Question bank- Unit-1- General Micrbiology and Systematic Bacteriology.pdf

QUESTION BANK IN GEENRAL AND SYSTEMATIC BACTERIOLOGY (VMC Unit-I) Q. No. 1. Fill in the blanks Marks: 10 × 0.5 = (5) 1. Germ theory of disease causation was propounded by ________________________. 2. Edward Jenner discovered _________________...

QUESTION BANK IN GEENRAL AND SYSTEMATIC BACTERIOLOGY (VMC Unit-I) Q. No. 1. Fill in the blanks Marks: 10 × 0.5 = (5) 1. Germ theory of disease causation was propounded by ________________________. 2. Edward Jenner discovered __________________________. 3. Louis Pasteur developed the methods of ____________________________. 4. ___________________________ was the first person to see a living microorganism in 1670s. 5. Using the flasks with ‘swan neck’ during 1850s, Louis Pasteur conclusively disproved the theory of _____________________ of life. 6. John Tyndall and F. Cohn in late 19th century discovered the method of _________________________. 7. Joseph Lister introduced the use of _______________________ for antiseptic surgery. 8. ____________________________ discovered ‘phagocytosis’ as cell-mediated immunity. 9. Paul Ehrlich introduced _____________________ for treating infectious diseases. 10. _________________ was discovered by Alexander Flemming in 1929. 11. Five ‘kingdoms’ classification of living organisms was proposed by _______________ in 1969. 12. Three ‘domain’ classification of living organisms was proposed by ________________ in 1990. 13. Escherichia coli belongs to the family ____________________. 14. Staphylococcus aureus belongs to the phylum _________________. 15. Salmonella typhimurium belongs to the class __________________. 16. Viruses that infect bacteria are called _____________________. 17. Acellular microorganisms include viruses, viroids, virusoids and _________________. 18. Approximate resolving power of the oil-immersion lens (with 450 nm light) is __________. 19. Resolving power of electromagnetic lens of the transmission electron microscope is ______________. 20. Resolving power of electromagnetic lens of the scanning electron microscope is ___________. 21. Bright field microscope works on the principle of ______________of light. 22. In dark-field microscope, only _________________ light from the specimen reaches the objective lens. 23. In phase-contrast microscope, _______________ and the phase plate create the phase contrast of the internal structures of the image. 24. A combination of ocular micrometer and ___________________ is used for micrometry. 25. Long rods of bacteria that are twisted into flexible spirals are called _______________. 26. Bacterial rods arranged in long chains are called __________________. 27. Spherical bacteria arranged as irregular grape-like clusters are called ________________. 28. Corynebacteria are variable in shape and called ______________________ bacteria. 29. Actinomycetes spp. are __________________ and branching bacteria. 30. Bacteria having a tuft of flagella at poles are called _____________________. 31. Clostridium tetani produce endospores in the mother cell that appears as ______________. 32. Both Bacillus spp. and Clostridium spp. produce ___________________ under unfavorable conditions. 33. __________________________ is the smallest known bacterium. 34. Both capsule and slime layer are collectively called _____________________. 35. Bacillus anthracis capsule is composed of __________________________. 36. Streptococcus pneumoniae capsule is composed mainly of ____________________. 37. Bacterial biofilms are composed of _______________________. 38. Helical filament of flagella is composed on a single protein subunits, called ___________________. 39. Hook connects the filament to the motor part of the flagellum, called ________________________. 40. Pili responsible for transfer of DNA from donor to recipient cells are called ________________. 41. Fimbriae are used for _________________ of bacteria on host cell surfaces or matrix. 42. Cell wall of eubacteria is distinct from fungi in having ______________________. 43. Penicillin treatment in G-ve bacteria creates ____________________. 44. Mycobacteria cell walls have _______________________ anchored in the cell membrane. 45. Chitin is present in cell walls of __________________ and insects. 46. Beta-glucans are present in the cell wall of ________________. 47. Gram-negative bacteria possess ________________________ in their outer membranes that has endotoxic activity. 48. Teichoic acid is present in the cell wall of ________________________. 49. Bacillus subtilis can be converted into _____________ by penicillin treatment under isotonic conditions. 50. Bacterial chromosome is located in the irregularly shaped region known as _____________. 51. __________________ are extrachromosomal autonomously replicating DNA in bacteria. 52. Bacteriophages can transfer DNA from one bacterium to another by the process, called ______________________. 53. Bacterial ribosomes are of ____________ size. 54. _________________________ are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphates. 55. FtsZ (tubulin) and _______________ are homologues of cytoskeletal proteins of eukaryotes also found in prokaryotes. 56. The vegetative cells of Clostridium spp. under environmental stresses produce metabolically inactive or dormant form, called __________________. 57. Endospores are at __________________ by wet heat treatment. 58. Carbon is obtained in form of ________________ in carbon ‘autotrophs’. 59. Carbon is obtained from breakdown products (glucose and others) of polymeric organic compounds in ____________________. 60. Lactobacilli are fermentative bacteria, but are _______________________. 61. The organisms that grow in the absence of O2, which is toxic for them, are called ___________________. 62. Blood agar is an example of ________________________ media. 63. Selenite F broth for ___________________ media for salmonellae isolation from fecal samples. 64. Mannitol salt agar is a ____________________ media for Staphylococcus aureus. 65. McConkey’s lactose agar differentiates between _____________ and ___________________. 66. Amies medium is a _____________________ media for fastidious organisms, including mycoplasma. 67. _______________________ is an assay media for antibiotics. 68. Robertson cooked meat medium is for culture of _______________________ bacteria. 69. Urea-producing soil bacteria prefer slightly __________ pH for growth on media. 70. Fungi prefer pH____________ for growth on laboratory media. 71. _____________________ is an extreme thermophile optimally growing above 65°C. 72. ______________ or methylene blue is used as indicator for reduced culture media for growth of anaerobic bacteria. 73. Vast majority of microorganisms are _________________________ (nutritional type) for their energy and hydrogen-donor requirements. 74. Total bacterial counts can be done using ______________ opacity tubes. 75. Koch’s pour-plate method is used for _____________________ counting. 76. Streak plate method can be used for ______________________ isolation of aerobic bacteria. 77. Generation time for E. coli strains under standard conditions is _________ min. 78. Presence of two or more substrates for different enzymes can affect the shape of bacterial growth curve into a _______________ lag phase. 79. The _________________________ begins when the bacterial cells no longer reproduce. 80. Microbes on skin and mucosal surfaces are called ______________________ on the host species. 81. __________________ is a disturbed relationship among the interacting species of the living organisms. 82. Normal microbiota are ________________________ symbionts inhabiting various anatomic sites of all healthy hosts (animals and humans) under normal living conditions. 83. The microorganisms that live on dead and decaying organic matter are called _____________________. 84. With respect to transmission of an infectious agent, the ________________________ period is the duration of time between exposure to an agent and the onset of infectiousness. 85. ________________________ carriers occur when the period of infectiousness extends beyond the period of clinical illness. 86. ____________________ is a host in which the parasite reproduces sexually. 87. __________________ are inanimate objects that serve as intermediates between the infected host and the susceptible host. 88. The nasal cavity and turbinates trap ______________% of particulate matter, approximately 3 to 5 µm or greater in diameter. 89. Fomites of approximately __________________ in diameter can be inhaled into bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli. 90. Target cells, such as skin and mucosal epithelium are part of the __________________ defense. 91. Hospital-acquired infections are known as _________________________ infections. 92. Transplacental or transovarial infections are examples of ________________ mode of transmission of infectious diseases. 93. Vector-borne or air-borne infections involve __________________ mode of transmission of infectious diseases. 94. Invasion and spread of the pathogen in the body is mediated by __________________ trafficking. 95. The ability of the pathogen to invade the tissue(s) of a susceptible host is called ____________. 96. The degree of damage to host caused by a microbe is called _______________________. 97. The ability of a pathogen to cause disease in the infected host is called __________________. 98. Bacterial _____________________ factors are molecules expressed by the bacterial pathogen that influence interactions between bacteria and target cells and/or substances in the host. 99. Endotoxins are released from ______________________ bacteria. 100. Lipoteichoic acid is released from ___________________________ bacteria. 101. Exotoxins are secreted by living _______________________ bacteria. 102. S. aureus α-hemolysin is a ______________ exotoxin. 103. E. coli enterotoxins cause dysfunction of __________________ of intestinal mucosal epithelium. 104. Clostridium perfringens α-toxin has _______________________ activity to cause cell lysis. 105. C. botulinum neurotoxin cleaves _________________ protein to block neurotransmission.  106. The type III secretion system of Salmonella spp. acts as a __________________ to inject virulence factors in the host cell. 107. The antibiotic resistance genes are transferred between and among bacteria of related and different genera by vertical and ______________________ mechanisms. 108. Bacillus anthracis capsule is composed of __________________________. 109. Actinobacillus lignieresi produces ____________________ and greyish-white granules in the pus from the infected animal tissue. 110. Staphylococcus aureus _________________ correlates with pathogenicity. 111. Haemphilus spp. requires growth factors: i). the heat-stable __________________ and the heat- labile factor V. 112. Hemoglobinuria (red water) in calves is caused by pathogenic Leptospira serovars ______________________, Grippotyphosa and Pomona. 113. ________________ are the vectors for transmission of Anaplasma marginale infection in cattle. 114. Streptococcus agalactiae belongs to Lancefield group ____________. 115. ____________________ skin test is done for diagnosis of bovine paratuberculosis. 116. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a well-known ________________-producing organism in the pus and infected skin in sheep. 117. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia (CBPP) is caused by _____________________________. 118. Bovine hemorrhagic septicemia in India is caused by Pasteurella multocida serotype ________. 119. Borrelia burgdorferi causes ______________________ in dogs and humans. 120. Streptococcus pneumoniae capsule is composed mainly of ____________________. 121. _________________________ is the causative agent of black-leg disease in calves. 122. Mallein is a skin reaction test for diagnosis of ________________________ in horses. 123. ‘Pink eye’ in bovines is primarily caused by __________________ 124. Leptospires are present in ______________________ in carrier mammals, excreted in urine. 125. Coxiella burnetii can be cultivated in __________________ in vitro. Q. No. 2. Multiple choice questions: Tick the most appropriate answer Marks: 10 × 0.5 = (5) 1. One of the following is not a microorganism a E. coli b Aspergillus fumigatus ascocarp c Candida albicans d Staphylococcus aureus e None of the above 2. Following is true of microorganisms a All are autotrophs b All are pathogens c All are aerobes d All are mesophiles e None of the above 3. All are microbiologists, except a Robert Koch b Louis Pasteur c Paul Ehrlich d Alexander Flemming e Antonnie van Leuwenhoek 4. The smallest of the following microorganisms a Micrococcus spp. b Bacillus anthracis c Actinomyces spp. d Candida auris e Mycoplasma genitalum 5. Following are virulence factors, except a Fimbriae b Capsule c Peptidoglycan d Teichoic acid e Exotoxins 6. Direct mode of transmission of the infectious agent a Contact between the infected and the susceptible host b Transplacental transmission from dam to fetus c Droplet nuclei d Aerosols e Animal bite 7. Commensals can become ‘opportunist pathogens’, when a Prolonged antibiotic treatment causes ‘dysbiosis’ b Immunosuppression of host occurs c Animal is subjected to environmental stress d There is malnutrition e All of the above 8. Bacterial nutritional types are based on a Carbon source utilization b Energy source conversion c Hydrogen-donor source d b and c only e All of the above 9. Bacterial capsule a Is a virulence factor b Resists phagocytosis c Made of polysaccharide in most bacteria d Revealed by negative staining e All of the above 10. Batch culture of bacteria is used for a Growth curve of the bacterial strain b Construction of bacterial vaccine c Identification of bacteria d Biochemical testing of bacteria e Production of bacterial spores 11. Portals of entry of infectious agents a Skin b Ingestion c Injection/hematogenous d Inhalation e All of the above 12. Staphylococcus aureus a Has multi-layered peptidoglycan in the cell wall b Gram-positive grape-like clusters of cocci c Catalase-positive d Belongs to phylum Bacillota e All of the above 13. All are used to study various microorganisms, except a Dark-field microscope b Atomic force microscope c Transmission electron microscope d Fluorescent microscope e Bright-field microscope 14. Bacteria and fungi are distinguished on the basis of a Nuclear structure b Cell wall composition c Ribosome composition d Mode of reproduction e All of the above 15. Following structures are external to cell wall in bacteria a Flagella b Capsule c Endospore d Pili e Biofilm 16. Bacterial endotoxin is a Part of lipopolysaccharide b Heat labile c Secreted by Gram-negative organisms d Detoxified to make vaccine e LD50< 1-2 pg/kg body weight 17. Lag phase of bacterial growth in ‘batch culture’ is influenced by a Substrates in the medium b Age of the inoculum culture c Incubation conditions d None of the above e All of the above 18. Total bacterial counts are done by a Brown’s opacity tubes b Petroff-Hauser chamber c Coulter counter d None of the above e All of the above 19. Normal microflora have essential roles in the host a Development of mucosal immune system b Defense of skin and mucosal surfaces c Influence on the vaccination outcomes d Influence on metabolic and physiological traits e All of the above 20. Escherichia coli is a a Gram-negative bacteria b Belongs to family Enterobacteriaceae c Gut commensal d Some pathogenic strains produce enterotoxins e All of the above 21. Plasmids are a Extrachromosomal DNA b Autonomously replicating c Encode virulence factors d Exchanged between bacterial species e All of the above 22. Properties shared by all bacteria a Cell wall b 70S ribosomes c Flagella d Capsule e Chemo-organotrophs 23. Selective growth media for bacteria a Mannitol salt agar b Brain-Heart infusion broth c Nutrient agar d Mueller-Hinton agar e Peptone water 24. Septicemia is a condition characterized by a Bacteria in blood circulation b Host’s systemic responses against virulence factors released by bacteria while multiplying in the blood c Exotoxins in circulation d None of the above e All of the above 25. Staphylococcus aureus causes a Mastitis in various animal species b Bumble foot in poultry c Post-surgical systemic infections d a and c only e All of the above 26. Major mastitis-associated streptococci a S. agalactiae b S. dysgalactiae subsp. dysgalactiae c S. uberis d None of the above e All of the above 27. Set of skin tests used for diagnosis of infectious diseases a Tuberculin & Johnin b Histoplasmin & Coccidioidin c Mallein & Brucellin d a and c only e All of the above 28. Invasive Salmonella serotypes of major importance in human and animals a S. Dublin, S. Typhi & S. Typhimurium b S. Pullorum, S. Newport & S. Enteritidis c S. Anatum, S. Kentucky & S. Montevideo d All of the above e None of the above 29. Bacteria associated with atrophic rhinitis in pigs a Bordetella bronchiseptica b Toxigenic Pasteurella multocida serotype A c Toxigenic Pasteurella multocida serotype D d All of the above e None of the above 30. Dark-field microscopy and fluorescent antibody technique are used for a Leptospira interrogans b Brachyspira hyopneumoniae c Borrelia burgdorferi d All of the above e a and c only 31. Pathogenic bacterial genera that produce conidia (spores) a Actinomyces & Corynebacteria b Dermatophilus & Nocardia c Salmonella & Proteus d All of the above e None of the above 32. Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica serotypes a Classified according to the Kauffmann-White scheme b >2500 are recognized c Are epidemiologically important d a and b only e All of the above 33. Pasteurella multocida serotype A is associated with a ‘Shipping fever’ in cattle b Fowl cholera in poultry c Atrophic rhinitis in pigs d All of the above e None of the above 34. Plasmid-encoded virulence factors of Bacillus anthracis a Lethal toxin b Edema toxin c Poly D-glutamate capsule d a and b only e All of the above 35. Chlamydiae can be grown in a Cell lines b Embryonated chicken eggs c Enriched bacteriological media d a and b only e None of the above 36. Coagulase-positive staphylococci a S. aureus b S. pseudointermedius c S. delphini d S. schleiferi e All of the above 37. IMViC test is mainly used for differentiation of members of family a Actinomycetaceae b Enterobacteriaceae c Streptococcaceae d Clostridiaceae e None of the above 38. Glanders is a A disease of Equids b Caused by Burkholderia mallei c Respiratory (pulmonary and nasal catarrah) or the skin forms (farcy) d A notifiable disease in the OIE list e All of the above  39. Leptospires can be seen in the histopathological tissue sections a Dark-field microscopy and fluorescent antibody technique b Silver impregnation and immunoperoxidase staining c Phase contrast microscopy and Gram staining d a and b only e All of the above 40. M’Fadyean reaction is to see a Bacillus anthracis capsule in infected blood smear b Streptococcus pyogenes capsule in pus smear c Cryptococcus neoformans capsule in culture d None of the above e All of the above Q. No. 3. Matching questions Marks: 10 × 0.5 = (5) S. No. Term/Phrase S. No. Term/Phrase 1 Antonnie van Leuwenhoek Endotoxin 2 Dark- field microscope Mycobacterium tuberculosis culture 3 Black disease Mutualists and commensals 4 Three Domain classification of organisms Animalcules under microscope 5 Lipid A Clostridium novyi type B 6 Lowenstein-Jensen Media Woese et al. (1990) 7 Rumen microflora Spirochaetes and flagellar motility 8 Bordetella bronchiseptica Bacillus anthracis 9 Bovine brucellosis diagnosis Fluorescence polarization assay 10 ‘Medusa head’ colonies Pertactin & dermo-necrotoxin S. No. Term/Phrase S. No. Term/Phrase 1 Seven kingdom classification of organisms First fowl cholera vaccine 2 Unfixed living organisms Burkholderia mallei 3 Glanders Cavalier-Smith (2015) 4 IMViC (-/+/-/+) Phase contrast microscopy 5 Mannitol salt agar Gram-negative bacterial cell wall 6 Lipopolysaccharide Selective-cum-differential medium 7 Circling disease in sheep Siderophores 8 Virulence factor Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica 9 Strangles in horses Streptococcus equi subsp. equi 10 Louis Pasteur Listeria monocytogenes S. No. Term/Phrase S. No. Term/Phrase 1 Robert Koch Virulence factor 2 pXO1 Germ theory of disease causation 3 Biofilm Pasteurella multocida serotype A 4 Fowl cholera Lethal toxin 5 F pili Selective medium 6 16S rRNA DNA transfer by conjugation 7 Pasteurella multocida B:2 Anaplasma & Ehrlichia 8 Ticks as main vectors Phylogenetic relationships  9 Eosin-methylene blue agar Bovine hemorrhagic septicemia in Asia 10 Housefly Mechanical vector for shigellosis S. No. Term/Phrase S. No. Term/Phrase 1 Anaerobe Chemotherapy 2 Chain of cocci Cell wall absent 3 Fowl typhoid Clostridium spp. 4 Actinomyces bovis Streptococci 5 Mollicutes Salmonella Gallinarum 6 Paul Ehrlich Sulphur granules in pus 7 Transmission electron microscopy Molecular syringe 8 Dipicolinic acid Internal structure of cells 9 Type III secretion system Bacillus anthracis endospore 10 Enterotoxins Ion pump dysregulation S. No. Term/Phrase S. No. Term/Phrase 1 Bovine brucellosis diagnosis Three domain classification (1990) 2 16S rRNA sequencing Johne’s disease 3 Pink colonies on McConkey’s lactose agar Enterobacteria 4 Clostridium perfringens type C Lactose fermenter enterobacteria 5 Peritrichous flagella Mycobacteria 6 Dienes’ staining Enterotoxemia in sheep 7 Lipoarabinomannan Enrichment medium for salmonella 8 Selenite F broth Rose Bengal plate agglutination test 9 Enterotoxigenic E. coli Mycoplasma microcolonies 10 Mycobacterium avium subsp. Heat labile toxin (LT) & K88 paratuberculosis Q. No. 4. Definitions/Justifications/Explanations/Diagrams/Formulae/Equations/Enumerate Marks: 10 × 1 = (10) a). Definitions: i. Microbiology ii. Microorganism iii. Commensal iv. Symbiont v. Prokaryote vi. Archaea vii. Chemoorganotroph viii. Heterotroph ix. Chemolithotroph x. Assay media xi. Enrichment media xii. Transport media xiii. Club colony xiv. Spirochaete xv. Tuberculin xvi. Biofilm xvii. Chlamydia reticulate bodies  xviii. CAMP reaction xix. Chlamydia reticulate bodies xx. Nagler’s reaction b). Justify the statement: i. Gram-positive bacteria are killed by penicillin more efficiently than Gram-negative bacteria. ii. Mycoplasma are resistant to penicillin. iii. Primary stain in mycobacteria cannot be decolorized by acid-alcohol. iv. Primary stain in Gram-positive bacteria is not decolorized by alcohol or ether. v. Primary stain in Gram-negative bacteria is decolorized by alcohol or ether. vi. The opportunist pathogens are becoming important now-a-days. vii. ‘Low- and middle- income countries’ are the ‘hotspots’ of emerging new pathogens. viii. Bacterial pili as well as capsule are virulence factors. ix. Actinomyces bovis is a branched filamentous bacterium, not a fungus. x. Gravid uterus is a site of predilection for Brucella abortus. xi. Streptococcus agalactiae is used to confirm beta-hemolysis of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar plate. xii. Haemophilus parasuis grows best on chocolate agar at 37°C in 5-10% CO2. xiii. Infection with Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis could produce either paucibacillary or multibacillary forms of disease. xiv. Gut is a site for exchange of antibiotic resistant genes among bacteria. c). Write the equations/formula: i. Abbe’s equation ii. Exponential growth of bacteria iii. The generation time of bacteria iv. The size of bacteria using micrometry calibration factor v. Total magnification of microscope d). Draw diagrams: i. Gram-positive cell wall structure ii. Gram-negative cell wall structure iii. Mycobacterium cell wall structure iv. Yeast cell wall structure v. Bacterial endospore vi. Developmental cycle of Chlamydia psittaci vii. Mycoplasma mycoides microcolonies on solid media Q. No. 5. Differentiate between Marks: 4 × 2.5 = (10) i. Bacterial cell wall and yeast cell wall ii. Gram-positive bacterial cell wall and Gram-negative bacterial cell wall iii. Mycobacterium spp. cell wall and Gram-positive cell wll iv. Bacterial endospores and Fungal spores v. Bacterial endotoxin and Bacterial exotoxin vi. Bacterial exotoxin and Mycotoxins vii. Nutrient agar and McConkey’s lactose agar viii. Selective media and Differential media ix. Enrichment media and Enriched media x. Bacterial flagella and Bacterial pili  xi. Biological vector and Mechanical vector xii. Bacterial pathogenicity and Bacterial virulence xiii. Bacteremia and Septicemia xiv. Antitoxin and Toxoid xv. Endemic and Epidemic xvi. Incidence and Prevalence xvii. Bovine Actinomycosis and Bovine Actinobacillosis xviii. Elementary bodies and Reticulate bodies of Chlamydia xix. Equine strangles and Equine glanders xx. Tetanospasmin and botulinum neurotoxin Q. No. 5b. Short notes: Marks: 4 × 2.5 = (10) i. Colibacillosis ii. Enterotoxemia-causing clostridia iii. Virulence factors of Staphylococcus spp. iv. Serological tests for diagnosis of Brucella abortus infection in bovines. v. Laboratory diagnosis of anthrax vi. Occupationally hazardous bacteria vii. Lancefield classification of streptococci viii. Kauffmann-White serological scheme for Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica ix. Virulence factors of Bacillus anthracis x. Pathogenesis of Listeria monocytogenes xi. Pathogenesis of Streptococcus equi subsp. equi xii. Biochemical differentiation of Enterobacteriaceae genera xiii. Mastitis causing major bacterial species xiv. Obligate intracellular bacteria xv. Bacterial pathogens that cause abortion in animals Q. No. 6. Describe in detail (any one): Marks: 1 × 5 = (5) i. Bacterial growth behavior in batch cultures ii. Pure culture isolation of bacteria iii. Growth conditions and nutritional types of bacteria iv. Describe pathogenesis, diagnostic tests and diseases caused by the pathogenic (tuberculous) mycobacteria group. v. Classify anaerobic bacterial pathogens and describe briefly diseases caused by various histotoxic clostridia. vi. Describe serotyping of Pasteurella multocida and the diseases caused by various serotypes. vii. Classify E. coli on the basis of their target sites and diseases caused, and also mention their major virulence factors.