Organic Chemistry and Laboratory Technology PDF

Organic Chemistry and Laboratory Technology 1. Which of the following LEAST describes an organic compound? A. It always comes from a living source. B. It is composed of covalently bonded carbon atoms. C. Light molecular weight compounds are combustible. D. None of the above. 2. The vital force the...

Organic Chemistry and Laboratory Technology 1. Which of the following LEAST describes an organic compound? A. It always comes from a living source. B. It is composed of covalently bonded carbon atoms. C. Light molecular weight compounds are combustible. D. None of the above. 2. The vital force theory was disproved by the synthesis of which compound? A. ethanol B. cyanide C. urea D. ammonia 3. What is the hybridization of the carbonyl carbon in acetone, CH₃COCH₃? A. sp B. sp2 C. sp3 D. sp3d2 4. What is the correct order of bonds 1, 2 and 3 according to increasing bond length? A. 3, 2, 1 B. 2, 1, 3 C. 1, 2, 3 D. 1=2, 3 5. What is the type of bond that exists between C11 and Cl? A. polar covalent B. non-polar covalent C. polar coordinate covalent D. non-polar coordinate covalent 6. What is the degree of unsaturation of the compound below? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 7. The functional group at C5 is a/an A. ether B. ester C. keto group D. hydroxy group 8. The alkyl group attached to C12 is A. methyl B. ethyl C. propyl D. butyl 9. Which of the following is NOT a constitutional isomer with the others? A. cyclohexene B. 3-methylpentene C. 2-hexyne D. 1-hexene 10. Which of the following is a pair of stereoisomers? A. 2-octene and 3-octene B. D-glucose and L-gulose C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene D. hexanoic acid and heptanoic acid 11. What is the common name for ethenylbenzene? A. styrene B. cumene C. xylene D. limonene 12. What is the IUPAC name of the given compound? A. 8-ethyl-2,2-dimethyl-5-propyldecane B. 2,2-dimethyl-8-ethyl-5-propyldecane C. 3-ethyl-9,9-dimethyl-6-propyldecane D. 9,9-dimethyl-3-ethyl-6-propyldecane 13. What is the IUPAC name of the given compound? A. ethyl propanoate B. propyl ethanoate C. methyl butanoate D. butyl methanoate 14. Which of the following is NOT an aliphatic compound? A. neopentane B. cycloheptane C. 3-heptyne D. xylene 15. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing boiling point? A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol B. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane < butanone < butanol C. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanol < butanone D. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane < butanol < butanone 16. Which of the following solvents will butyric acid be most soluble? A. CCl4 B. water C. hexane D. CH₂Cl₂ 17. Among the ortho, meta and para isomers of xylene, which has the highest boiling point? A. ortho-xylene B. meta-xylene C. para-xylene D. ortho-xylene and para-xylene 18. Which is the most acidic among the following compounds? A. CH₃OH B. C₆H₅OH C. CH₃COOH D. (CH₃)₃COH 19. Which functional group is directly responsible for the flavors present in wine? A. ester B. ether C. alcohol D. anhydride 20. Which of the following is NOT a reagent for hydrogenation of an alkyne? A. H₂/Pd-C B. H2/Lindlar C. Na/NH₃ D. BH₃/H₂O₂, NaOH 21. Which alkyl halide will most readily react in SN1 reactions? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. can be any 22. Select the mechanism by which the reaction below will occur. A. SN1 B. SN2 C. E1 D. E2 23. What is the name of the compound given below? A. benzylmagnesium bromide B. phenylmagnesium bromide C. benzylicmagnesium bromide D. ethylphenylmagnesium bromide 24. Which of the following compounds is NOT produced from oxidation of alkenes? A. ester B. ketone C. carboxylic acid D. carbon dioxide 25. What is the product from the Friedel-Crafts alkylation of nitrobenzene? A. ortho-nitrotoluene B. meta-nitrotoluene C. para-nitrotoluene D. ortho-nitrotoluene and para-nitrotoluene 26. An unknown alcohol was reacted with the Lucas reagent and the observation was the immediate appearance of turbidity. Which type of alcohol was the unknown? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. can be any 27. Pyridinium cholorochromate (PCC) is a mild oxidizing agent. What is the product formed when 1-butanol reacts with PCC? A. butanal B. 2-butanone C. butanoic acid D. tert-butanol 28. How many different alcohols have the molecular formula C₄H₁₀O? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5 29. What Is the hybridization of the carbon atom in a carboxyl group? A. sp B. sp3 C. sp2 D. dsp3 30. The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the for this compound? A. C₄H₈O₂ B. C₄H₁₀O C. C₅H₁₀O₂ D. C₅H₁₂O 31. A stable light source in AAS analysis, which is necessary to emit the sharp characteristic spectrum of the element to be determined is called A. Tungsten Lamp B. Hollow Cathode Lamp C. Deuterium Lamp D. Nerst Blower 32. A food scientist has a sample of a plant oil and wants to determine if the oil contains saturated or unsaturated fatty adds. Which of the following techniques would most useful for this purpose? A. Mass Spectroscopy B. Ultraviolet Spectroscopy C. Infrared Spectroscopy D. Visible Spectroscopy 33. A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte is A. Absorbance chart B. Calibration curve C. Quality control chart D. none of the above 34. The most appropriate technique to determine levels or the Pb²⁺ ion in blood is A. atomic absorption spectroscopy B. mass spectrometry C. infrared spectroscopy D. high-performance liquid chromatography 35. Cuvettes made of this material are required when working at a wavelength below 300 nm where other materials show a significant absorption. A. quartz B. plastic C. sodium chloride D. potassium bromide 36. Which of the following shows the correct path of light travel in a spectrophotometer? A. monochromator – source – sample – detector B. source – monochromator – sample – detector C. monochromator – source – detector – sample D. source – monochromator – detector – sample 37. What is the funnel used in suction filtration? A. filter funnel B. dropping funnel C. thistle funnel D. Büchner funnel 38. What is the apparatus/glassware indicated by the arrow in the set-up? A. reboiler B. condenser C. hot water tube D. cold water tube 39. The set-up given below is used to A. filter impurities B. heat a reaction mixture under reflux C. perform fractional distillation D. perform boiling point determination 40. This is done during liquid-liquid extraction to release the pressure build up inside the separatory funnel during shaking. A. stirring B. venting C. drawing D. salting out 41. This method of distillation is suitable when the components of a mixture to be separated are thermal-sensitive and could decompose at high temperatures. A. steam distillation B. simple distillation C. fractional distillation D. none of the above 42. Which of the following can be done to purify a synthesized solid product? A. extraction B. distillation C. recrystallization D. chromatography 43. In a calibration curve, absorbance is plotted against the _________ of an analyte. A. pH B. volume C. concentration D. redox potential 44. In this chromatographic method, the sample may be gas or liquid injected into a gaseous mobile phase. A. gas chromatography B. affinity chromatography C. thin layer chromatography D. high pressure liquid chromatography 45. It is the more common form of high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) where the stationary phase is nonpolar and the mobile phase is polar. A. affinity B. exclusion C. normal-phase D. reversed-phase 46. What is the most appropriate type of container to be used for acid and base wastes? A. metal drums B. fiber drums C. polyethylene drums D. tightly-sealed glass container 47. It is the highest concentration of a substance in the air that will produce a fire or explosion when source of ignition such as heat, spark or flame is present. A. lower flammable limit B. upper flammable limit C. reactivity limit D. flash limit 48. In an MSDS Data Sheet, which of the following color symbolizes reactivity? A. blue B. red C. yellow D. white 49. According to the GHS, which of the following is not under the pictogram “Gas Cylinder”? A. compressed gas B. dissolved gas C. liquefied gas D. explosive gas 50. According to the GHS, which of the following is referred to by this symbol? A. oxidizers B. flammable materials C. explosives D. corrosives