket, and began to polish the lenses of his glasses. A. pure B. spotless C. error-free D. flawless 18. Much of his writing is slack that is why readers get bored at his works. A. lacks action B. lacks completeness/perfection C. lacks firmness D. lacks diligence 19. Members shall be adequately braced to resist lateral and torsional displacement. A. connected together B. supported with braces C. reinforced D. get ready for an attack 20. Pauline's words had made all sorts of frightened echoes in our minds. A. a close imitation B. an answering sympathetic effect C. a soft recurrence of a statement D. a reverberation of sound waves 17 21. The dead load consists of the weight of the structure completed. A. empty B. inert C. constant D. lifeless 22. The cold air mass will move south from Canada. In which sentence does the word mass mean the same thing as in the sentence above? A. The storm warning of a blizzard caused mass concern. B. The oil mass spread quickly into the ocean. C. There was a mass of people gathering to watch the parade. D. The 100-member choir will mass in the auditorium on Saturday. Questions 23 – 27: Choose the correct sequence of sentences that will make the paragraph more organized and logical. 23. (1) This mere mechanism of reading becomes altogether automatic at an early period of life. (2) You will often find yourself reading words or characters automatically, while your mind is concerned with a totally different subject. (3) This can be performed irrespective of attention. (4) In as much, neither can I call it reading when it is just to extract the narrative portion of a text from the rest simply for one’s personal amusement. (5) To read the characters or the letters of the text does not mean reading in the true sense of the word. A. 5-2-1-3-4 B. 3-5-1-2-4 C. 2-1-3-4-5 18 D. 5-3-2-1-4 24. (1) Most of this material which we call ash, stays behind after the fire burns out. (2) When we burn fuel such as wood, oil or coal, the fuel combines with oxygen in the air to form gases that escape into the atmosphere. (3) Some of it, however, is carried aloft by the hot gases of the fire and adds to the volume of smoke produced. (4) In addition, most of the fuels contain a small amount of various substances that do not burn. (5) But most of the burning we do is far from perfect, so tiny particles of unburned fuel escape up the chimney in the form of smoke. A. 2-5-3-4-1 B. 2-3-5-1-4 C. 2-3-5-4-1 D. 2-5-4-1-3 25. (1) In the Philippines, the population boom has derailed efforts to make the benefits of economic growth trickle down to the grassroots. Thousands of new people are born on our planet every day. (2) With the population galloping toward the 100-million mark, the Philippines will be among one of several developing nations leading global population growth in the coming years, according to the United Nations. (3) With limited resources and economic growth failing to keep pace with the population boom, this means more people getting an ever-shrinking share of the pie. 19 (4) This has been a problem in previous administrations and remains a problem of the Aquino government, despite sustained economic growth since 2010. (5) This is true both in the Philippines and around the planet, whose resources cannot meet the demands especially of the poorest segments of the 7.2 billion population. A. 1-2-3-4-5 B. 4-2-3-1-5 C. 2-3-5-1-4 D. 5-3-2-1-4 26. (1) Ang bawat polista ay kinakailangang magtrabaho ng apatnapung araw sa bawat taon. (2) Ang polo y servicios o sapilitang paggawa ay ang sapilitang paglilingkod sa pamahalaang mga Pilipinong lalaki mula 16 hanggang 60 taong gulang. (3) Noong 1884, ito ay ginagawa na lamang labinlimang araw. (4) Ang mga manggagawa sa ilalim ng polo y servicios ay tinatawag na polista. (5) Upang makaligtas sa sapilitang paggawa, kinakailangang magbayad ng falla na tanging mga mayayaman lamang ang nakakabayad. A. 2-4-1-3-5 B. 2-5-1-4-3 C. 2-3-1-5-4 D. 2-1-5-4-3 27. (1) Ipinakikita ng panitikang eksistensyal ang kamulatan sa kamalian at kahangalan ng uniberso. 20 (2) Madalas na paksa nito ang mga bagay at galaw na etikal na titiyak sa kahulugan ng buong buhay ng isang indibidwal. (3) Ang eksistensyalismo ay naniniwalang ang tao mismo ang gumagawa at humuhubog ng kanyang kapalaran. (4) Di nito tinatanggap na ang herediti at kapaligiran ang tumitiyak sa motibasyon at ang pag-uugali ng tao. (5) Ang kanyang kahihinatnan ay ayon sa kanyang pagpili ng aksyon o ng pamamaraan ng pamumuhay. A. 3-1-2-5-4 B. 3-5-4-1-2 C. 3-5-1-2-4 D. 3-2-1-4-5 28. His reassuring words mitigated our fears. Mitigated means – A. reinforced B. added to C. caused D. eased 29. By the time the operation ends, Billy _____ a total of 1,300 hours for his friend and _____ countless outdated magazines in the emergency room waiting area. A. will have waited…will have read B. have waited…have read C. waited…read D. will have waited…read 30. Sarah wanted to see the concert she had been looking forward to it for a long time. Choose the answer that is the best way to write the underlined section of the sentence. A. concert, she had been B. concert; she had been 21 C. concert she has been D. Correct as is Questions 31 – 35: Ayusin ang mga sumusunod na salita upang makabuo ng makabuluhang pangungusap. 31. nilalaman kuwento unawain ang ng 1 2 3 4 5 A. 3-4-5-2-1 B. 3-4-1-5-2 C. 3-5-1-2-3 D. 3-1-2-4-5 32. takdang sala ang may lahat parusa ng 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 A. 4-6-3-2-7-1-5 B. 4-1-6-3-5-7-2 C. 4-1-3-5-7-2-6 D. 4-2-3-5-7-6-1 33. isang ang buhay gulong ay 1 2 3 4 5 A. 2-5-3-4-1 B. 2-4-5-1-3 C. 2-5-3-1-4 D. 2-3-5-1-4 22 34.Celso ang hinihintay ano mo pa 1 2 3 4 5 6 A. 4-6-2-3-5-1 B. 4-5-6-2-3-1 C. 1-2-6-5-4-3 D. 1-4-5-3-2-6 35. kabataan ang ay mahalagang isang ng buhay 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 yugto 8 A. 2-5-1-6-7-8-3-4 B. 2-1-3-4-6-7-5-8 C. 2-1-3-5-4-8-6-7 D. 2-5-6-1-4-7-3-8 36. Neither of her Oscar awards, however, _____ been polished for a long time. A. have B. is C. has D. have already 37. By the time the operation ends, Billy _____ a total of 1,300 hours for his friend and _____ countless outdated magazines in the emergency room waiting area. A. will have waited…will have read B. have waited…have read C. waited…read D. will have waited…read 23 38. Patungo ______________ ang mga kandidato. A. roon B. doon C. dito D. rin Questions 39 – 41: Read the paragraph and then answer the questions that follow it. “The Challenge” It started when she was in elementary school. Sonia knew that she wanted to be a champion synchronized swimmer. Today’s competition would determine whether she would earn the opportunity to go to the national contest. She performed the required technical routines flawlessly and led the other swimmers going into the free competition, the portion of the program that counted most. This series of choreographed moves performed to music required a couple of qualities. For one particularly difficult element, Sonia had to remain upside down in the water for over half a minute. She could tell by the audience’s thunderous applause when she emerged from the pool that the performance had gone well. Seconds later the judges confirmed it; Sonia was on her way to the national contest. 39. This series of choreographed moves performed to music required a couple of qualities? Good writers describe the subject using details. How can the underlined words be better written to include exact details? A. some abilities that she had to develop B. specific physical qualities C. special moves D. great strength and control 24 40. Which sentence would not belong in this paragraph? A. Sonia had worked hard for many years to get to this point. B. The routine had gone smoothly, and Sonia had done even better than she had anticipated. C. The cool water always felt wonderful to Sonia; she loved the smell of chlorine. D. Her dream, since childhood, was finally coming true. 41. Which of these would be the best topic sentence for this paragraph? A. A synchronized swimming team will be sent to the Olympics. B. Sonia got a new swimsuit and cap for the competition. C. Only a few extremely talented athletes win competitions. D. For almost as long as she could remember, Sonia had wanted to go to the Olympics. Questions 42 – 56: Choose the alternative that best expresses the idea in standard written English and is worded most consistently with the tone of the passage. If you believe the original version is best, then choose “NO CHANGE.” There will also be questions about sections of the passage or about the passage as a whole. Read the entire passage before answering any of the questions. For some questions you may need to read beyond the underlined section in order to determine the correct answer. Building the Plaza de Toros Thousands of tourists from all over the world gather in Seville, Spain each year, two weeks after Easter Holy Week, to witness the La Real Maestranza. La Real Maestranza is part of the Seville Fair, and the Fair (42) originated back in 1847 when (43) it was originally organized as a livestock fair. Of central importance to the festival are the bullfights that took place (44) in the Plaza de Toros, a circular ring on Baratillo Hill. 25 Construction on the stunning and beautiful (45) Plaza de Toros first begun in 1749 but had not completed (46) for many years after. The inner facade of the plaza (called the Palco del Príncipe or Prince’s Box) was completed in 1765, and this box consists of two parts; the (47) access gate through which the successful bullfighters exited (48), and the theater box itself, which was reserved for the exclusive use of not only the Spanish King and Queen, but for (49) other members of the Royal Family. When monarch Carlos III prohibited bullfighting celebrations in 1786, work halted, and (51) only one-third of the plaza had been completed (52) at the time. The construction of the ring was finally completed in 1881, two thirds (53) were constructed in stone, the rest in wood. Choosing to redo them in brick, the stone grandstands were replaced between 1914 and 1915 by architect Anival Gonzalez. (54) All the rows were reconstructed with a smoother slope. Ten to twelve rows of shaded seating were constructed as well as fourteen rows in the sun and three rows of barrier. A row of armchairs was built in the superior part of the shaded area, and they (55) were placed in front of the theater boxes. 42. A. NO CHANGE B. which originated C. which did originate D. and the Fair originated 43. A. NO CHANGE B. in which C. after which D. as 26 44. A. NO CHANGE B. had taken place C. did take place D. take place 45. A. NO CHANGE B. stunning yet beautiful C. beautiful D. stunning, however beautiful, 46. A. NO CHANGE B. was began in 1749 and was not completed C. had begun in 1749 and had completed D. began in 1749 but was not completed 47. A. NO CHANGE B. parts: the C. parts, the D. parts the 48. A. NO CHANGE B. did exit C. are exiting D. will exit 49. A. NO CHANGE B. not only the Spanish King and Queen, yet for 27 C. not only the Spanish King and Queen, but also for D. not the Spanish King and Queen, but also for 50. Which of the sentences below does not belong anywhere in the second paragraph? A. The bullring is the oldest bullring constructed entirely of stone, because most others were constructed with a combination of stone and brick. B. The stands were constructed in two levels of seating of 5 raised rows per level and 136 Tuscan sandstone columns. C. Seville’s fair is officially known as the April Fair, but in fact, it hasn’t always been celebrated entirely in April and once, it even had to be celebrated in May. D. The Royal Box has a sloping roof covered in Arabic tiles. 51. A. NO CHANGE B. nevertheless C. because D. even though 52. A. NO CHANGE B. were completed C. will complete D. are completed 53. A. NO CHANGE B. 1881; two thirds C. 1881, two thirds, D. 1881—two thirds 28 54. A. NO CHANGE B. Choosing to redo them in brick, between 1914 and 1915 architect Anival Gonzalez replaced the stone grandstands. C. Choosing to redo them in brick, architect Anival Gonzalez replaced the stone grandstands between 1914 and 1915. D. Choosing, between 1914 and 1915, to redo them in brick, architect Anival Gonzalez replaced the stone grandstands. 55. A. NO CHANGE B. those C. these chairs D. it 56. Which of the following sentences best completes the passage? A. Today spectators from around the world enjoy watching this traditional Spanish sport in this world-class ring. B. Between 1729 and 1733 Felipe V stayed in Seville and received support from the Corporation in spite of being French and the first Bourbon king of Spain. C. More than 12,500 spectators can watch the fight between the torero and the bull in this ring. D. During the Seville Festival, men and women dress up in their finery, ideally the traditional "traje corto" (short jacket, tight trousers and boots) for men and the "faralaes" or "trajes de flamenca" (flamenco style dress) for women. Questions 57 – 64: Determine which of the following synonyms on the given choices best corresponds to how the underlined word/s were used on each sentence. 57. His stoic attitude earned him the title "man made of stone." A. active B. heavy 29 C. hard D. indifferent 58. Samuel could not stand the gelid surroundings of the Alpine Mountains. A. very cold B. very hot C. humid D. tepid 59. Do not worry about running short of rice because we had a copious harvest last month. A. weak B. innumerable C. depleting D. abundant 60. Jojo is suffering from asphyxia. Noxious gases during fire have suffocated him. A. an unconscious state B. a state of trance C. a state of suppression D. a state of affliction 61. Her hair was full and lightly curled. A. chubby B. filled C. detailed D. thick 62. The judge exculpated the accused for lack of evidence. A. proved guilty B. exonerated 30 C. banished D. proved innocent 63. The politician was criticized for his preposterous remarks. A. lengthy B. witty C. absurd D. promising 64. Having lived with three old maids, Lucy projects a reticent attitude. A. meek B. effusive C. effulgent D. offensive 65.________________ni Aling Nena ang mga pinamalengke dahil sa takot. A. Nabitawan B. Nabitiwan C. Nalaglag D. Nabuhos 66. Ang pagbabasa ng mga iba’t ibang aklat sa Filipino ay isang mabisang paraan upang lalong ______________ang kaalaman ng mag-aaral tungkol sa wika. A. malinang B. maayos C. masinop D. masubukan 31 67._____________-Negros ang tagapag-alaga ni Norma. A. Taga B. Tiga C. Mala D. Parang 68. Nakipaghuntahan na naman _____ ang kasama mo _____ sa kabilang ibayo. A. raw, roon B. raw, doon C. daw, roon D. daw, doon 69. Mrs. Santos is very happy because her pupil who used to be very vociferous doesn’t talk much anymore. A. lazy B. active C. talkative D. sleepy Questions 70 – 83: Select the word or pair of words that appropriately completes the following relationship. 70. ode : poetry; A. theme : essay B. conflict : short story C. fable : prose 32 D. tragedy : drama 71. each : somebody; A. that : oh B. gracefully : dance C. sing : song D. which : whom 72. peal : peel; A. steal : still B. fair : fare C. buy : vie D. great : greet 73. herd : cattle; A. colony : termites B. pack : peacocks C. hive : wolves D. covey : whales 74. epic : elegy; A. allegro : plot B. sonata : satire C. radar : allegory D. couplet : sonnet 75. golf : hole; A. baseball : glove B. archery - bull's eye C. bowling : pin D. tennis : racket 33 76. protein : meat; A. energy : sugar B. calories : water C. vitamins : minerals D. starch : potatoes 77. fern : plant; A. shark : water B. cat : lion C. collie : boxer D. dog : animal 78. try : tried; A. came : come B. fly : flew C. go : gone D. dead : died 79. lion : cub; A. duck : drake B. child : baby C. horse : colt D. goat : lamb 80. rabies : dogs; A. malaria : mosquitoes B. fever : ants C. cough : worms D. AIDS : rat 81. gloves : hand; A. welder : steel B. gun : combat C. field : football D. helmet : head 34 82. gun : holster; A. sword : scabbard B. sword : slay C. sword : bayonet D. sword : cadet 83. canvas : painting; A. clay : pottery B. clay : mold C. clay : art D. clay : statue Directions: Choose the alternative that best expresses the idea in standard written English and is worded most consistently with the tone of the passage. If you believe the original version is best, then choose “NO CHANGE.” There will also be questions about sections of the passage or about the passage as a whole. Read the entire passage before answering any of the questions. For some questions you may need to read beyond the underlined section in order to determine the correct answer. For questions 84 – 98: Passage 1 “Hair-raising Problems” Why is it that we are so completely obsessive (84) with the hair on our heads? Millions of dollars are spent each year on cutting hair, lengthening hair, bleaching hair, straightening hair, curling hair, highlighting hair, and even growing hair; whatever you can do to hair, someone is willing to pay the money (85) to do it. Natural redheads long for to be (86) brunettes and dishwater blondes dream of shiny golden tresses. Both men and women cringe at the sight of each gray hair, so (87) teenagers enjoy 35 weekly experiments with magenta dyes, spikes, and tangerine streaks. All of these thoughts cross my mind as I examine the result of (88) my most recent hair adventure. As a mature woman watching the gray hairs mixing in rapidly (89) with my natural brunette tones, I decided over a year ago, to (90) approach my stylist with the idea of highlights. Having seen many of my peers go this route, I figured that highlighting was for to be (91) the answer to my reluctance to look my age. The monthly highlighting went well: excepting (92) for those times when my hair turned out a little too subdued, making me look partially gray instead of brunette. I suffered through it remarkably well, saying to myself, “She’ll get it right the next time.” For the most part, (93) I’ve enjoyed my year of highlights, so much so that I bravely approached Donna, my stylist, two months ago and proclaimed that I was done with wimpy highlighting and ready to go blonde. The result was not quite what I expected, but I resolved to live with it! (94). Donna was surprised at my suggestion, but quickly began sharing my unbridled enthusiasm as she gathers (95) the appropriate chemicals and concoctions that would soon transform me. Three months later, I find myself seesawing between tears and (96) laughter as I attempt to cover up a patch of nearly bald scalp on the top of my head. For someone who has long been fanatical about the appearance of her hair, this absence of hair has proven to be quite a challenge to my ego and self-confidence. I’ve always enjoyed styling my hair, and suddenly, I have nothing to style. Each time I begin to experience a new pang of disgust and despair over this new hair anomaly, I once again ask myself why we are so 36 obsessed with the hair on our heads. The answer always comes to me in a flash, in a simple two-word phrase: pure vanity. Soon after this realization, I cease my crying. (97) 84. A. NO CHANGE B. obsessed C. obsessing D. obsessioned 85. A. NO CHANGE B. pay C. paying money D. have paid 86. A. NO CHANGE B. to have C. to be D. becoming for 87. A. NO CHANGE B. however C. yet D. and 88. A. NO CHANGE B. result for C. result with D. result by 37 89. A. NO CHANGE B. rapidly mixing C. mixed rapidly in D. rapidly mix in to 90. A. NO CHANGE B. ago to C. ago: to D. ago to, 91. A. NO CHANGE B. was being C. could of been D. was 92. A. NO CHANGE B. well, except C. well except D. well. Except 93. A. NO CHANGE B. Also C. Instead D. In light of this 94. For the sake of logic and coherence, Sentence 5 should 38 be placed: A. where it is now. B. before Sentence 1. C. after Sentence 2. D. before Sentence 4. 95. A. NO CHANGE B. she was gathering C. she had been gathering D. she gathered 96. A. NO CHANGE B. along with C. or D. as well as 97. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. If the sentence was deleted, the essay would primarily lose: A. a summary of the essay. B. the narrator’s ability to put her situation into perspective. C. a stylistic link to the essay’s introduction. D. an understanding of the author’s purpose in writing the essay. 98. Suppose the writer had chosen to write a how-to article for people wanting to change their hair color. Would this essay fulfill the writer’s goal? A. Yes, because the author’s approach to changing her own hair color would ease the anxiety of others wishing to do the same. B. Yes, because this essay emphasizes the universality of people changing their hairstyles and hair color. 39 C. No, because this article only deals with the narrator’s own experimentation with her hair and does not provide steps for others to do the same. D. No, because the essay discourages people from changing their hair color. For questions 99 – 113: Passage 2 “A Modern Blacksmith” You will probably never find his name in a history book, but to this day, Walker Lee continues to contribute to America heritage (99). Walker Lee is an old-fashioned, modernday blacksmith who still practices (100) the fine art of manipulating metal over a hot fire. In his words, “Blacksmithing is no dying art!” Walker Lee had began (101) his career in hand-forged ironwork at the age of 30. The idea of creating an object out of iron, a most intractable material (102), appealed to him. He started on this new venture by collecting and reading every book he could find that described the process of blacksmithing: its history, its practical and decorative uses, and the equipment needed to establish and outfit his own smithy. During the course of his research, Lee discovered a tool necessary for the success of any blacksmith: the anvil, a heavy block of iron or steel upon which the blacksmith hammered and shaped the malleable metal. Lee bought his first anvil from 84-year-old Hurley Alford Templeton of Philadelphia, lugging (103) it home to Michigan in the back of a 4-H county bus. This anvil weighed 100 pounds, about the minimum size Walker Lee needed to get started (104) in his craft. Lee’s first anvil cost him $100, and four months later, he paid $75 for an additional implement—a vice—from Cornell University in New York. This important tool also made its (105) way back to Michigan in the back of Lee’s 4-H bus. 40 Lee had spent the summer carting 4-H groups out from Michigan to the east coast for various county fairs and expositions. (106) Once Lee obtained his first portable forge, he was ready to build his blacksmith shop, commonly referred to as a “smithy.” (107) In the interest of economy, he constructed this shop out of inexpensive oak planks and tarpaper. It was a crude little shack but stood for (108) only nine years. Lee, who by then was completely hooked on blacksmithing, replaced his first shop with a finer one made of more expensive wood; this shop also had glass windows, a definite improvement over Lee’s original “smithy.” The very first object Lee forged was a long, pointed (109) Hudson Bay dagger. Many people refer to this type of knife as a “dag.” As he recalls that event he says, “From the minute I first saw the thing take shape, I was hooked... still am. There’s an element of magic in it to me. You heat it up and pound it with a hammer and it goes where you want it to go.” Years later at a family event Lee (110), Discovered that his Italian ancestors were accomplished coppersmiths. During the gathering, Lee’s great uncle Johnny was proclaiming (111) that Lee’s propensity for blacksmithing was “in the blood” as he happily presented Lee with a new 125-pound anvil. (112) As an outside observer watches (113) Walker Lee bending and shaping a hot metal rod into some recognizable form, it is difficult to discern the origin of the magic Lee spoke of; is it in the glowing, orange steel or in Walker himself? 99. A. NO CHANGE B. American heritage. C. Americas heritage. D. American’s heritage. 41 100. A. NO CHANGE B. who still continues to practice C. who continues to still practice D. who practices still 101. A. NO CHANGE B. had begun C. begun D. began 102. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would NOT be acceptable? A. one of the most intractable metals, iron, B. a most intractable material, that being iron C. iron (a most intractable material) D. a most intractable material, iron, 103. Which choice most emphasizes the difficulty in moving the large anvil? A. NO CHANGE B. taking C. driving D. transporting 104. At this point, the writer wants to express how Lee first began the craft of blacksmithing. Which choice would most effectively accomplish this task? A. NO CHANGE B. continue 42 C. keep going D. move on 105. A. NO CHANGE B. it’s C. its’ D. the 106. A. NO CHANGE B. Carting 4-H groups out from Michigan to the east coast for various county fairs and expositions, Lee had spent the summer. C. Lee had spent the summer, for various county fairs and expositions, carting 4-H groups out from Michigan to the east coast. D. OMIT the underlined portion. 107. Given that all of the choices are true, which one would most effectively introduce the subject of this paragraph? A. NO CHANGE B. Obtaining a portable forge for the shop proved to be Lee’s biggest challenge. C. Blacksmith shops can be difficult to construct, but the most challenging task is moving the necessary equipment into it. D. A blacksmith’s forge requires some type of blower in order to keep the fire hot enough to bend the steel. 43 108. A. NO CHANGE B. that stood for C. which standing for D. and stands for 109. A. NO CHANGE B. long pointed, C. long, and pointed D. long-pointed 110. A. NO CHANGE B. later at a family, event Lee C. later, at a family event, Lee, D. later, at a family event, Lee 111. A. NO CHANGE B. proclaimed C. had been proclaiming D. having proclaimed 112. Which of the following sentences in this paragraph is LEAST relevant to the main focus of the essay and, therefore, could be deleted? A. Sentence 2 B. Sentence 3 C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 5 44 113. A. NO CHANGE B. was watching C. had been watching D. watched For questions 114 – 128: Passage 3 “Unfulfilled Promises” If you have ever entered a contest of any sort—you (114) are well aware of the legal requirements, exclusions, and disclaimers that always accompany (115) the contest’s entry form. Many laws today regulate a contest sponsor’s responsibilities to the entrants, and courts are filled with lawsuits asserting with non-compliance (116) on both sides. However, this was not always the case. In 1896, a contest motivated a Norwegian immigrant, Helga Estby, to travel nearly 3,500 miles on foot (117) from the state of Washington to New York City. Unfortunately, as is still sometimes true, Helga won the competition only to find that the promise (118) $10,000 award was mysteriously absent. Helga had been living (119) on her farm with her husband and nine children in Spokane, Washington, when she read of a $10,000 prize being offered to a woman who was willing to walk across the country. Because the Estby farm was facing foreclosure, Helga decided that walking across the country in a bicycle skirt for that kind of money was a small price to pay for a greater rewarding. (120) At the time, this style of skirt was considered to be inappropriate because it revealed the female ankle. The only requirement, from all accounts, was that she wear a modern, newfangled bicycle skirt as she traveled. (121) 45 So, in May of 1896, Helga and her 18-year-old daughter, Clara, had set off (122) on their long journey. Helga carried a revolver and a spray gun containing red pepper for protection. (123) Presumably, Helga and Clara found food and shelter along the way, and they arrived in New York City in December, seven months after their departure. The contest sponsors, however, were to be found nowhere. (124) This story of bravery and persistence had therefore been kept a secret (125) for nearly a century, primarily because Helga’s seven- month absence from the farm wreaked havoc on her family. Two of her children died of diphtheria while she was gone. Even worse, her husband had sequestered the surviving children in an unheated shed, thinking that this was the only way to keep them from being infected with the disease. Since the contest sponsor failed to award Helga the money, the Estbys ended up losing the farm; her expedition had been a disaster. At the time, Helga’s trip was considered an embarrassment by the Norwegian-American community and was kept utterly quiet. After Helga’s death, her own children burned the hundreds of pages Helga had written through the years, leaving only (126) a small scrapbook of newspaper clippings and very few details of Helga’s life or her ill-fated trip. Looking back 100 years, one can only marvel at the boldness and bravery that must have energized Helga Estby to make that journey on foot across the country in an effort to save her family farm.(127) (128) 114. A. NO CHANGE B. sort; you C. sort you D. sort, you 46 115. A. NO CHANGE B. always are accompanying C. accompany always D. are accompanying 116. A. NO CHANGE B. lawsuits asserting non-compliance C. lawsuits of non-compliance asserting D. non-compliance lawsuits asserting 117. A. NO CHANGE B. on foot, 3,500 miles C. 3,500 miles on feet D. 3,500 miles per foot 118. A. NO CHANGE B. promise for the C. promised D. promising 119. A. NO CHANGE B. been living C. has been living D. had lived 47 120. A. NO CHANGE B. greatly rewarding C. great reward D. greatest reward 121. Which of the following sequences of sentences makes this paragraph most logical? A. NO CHANGE B. 1, 3, 2, 4 C. 3, 2, 4, 1 D. 1, 4, 3, 2 122. A. NO CHANGE B. have set off C. set off D. went to set off 123. A. NO CHANGE B. For protection, Helga carried a revolver as well as a red pepper-containing spray gun. C. Helga, for protection, she carried a revolver and a spray gun containing red pepper. D. Carried by Helga for protection were a revolver and a spray gun containing red pepper. 124. A. NO CHANGE B. were nowhere when found C. to be found nowhere 48 D. were nowhere to be found 125. A. NO CHANGE B. had been kept a secret C. had been actually kept a secret D. had in fact been kept a secret 126. A. NO CHANGE B. years leaving only C. years; leaving only D. years leaving only, 127. Given that all of the choices are true, which one would best conclude the sentence while providing the reader with the most specific explanation for Helga’s motivation to walk across the country? A. NO CHANGE B. to win $10,000. C. in an effort to save her children from diphtheria. D. to help her daughter Clara gain experience. 128. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence: In 1984, Helga’s great-great-grandson wrote a story about his ancestor for a history assignment. Should the writer make this addition here? A. Yes, because it links the ending of the essay to its introduction. B. Yes, because this information is highly relevant to the rest of the essay. C. No, because this story might not focus on Helga’s farm. D. No, because this information introduces a new subtopic of the essay. 49 Questions 129 – 133: Choose the word closest to the meaning to the underlined word in the sentence. 129. The corrupt policeman was discharged from service due to his ignominious act of accepting bribes. A. honorable B. disrespectable C. unwanted D. remarkable 130. Jacqueline is an irascible girl who frequently has tantrums. A. impatient B. cheerful C. hot-tempered D. jolly 131. The piquant mouse was able to find its way out of the maze in a short while. A. dumb B. clever C. small D. unusual 132. Only a ruffian could do such a heinous act of killing a helpless child. A. an insane person B. a brutal person C. a lovable person D. a confused person 133. The plane overshot the runway and landed on a ditch. A. passed through 50 B. passed by C. went beyond D. did not reach Questions 134 – 138: Choose the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence. 134. The garrulous girls were distanced from each other. A. mute B. talkative C. behaved D. quiet 135. The players were confused when the kibitzers suddenly butted-in during the team’s huddle. A. advisers B. spectators C. onlookers D. crowd 136. Mahirap pakinggan ang sinasabi ng taong garil. A. utal B. bulol C. matalino D. matatas 137. Hungkag ang bigasan dahil nasira ng bagyo ang mga palay. A. salat B. puno C. bulok D. bago 51 138. Maantak ang sugat kapag napatakan ng kalamansi. A. malaki B. maliit C. manhid D. mahapdi Questions 139 – 140: Piliin ang salitang kasing-kahulugan ng salitang nakapahilig. 139. Dahil sa paulit-ulit na pagsisinungaling, basa ang papel niya sa karamihan. A. ayaw nang paniwalaan B. ayaw nang pagbigyan C. ayaw nang pakinggan D. ayaw nang makasama 140. Ni ayaw man lamang humarap sa tao ang talo-saling na si Eula. A. masungit B. isnabera C. mahiyain D. pangit Questions 141 – 143: Choose the sentence that best combines the underlined sentences. 141. The airport is called the Glynco Jetport. The airline reservations and travel systems refer to its location as Brunswick, Georgia. 52 A. Where the airport is called the Glynco Jetport, the airline reservations and travel systems refer to the location as Brunswick, Georgia. B. But the airport is called the Glynco Jetport, the airline reservations and travel systems refer to the location as Brunswick, Georgia. C. Even though the airline reservations and travel systems refer to the location as Brunswick, Georgia, the airport is called the Glynco Jetport. D. When the airport is called the Glynco Jetport, the airline reservations refer to the location as Brunswick, Georgia, and the travel systems. 142. Plato believed that boys and girls should be given an equal education. This idea is rarely mentioned in textbooks. A. Plato believed that boys and girls should be given an equal education, where this idea is rarely mentioned in textbooks. B. Plato believed that boys and girls should be given an equal education, an idea that is rarely mentioned in textbooks. C. Believing that boys and girls should be given an equal education, Plato’s idea is rarely mentioned in textbooks. D. Plato believed that boys and girls should be given an equal education, whereupon this idea is rarely mentioned in textbooks. 143. Recently there have been government cutbacks in funds. Experts foresee steady hiring in the government’s future. A. Despite recent government cutbacks in funds, experts foresee steady hiring in the government’s future. B. Whereupon recent government cutbacks in funds, experts foresee steady hiring in the government’s future. C. So that there have been recent government cutbacks in funds, experts foresee steady hiring in the government’s future. D. Nonetheless, there have been recent government cutbacks in funds, experts foresee steady hiring in the government’s future. 53 Questions 144 -150: Fill in the blank with the word that creates the most logical sentence. 144. Ruby loves blueberry pie _________ it is made with freshly picked blueberries. A. whether B. because C. when D. as if 145. _________ our low annual fee, you will receive a 20% discount if you sign up this week. A. Because B. While C. In spite of D. In addition to 146. I ________ the speech you gave last Thursday night, but I was in bed with the flu. A. will have heard B. would hear C. might hear D. would have heard 147.. ________ the Beatles’ most popular songs— most of which were written by Lennon and McCartney—are “I Want to Hold Your Hand” and “Hey, Jude.” A. With B. Considering C. Among D. To 148. My neighbor is deathly afraid of dogs; ___________, I never let my Golden Retriever, Sandy, outside without a leash. 54 A. moreover B. yet C. mainly D. consequently 149. The ticket said the show would start at 8:00, but the curtains didn’t go up _________ 8:30. A. less than B. until C. about D. since 150. A large percentage of the class _______ fascinated by the museum. A. was B. be C. any of the above D. were 55 3 Science Directions: Read the questions carefully and choose the letter that corresponds to your answer. 1. All of the following are solutions except _____. A. Brass B. Coffee C. Seawater D. Milk 2. How come a person with type B blood cannot donate to a person with type A blood? A. The recipient has antibodies against B blood, which has B- antigens, resulting in clotting up the donated blood. B. The recipient has B surface antigens that can be recognized by antibodies of the donor, resulting in rejection of the donated blood. C. Both A and B are true. D. None of the above statements are true. 56 3. How many moles of CO2 does 88 grams of Carbon Dioxide contain? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 4. Weathering is the process that changes solid rock into sediments. With weathering, rock is disintegrated. It breaks into pieces. However, rocks on the moon are not being weathered. Which of the following is the reason for this? A. There is no atmosphere on the moon. B. There is no water on the moon. C. There is no volcano on the moon. D. The gravity on the moon is very small. 5. Each of two replicated strands of a chromosome is called a(n) A. aster. B. centriole. C. synapse. D. chromatid. 6. Storm surge is an abnormal rise of water generated by a storm. It creates a change in the water level due to the presence of the storm. The rise may come rapidly, flooding coastal lowlands in the process. PAGASA predicted a storm surge will hit the Philippines even before Typhoon Yolanda entered the country but they did not expect the damages to be that massive. The storm surge that accompanied Yolanda was described as tsunami-like. This is somehow reminiscent of the tsunami that hit Japan in the year 2011. 57 Tsunamis can be created when there is a sudden disturbance on the Earth’s crust and deformation on the sea floor. This deformation vertically displaces the overlying water and creates violent underwater disturbance. What is the main characteristic of tsunamis that differentiates it from a storm surge? A. Tsunamis are tidal waves. B. Tsunamis are created when a body of water is displaced usually by an earthquake. C. Tsunamis are always accompanied by typhoons and other forms of weather disturbances. D. Tsunamis are single waves that only hit the shorelines by the Pacific Ocean. 7. If Wes applies 100 newtons of force on a 2-meter wrench at a right angle to the wrench and parallel to the plane of rotation, how much torque, in newton-meters (N-m), is he applying to the bolt? A. 200 N-m B. 100 N-m C. 50 N-m D. 25 N-m 8. If two flies heterozygous for wing length and body color are crossed, which of the following are possible results? A. chance of L, long wings = 3/4 B. chance of l, short wings = 1/2 C. chance of G, grey body = 1/4 D. all of the above are true 9. Which chemical bonds are considered the strongest, requiring the most energy to break? A. ionic bonds 58 B. van der Waals forces C. hydrogen bonds D. covalent bonds 10. The eruption of Mt. Pinatubo caused widespread destruction and loss of human life. Gases and solids injected into the stratosphere circled the globe for three weeks. Volcanic eruptions of this magnitude can impact global climate, reducing the amount of solar radiation reaching the Earth's surface, lowering temperatures in the troposphere, and changing atmospheric circulation patterns. Which of the following was an effect of the Mt. Pinatubo eruption? A. an increase of the Earth’s temperature by 2˚C B. massive global warming C. El niño phenomenon D. lowered global temperature by 0.5˚ 11. Which of these would be least likely to diffuse across the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane? A. water B. sodium ions C. oxygen D. carbon dioxide 12. The bacteria that causes syphilis is A. a coccus. B. E. coli. C. a bacillus. D. a spirochete. 13. Give the mass number for an atom that has 10 protons, 10 electrons, and 11 neutrons. A. 31 59 B. 20 C. 10 D. 21 14. The graph below shows the change in energy that occurs during a chemical reaction. Which of the following is most likely to happen as the reaction nears completion? A. The reaction releases energy to its surroundings. B. The energy level of the reactants remains constant. C. The reaction takes in energy from its surroundings D. The energy level of the reactants increases gradually. 15. Cloud seeding can be done by dispersing Silver Iodide or dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) into clouds to induce precipitation. Cloud seeding has also been used to dissipate fog, modify hurricanes, and decrease lightning and hail in thunderstorms. The results have been remarkable but never guaranteed increase precipitation on all trials. The Beijing Weather Modification Office has researched on the application of cloud seeding to control weather. During the 2008 Beijing Olympics, the Chinese governments executed cloud seeding to clear the air of pollutants and to keep it from raining over the Bird’s Nest stadium while the games were going on. They managed to deliver as they have promised. 60 What could be an obvious negative effect of cloud seeding in China? A. Excessive precipitation and unanticipated drought B. Significant increase of Silver contamination on crops and water C. Unpredictable weather D. Increase in thunderstorms and typhoons that may hit the country within the same year of cloud seeding in the area 16. During ______, the chromosomes attach to the spindle and align at the metaphase plate of the spindle. A. prophase B. prometaphase C. metaphase D. anaphase 17. Geothermal systems produce electricity from what energy source? A. heat from the Sun B. mechanical energy from wind C. heat from Earth’s interior D. mechanical energy from waves 18. Gravitational potential energy is energy an object possesses because of its position in a gravitational field. Which of the following has the most gravitational potential energy? A. A truck at the top of a hill B. A truck speeding down the hill C. A man on top of the hill D. A man on his mountain bike speeding down the hill 61 19. The proportion of adenine bases in a sample of DNA was found to be 12%. Which of the following statements is true? The proportion of A. uracil bases in the sample is 12%. B. thyroxine bases in the sample is 12%. C. uracil bases in the sample is 88%. D. cytosine bases in the sample is 38%. 20. If a single-celled saltwater organism is placed in freshwater, it will not be able to survive. Which statement explains why this is true? A. The organism’s cell will absorb too much water through osmosis. B. The organism’s cell will absorb too many sodium ions through osmosis. C. The organism’s cell will release too many hydrogen ions through diffusion. D. The organism’s cell will release too much water through facilitated diffusion. 21. Starting as a gas at 206°C, a sample of a substance is allowed to cool for 16 minutes. This process is represented by the cooling curve below. Cooling Curve for a Substance Temperature (°C) What is the melting point of this substance? A. 206°C B. 150°C Time (min) 62 C. 90°C D. 50°C 22. Protozoa are placed in different classes according to their A. movement. B. color. C. shape. D. size. 23. Refer to the diagram below. Sediments A B Igneous Sedimentary Rocks Rocks Melting C Metamorphic Rocks Which of the following is TRUE? I. Path A is uplift, weathering, erosion, deposition II. Path B is heating and crystallization. III. Heat and pressure are responsible for path C. A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III 63 24. Agglutination is the A. clumping of students in hallways. B. clumping of platelets to help stop bleeding. C. clumping of white blood cells around bacteria. D. clumping of blood cells due to an antibody-antigen reaction. 25. The figure below shows resistors connected in series and parallel. If the total resistance from A to B is 6 Ω, find the resistance of R. 1Ω 1Ω 2Ω 3Ω A B R A. 1Ω B. 2Ω C. 3Ω D. 4Ω 26. What mass, in g, of hydrogen gas is formed when 3.0 mol of aluminum react with excess hydrochloric acid according to the following equation? 2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2(g) A. 3.0 B. 4.5 C. 6.0 D. 9.0 64 27. Removing all lone pairs of electrons on the central atom of ClF 3 would change the geometry from A. trigonal pyramidal to trigonal planar. B. from square shaped to trigonal pyramidal. C. from T–shaped to trigonal planar. D. from trigonal bipyramidal to trigonal planar. 28. Differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells include all of the following except ______. A. eukaryotic cells have mitochondria B. eukaryotic cells have cilia and flagella with complex structure C. prokaryotic cells have more complex cell walls D. prokaryotic cells have no genetic material 29. Which electromagnetic wave has the shortest wavelength? A. Radio B. UV C. Visible Light D. Gamma 30. I lack respiratory, excretory, and circulatory systems, have bilateral larva, deuterostome development, and move using a water vascular system. What am I? A. echinoderm B. chordate C. jellyfish D. mollusc 31. Assuming that complete dominance is followed, which of the following genotypes has the same phenotype as QQRrssTt? 65 A. AABbccDd B. QqRRssTT C. Qqrrsstt D. QQRrSsTt 32. What percent of a parent isotopes remains after 2 half-lives? A. 50% B. 25% C. 6.25% D. 2% 33. Which factors are involved in Gay-Lussac’s Law? A. Pressure and Temperature B. Pressure and Volume C. Temperature and Volume D. Volume and Moles 34. Potassium-40 is used to determine the age of rocks. The diagram below shows a rock sample in which some of the potassium-40 atoms have undergone radioactive decay. According to the diagram, how many half-lives has the rock sample undergone? A. 9 half-lives B. 3 half-lives 66 C. 2 half-lives D. 1 half-life 35. The tendency of an object to resist changes in motion is dependent on: A. Weight B. Temperature C. Speed D. Mass 36. What the value does 6.02 x 1023 represent? A. The number of particles in a mole B. The number of particles per atom in a substance. C. The density of moles per square nanometer. D. The length of time for a material to decompose 37. Which of the following pairs are analogous structures? A. the front leg of a horse and a human arm B. the front leg of a frog and a bat wing C. the wing of a bird and a bat wing D. the front flipper of a porpoise and a human arm 38. What enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars? A. Aqua-enzymes B. Amylase C. Adenine D. Glyoxalase 67 39. Molality, m, is defined as number of moles of solute per kg of solvent. If 230 g of ethanol (C2H5OH) is added to 500 g of water, what is the molality of the solution? A. 0.46 m B. 1 m C. 2.17 m D. 10 m 40. How much time should it take for a traveling bullet to hit the ground compared to a bullet dropped from rest? Assume the ground remains flat for the entire distance the bullet may travel. A. The traveling bullet will take longer to hit the ground than the bullet dropped from rest B. The traveling bullet will hit the ground at the same time as the bullet dropped from rest C. The traveling bullet will hit the ground before the bullet dropped from rest D. The traveling bullet moves so fast that it will never hit the ground 41. A scientist performed an experiment where he knocked out the genes of a mouse cell responsible for producing the Golgi complex. Which of the following could be a consequence of the experiment to mice lacking the gene? A. Mice would grow to be fat, and obese, since there would be no regulation of lipid synthesis. B. Mice would develop uncontrolled mutations over the course of its life, since production of proteins has been hampered. C. Mice won’t grow or develop into adults, and will live for only a few days or weeks, since proteins won’t be processed properly and they wouldn’t know where to go after they’re synthesized. 68 D. The mice will be lethargic since they won’t be able to process absorbed nutrients to transform them into energy in the form of ATP. 42. What enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars? A. Aqua-enzymes B. Amylase C. Adenine D. Glyoxalase 43. Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of substance to the density of water. Suppose the specific gravity of liquid X is 1.2. Which of the following will not float in liquid X? A. Water B. A 1000-cm3 object whose mass is 750 g C. A solid object whose specific gravity is 0.9 D. A liquid whose specific gravity is 1.3 44. Vitamins help to control chemical reactions in our bodies. Without vitamins certain reactions cannot take place. We need only tiny amounts of vitamins, but without them we will suffer from deficiency diseases, like the lack of vitamin D will lead to A. beriberi B. rickets C. scurvy D. night blindness 45. In which population would you expect the most rapid evolutionary change? A. a small population with a high mutation rate in a changing environment 69 B. a small population with a low mutation rate in a stable environment C. a large population with a high mutation rate in a changing environment D. a large population with a low mutation rate in a stable environment 46. In a species of pea plant, white flowers were completely dominant over red flowers. Pure breeding, white flowered pea plants are crossed with pure breeding, red-flowered pea plants. What proportion of white- and red-colored plants will be produced in the F1 generation? A. all white-flowered plants. B. all red-flowered plants. C. a 3 : 1 ratio of white-flowered plants to red-flowered plants. D. a 3 : 1 ratio of red-flowered plants to white-flowered plants. 47. What are the coefficients that will balance the formula equation below? A. 1, 3, 1, 3 B. 3, 1, 3, 1 C. 1, 1, 1, 3 D. 1, 3, 3, 1 48. When ice changes from a solid to a liquid at its melting point A. its temperature increases. B. heat is given out. C. its particles gain energy. D. its particles become more ordered. 70 49. Flowers are the reproductive organs of angiosperms. These organs have various parts that fall under three groups: (1) male parts, (2) female parts and (3) accessory parts. Depending on the present structures, a flower may be categorized as complete, incomplete, perfect or imperfect. Which of the following lists of parts describes a perfect flower but not a complete flower? A. Pistil, stamen and accessory parts B. Pistil and accessory parts only C. Stamen and accessory parts only D. Pistil and stamen only Read the passage below to answer questions 50 and 51. Eutrophication is a phenomenon where excessive amounts of nutrients are added to a marine ecosystem. These nutrients cause plant life like algae to multiply rapidly, leading to very high population densities. In freshwater ecosystems, the algae can become so dense that it can turn ponds, lakes or even smaller rivers green. The algae grows to an unreasonable level at a very fast rate. The algae are known as phytoplankton and are microscopic, single-celled organisms. A body of water that is experiencing eutrophication and a resulting bloom can be quickly devastated. Eutrophication affects all living organisms in the area including fish, birds and mammals. The top layer of phytoplankton causes such a build-up on the surface that they accumulate sediment. When this occurs the sunlight is blocked and it will choke off the plant life below the surface. The phytoplankton will also cause less surface area for the water to interface with air. As a result, there will be less oxygen available in the water. As oxygen continues to deplete, the depletion can have a negative effect on life as there will be less oxygen to support the organisms below the surface that depend on the oxygen from plants that diffuses into the water. 71 Scientist 1 The root cause of eutrophication is not known. However, the frequency and increasing incidents of eutrophication point to human farming activity as the potential cause. The growth of the phytoplankton is caused by runoff that contains multiple sources of nitrates that are also found in fertilizer. The nitrates allow for the phytoplankton to grow rapidly. The solution to the problem is to either move the drainage so the runoff from the human farming activity cannot reach the water source or move the farms. Scientist 2 Sometimes eutrophication can happen naturally without any real cause. Sometimes when there are periods of heavy rain, the increase in rain water leads to an imbalance in the pH of the water. This in turn creates favorable conditions for the phytoplankton to grow and proliferate. This is a natural cycle that also ensures that too many fish and other animals do not build up in a freshwater source. This type of bloom is nature’s way of eliminating overpopulation with an abiotic factor. Although many organisms will die as a result, it will help to thin the numbers of organisms and ensure a healthier freshwater source. 50. According to Scientist 1, which of the following is the cause of the eutrophication? A. A change in the pH of the water. B. The increasing changes in phytoplankton. C. Agricultural run-off from human activity. D. The build-up of phosphates in the body of water. 51. What is the main point of disagreement between Scientist 1 and Scientist 2? A. The source of the nitrogen. B. The root cause of the eutrophication. C. The effects of the lack of oxygen. D. The effect of the plant life in the aquatic ecosystem. 72 52. A container weighs 90 g when empty and 110 g when fully filled with water. The density of water is 1.0 g/mL. When the container is filled instead with liquid X, it weighs 140 g. What is the density of liquid X? A. 0.80 g/mL B. 1.4 g/mL C. 2.5 g/mL D. 3.0 g/mL 53. Which of the following is the function of the cotyledon in a seed? A. to form the lower portion of the plant. B. to form the upper portion of the plant. C. to protect the seed from drying out. D. to provide nutrients for the germinating plant. 54. Two forces are acting on an object as shown below. What is the magnitude of the resultant force? A. 200 N B. 40 N C. 66.7 N D. 185 N 73 55. Torque is the product of the force and the lever arm. In symbols, Refer to the diagram below. Two masses, 8 kg and 10 kg, are hung at both ends of a 90-cm stick. The stick has markings every 10 cm. If the mass of the stick is negligible, where should the stick be suspended by means of a cord to remain the stick horizontal? A B C D 8 kg 10 kg A. A B. B C. C D. D 56. Your flashlight has three identical 1.5 volt batteries in it, arranged in a chain to give a total of 4.5 volts. Current passes first through battery (a), then through battery (b), then through battery (c), on its way to the bulb. When you operate the flashlight, the batteries provide power to the current and they gradually use up their chemical potential energy. Which battery will run out of chemical potential energy first? A. All three will run out at the same time. B. Battery (a) will run out first. C. Battery (b) will run out first. D. Battery (c) will run out first. 74 57. A neutral atom in the ground state contains 16 electrons. What is the total number of electrons in the 3p sublevel? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 58. If you balance the equation below, what is the least sum of the coefficients? MnO2 + HCl Cl2 + MnCl2 + H2O A. 26 B. 15 C. 9 D. 7 59. What is the probability that a father with a homogenous dominant trait and a mother with the same homogenous dominant trait will produce an offspring with the recessive trait? A. 25% B. 15% C. 0% D. 100% 60. A graduated cylinder is used to measure liquid volume. The correct way of reading the level of mercury in a graduated cylinder is A. read from the top of the meniscus. B. read from the bottom of the meniscus. C. use the lowest point of the mercury in the cylinder. D. take the average of the highest and the lowest points. 75 61. Suppose a cold steel bar (at 10C) and a hot iron block (at 70C) are placed inside the same room at the same time. With time, the steel bar and the iron block are brought to thermal equilibrium with the room. The final temperature of the room is 25C. What are the final temperature of the steel bar and the iron block? A. Steel bar (at 40C), iron block (at 25C) B. Steel bar (at 25C), iron block (at 40C) C. Steel bar (at 40C), iron block (at 40C) D. Steel bar (at 25C), iron block (at 25C) 62. Mount Mayon is what type of volcano? A. Stratovolcano B. Shield C. Caldera D. Cinder 63. The radioactive half-life of a certain isotope is 2 days. What part of this isotope will remain after 8 days? A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1/8 D. 1/16 64. The circulatory system has three main components: (1) the pumping organ – the heart, (2) the circulating medium – the blood and (3) the passageways of blood – the blood vessels. Furthermore, there are three types of blood vessels: capillaries, arteries and veins. Capillaries are the site of gas exchange between the blood and the bodily tissues. Arteries carry blood away from the heart while veins carry blood towards the heart. Apart from these differences in function, these three types of blood vessels all have different morphological features. 76 Arteries have much thicker walls than veins. What is the significance of the thicker walls for arteries? A. Arteries normally carry oxygenated blood – which require flowing through thicker vessels in order to preserve the oxygen content. B. Arteries receive greater blood pressure than the veins. The greater blood pressure would threaten destroying thin- walled blood vessels, warranting thicker walls for arteries. C. Veins have valves that prevent back-flow of blood. The valves are designed to work in thin walled vessels. D. Veins normally carry deoxygenated blood – which does not require flowing through thicker vessels in order to preserve the oxygen content. 65. Mixtures can be classified as homogenous or heterogenous and can be separated by simple means. Solutions and suspensions A. are both compounds. B. are both examples of a homogenous mixture. C. are both examples of a heterogenous mixture. D. can be separated into components by physical means. 66. Which of the following cases is/are NOT a uniformly accelerated motion? (1) A feather falls from a certain height inside a vacuum tube. (2) A ball rolls along a frictionless plane at uniform speed. (3) A coin falls from a certain height in air but air resistance is negligible. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (2) and (3) only 77 67. The main reason why one can possibly walk barefoot on a red- hot wooden coals without burning the feet is A. the low thermal conductivity of coal. B. the high temperature of coal. C. the low temperature of coal. D. the stepping techniques. 68. Global climate change can be attributed to the increase in what two gases produced by human activities? A. nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide B. methane and carbon dioxide C. ozone and carbon dioxide D. ozone and methane 69. A stone is thrown into the air at an angle. Neglecting air resistance, what is the stone’s velocity upon reaching its maximum height? A. zero B. equal to the horizontal component of its initial velocity C. equal to the vertical component of its initial velocity D. equal to the acceleration due to gravity 70. Which of the following characterizes water? A. Water releases only heat quickly. B. Water releases and gains heat quickly. C. Water releases and gains heat slowly. D. Water gains only heat slowly. 78 71. How many star/s is/are there in our solar system? A.1 B. 1 million C. 1 billion D. infinitely many 72. If the volume of a gas at a certain pressure is halved, ______. A. its temperature is halved B. its temperature is doubled C. its temperature remains constant D. its temperature increases according to a geometric progression 73. The reason why we see eclipses of the Moon more often than solar eclipses, even though solar eclipses happen more frequently is that A. lunar eclipses are visible over more than half of Earth compared to less than 20% of Earth’s surface for partial solar eclipses. B. the weather is more cloudy during the new moon. C. a lunar eclipse lasts longer than a solar eclipse. D. people are not so interested in the solar eclipse. 74. What measurement is used to quantify the destruction caused by an earthquake? A. the Richter scale B. the modified Mercalli scale C. the moment magnitude scale D. the moment destruction scale 75. Igeneous rocks originate when magma or lava cools and crystallizes or when pyroclastic materials are consolidated. The two categories of igneous rocks are plutonic rocks, which form within 79 the earth’s crust, and volcanic rocks, which form at the surface. Volcanic rocks can usually be distinguished from plutonic rocks by A. its color B. its composition C. its iron-magnesium content D. the size of its mineral crystals 76. When a lit match is touched to the wick of a candle, the candle begins to burn. When the match is removed, the candle continues to burn. In this reaction, the match ______. A. behaves as a catalyst. B. supplies activation energy. C. is part of the rate determining step. D. lowers the activation energy barrier 77. Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of substance to the density of water. Suppose the specific gravity of liquid X is 1.2. Which of the following will not float in liquid X? A. Water B. A 1000-cm3 object whose mass is 750 g C. A solid object whose specific gravity is 0.9 D. A liquid whose specific gravity is 1.3 78. The solidification of molten rock from inside or outside the earth causes the formation of igneous rocks. These rocks are characterized by the presence of large or small crystals, depending on the rate of cooling of the rocks. Granite is an intrusive igneous rock that cooled beneath the earth’s crust, and has large crystals. What is the most probable reason for this? A. Extreme pressures at the bottom create larger crystals. B. Gravity causes the heavier crystals to collect at the bottom of intrusive igneous rocks. 80 C. Hotter temperatures act as a catalyst to increase the rate of crystal formation in intrusive igneous rocks. D. Hotter temperatures beneath the earth’s crust decrease the cooling rate, allowing more time to grow larger crystals. 79. 1 atm is equal to ______ Torr. A. 700 B. 720 C. 273 D. 760 80. Based on the following periodic table, which two elements have a half-filled p orbital? Be N O Na Al Si K Fe Co Sb I Ba Os A. Nitrogen and antimony B. Iron and cobalt C. Barium and osmium D. Sodium and potassium 81. Of the first 101 elements, which is the most unstable? 81 A. Francium B. Plutonium C. Arsenic D. Uranium 82. Which element is the most electronegative? A. Neon B. Francium C. Sodium D. Fluorine 83. In snapdragons, red flowers represent the RR genotype while white flowers represent the rr genotype. Upon breeding red and white flowers, the offsprings were neither red nor white, instead they were pink. What mode of inheritance is exhibited by the snapdragons? A. Codominance B. Dominance C. Incomplete Dominance D. Sex-influenced 84. What is the most common isotope of Carbon? A. Carbon-12 B. Carbon 16 C. Carbon-14 D. Carbon-13 85. Suppose two hypothetical organisms with blue eyes have an offspring with red eyes. Assuming that this trait obeys the 82 Mendelian laws of inheritance, which among the following statements is TRUE? A. Red eye color is the dominant trait. B. The red-eyed offspring has a homozygous dominant genotype. C. The parents both have a heterozygous genotype. D. The red-eyed offspring has a heterozygous genotype. 86. Mechanical and chemical weathering result in disintegration and decomposition of parent material so that it is more nearly in equilibrium with new physical and chemical conditions. Mechanical weathering involves forces that break rocks into smaller pieces without changing their chemical composition. Which mechanical weathering process involved in the origin of exfoliation domes? A. pressure release B. expansion and contraction C. heating and cooling D. oxidation and reduction 87. Rock and dust samples brought back from the Moon by the Apollo missions in the 1980s were more similar to Earth’s mantle than to meteorites that struck the Earth. Which of the following statements is true about Earth’s tock and moon’s rock? A. Rocks on Earth are much younger than those on the moon. B. Rocks on Earth are much older than those on the moon. C. Rocks on Earth are about the same age as rocks on the moon. D. Moon rocks do not have age. 88. Newton’s first law of motion states that “Every object remains at rest or in motion in a straight line at constant speed unless acted 83 upon by an unbalanced force.” What is the net force acting on an airplane in level flight at 500 kph due north? A. 100 N B. 490 N C. 980 N D. 0 89. What is the molar concentration of NaCl solution that contains 30 grams of salt per 200 mL of solution? A. 0.15 M B. 0.30 M C. 1.3 M D. 2.6 M 90. What is the limiting reagent for the following chemical reaction if 24 grams of hydrogen and 48 grams of oxygen react to form water? 2H2 + O22H2O A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen C. Water D. This reaction has no limiting reagent. 91. Coulomb’s law and Newton’s law of gravitation both involve which of the following? A. the inverse square law. B. the charge on the particle. C. the mass of the particle. D. permeability 92. Which among the following is correctly paired? A. cheddar cheese : heterogeneous 84 B. liquid soap : homogeneous C. sugar : element D. orange juice : compound 93. An analysis of a compound used in the production of aluminum is 32.79% sodium, 13.02 % aluminum and 54.19% fluorine. The empirical formula of the compound is A. Na3AlF6 B. Na5AlF8 C. NaAlF D. Na3AlF3 94. Flooding frequently happens in the Philippines. It may occur due to an accumulation of rainwater on saturated ground. This can threaten several lives, properties and even livestock. If there is a flood, what characteristics of soil would make the situation of flooding worse within the affected area? A. high porosity and high permeability B. high porosity and low permeability C. low porosity and high permeability D. low porosity and low permeability 95. The height of the column of mercury in a mercury barometer is dependent on the following EXCEPT on the A. diameter of the tube. B. atmospheric pressure. C. density of mercury and weather condition. D. altitude at which the measurement is made. 96. A 7-m rope is stretched between two poles, which are 6-m apart. A boy is holding on to the middle of the rope and hanging 85 down. If the boy weighs 300 N, what is the tension in the rope on the right-hand side? A. 183 N B. 291 N C. 425 N D. 291 N 97. What process can be used on a liquid to separate its components without losing either component in the process? A. Distillation B. Evaporation C. Sieving D. Paper Chromatography 98. What component of hard water makes it “hard”? A. sodium and nitrogen B. oxygen and hydrogen C. large amounts of calcium and magnesium ions D. large amounts of sodium and carbon dioxide 99. The graphs below show the effects of temperature and pH on enzyme activity. Which statement explains the enzyme activity at the point shown? 86 A. At P, hydrogen bonds are formed between enzyme and substrate. B. At Q, the kinetic energy of enzyme and substrate is highest. C. At R, peptide bonds in the enzyme begin to break. D. At S, the substrate is completely denatured. 100. Excluding the sun, what is the brightest star in the sky? A. Sirius B. Venus C. Betelgeuse D. The Big Dipper 87 Mathematics 4 Directions: The Mathematics subtest will test your ability to solve quantitative problems quickly and accurately. Analyze each problem and select the best answer from the multiple choices. To mimic the actual test conditions, you’re not allowed to use calculators. Because UPCAT is a time-pressured exam, we also recommend using a timer when taking the practice test. 1. A scuba diver descends 80 feet, rises 25 feet, descends 12 feet, and then rises 52 feet where he will do a safety stop for five minutes before surfacing. At what depth did he do his safety stop? A. -15 B. -14 C. 16 D. 14 2. Evaluate the algebraic expression y{( − 3) − 4a} when a=3 x=6 88 y= A. y{( − 3) − 4a} = -5 B. y{( − 3) − 4a} = -7 C. y{( − 3) − 4a} = 5 D. y{( − 3) − 4a} = -6 3. If x is an even integer and y is an odd integer, which of the following must be an odd integer? A. 2x + 2y B. 2x – 2y C. x + y + 1 D. x + y + 2 4. 35% of 15% of x is equivalent to which of the following? A. 0.0525x B. 0.125x C. 0.25x D. 0.525x 5. A farmer has a rectangular field that measures 125 feet by 200 feet. He wants to enclose the field with a fence. What is the total length, in feet, he will need for the job? A. 450 B. 550 C. 650 D. 750 6. A farmer is raising a hog that weighed 20 lbs. when he bought it. He expects it to gain 12 pounds per month. He will 89 sell it when it weighs 200 lbs. How many months will it be before he will sell the animal? A. 14 B. 15 C. 24 D. 25 7. Twenty-five more girls than the number of boys participate in interscholastic sports at a local high school. If the number of girls participating is 105, how many boys participate? A. 110 B. 115 C. 120 D. 125 Use the following ndiagram to answer questions 8 to 13: 90 8. How many lines can be drawn through A that are parallel to line m? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. Infinite 9. How many lines can be drawn through A that are perpendicular to line l? A. 0 B. 1 C. 10,000 D. Infinite 10. Which lines are perpendicular? A. n, m B. o, l C. l, n D. m, l 11. How many points do line m and line l share? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. Infinite 91 12. A is A. between lines l and n. B. on lines l and n. C. on line l, but not line n. D. on line n, but not line l. 13. Which set of lines are transversals? A. l, m, o B. o, m, n C. l, o, n D. l, m, n 14. The triangle ABC that is provided has side lengths of a, b. and c feet and is not a right triangle. Let A’ be the image when the triangle is reflected across side BC. Which of the following is an expression for the perimeter, in feet, of quadrilateral A’BAC? A. 2 (a + b) B. 2 (b + c) C. a + b + 2c D. 2 ab 15. If 60% of a number is 12, what is 165% of the same number? A. 30 B. 31 C. 32 D. 33 92 16. What would be the height of a trapezoidal building if, at its base, it measured 80 feet, its roofline measured 40 feet, and the surface area of one side was 7,200 ft2? A. 112 ft. B. 150 ft. C. 120 ft. D. 135 ft. 17. The volume of a cylindrical aquarium tank is 13,565 cubic feet. If its radius is 12 feet, what is its height to the nearest foot? A. 73 feet. B. 27 feet. C. 42 feet. D. 30 feet. 18. A cylinder has a surface area of 2,512 square feet. The height of the cylinder is three times the radius of the base of the cylinder. Find the radius and the height of the cylinder. A. r = 5 feet; h = 15 feet B. r = 10 feet; h = 30 feet C. r = 15 feet; h = 45 feet D. r = 20 feet; h = 60 feet 19. Solve the inequality x − 5 > x – 2. A. x > 3 B. x > 6 C. x > 9 D. x > 12 20. Which of the following angle measurements would not describe an interior angle of a right angle? A. 30° B. 60° 93 C. 90° D. 100° 21. Solve this quadratic equation: 24x2 = 3(43x − 15). A. x = and x = 6 B. x = and x = -5 C. x = 3 and x = D. x = and x = 5 22. A 20 ft. beam leans against a wall. The beam reaches the wall 13.9 ft. above the ground. What is the measure of the angle formed by the beam and the ground? A. 44° B. 35° C. 55° D. 46° 23. The lines y = 2x and 2y = - x are A. parallel B. perpendicular C. horizontal D. vertical 24. The inequality corresponding to the statement:"the price is no less than 100 Dollars" is A. x < 100 B. x ≥ 100 C. x ≤ 100 D. x > 100 94 25. Which of these points DOES NOT lie on the graph of y = -x + 3? A. (9,- 6) B. (3,0) C. (-2,5) D. (2,2) 26. Which of these relations DOES NOT represent a function? A. {(2,3),(-4,3),(7,3)} B. {(0,0),(-1,-1),(2,2)} C. {(2,3),(-5,3),(2,7)} D. {(-1,3),(-5,3),(-9,0)} 27. Which property is used to write:3(x y) = (3 x)y? A. Commutative property of B. Multiplicative inverse property multiplication D. Associative property of C. Distributive propery multiplication 28. Which of these values of x satisfies the inequality -7x + 6 ≤ -8 A. -2 B. 0 C. -7 D. 2 29. The equation |-2x - 5| - 3 = k has no solution if k = A. -5 B. -3 C. 7 D. 0 30. What is the slope of the line perpendicular to the line y = -5x + 9? A. 5 B. -5 C. 1/5 D. -1/5 31. If x > 0, which of the following must always be true? I. x III. x2 > 95 A. I only B. II only C. III only D. none of these 32. Find the value of k such that the quadratic equation 4x2 + 7x + 3 = 2k have equal roots. A. B. - C. D. - 33. What is the slope of the line containing (0,1) and (6,8)? A. B. C. D. 2 34. Three concentric circles whose radii are in the ratio 2:3:5. If the area of the smallest circle is 36 , what would be the area of the largest circle? A. 75 B. 81 C. 100 D. 225 35. If a = 3c − 4 and b = 2(3 − c) what is 3b expressed in terms of a? A. 10 – 2a B. 5 – 2a 96 C. 10 - a D. 5 - a 36. Which of the following cannot yield an odd integer when divided by 10? A. The sum of two odd integers. B. The product of two prime numbers. C. The product of two odd integers. D. The sum of three consecutive integers. 37. The value of 2-|-2| is A. 4 B. 0.25 C. -4 D. -0.25 38. If f(x) = 4x3 - 4x2 + 10, then f(-2) = A. 26 B. -38 C. 10 D. 38 39. In which quadrant do the lines x = 3 and y = -4 intersect? A. I B. II C. III D. IV 40. Simplify: + - A. B. C. D. 97 41. Subtract and simplify: - A. B. C. D. 42. Multiply and simplify: x A. 2x B. 5 C. 4x D. 6 43. Divide and simplify: ÷ (x - 2) A. x + 2 B. 2 C. D. 44. Solve the inequality 3(1 − 3x) ≥ −3 (x + 27) A. 3 ≥ x B. 7 C. 14x D. 14 ≥ x 45. Simplify the equation (3xy5)2 – 11x2y2(4y4)2 A. 176x2y10 B. -176x2y10 C. -167x2y10 D. 167x2y10 98 46. Factor the following polynomial: v4 − 13v2 – 48 A. v4 − 13v2 − 48 = (v2 + 3)(v + 4)(v − 4) B. v4 + 13v2 − 48 = (v2 + 3)(v + 4)(v − 4). C. (v + 4) = v2 − 4v + 4v − 16 = v2 – 16 D. (v − 4) = v2 − 4v + 4v − 16 = v2 – 16 47. Simplify the following radical expression: (9 )(3a ) A. 18ab2 B. 9ab C. a2b D. 27a2b 48. Which choice below has the most points? A. a line B. a line segment C. a ray D. No determination can be made. 49. Lines are always A. solid. B. finite. C. noncollinear. D. straight. 50. Collinear points A. determine a plane. B. are circular. C. are noncoplanar. D. are coplanar. 99 51. The shortest distance between any two points is A. a plane. B. a line segment. C. a ray. D. an arch. 52. Which of the following decribes the values of x for which 16 – x2 ≥ 0? A. x ≤ - 4 or x ≥ 4 B. -4 ≤ x ≤ 4 C. 0 ≤ x ≤ 4 D. x ≥ 0 53. Find the area of the rectangle below. 3 A. B. C. D. 54. If 16x + 8y represents the perimeter of a rectangle, and 5x – 2y represents its width, then its length is represented by the expression A. 3x + 2y B. 3x + 6y C. 11x + 6y D. 21x + 6y 100 55. A class contains 2 boys for every 1 girl. 75% of the boys have taken Algebra 2, whereas 50% of the girls have taken Algebra 2. What is the ratio of boys who have taken Algebra 2 to girls who have taken Algebra 2? A. 2 : 1 B. 2 : 2 C. 3 : 1 D. 3 : 2 56. A patient must take his medication every 7 hours starting at 7:00 A.M., Sunday. On what day will the patient first receive his medication at 6 P.M.? A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Wednesday D. Thursday 57. Tommy had a

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