Final Virology Assessment 2021-2022 PDF

VIROLOGY COURSE 2021-2022– USTH FINAL ASSESSMENT Time: 90 minutes Total scores: ………../80 = ………./20 Full name:………………………………..… Student ID:……………………… Class: ……………....……………...

VIROLOGY COURSE 2021-2022– USTH FINAL ASSESSMENT Time: 90 minutes Total scores: ………../80 = ………./20 Full name:………………………………..… Student ID:……………………… Class: ……………....……………….……………………………………..………. PLEASE CIRCLE THE BEST ANSWER! Question 1. According to the taxonomy of virus, the “rotavirus” is: (1 point) A. Family name B. Sub-family name C. Genus name D. Species name Question 2. Arrange the correct sequence of viral cycle (2 points) A. Attachment and penetration; Synthesis of nucleic acid and proteins; Uncoating; Release; Assembly B. Attachment and penetration; Synthesis of nucleic acid and proteins; Uncoating; Release; Assembly C. Uncoating; Attachment and penetration; Synthesis of nucleic acid and proteins; Assembly; Release D. Attachment and penetration; Uncoating; Synthesis of nucleic acid and proteins; Assembly; Release Question 3. For what reason is mRNA placed at the center of the Baltimore scheme? (1 point) A. All virus particles contain mRNA B. It is convenient due to language conventions among scientists C. All viruses must manufacture mRNA to replicate D. All viral genomes are made of mRNA Question 4. Viruses usually initiate infection by first interacting with receptors on the surface of cells. Which of the following statements is most accurate about cellular receptors for viruses? (2 points) A. Cellular receptors for viruses have no known cellular function. B. All viruses within a given family use the same cellular receptor. C. All cells in a susceptible host express the viral receptor. D. Successful infection of a cell by a virus may involve interaction with more than one type of receptor. Question 5. Once in humans, the main transmission route of SARS-CoV-2 is: (1 point) A. Blood-born transmission B. Fecal-oral transmission C. Mother to child transmission D. Respiratory transmission E. Sexual transmission F. Vector-born transmission Question 6. Measures for prevention of COVID-19 consist of, but not limited to: (1 point) A. Wearing the face mask B. Performance of hand hygiene regularly C. Keeping the social distance D. Performance of health declaration E. Not gathering F. Vaccination G. All of the choices Question 7. An epidemic of acute respiratory virus infections occurred among the elderly residents of a nursing home. Influenza viruses and coronaviruses, which can cause serious respiratory disease in the elderly, are suspected. Which of the following characteristics is shared by these viruses? (2 points) A. Segmented genome B. Negative-sense genome C. High frequency of recombination during replication D. Single serotype infects humans Question 8. Which of the following statements is NOT true? (2 points) A. Routes of transmission of HPV include mother to child, sexual contact B. High-risk HPV type is the type that infects the high-risk group such as prostitute, men who have sex with men (MSM), people who inject drugs C. Not all HPV infected individual develop cancer D. HPV is a vaccine-preventable diseases Question 9. Which virus family is responsible for cervical and genital cancers? (1 point) A. Herpesviridae B. Hepadnaviridae C. Papillomaviridae D. Poxviridae Question 10. Vaccines are available against the most common high-risk HPV types that cause genital infections. They are aimed for use in which of the following population(s)? (1 point) A. All adults, both men and women B. All female adults C. Women with precancerous cervical lesions D. All adolescents and young adults, both boys and girls E. Adolescent and young adult females Question 11. The use of live oral polio vaccine has been replaced by inactivated polio vaccine in many countries. Which of the following is the primary reason? (2 points) A. It is more cost effective to use the inactivated vaccine. B. There is a greater risk of vaccine-induced disease than wild virus-induced disease in areas where poliovirus has been eradicated. C. Only a single dose of inactivated vaccine is necessary compared with multiple doses of the oral vaccine. D. Circulating poliovirus strains have changed and the live vaccine is no longer effective in many countries. Question 12. What is the INCORRECT statement of poliovirus (1 point) A. Poliovirus is a member of the Picornaviridae family B. Poliovirus replicates in the cytoplasm C. Route of transmission of poliovirus is mainly Fecal-Oral D. 100% of polio infections progress to Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) Question 13. Which of the following virus family is segmented, double stranded RNA with double shelled capsid (1 point) A. Coronaviridae B. Hepanaviridae C. Herpesviriade D. Paramyxoviridae E. Reoviridae Question 14. Which of the following refers to the shape of the capsid of papillomavirus? (1 point) A. Mix B. Circular C. Helical D. Icosahedral (cubic) Question 15. Live, attenuated oral polio vaccine (OPV) and inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) are both available. In which one of the following situations is the use of OPV preferred? (1 point) A. Routine infant vaccination B. Mass immunization programs in areas of high poliomyelitis endemicity C. Adult immunization D. Patients who are receiving immunosuppressive therapy E. Family contacts of immunocompromised patients Question 16. Routes of transmission of rabies are the folollowings, EXCEPT: (1 point) A. Saliva B. Mucous membranes C. Aerosol transmission D. Corneal transplantations E. Mosquito-born transmission Question 17. What type of vaccine is used for prevention and prophylaxis of infection by the rabies virus (RABV)? (1 point) A. Inactivated/killed B. Live-attenuated C. Toxoid D. Subunit Question 18. From 1918 until 1956, the only subtype of influenza observed in humans was H1N1. In 1957, H1N1 was replaced by H2N2. This is an example of: (1 point) A. Phenotypic mixing B. Antigenic shift C. Antigenic drift D. Viral transformation Question 19. The mechanism of “antigenic drift” in influenza viruses includes all BUT ONE of the following: (1 point) A. Can involve either hemagglutinin or neuraminidase antigens B. Mutations caused by viral RNA polymerase C. Can predominate under selective host population immune pressures D. Reassortment between human and animal or avian reservoirs E. Can involve genes encoding structural or nonstructural proteins Question 20. What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir (Tamiflu)? (1 point) A. Directly prevents replication of the viral genome B. Prevents release of mature virions from the host cell C. Inhibits the uncoating of the virus D. Binds directly to the virus RNA polymerase active site Question 21. Which of the following statements reflects the pathogenesis of influenza? (1 point) A. The virus enters the host in airborne droplets. B. Viremia is common. C. The virus frequently establishes persistent infections in the lung. D. Pneumonia is not associated with secondary bacterial infections. E. Viral infection does not kill cells in the respiratory tract. Question 22. A male physician developed a “flulike” syndrome. To provide laboratory confirmation of influenza, a culture for the virus was ordered. Which of the following would be the best specimen for isolating the virus responsible for this infection? (2 points) A. Stool B. Nasopharyngeal swab C. Vesicle fluid D. Blood E. Saliva Question 23. Viruses belonging to which of the following groups are likely to establish latent infections? (1 point) A. Poxviruses B. Measles virus C. Herpesviruses D. Influenza viruses Question 24. A 28-year-old woman has recurrent genital herpes. Which of the following statements about genital herpes infections is true? (2 points) A. Reactivation of latent virus during pregnancy poses no threat to the newborn. B. Virus cannot be transmitted in the absence of apparent lesions. C. Recurrent episodes caused by reactivation of latent virus tend to be more severe than the primary infection. D. They can be caused by either herpes simplex virus type 1 or type 2. Question 25. A 53-year-old woman develops fever and focal neurologic signs. Magnetic resonance imaging shows a left temporal lobe lesion. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate to confirm a diagnosis of herpes simplex encephalitis in this patient? (1 point) A. Brain biopsy B. CT imazing C. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for viral DNA in cerebrospinal fluid D. Serologic test for viral IgM antibody Question 26. Which one of the following is a recommended therapy for herpes simplex virus genital infection? (1 point) A. Acyclovir B. Attenuated live virus vaccine C. Herpes immune globulin D. Ribavirin Question 27. An outbreak of a rash called “mat herpes” occurred among high school students who had competed in a wrestling tournament. Which of the following statements is most accurate? (1 point) A. The rash is not contagious among wrestlers. B. The causative agent is herpes simplex virus type 1. C. The causative agent is varicella-zoster virus.  D. Lesions typically last 1 month or longer. E. Students should be vaccinated before participating in wrestling tournaments. Question 28. Acquiring hepatitis through needle stick injury is a major occupational risk for health-care workers. Which viral causes of hepatitis could be transmitted as a result of needle stick injury? (1 points) A. Hepatitis B & Hepatitis C B. Hepatitis A & Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis A & Hepatitis B D. Hepatitis B & Hepatitis E Question 29. The genome of viruses responsible for hepatitis B is best described as...? (1 point) A. Linear, partially double-stranded DNA B. Linear, partially double-stranded RNA C. Circular, partially double-stranded DNA D. Circular, partially double-stranded RNA Question 30. HDV (delta agent) is found only in patients who have either acute or chronic infection with HBV. Which of the following is most correct? (1 point) A. HDV is a defective mutant of HBV. B. HDV depends on HBV surface antigen for virion formation. C. HDV induces an immune response indistinguishable from that induced by HBV. D. HDV is related to HCV. E. HDV contains a circular DNA genome. Question 31. Many viruses use the respiratory tract as the route of entry to initiate infections. Which of the following virus groups does not? (1 point) A. Adenovirus B. Coronavirus C. Hepadnavirus D. Paramyxovirus E. Poxvirus Question 32. Hepatitis can cause jaundice, which is characterized by: (1 point) A. Inflammation or infection of the outer membrane of the eyeball and the inner eyelid B. Loose, watery stools that occur more frequently than usual C. An accumulation of fluid in the body D. Yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes, and sclera of the eyes Question 33. Cancer viruses are classified in several virus families. Which of the following virus families contains a human cancer virus with an RNA genome? (1 point) A. Adenoviridae B. Flaviviridae C. Herpesviridae D. Hepadnaviridae E. Papillomaviridae Question 34. A 35-year-old man addicted to intravenous drugs has been a carrier of HBsAg for 10 years. He suddenly develops acute fulminant hepatitis and dies within 10 days. Which of the following laboratory tests would contribute most to diagnosis? (2 points) A. Anti-HBs antibody B. HBeAg C. Anti-HBc antibody D. Anti-delta virus antibody Question 35. Which of the following statements regarding Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) is not true? (1 point) A. HBIG provides temporary protection when administered in standard doses. B. HBIG typically is used instead of hepatitis B vaccine for postexposure immunoprophylaxis to prevent HBV infection. C. No evidence exists that HBV, HCV, or HIV have ever been transmitted by HBIG. D. HBIG is not used as protection against HCV infection. Question 36. Major structural protein (core) of an HIV-1 virion is: (1 point) A. gp41 B. p24 C. gp34 D. gp140 Question 37. Which human cell type is primarily infected with Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), and the level of which is used to monitor responsiveness to antiretroviral therapy? (1 point) A. Monocyte B. Dendritic cell C. B cell D. CD4+ T cell Question 38. Which of the following investigations provides a quantitative estimate of the viral load in an individual infected by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? (1 point) A. Peripheral blood CD4+ T cell count B. Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) D. Western blot Question 39. The paramyxoviruses include the most important causes of respiratory infections in infants and young children. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of paramyxoviruses? (1 point) A. Genome is negative-sense RNA. B. Envelope contains a glycoprotein with fusion activity. C. Genome is segmented D. Replication cycle occurs in cytoplasm of susceptible cells. Question 40. Post COVID-19 conditions are best defined as a winde range of _________ health problems that people can experience  4 weeks after infected with SARS-CoV-2 (1 points) A. Only new B. Only returning C. Only ongoing D. Only new and returning E. Only new and ongoing F. Only returning and ongoing G. New, returning or ongoing Question 41. Viruses formed with a nucleic acid-packed capsid surrounded by a lipid layer are called _________ viruses. (1 point) A. Enveloped B. Non-enveloped Question 42. Cytokine storm in COVID-19 is best defined as “the immune response _________”. (1 point) A. is less than less than it should be B. is perfectly enough as it should be C. is more than it should be D. has nothing to do with it (the cytokine storm) Case study 1. A 34-year-old nurse with recent onset of malaise is found to have the following set of laboratory findings: Anti-HAV IgM positive Anti-HBsAg positive Anti-HAV IgG negative HBsAg negative HBeAg negative Anti-HBcAg negative Anti-HBeAg negative Anti-HCV negative Question 43. This patient most likely recently had: (10 points) A. Oysters at a restaurant B. A tattoo Case study 2. A 49-year-old man visited a neurologist after 2 days of increasing right arm pain and paresthesias. The neurologist diagnosed an atypical neuropathy. The symptoms increased and were accompanied by hand spasms and sweating on the right side of the face and trunk. The patient was admitted to the hospital the day after developing dysphagia, hypersalivation, agitation, and generalized muscle twitching. Vital signs and blood tests were normal, but within hours the patient became confused. The consulting neurologist suspected rabies. Rabies immune globulin, vaccine, and acyclovir were administered. The patient was placed on mechanical ventilation the following day. Renal failure developed, and the patient died 3 days later. Rabies test results were positive. The patient’s wife reported the patient had suffered no bites by dogs or wild animals. Question 44. The most likely explanation for treatment failure is (5 points) A. The rabies test results were falsely positive and the patient did not have rabies. B. Treatment was initiated after the onset of clinical symptoms of rabies. C. The vaccine was directed against dog rabies and the patient was infected with bat rabies. D. The rabies immune globulin should not have been administered as it interfered with the vaccine. E. Interferons - and not the treatment regimen administered - are the treatment of choice once rabies symptoms develop. Question 45. What is the best diagnostic test to perform on the patient to rule in rabies as a cause of his illness? (5 points) A. Detection of serum anti-rabies antibody B. Culture of cerebrospinal fluid for virus C. Direct fluorescent antibody stain of a biopsy from the nape of the neck D. Brain biopsy E. Cerebrospinal fluid anti-rabies antibody Question 46. Each of the following statements concerning rabies and rabies virus is correct, EXCEPT (5 points) A. The virus has a lipoprotein envelope and single-stranded RNA as its genome. B. The virus has a single antigenic type (serotype). C. In Vietnam, dogs are the most common reservoir. D. Incubation period is usually long (several weeks) rather than short (several days). E. Typical histopathology of rabies is Koilocytes. Question 47. The histopathological test showed the abnormality of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in neurons composed of rabies virus proteins and viral ribonucleoprotein in hippocampus and cerebellum. That is: (5 points) A. Koilocytes B. Negri bodies C. Ground Grass Inclusion (GGI) made of too much of HBsAg D. None of the choices